BASIC PRINCIPLE OF ECOLOGY

1. It is the scientific of the study of the distribution and abundance of life and the
interactions between organisms and their environment

a. Environmental study
b. Ecology
c. Ecosystem
d. Environmentalism

B. ECOLOGY

2. “Ecology” is often used more loosely in such terms in common parlance as a synonym
for the word

a. Natural environment
b. Ecological balance
c. Green technology
d. Bio-eco system

A. NATURAL ENVIRONMENT

3. It is the biological environment consisting of all the organisms living in a particular

area, as well as all the nonliving, physical components of the environment.

a. Environments
b. Ecosystem
c. Environmental system
d. Bio-eco system

B. ECOSYSTEM

4. The major regional groupings of plants & animals discernible at a global scale
composed not only of the climax vegetation, but also of associated successional
communities, subclimax communities, fauna, and soils

a. Biomes
b. Bio environment
c. Ecological environment
d. Biotic environment

A. BIOMES

5. It refers to the non living elements and physical components of the environment

a. Inert elements
b. Biotic
c. Ecological environment
d. Biotic environment

C. ABIOTIC

6. The government agency tasked to protect the environment and natural resources of the
country

a. Department of Environment
b. Department of Environment and National Resources
c. Department of Ecology
d. Department of Environment and Natural Resources

B. DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENT AND NATIONAL RESOURCES

7. The process that involves predicting and evaluation the likely impacts of a project

a. Impact study
b. Environmental study
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental evaluation assessment

C. ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT

8. A certificate issued to which the Proponent conforms with by signing the sworn
undertaking of full responsibility over implementation of specified measures which are
necessary to comply with existing environmental regulations

a. Environmental Compliance Conformity

b. Environmental compliance certificate
c. Affidavit of compliance
d. Affidavit of environmental measures

B. ENVIRONMENTAL COMPLIANCE CERTIFICATE

9. The law that governs the protection of the environment, particularly covering the
pollution control of the atmosphere in the country

a. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999

b. The Philippine Atmosphere Regulation Act
c. The Philippine Clean Atmosphere Act of 1999
d. The Philippine Air and Atmosphere Clean Act

A. THE PHILIPPINE CLEAN AIR ACT OF 1999

10. The certificate issued by the EMB certifying that, based on the submitted project
description, the project is not covered by the EIS System and is not required to secure an
environmental compliance certificate or ECC

a. Certificate of ECC Exemption

b. Certificate of Non-Coverage
c. Certificate of Coverage Exemption
d. Certificate of ECC Clearance

B. CERTIFICATE OF NON-COVERAGE

11. It refers to projects belonging to project types declared thru Proclamation No. 2146
and Proclamation No. 803 which may pose significant negative environmental impact at
certain thresholds of operation regardless of location.

a. Environmentally critical area

b. Environmental critical project
c. Environmental impact project
d. Environmentally negative project

B. ENVIRONMENTAL CRITICAL PROJECT

12. A general area declared thru Proclamation 2146 as environmentally sensitive such
that significant environmental impacts are expected if certain types/thresholds of
proposed projects are located, developed or implemented in it

a. Critical Area of Development

b. Environmentally critical location
c. Environmentally critical area
d. Environmentally sensitive area

C. ENVIRONMENTALLY CRITICAL AREA

13. An ECC shall contain specific measures and conditions that the project Proponent has
to undertake before and during the operation of a project, and in some cases, during the
project’s

a. Planning stage
b. Review stage
c. Abandonment stage
d. Operation stage

C. ABANDONMENT STAGE

14. The most problematic sources of pollution are air, water and
a. Noise
b. Solid waste
c. Littering
d. Human fluids

B. SOLID WASTE

15. It means any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water
vapor, carbon dioxide, and inert gases in their natural or normal concentrations, that is
detrimental to health

a. Atmospheric wastes
b. Air waste
c. Air pollution
d. Contaminated air

C. AIR POLLUTION

16. The general amount of pollution present in a broad area; refers to the atmosphere’s
average purity

a. Ambient air quality

b. Atmospheric air quality
c. Air pollution quality
d. Atmospheric air purity

A. AMBIENT AIR QUALITY

17. The certificate issued by the DENR to a vehicle manufacturer certifying that a new
vehicle meets the requirements under the law

a. Certificate of compliance
b. Certificate of Passing
c. Certificate of Conformity
d. Vehicle Clearance certificate

C. CERTIFICATE OF CONFORMITY

18. gases that can potentially or can reasonably be expected to induce global warming,
which include carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, chloroflourocarbons, and the like

a. Pollutant gases
b. Environmentally harmful gases
c. Greenhouse effect
d. Greenhouse gases
D. GREENHOUSE GASES

19. In case of medical wastes, it means that portion of medical waste that could transmit
an infections disease

a. Contaminated waste
b. Medically hazardous waste
c. Hospital waste
d. Infectious waste

D. INFECTIOUS WASTE

20. The geographic-based instrument for planners and decision makers which present an
evaluation of the environment quality and carrying capacity of an area

a. Eco-evaluation report
b. Eco-profile
c. Eco-based profile
d. Eco-quality profile

B. ECO-PROFILE

21. Materials generated as a result of patient diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of

human beings or animals

a. Living wastes
b. Medical wastes
c. Hospital wastes
d. Pathological waste

B. MEDICAL WASTES

22. The substances that significantly deplete or otherwise modify the ozone layer in a
manner that is likely to result in adverse effects of human health and the environment

a. Greenhouses gases
b. Atmospheric pollutants
c. Ozone depleting substance
d. Ozone layer pollutants

C. OZONE DEPLETING SUBSTANCE

23. It is defined as the burning of municipal, biomedical and hazardous waste, which
process emits poisonous and toxic fumes
a. Open pit burning
b. Cremation
c. Incineration
d. Uncontrolled burning

C. INCINERATION

24. Called the traditional small-scale method of community/neighborhood sanitation

a. SIga
b. Sunog
c. Pagwawalis
d. tambak

A. SIGA

25. The following is not considered as part of the solid waste reduction and avoidance
scheme

a. Composting
b. Re-use
c. Recycling
d. Treatment

D. TREATMENT

26. In the hierarchy of solid waste management, the following is the last method
considered

a. Solid waste reduction

b. Treatment
c. Collection
d. Disposal

D. DISPOSAL

27. Material waste generated from planting or harvesting of crops, trimming or pruning
of plants and wastes

a. Plant wastes
b. Garden wastes
c. Agricultural wastes
d. Green wastes

C. AGRICULTURAL WASTES
28. The waste materials which cannot be appropriately placed in separate containers
because of either its size, shape or other physical attributes

a. Bulky waves
b. Huge wastes
c. Unrecyclable wastes
d. Non-disposable wastes

A. BULKY WAVES

29. It is the controlled decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms, mainly

bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product

a. Decomposition
b. Organic breakdown
c. Composting
d. Decay process

C. COMPOSTING

30. A disposal site at which solid waste is deposited in accordance with the minimum
prescribed standards of site operation

a. Sanitary landfill
b. Open dump
c. Controlled dump
d. Open landfill

C. CONTROLLED DUMP

31. The systematic administration of activities which provide for segregation at source,
segregated transportation, storage, transfer, processing, treatment, and disposal of solid
waste

a. Solid waste administration

b. Solid waste management facility
c. Ecological solid waste management
d. Ecological waste administration

C. ECOLOGICAL SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT

32. It is the liquid produced when waste undergo decomposition, and when water
percolate through solid waste undergoing decomposition

a. Sludge
b. Leachate
c. Leakage
d. Contaminated liquid

B. LEACHATE

33. A solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off center, a composting facility,
and a recycling facility

a. Junk shop
b. Materials recovery facility
c. Materials waste station
d. Solid waste dumping facility

B. MATERIALS RECOVERY FACILITY

34. A disposal area wherein the solid wastes are indiscriminately thrown or disposed of
without due planning and consideration for environmental and health standards

a. Garbage dump
b. Sanitary landfill
c. Open dump
d. Neighborhood dump

C. OPEN DUMP

35. It is the treating of used or waste materials through a process of making them suitable
for beneficial use and for other purposes

a. Re-use
b. Recycling
c. Recovery
d. Re-engineering

B. RECYCLING

36. A process of recovering materials intended for the same or different purpose without
the alteration of physical and chemical characteristics

a. Recycle
b. Re-use
c. Reconfiguration
d. Recovery

B. RE-USE
37. The waste disposal site designed, constructed, operated and maintain in a manner that
exerts engineering control over significant potential environment impacts

a. Controlled dump site

b. Open dump
c. Materials waste facility
d. Sanitary landfill

D. SANITARY LANDFILL

38. All discarded household, commercial waste, non hazardous institutional/ industrial
waste, street sweepings, construction debris, agricultural waste, and other non-hazardous/
non-toxic solid waste

a. Domestic waste
b. Solid waste
c. Garbage
d. Disposable waste

B. SOLID WASTE

39. A discipline associated with the control of generation, storage, collection, transfer and
transport, processing/ disposal of solid wastes

a. Solid waste management

b. Eco waste management
c. Controlled waste disposal and management
d. Solid waste engineering

A. SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT

40. Considered as wastes such as paints, thinners, household batteries, lead-acid batteries,
spray canisters and the like

a. Hazardous wastes
b. Air pollutants
c. Special wastes
d. Contaminant wastes

C. SPECIAL WASTES

41. Facilities utilized to receive solid wastes, temporarily store, separate convert, or
process the materials in the solid wastes, or to transfer the solid wastes directly fronm
smaller to larger vehicles for transport

a. Temporary stations
b. Transfer stations
c. Intermediate waste stations
d. Storage stations

B. TRANSFER STATIONS

42. The solid waste container depending on its use shall be properly marked and for non
biodegradable wastes, the color code is

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Green

C. BLACK

43. The following shall be the minimum criteria for the siting of sanitary landfills, except

a. The site should have an adequate quantity of earth cover material

b. The site must be accessible from major roadways
c. The site chosen should facilitate developing a landfill that will satisfy budgetary
constraints
d. The site should at least be 5 hectares

D. THE SITE SHOULD AT LEAST BE 5 HECTARES

44. The largest source of water pollution comes from

a. Domestic source
b. Livestock
c. Industrial waste
d. Water run offs

B. POINT SOURCE

45. An identifiable source of pollution with specific point of discharge into a particular
water body

a. Non point source

b. Point source
c. Waste source
d. Leakage source

B. POINT SOURCE
46. Cropland runoffs, animal wastes, construction sites, mining and logging operations,
landfills, spills are considered as what kind of source

a. Unidentifiable source
b. Point source
c. Non-point source
d. Uncontrolled source

C. NON-POINT SOURCE

47. Under the Clean Water Act, it is defined as water intended for human consumption or
for use in food preparation

a. Purified water
b. Mineral water
c. Processed water
d. Drinking water

D. DRINKING WATER

48. Freshwater means water containing dissolved common salt, sodium chloride
containing less than

a. 100 ppm
b. 200 ppm
c. 300 ppm
d. 500 ppm

D. 500 ppm

49. It is the subsurface water that occurs beneath a water table in soils and rocks, or in
geological formations

a. Surface water
b. Atmospheric water
c. Groundwater
d. Water table

C. GROUNDWATER

50. Means water-borne human or animal wastes, excluding oil or oil wastes, removed
from residences, building, institutions, industrial and commercial establishments
discarded

a. Leachate
b. Sewage
c. Sludge
d. Solid waste

B. SEWAGE

51. It is the discharge from known sources which is passed into a body of water or land,
or wastewater flowing out of a manufacturing plant, industrial plant including domestic,
commercial and recreational facilities

a. Sewage
b. Septage
c. Effluent
d. Water waste

C. EFFLUENT

52. It is all water, which is open to the atmosphere and subject to surface runoff

a. Rainfall
b. Ground water
c. Atmospheric water
d. Surface water

D. SURFACE WATER

53. This government agency shall have exclusive jurisdiction to issue permit for the use
of all surface water for any projects or activities in or affecting the said region including
navigation, construction, and operation of fishpens

a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources

b. Laguna Lake Development Authority
c. Metro Manila Development Authority
d. National Water Resources Board

B. LAGUNA LAKE DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY

54. No cutting, destroying or injuring of planted or growing trees, flowering plants and
shrubs or plants of scenic value along public roads, in parks, school premises or in any
other public ground shall be permitted save

a. When the tree is less than 10 years old

b. Necessary for public safety
c. Located in public road
d. Planted in the public plaza parks

B. NECESSARY FOR PUBLIC SAFETY

55. No person, natural or juridical, government office/agency, or public corporation shall
undertake a subdivision development within the Laguna de Bay Region without first
securing clearance from the

a. Local government concerned

b. Bureau of Fisheries
c. Laguna Lake Development Authority
d. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board

C. LAGUNA LAKE DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY

56. “Laguna de Bay Region” shall refer to the Provinces of Rizal and Laguna; the Cities
of San Pablo, Pasay, Caloocan, Quezon, Manila and Tagaytay; and also includes

a. Town of Carmona, Cavite

b. Municipalities in Pampanga
c. Province of Bulacan
d. Aurora Quezon

A. TOWN OF CARMONA, CAVITE

57. Refers to any solid, semi-solid or liquid waste or residue generated from a wastewater
treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or water control pollution facility, or any
other such waste having similar characteristics and effects

a. Sludge
b. Sewage
c. Wastewater
d. Septage

A. SLUDGE

58. For biodegradable solid waste containers, the same shall be properly marked and for
biodegradable wastes, the color code is

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Green

D. GREEN

59. To effectively regulate and monitor activities in the Laguna de Bay region, this
agency shall have exclusive jurisdiction to issue permit for the use of all surface water for
any projects affecting the said region
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
b. Metro Manila Development Authority
c. Laguna Lake Development Authority
d. Manila Bay Development Authority

C. LAGUNA LAKE DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY

60. It is the primary government agency that formulates and implements policies, plans
and programs for the recognition, promotion and protection of the rights and well-being
of Indigenous Peoples

a. National Indigenous People Agency

b. National Commission on Indigenous Peoples
c. National Ancestral Lands Commission
d. Commission on Indigenous Cultural Communities

B. NATIONAL COMMISSION ON INDIGENOUS PEOPLES

61. The total number of ethnolinguistic groups of indigenous people is estimated to be at

least

a. 75
b. 100
c. 110
d. 130

C. 110

62. It refers to a group of people or homogeneous societies identified by self-ascription

by other, who have continuously lived as organized community on communally bounded
and defined territory

a. Cultural communities
b. Indigenous cultural communities
c. Indigenous tribes
d. Indigenous cultural and tribal communities

B. INDIGENOUS CULTURAL COMMUNITIES

63. This is a remedy available to non-governmental organization whose constitutional

right to a balanced and healthful ecology is violated

a. Temporary restraining order

b. Writ of ecology
c. Writ of kalikasan
d. Writ of environment protection
C. WRIT OF KALIKASAN

64. It is consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs to: be determined in accordance with
their respective customary laws and practices

a. Community consensus
b. Majority decision
c. Free and prior informed consent
d. Majority consent

C. FREE AND PRIOR INFORMED CONSENT

65. Under the rules of procedure on environmental cases, a petition for protection of the
environment shall be filed with the

a. Supreme court
b. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
c. Department of Justice
d. HLURB

A. SUPREME COURT

66. A title formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICCs/IPs over
their ancestral domains

a. Certificate of Indigenous title

b. Certificate of ancestral title
c. Certificate of ancestral domain title
d. Transfer certificate of title

A. SUPREME COURT

67. A TEPO is an order which may be issued for the preservation of the rights of the
parties pending an environmental case proceeding, which means

a. Temporary existing protection order

b. Temporary environment prevention order
c. Temporary environmental protection order
d. Temporary environment public order

C. TEMPORARY ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ORDER

68. In the hierarchy of solid waste management, this is the highest in priority

a. Disposal
b. Treatment
c. Waste avoidance and reduction
d. Collection

C. WASTE AVOIDANCE AND REDUCTION

69. The highest major source of water pollution in the country is due to

a. Industrial sources
b. Domestic waste
c. Livestock
d. Non-point sources

B. DOMESTIC WASTE

70. It is an order issued by the court directing or enjoining any person or government
agency to perform or desist from performing an act in order to protect, preserve, or
rehabilitate the environment

a. Temporary Restraining Order

b. Cease and Desist order
c. Environmental protection order
d. Temporary environment protection order

C. ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ORDER

URBAN & LAND USE

3. They refer to the 244 areas in Metro Manila specifically described and identified in
Proclamation 1967, and other sites later identified and proclaimed
a. Areas of Land reform
b. Areas for priority development
c. Urban reform zones
d. Urban areas for priority areas
B. AREAS FOR PRIORITY DEVELOPMENT

4. A term used interchangeably or alternatively to refer to areas for priority development

a. Urban Land reform Zones
b. Urban Priority Areas
c. Urban Land Priority Zones
d. Urban Land Priority areas
A. URBAN LAND REFORM ZONES

5. How many APDs are there in Metro Manila covered by proclamation under
Proclamation No. 1967 amending Proc. No. 1893?
a. 110
b. 244
c. 284
d. 302
B. 244

6. The rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible

among competing user groups and for different functions
a. Land resource plan
b. Land use plan
c. Land identification and segregation plan
d. Zoning plan
B. LAND USE PLAN

8. It refers to process of upgrading and rehabilitation of bighted and slum urban areas
with a view of minimizing displacement of dwellers in said area
a. On site development
b. Slum development
c. Slum upgrading
d. On site upgrading
A. ON SITE DEVELOPMENT

9. It refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands nor exceeding
eight hundred square meters ( 800 sq. m) in other urban areas
a. Medium property owner
b. Small property owner
c. Urban property owner
d. Rural property owner
B. SMALL PROPERTY OWNER

11. The process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another place of land of equal
value, or for shares of stock in a government or quasi government corporation, for the
purpose of planned and rational development and provision for socialized housing
a. Land banking
b. Land acquisition
c. Land swapping
d. Land exchange
C. LAND SWAPPING

12. They are referred to as individuals or groups who occupy land without the express
consent of the landowner and who have sufficient income for legitimate housing
a. Squatters
b. Informal Settlers
c. Slum dwellers
d. Professional Squatters
D. PROFESSIONAL SQUATTERS
13. A person is given this degree of protection afforded to qualified Program beneficiaries
against infringement or unjust, unreasonable and arbitrary eviction or disposition
a. Security of Tenure
b. Right of first refusal
c. Priority in right
d. First preference
A. SECURITY OF TENURE

14. The areas identified by the appropriate national agency or by the local government
unit with respect to areas within its jurisdiction, which shall be used for the relocation of
the underprivileged and homeless citizens
a. Resettlement areas
b. Relocation areas
c. redeployment areas
d. Off site relocation
A. RESETTLEMENT AREAS

15. The program of the NHA of upgrading and improving blighted squatter areas outside
of Metro Manila pursuant to existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances
a. Slum Improvement Program
b. Slum Improvement and Resettlement Program
c. Slum resettlement and community program
d. Slum resettlement program
B. SLUM IMPROVEMENT AND RESETTLEMENT PROGRAM

16. The local government of Quezon City imposed a socialized housing tax beginning
2012 on the assessed value of all lands in urn[ban areas in excess of the amount of
a. P 25,000
b. P 50,000
c. P 100,000
d. P 150,000
C. P 100,000

17. “Small property owners” refers to those whose only real property consists of
residential lands in highly urbanized cities not exceeding
a. 120 square meters
b. 200 square meters
c. 300 square meters
d. 400 square meters
C. 300 SQUARE METERS

18. If the land of a person is in an area other than highly urbanized cities, or in the other
urban areas, a small property owner is one whose only real property consists of
residential lands not exceeding
a. 600 square meters
b. 800 square meters
c. 1,000 square meters
d. 5,000 square meters
B. 800 SQUARE METERS

19. This refers to the group of persons engaged in the business of squatter housing for
profit or gain
a. Professional squatters
b. Informal settlers
c. Slum syndicates
d. Squatting syndicates
D. SQUATTING SYNDICATES

20. Beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families residing in urban and
urbanizable areas whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty
threshold as defined by the NEDA and who don not own housing facilities
a. Blighted families
b. Underprivileged and homeless citizens
c. Slum families
d. Families in Areas for Priority Development
B. UNDERPRIVILEGED AND HOMELESS CITIZENS

21. Urban areas under RA 7279 refer to all the cities regardless of their population
density and to municipalities with a population density of at least
a. 500 persons per square kilometer
b. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
c. 1,500 persons per square kilometer
d. 5,000 persons per square kilometer
A. 500 PERSONS PER SQUARE KILOMETER

22. Sites and lands which, display marked and great potential of becoming urban areas
within the period of five (5) years
a. Potential urban areas
b. Future urban areas
c. Urbanizable areas
d. Identifiable urban areas
C. URBANIZABLE AREAS

23. The Urban and Development Housing Program does not cover the following
a. Areas for priority development
b. Lands in urbanizable areas
c. Resettlement sites
d. Sites used or set aside for parks, reserves for flora and fauna
D. SITES USED OR SET ASIDE FOR PARKS, RESERVES FOR FLORA AND
FAUNA
24. For planning purposes, the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
shall be furnished by each local government unit a copy of its inventory which shall be
updated every
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
B. 3 YEARS

25. Land for socialized housing under RA 7279 shall be prioritized for acquisition with
the last in the order of acquisition are
a. Privately owned lands
b. Governed lands
c. Abandoned and idle lands
d. Bliss sites
A. PRIVATELY OWNED LANDS

26. In acquisition of land, this shall be resorted o only when other modes of acquisition
have been exhausted
a. Community mortgage
b. Expropriation
c. Land swapping
d. Negotiated purchase
B. EXPROPRIATION

27. Land valuation guidelines for socialized housing shall be set on the basis of the
market value reflected in the zonal valuation, or in its absence, on the latesnreal property
tax declaration by this agency
a. Department of Finance
b. Housing Urban and Development Coordinating Council
c. City Assessor
d. BIR technical valuation committee
A. DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE

28. Should the beneficiary unlawfully sell, transfer, or otherwise dispose of his lot he
shall also lose his right to the land, and shall be barred from the benefits under this Act
from date of violation for a period of
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 25 years
B. 10 YEARS

29. To qualify for socialized housing program, a beneficiary must not be

a. A Filipino citizen
b. Underprivileged and homeless
c. Landless
d. Member of squatting syndicate
B. UNDERPRIVILEGED AND HOMELESS

31. To encourage greater private sector participation in socialized housing and further
reduce the cost of housing units for the benefit of the underprivileged and homeless, the
following incentives shall be extended to the private sector for socialized housing under
RA 7279, except
a. Capital gains tax on raw lands use of the project
b. Value-added tax for the project concerned
c. Transfer tax for both raw and completed projects
d. Exemption from paying local real estate taxes
D. EXEMPTION FROM PAYING LOCAL REAL ESTATE TAXES

32. Socialized housing or resettlement areas shall be provided by NHA or

a. HUDCC
b. Department of Housing
c. Local government unit
d. Private developers
C. LOCAL GOVERNMENT UNIT

33. This shall be implemented whenever possible in order to ensure minimum movement
of occupants of blighted lands and slum areas
a. Temporary shelter
b. New settlement
c. On-site development
d. On-site Relocation
C. ON-SITE DEVELOPMENT

34. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the

penalty of imprisonment of
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
C. 6 YEARS

35. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the

penalty of a fine of not less than
a. P 60,000 but not more than P 100,000
b. P 50,000 but not more than P 100,000
c. P 100,000 but not more than P 200,000
d. P 20,000 but not more than P 50,000
A. P 60,000 BUT NOT MORE THAN P 100,000
36. Eviction or demolition as a practice shall be discouraged. Eviction or demolition,
however, may be allowed under the following situations but not
a. When persons or entities occupy danger areas such as esteros, railroad tracks
b. When there is a court order for eviction and demolition
c. When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be
implemented
d. When the private owner needs the land
D. WHEN THE PRIVATE OWNER NEEDS THE LAND

37. In the execution of eviction or demolition orders involving underprivileged and

homeless citizens, the following shall be mandatory, except
a. Execution of eviction or demolition only during regular office hours from Monday to
Friday
b. Execution of eviction or demolition only during good weather, unless the affected
families consent otherwise
c. Adequate permanent relocation
d. Presence of local government officials or their representatives during eviction or
demolition
C. ADEQUATE PERMANENT RELOCATION

38. Should relocation provided under RA 7279 not be possible within the said period,
financial assistance in the amount equivalent to the prevailing minimum daily wage
multiplied
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 15 days
B. 60 DAYS

39.In cases of eviction or demolition, relocation shall be undertaken by the local

government unit concerned and the NHA with the assistance of other government
agencies from service of notice of final judgment by the court, within
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
B. 45 DAYS

40. It shall be unlawful for any person to construct any structure in areas mentioned
below, except
a. esteros
b. Railroad track
c. Riverbanks
d. Leased land
D. LEASED LAND
41. It is a mortgage financing program of the NHMFC which assists legally organized
associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of
land under the concept of community ownership
a. Community mortgage program
b. Community housing program
c. Socialized community housing
d. Community housing for underprivileged
A. COMMUNITY MORTGAGE PROGRAM

42. To encourage greater participation, participants in the CMP shall be granted with the
following privilege or incentive of exemption from
a. Percentage tax
b. Capital gains tax
c. Income tax
d. Real estate taxes
B. CAPITAL GAINS TAX

43. Beneficiaries of CMP shall not be evicted of their lands unless they have incurred
arrearages in payments of amortization for
a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 120 days
d. 6 months
B. 3 MONTHS

44. Under RA 7279, this government agency shall administer the Community Mortgage
program
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
c. National home Mortgage Finance Corporation
d. National Housing Authority
D. NATIONAL HOUSING AUTHORITY

45. With the constitutional principle that the ownership and the enjoyment of property’s
social function and to raise funds, all local government units are authorized to impose an
additional real estate tax on land of
a. 1 % of the assessed value
b. ½ of 1 % of the assessed values
c. ¾ of 1 % of the assessed value
d. 2 % of the assessed value
B. ½ OF 1 % OF THE ASSESSED VALUE

46. The additional real estate taxes that may be imposed on urban lands under RA 7279
shall only be applied to lands with assessed value over
a. P 50,000.00
b. P 100,000.00
c. P 150,000.00
d. P 200,000.00
A. P 50,000.00

47. Any person who violates any provision of RA 7279 shall be imposed the penalty of
imprisonment of not more than
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 12 years
C. 6 YEARS

48. Under Section 18 of RA 7279, the following are covered for the 20% requirement for
socialized housing
a. Residential subdivisions
b. Townhouses projects
c. Condominium projects
d. Office condominium projects
A. RESIDENTIAL SUBDIVISIONS

49. Any person who violates any provision of RA 7279 may also be imposed the penalty
of fine of not less than
a. P 5,000.00 but not more than 100,000
b. P 10,000 but not more than P 100,000
c. P 20,000 but not more than P 100,000
d. P 50,000 but not more than P 100,000
A. P 5,000.00 BUT NOT MORE THAN 100,000

50. The following shall be responsible for the implementation of RA 7279 in their
respective localities
a. HMDF
b. NHA
c. Local government units
d. Presidential Commission on Urban Poor
C. LOCAL GOVERNMENT UNITS

51. Urban Land Reform was declared under the law for the whole Philippines, under
a. PD 1217
b. PD 1517
c. RA 7279
d. PD 957
B. PD 1517

52. The government sector mandated to provide local housing needs for their homeless
constituents is the
a. HLURB
b. NHA
c. Local government units
d. HUDCC
C. LOCAL GOVERNMENT UNITS

53. A local city or municipal legislation which logically arranges, prescribes, defines and
apportions a given political subdivision into specific land uses
a. Land Use Plan
b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Locational Clearance
d. Zoning Clearance
B. ZONING ORDINANCE

54. Decisions of the local zoning boards may be appealed to

a. Regional Trial Court
b. HLURB
c. Court of Appeals
d. Local Board Assessment Appeals
B. HLURB

55. The programs of NHA of upgrading and improving blighted areas pursuant to existing
statutes and pertinent executive issuances
a. Areas for priority development
b. Socialized housing program
c. Slum improvement and resettlement program
d. Blighted areas improvement program
C. SLUM IMPROVEMENT AND RESETTLEMENT PROGRAM

56. The socialized housing project, multi-level, medium rise housing project sold at the
prevailing price ceiling for socialized housing, or other developments utilized to comply
with the balanced housing development required under Section 18 of RA 7278
a. Socialized project
b. Balanced housing project
c. Compliance project
d. Socialized urban project
C. COPLIANCE PROJECT

57. Socialized housing units or projects owned by the government housing agencies
needing rehabilitation and restoration before they can be made available for sale
a. Socialized housing assets
b. Non-performing socialized housing assets
c. Acquired socialized assets
d. Acquired non-performing assets
B. NON-PERFORMING SOCIALIZED HOUSING ASSETS
58. Socialized housing or resettlement areas shall be provided by the local govt. unit of
NHA in cooperation with the private developers/ concerned agencies with the following
basic services and facilities
a. Livelihood project
b. Employment
c. Recreational areas
d. Potable water
D. POTABLE WATER

59. To encourage greater private sector participation in socialized housing the following
are tax exemptions extended under RA 7279
a. Documentary stamp tax
b. Real estate taxes on the project
c. Capital gains tax on raw land used for the project
d. Professional taxes
C. CAPITAL GAINS TAX ON RAW LAND USED FOR THE PROJECT

60. The gross land area for development plus the aggregate floor area of all housing units
of subdivision projects with housing components, used as basis for compliance under sec.
18 RA 7279 as revised is referred to as
a. Total subdivision area
b. Total subdivision project
c. Total subdivision cost
d. Total subdivision development cost
A. TOTAL SUBDIVISION AREA

PLANNING, DEVELOPMENT AND ZOINING

1. It is the government agency that assists the local government units in the formulation
of their respective land use plans
a. Housing Urban Development Coordinating Council
b. Department of Finance
c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
d. Local Government Department
C. HOUSING AND LAND USE REGULATORY BOARD

2. The law that provides that the local government units shall prepare their respective
land use plans
a. Local Government Code of 1991
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan Act
c. Tax Code of 1997
d. Housing Development and Housing Act
A. LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE OF 1991
3. In its assistance to the local government unit, several steps in comprehensive land use
plan were recommended and referred to as a
a. 6 step process to land use planning
b. 12 step process to land use planning
c. 18 step process to land use planning
d. 10 step process to land use planning
B. 12 STEP PROCESS TO LAND USE PALNNING

4. It is on official public document adopted by local government units as a guide to

decision regarding the physical and socio-economic development of the community
a. Land use plan
b. Town plan
c. Community plan
d. Local government community plan
B. TOWN PLAN

5. The rational and deliberate allocation of land resources to different uses on the
comprehensive and integrated plan for the area
a. Area Usage plan
b. Town plan
c. Land use plan
d. Zoning plan
C. LAND USE PLAN

6. The division of the community into functional zones based on the recent and potential
uses of properties for the purpose of regulating the use and growth of properties
a. Planning
b. Town planning
c. Area allocation
d. Zoning
D. ZONING

7. It refers to the rational and judicious approach of allocating available land resources to
different land using activities such as residential, commercial, etc.
a. Land Planning
b. Land Use Planning
c. Land Development Planning
d. Land Use and Development Planning
B. LAND USE PLANNING

8. The land use plans of various cities and municipalities shall be enacted through their
respective
a. Governor or Mayor
b. Zoning ordinance
c. Executive orders
d. HLURB Resolutions
B. ZONING ORDINANCE

9. Land use planning guidelines and standards are mandated to be formulated by

a. Local government units
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
c. Department of Local Government
d. Department of Finance
B. HOUSING AND LAND USE REGULATORY BOARD

10. A graphic presentation of the zone classifications, location, boundaries of the districts/
zones duly established in the zoning ordinance
a. Zoning classification map
b. Town plan map
c. Zoning map
d. Land use map
C. ZONING MAP

11. Under the comprehensive land use plan guide, any person, group or institution that
has an interest in the development activity, program or project is referred to as
a. Interested party
b. Participants
c. Constituent
d. Stakeholder
D. STAKEHOLDER

12. It is a method of studying the effects of population growth and urban development on
the ecological systems, public facility systems and environmental protection
a. Impact Analysis
b. Carrying capacity analysis
c. Growth effects analysis
B. CARRYING CAPACITY ANALYSIS

13. The classification of R-1 in a zoning area means

a. High Density Residential Zone
b. Low Density Residential Zone
c. Medium Density Residential Zone
d. General residential zone
B. LOW DENSITY RESIDENTIAL ZONE

14. A parcel of land as located in a C-2 classified area which means

a. Medium Density Commercial Zone
b. Low Density Commercial Zone
c. General Commercial Zone
d. High Density Commercial Zone
A. MEDIUM DENSITY COMMERCIAL ZONE
15. SHZ is used to classify land in a locality and means
a. Selected Housing Zone
b. Socialized Housing Zone
c. Segregated Housing Zone
d. Special Housing Zone
B. SOCIALIZED HOUSING ZONE

16. The legal basis for the local government to zone areas is derived from the power of
the government under
a. Police Power
b. Zoning Power
c. Classification power
d. Local Government Power
A. POLICE POWER

17. It is defined as a contiguous grouping of 10 or more structures

a. High density area
b. Integrated area
c. Built-up area
d. Contiguous structure area
C. BUILT-UP AREA

18. Refers to area designated principally for trade, services and business purposes as used
in the zoning ordinances
a. Commercial area
b. Central Business District
c. Commercial business District
d. Commercial Zone
B. CENTRAL BUSINESS DISTRICT

19. A use of an area in accordance with the zoning classification

a. Compliance use
b. Conforming use
c. Qualified use
d. Approved use
B. CONFORMING USE

20. Refers to a document embodying specific proposals for guiding, regulating growth
and development of a city or municipality
a. Community land use plan
b. Comprehensive community development plan
c. Comprehensive land use plan
d. Comprehensive land usage and development plan
C. COMPREHENSIVE LAND USE PLAN
21., It is primarily concerned with the use of the land and control of density of population
trough imposition of building heights, open space and density provisions in a given area
a. Land use plan
b. Land restrictions
c. Zoning
d. Exemption clearance
C. ZONING

22. A device, defined in the CLUP, which grants an owner relief from certain provisions
of a zoning ordinance where because of the specific use would results in a particular
hardship upon the owner, as distinguished from mere inconvenience
a. Exemption
b. Certificate of non coverage
c. Exception
d. Exemption clearance
C. EXCEPTION

23. The ratio between the gross floor area of a building and the area of the lot on which it
stands
a. Floor Area Ratio
b. Maximum Height Ratio
c. Lot Floor Area Ratio
d. Height to Floor ratio
A. FLOOR AREA RATIO

24. It refers to uses or land activities with contrasting characteristics sited adjacent to
each other, e.g. residential adjacent to industrial plants
a. Contracting uses
b. Contradicting uses
c. Non-congruent uses
d. Conflicting uses
D. CONFLICTING USES

25. The Floor Area Ratio is computed through the following

a. Building Height divided by the Floor Area
b. Gross Floor Area of Building divided by area of the lot
c. Gross Floor Area divided by the height of the building
d. Floor Area of Units divided by the area of the lot
B. GROSS FLOOR AREA OF BUILDING DIVIDED BY AREA OF THE LOT

26. As defined in the CLUP, uses or land activities capable of existing together
harmoniously, e.g. residential use and parks and playgrounds
a. Congruent use
b. Compatible use
c. Co-classification use
d. Non contrasting use
B. COMPATIBLE USE

27. It is a certificate issued to owner of all uses existing prior to the approval of the
zoning ordinance which do not conform in a zone as per provision of the said ordinance
a. Certificate of non conformity
b. Certificate of zone exemption
c. Certificate of non-conformance
d. Certificate of clearance
C. CERTIFICATE OF NON-CONFORMANCE

28. It is classified as the area within a city or municipality intended for cultivation/
fishing and pastoral activities e.g. fish, farming, cultivation of crops, goat/ cattle raising
a. Agricultural Zone
b. Agri-Pasteural Zone
c. Agri-Marine Zone
d. Agri-coastal zone
A. AGRICULTURAL ZONE

29. The Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) once enacted into a zoning ordinance is
for the purpose of
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Supervision
d. Enforcement
D. ENFORCEMENT

30. A process of introducing amendments to or a change in the text or maps of the zoning
ordinance
a. Ordinance Revision
b. Reordinancing
c. Zoning amendments
d. Rezoning
D. REZONING

31. The open space left between the building the lot lines is referred to as
a. Perimeter space
b. Property line easement
c. Setback
d. Easement
C. SETBACK

32. A municipal/city/government employee responsible for the implementation

/enforcement of the zoning ordinance in a community
a. Land Use Plan Engineer
b. City or municipal engineer
c. Zoning Administrator
d. Building Engineer
C. ZONING ADMINISTRATOR

33. A zoning classification of I-2 would refer to

a. Medium Institutional Zone
b. Medium Industrial zone
c. Light Institutional zone
d. Heavy Industrial Zone
B. MEDIUM INDUSTRIAL ZONE

34. In a high density residential zone area, the number of dwelling units
allowed would be
a. Less than 10 per hectare
b. 20 or more per hectare
c. 21 to 65 per hectare
d. 66 or more per hectare
D. 66 OR MORE PER HECTARE

35. An application for any exemption or variance to those provided in the zoning
ordinance shall be filed with
a. City or Municipal Building Engineer
b. Zoning Administrator of the local government unit
c. Local Zoning Board and Adjustment Appeals
d. Local Government Council
C. LOCAL ZONING BOARD AND ADJUSTMENT APPEALS

36. An area within the city intended for regional shopping centers such as large malls and
other commercial activities which are regional in scope is classified as
a. High Density Commercial Zone
b. Medium Density Commercial Zone
c. Mall and Business District Zone
d. Commercial Special Zone
A. HIGH DENSITY COMMERCIAL ZONE

37. It is not considered as an environmentally critical area

a. Coral Reef
b. Mangrove Areas
c. Areas with critical slopes
d. Golf course
D. GOLF COURSE

38. Some of the environmentally critical projects proclaimed by law are as follows,
excluding
a. Heavy industries
b. Infrastructure Projects
c. Logging
d. Water bodies tapped for domestics sources
D. WATER BODIES TAPPED FOR DOMESTICS SOURCES

39. In a low Residential Density Zone no building or structure for human occupancy shall
be higher than the grade line in the property or sidewalk by more than
a. 10 meters
b. 12 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 21 meters
A. 10 METERS

40. In a high density residential zone area, the number of dwelling units allowed would
be
a. Less than 10 per hectare
b. 20 or more per hectare
c. 21 to 65 per hectare
d. 66 or more per hectare
D. 66 OR MORE PER HECTARE

41. In other zones where no height limits are prescribed, the height limit shall conform
with the National Building Code and prescribed by
a. Zoning ordinance
b. Engineering Office
c. Air Transportation Office
d. Local Building Code
C. AIR TRANSPORTATION OFFICE

42. The Gross Floor Area of the building is defined as

a. Total Floor space of all covered areas
b. Total Floor space within the perimeter of the permanent external walls
c. Total Floor Space of the building including non covered improved areas
d. Total Floor Space excluding the non-use areas
B. TOTAL FLOOR SPACE WITHIN THE PERIMETER OF TE PERMANENT
EXTERNAL WALLS

43. An area within a city or municipality principally for institutional establishments like
welfare homes, home for the aged, etc.
a. Identified Institutional Zone
b. Light Institutional Zone
c. Classified Institutional Zone
d. Special Institutional Zone
D. SPECIAL INSTITUTIONAL ZONE

44. In a general residential zone, the following uses are allowed, but does not include
a. Detached family dwelling
b. Apartment
c. Filling Station/ Service Station
d. Practice of Profession in one’s garage
C. FILLING STATION/ SERVICE STATION

45. In a low Density Residential should be principally for housing/ dwelling purposes the
number of dwelling u nits should be
a. 10 dwelling units and below
b 20 dwelling units and below
c. 25 dwelling units and below
d. 30 dwelling units and below
B. 20 DWELLING UNITS AND BELOW

46. Customary accessory uses in a dwelling unit refers to the following although does not
include
a. Garage
b. Servants quarter
c. Bedroom
d. Guardhouse
C. BEDROOM

47. These are yards or open spaces intended to separate incompatible elements/ uses to
control pollution/ nuisances where no permanent structures are allowed
a. Easement
b. Alley
c. Buffer Area
d. Open space
C. BUFFER AREA

48. A clearance issued to a project that is allowed under the provisions of the zoning
ordinance
a. Building permit
b. Zoning clearance
c. Ordinance clearance
d. Locational clearance
D. LOCATIONAL CLEARANCE

49. These are sites within cities and municipalities endowed with natural or man made
physical attributes and resources that are conductive to recreation, leisure and other
wholesome activities
a. Tourist zones
b. Recreational zones
c. Leisure zones
d. General recreation zones
A. TOURIST ZONES
50. In zoning classification these are bodies of water within cities or municipalities which
include rivers, streams, lake and seas except those included in other zone classification
a. Marine zone
b. Aqua zone
c. Aquatic zone
d. Water zone
D. WATER ZONE

REAL ESTATE FINANCE AND ECONOMICS

1. It refers to the effect that is made by one aspect of the economy with the other
economic activities in the country
a. Economic effect
b. Multiplier effect
c. Ripple effect
d. Economic activity effect
B. MULTIPLIER EFFECT

2. It is said that real estate economics is the application of economics techniques to real
estate markets where it tries to describe explain and predicts patterns of the following
except
a. Demand
b. Needs
c. Price
d Supply
B. NEEDS

3. It is a result of the interplay and relationship between supply and demand in a

particular market like real estate
a. Financing
b. Scarcity
c. Price
d. Net value of property
C. PRICE

4. What is the formula used to compute the monthly amortization on a diminishing

balance method for installment sales of lots
a. Downpayment multiplied by interest rate
b. Amount Financed multiplied by interest rate
c. Amount financed multiplied by amortization factor
d. Principal amount multiplied by monthly interest rate
C. AMOUNT FINANCED MULTIPLIED BY AMORTIZATION FACTOR

5. Under the present Pagibig Financing, the minimum amount of interest charged for
housing loan is
a. 5.0%
b. 6.0%
c. 6.5%
d. 7.0%
B. 6.0%

6. In a subdivision, there were numerous lots being sold by owners but only a few buyers.
This is referred to as what kind of market
a. Seller’s market
b. Open market
c. Buyer’s market
d. Down market
C. BUYER’S MARKET

7. A buyer will loan from the bank for the purchase of a house. The amount of difference
between what the total price will be and the amount he can borrow is referred to as
a. Reservation deposit
b. Downpayment
c. Equity
d. Loan Balance
C. EQUITY

8. In computing the amortization factor on the financing of real estate sales, the factor
will be based on the following
a. Capacity of the borrower
b. No. of years to pay
c. Interest rate and term of payment
d. Interest rate
C. INTEREST RATE AND TERM OF PAYMENT

9. A residential subdivision was much in demand but there were only few long being sold
but a lot of buyers were interested to buy. This is referred to as
a. Real estate market
b. Buyer’s market
c. Seller’s market
d. High demand market
C. SELLER’S MARKET

10. It is not considered a sale on financing or installments in the purchase of a lot

a. Pagibig financing
b. Bank financing
c. Lending investor’s financing
d. Spot cash
D. SPOT CASH

11. Mr. and Mrs. Parte wanted to loan under the Pagibig Financing to buy a residential
lot, and they can purchase a maximum size of
a. 500 square meters
b. 1,000 square meters
c.2,000 square meters
d. 1 hectare of rural land
B. 1,000 SQUARE METERS

12. In obtaining a housing loan from the bank, it is required that

a. The buyer must occupy the house
b. The buyer cannot sell the house until fully paid
c. The house purchased must be mortgaged to the bank
d. The house cannot be rented out
C. THE HOUSE PURCHASED MUST BE MORTGAGED TO THE BANK

13. The payment to be made monthly by a buyer of a lot on installment is generally

referred to as
a. Monthly amortization
b. Monthly payments
c. Financing payments
d. Amortization schedule
A. MONTHLY AMORTIZATION

14. One ay of getting the amount to be financed by the buyer in ther purchase of the lot is
through the following
a. Total contract price minus the downpayment
b. Total contract price minus reservation
c. Total contract price minus monthly amortization
d. Total amortization payments to be made multiplied by number of payments
A. TOTAL CONTRACT PRICE MINUS THE DOWNPAYMENT

15. The following is not considered a real estate financing method in the acquisition of a
residential lot in a high end subdivision
a. In house financing
b. Bank financing
c. Cash payment
d. Pagibig financing
C. CASH PAYMENT

16. If financing was made in the amount of 18% interest per annum, what would be
monthly interest rate to be applied on a 24 months payment scheme
a. 1.0% per month
b. 1.5% per month
c. 2.0% per month
d. 0.75% per month
B. 1.5% PER MONTH
17.The maximum age limit for the maturity of payment of the loan from Pagibig
financing for a housing unit is
a. 50 years old
b. 60 years old
c.65 years old
d. 70 years old
D. 70 YEARS OLD

18. An additional requirement in obtaining a loan which is to pay off the loan or
outstanding obligation upon t5he death of the borrower
a. Loan assurance agreement
b. Mortgage redemption insurance
c. Housing financing insurance
d .Mortgage loan insurance
B. MORTGAGE REDEMPTION INSURANCE

19. A payment scheme where the buyer of the condo unit pays the total price within a
short period of time without interest is referred to as
a. Short term financing
b. Deferred cash payment
c. Discounted cash payment
d. Deferred financing scheme
B. DEFERRED CASH PAYMENT

20. In the Philippines it is referred to the effect of real estate housing on the other
economic activities of the country
a. Multiplier effect of real estate
b. Multiplier effect of housing
c. Economic effect of housing
d. Economic effect of real estate
A. MULTIPLIER EFFECT OF REAL ESTATE

21. An index used in the Philippines is the multiplier effect of real estate which has been
estimated to be in the following ratio
a.1:16.6
b.1:16.5
c.1:16
d.1:20
A. 1:16.6

22. The downpayment made by the buyer can be computed by using the following simple
formula
a. Total contract price minus reservation deposit
b. Total contract price minus amount financed
c. Total contract price minus total amortization payments
d. Total contract price minus buyer’s equity
B. TOTAL CONTRACT PRICE MINUS AMOUNT FINANCED

23. Diego borrowed money from his brother to buy a lot and borrowed P1,000,00,00 at
15% per annum payable in 2 years. How much will the interest
a. P 15,000.00
b. P 12,500.00
c. P 12,000.00
d. P 6,250.00
B. P12,500.00

24. Freddie was paying a monthly amortization of P 54,100.00 per month at 21% interest
per annum. If the amortization factor is 0,02705. How much is the amount being financed
a. P 1,000,000.00
b. P 1,500.000.00
c. P 2,000,000.00
d. P 3,000,000.00
C. P 2,000,000.00

25. In a housing financing scheme based on diminishing balance, the interest in the
payments
a. Increases while the payment for principal decrease
b. Decreases while the payment of principal increases
c. Remain constant for the term of the loan
d. Remain constant but the principal decreases
B. DECREASES WHILE THE PAYMENT OF PRINCIPAL INCREASES

26. It is referred to as the amount of the property used as a basis for the maximum
amount of loan that can be given among others
a. Appraised value
b. Loan value
c. Collateral to loan ratio
d. Foreclosure value
B. LOAN VALUE

27. Arnold bought a house and lot and paid P50,000 reservation and the full
downpayment of 15% in full within 60 days of the total contract price of P 3,000,000.00.
How much will he have to pay in 60 days
a. P 450,000.00
b. P 400,000.00
c. P 300,000.00
d. P 350,000.00
B. P 400,000.00

28. In a sale on installment of realty, after paying 5 years installments, the buyer will
make a lump sum payment at the end which is referred to as
a. Full payment
b. Balloon payment
c. Effective demand
d. Production cost
B. BALLOON PAYMENT

29. A movement in the supply of the real estate housing versus the actual effective
demand would affect the following
a. Purchasing power
b. Price
c. Effective demand
d. Production cost
B. PRICE

30. A financing scheme provided by developers of projects to its buyers in lieu of direct
bank financing is generally referred to as
a. Internal financing
b. Developers financing
c. In house financing
C. IN HOUSE FINANCING

31.In a Pagibig Loan, the maximum loanable amount since 2012 to the present is
a. P 2,000,000
b. P 3,000,000
c. P 4,000,000
d. P 6,000,000
D. P 6,000,000

32. Aside from the value of the property, the bank will also determine the following to
determine the lonable amount to the borrower
a. Appraised value
b. Zonal value
c. Capacity to pay
d. Interest rate
C. CAPACITY TO PAY

33. It is a type of financing availed of by the borrower in the meantime in the event his or
her long term loan is not yet approved for the purchase of a house in order to secure the
purchase thereof
a. Bridge financing
b. Long term financing
c. Promissory note
d. Escrow arrangement
A. BRIDGE FINANCING
34. A contract where the creditor acquires the title to receive the fruits of a property from
the borrower to be applied to the payment of the interest and thereafter to the principal
amount
a. Usufruct
b. Antichresis
c. Pledge
d. Real Estate Mortgage
B. ANTICHRESIS

35. An important and main determinant in the demand for housing is

a. Type of housing
b.Demographics
c. Interest rate
d. Supply of housing
B. DEMOGRAPHICS

36. The agency that provides the most housing loans and provident loans to the public is
a. home Development Mutual Fund
b. Government Service and Insurance System
c. Social Security System
d. Home Guaranty Corporation
A. HOME DEVELOPMENT MUTUAL FUND

37. It refers to the change in rates on agreed interval periods of the loan between the
lender and the borrower
a. Escalation rate
b. Repricing
c. Restructuring
d. Inflation
B. REPRICING

38. The maximum age limit for the maturity of payment of the loan from Pagibig
financing for a housing unit is
a. 50 years old
b. 60 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old
D. 70 YEARS OLD

39. The loan to the value ratio for affordable housing through Pag-ibig Fund up to P
40,000 is
a. 100 %
b. 90 %
c. 80 %
d. Depending on value of property
A. 100 %
40. It is the assurance given by a bank to the seller that he/she will be paid by the bank
for the approved buyer’s loan under certain conditions
a. Letter of assurance
b. Letter of guaranty
c. Letter of credit
d. Letter of approved loan
B. LETTER OF GUARANTY

41. Under the present affordable housing of Pag-ibig Fund, the interest rate on the
housing loan up to P400,000 is
a. 4.5 %
b. 6.0 %
c. 6.5 %
d. 8.0 %
A. 4.5 %

42. In a contract of real estate mortgage, it is used to refer to the person or entity which
lends money to the borrower for a housing loan
a. Lender
b. Mortgagee
c. Mortgagor
d. Financier
B. MORGAGEE

43. The processing fee to be paid by a borrower of a Pag-ibig housing loan at the time of
approval and take out of the loan is
a. P 1,000
b. P 2,000
c. P 3,000
d. P 5,000
B. P 2,000

44. The growth of the Philippine economy for 2012 was reflected in the gross domestic
product or GDP growth which was about
a. 5.5 %
b. 6.6 %
c. 7.0 %
d. 8.0 %
B. 6.6 %

45. The maximum number of Pag-ibig members that may be tacked into a single loan is
a. Only 1
b. 2 members
c. 3 members
d. 3 members of the same family
C. 3 MEMBERS

46. The membership contribution for Pag-ibig for aloan amount of P 5,900,000 – P
6,000,000 is
a. P 2,900
b. P 2,950
c. P 3,000
d. P 3,100
B. P 2,950

47. A borrower thru Pag-ibig Fund may purchase a residential lot and loan up to the age
of
a. 50 years old
b. 60 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old
C. 65 YEARS OLD

48. It refers to the amount charged to the borrower for early payment of the principal over
a loan which is still payable over several years
a. Unearned interest
b. Pretermination penalty
c. Loan penalty
d. Processing rate
B. PRETERMINATION PENALTY

49. An arrangement made with the developer and the Pag-ibig fund to guarantee the
payment of the monthly amortization by the borrower and failure of which within a
certain period, the developer will buy back the contract to sell from Pag-ibig
a. CTS Buyback
b. Developer Guaranty
c. Rael Estate Mortgage
d. Pacto de Retro
A. CTS BUYBACK

50. Population growth in the country affects housing demand and for the past 2000-2010,
the population growth per NEDA in the country was
a. 2.3 %
b. 2.4 %
c. 2.0 %
d. 1.9 %
D. 1.9 %

APPRAISAL
3. The following appraisal report is no longer allowed under the Real Estate Service Act
of the Philippines
a. Narrative report
b. Form report
c. Oral report
d. Written letter report
C. ORAL REPORT

5. A purpose of appraisal where it is used to determine the fair market values of

properties for distribution to heirs
a. Partitioning of Estate
b. Property disputes
c. Mortgage financing
d. Estate settlement
A. PARTITIONING OF ESTATE

6. A principle of appraisal is that supply is influenced by

a. Demand
b. Scarcity
c. price
d. Effective purchasing power
A. DEMAND

7. The following are required to post a bond before engaging in practice

a. Real estate assessor
b. Private real estate appraiser
c. Public real estate appraiser
d. Real estate consultant
B. PRIVATE REAL ESTATE APPRAISER

8. Another term used to refer to a private real estate appraiser and is used in the RESA is
a. Estimator property tends to be indicated by the value of an equally desirable subs
b. Assessor
c. Valuer
d. Practitioner
C. VALUER

9. The value of replaceable property tends to be indicated by the value of an equally

desirable substitute property is called the principle of
a. Desire
b. Substitution
c. Replacement
d. competition
B. SUBSTITUTION
10. When one talks about the use which at the time of appraisal is most likely to produce
the greatest net return, it refers to
a. Most effective use
b. Optimum use
c. Highest and Best use
d. Highest rate of return
C. HIGHEST AND BEST USE

11. The application of larger and larger amounts of the agents in production will produce
greater and greater net income ( increasing returns) up to a point ( surplus productivity) is
a. Increasing and decreasing returns
b. Diminishing returns
c. Excess point
d. Optimum increasing returns
A. INCREASING AND DECREASING RETURNS

12. A principle that is comprised of reasonable degree of social and economic

homogeneity
a. Economic value
b. Highest and best use
c. Conformity
d. Adherence
C. CONFORMITY

13. The principle that value is the worth of all present and future benefits arising from
ownership and use of real property
a. Principle value
b. Principle of highest returns
c. Principle of income return
d. Principle of anticipation
D. PRINCIPLE OF ANTICIPATION

14. In an area in the city, a building valued at P 30,000,000.00 was built right beside an
old dilapidated establishment which tends to increase the value of such establishment and
is a principle called
a. Progression
b. Regression
c. Depression
d. Value influence
A. PROGRESSION

15. This is considered a factor that influence or create to real estate

a. Competition
b. Social ideals and standard
c. Highest and best use
d. substitution
B. SOCIAL IDEALS AND STANDARD
16. When a real property’s value depreciates in view of the decline in the utility of a
feature of the property may be referred to as
a. Principle of utility
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Functional depreciation
d. Use depreciation
B. FUNCTIONAL OBSOLESCENCE

17. A beautiful two story house was located in the city, but thereafter a shanty was put up
beside the property and its value will be negatively affected and which is the principle of
a. Deterioration
b. Progression
c. Regression
d. Value depreciation
C. REGRESSION

18. It is considered an approach to value in real estate appraisal under the principle of
anticipation
a. Market date approach
b. Market survey approach
c. Income approach
d. Future value approach
C. INCOME APPROACH

19. In making a survey of similar properties in the area, the appraiser uses the market date
approach which is based on the principle of
a. Competition
b. Substitution
c. Comparison
d. Replacement
B. SUBSTITUTION

20. It is an approach which utilizes the concept of determining replacement cost and
adjusting for depreciation of a house and lot
a. Substitution approach
b. Income approach
c. Cost approach
d. Replacement approach
C. COST APPROACH

21. It generally requires an estimate of the actual or stabilized gross income less
provisions for vacancy and bad debts, operating expenses such as building insurance, real
estate taxes, repairs and maintenance and administrative charges
a. Replacement cost approach
b. Income approach
c. Investment income approach
d. Income-expenses approach
B. INCOME APPROACH

23. The gross income multiplier may also be used to determine the value of the property
and may be computed by dividing the selling price of a comparable property by the
a. Annual gross income
b. Net income
c. Monthly income
d. Income after taxes
A. ANNUAL GROSS INCOME

24. It is considered an approach to value in real estate appraisal

a. Market data approach
b. Market survey approach
c. Net returns approach
d. Comparable data approach
A. MARKET DATA APPROACH

25. A 7 door apartment was sold for P 6,600,00 in the area which had an annual gross
income of P 600,000, what is the gross income multiplier
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
B. 11

28. Under the RESA, a private real estate appraiser must pay the following bond to
engage in practice
a. P 10,000
b. P 5,000
c. P 25,000
d. P 20,000
D. P 20,000

29. In order for an assistant city assessor to be promoted to the higher position of chief
assessor, it is required that he/she
a. Be a licensed real estate assessor
b. Must have 10 years experiences as real estate assessor
c. Be a licensed real estate appraiser
d. Be a licensed real estate consultant
C. BE A LICENSED REAL ESTATE APPRAISER

30. The real estate appraiser refers to the private real estate appraiser and
a. Real estate assessor
b. Public real estate appraiser
c. Individual real estate appraiser
d. Staff of the assessor’s department
B. PUBLIC REAL ESTATE APPRAISER

32. A map which provides the general location of real property including the surrounding
landmarks and reference points is referred to as
a. Subdivision lot plan
b. Vicinity map
c. Road map
d. Lot plan
B. VICINITY MAP

35. It is the counting the number of steps in a required distance to determine the distance
a. Pacing
b. Step counting
c. Estimated foot distance
d. Step measurement
A. PACING

36. It is the angle less than 90° measured from N or S ( meridian) and referred to in
plotting a lot as
a. Degrees
b. Bearing
c. Tie line
d. Compass degrees
B. BEARING

38. A map that identifies flood-prone and landslide-prone areas in the country and shows
which areas have high chances of soil erosion and which areas are low-lying and flood-
prone area is referred to as a
a. Geohazard map
b. Hazard map
c. Philvocs ecomap
d. Soil hazard map
A. GEOHAZARD MAP

39. The map showing all the details that make up the surface features of the earth is
generally called a
a. Surface map
b. Terrain map
c. Topographic map
d. Elevation map
C. TOPOGRAPHIC MAP

41. It is a plan showing the general features and layout of a subdivision including block
and lots and opens spaces
a. Vicinity plan
b. Subdivision plan
c. Approved survey plan
d. Location plan
B. SUBDIVISION PLAN

43. Surveys whose principal purpose is the determination of data relating to bodies of
water are referred to as
a. Marine survey
b. Aquatic survey
c. Hydrographic survey
d. Aquagraphic survey
C. HYDROGRAPHIC SURVEY

44. These involve the classification of the country’s unclassified public forests into
alienable or disposable lands
a. Geodetic survey
b. Land classification survey
c. Tax mapping
d. Public domain land survey
B. LAND CLASSIFICATION SURVEY

46. In a title, the letters “Psu” appears which would mean

a. Private subdivision
b. Private survey
c. Public survey
d. Private land survey
B. PRIVATE SURVEY

47. In case several lots were acquired to be developed into a subdivision, the survey
would be a private consolidation subdivision survey indicated by the letters
a. Psu
b. Pcn
c. Pcs
d. Pcss
B. PCN

48. A private subdivision survey is indicated using the letters

a. Pss
b. Psu
c. Psd
d. Psds
C. PSD

49. A lot buyer wanted to have the 6 parcels of land he just bought all adjacent to each
other into one title. He will have this survey undertaken
a. Private consolidation survey
b. Private survey
c. Private assembly survey
d. Public consolidation survey
A. PRIVATE CONSOLIDATION SURVEY

50. In order for Mr. Eneer to plot the shape and details of the lot he just bought from the
transfer certificate of title, he must have at least the following data
a. Tie line measurement
b. Bearing and lot points
c. Bearing and distance from lot points
d. Bearing and tie line
C. BEARING AND DISTANCE FROM LOT POINTS

51. It is the relationship between a thing desired and a potential purchaser

a. Price
b. Value
c. Cost
d. Counter offer
B. VALUE

52. An observation in the principles of appraisal is that the desire for property to be
effective must be backed by
a. Effective demand
b. Sufficient supply
c. Purchasing power
d. Immediate need
C. PURCHASING POWER

53. It is not a value factor in the appraisal of a parcel of land

a. Sun orientation
b. Frontage
c. Depth
d. Shape
A. SUN ORIENTATION

54. It reflects the loss in value brought about by the wear and tear the action of natural
elements
a. Natural obsolescence
b. Deterioration
c. Economic obsolescence
d. Functional obsolescence
B. DETERIORATION

55. The subdivision plan of a parcel of land which has been subdivided into several lots
will have to be approves by this government agency
a. Registry of deeds
b. department of Lands
c. Bureau of Lands
d. Local government
C. BUREAU OF LANDS

56. A city assessor, under the RESA after taking the licensure examination and passing
the same will be given a license as
a. Licensed real estate assessor
b. Licensed government assessor
c. Licensed real estate appraiser
d. Licensed public assessor
C. LICENSED REAL ESTATE APPRAISER

58. In order to mark the lot plan boundaries on the parcel of land, the following is used as
the marker
a. Land monument
b. Cylindrical concrete monument
c. Concrete lot marker
d. Concrete monument
B. CYLINDRICAL CONCRETE MONUMENT

SUBDIVISION DEVELOPMENT

2. It is the National government agency tasked to provide responsive housing programs

primarily to homeless low-income families with access to social services and economic
opportunities is the
a. National Housing Authority
b. Social Housing Finance Corporation
c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
d. Home National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation
B. SOCIAL HOUSING FINANCE CORPORATION

8. It is defined under PD 957 as a parrel of land primarily partitioned for residential

purposes into individual lots, with or without improvements
a. Simple subdivision
b. Residential subdivision
c. Subdivision project
d. Complex Subdivision Plan
C. SUBDIVISION PROJECT

10. It refers to the housing programs and projects covering houses and lots or homelots
only undertaken by the Government or the private sector for the underprivileged and
homeless citizens which shall include sites and services
a. Economic housing
b. Socialized housing
c. Low cost housing
d. Homeless housing project
B. SOCIALIZED HOUSING

11. Developer RRC may publish the advertisement of their project even without a license
to sell provided that
a. It is duly regeistered with HLURB
b. It has started development of the project
c. It is for announcement purposes only
d. It is only for pre-selling
C. IT IS FOR ANNOUNCEMENT PURPOSES ONLY

12. PD 1216 requires subdivision owners to provide adequate roads. Alleys, sidewalks
and reserved open spaces for parks or recreational use of the total area of a subdivision
project equivalent to at least
a. 25 %
b. 30 %
c. 35 %
d. 20 %
B. 30 %

13. The following are required to register with HLURB to sell subdivision lots or
condominium projects
a. Real estate brokers and real estate salespersons
b. Licensed Real estate brokers
c. Real estate Salespersons
d. Licensed real estate brokers and accredited real estate salespersons
D. LICENSED REAL ESTATE BROKERS AND ACCREDITED REAL ESTATE
SALESPERSONS

15. CCA Realty obtained a written authorization to develop in a certain area based on an
approved land use plan or ordinance referred to as
a. Location clearance
b. Development permit
c. Authority to develop
d. Certificate of Registration
A. LOCATION CLEARANCE

18. What should not be included in the advertisements of the developer of a high end
subdivision project
a. Project area and location
b. Future development not covered by license to sell
c. Subdivision proposed amenities and facilities
d. Project completion date
B. FUTURE DEVELOPMENT NOT COVERED BY LICENSE TO SELL
19. Sally wanted to sell condominium units in a condo project nears her house, she must
therefore
a. Register directly with HLURB
b. Get a licensed from HLURB
c. Work under a real estate broker and register with HLURB
d. Be accredited by a real estate developer
C. WORK UNDER A REAL ESTATE BROKER AND REGISTER WITH HLURB

21. A complaint may be filed with HLURB in the following instance

a. Complaint for non payment of broker’s commission
b. Complaint by buyer against non completion of projects
c. Complaint of broker versus his salesperson
d. Complaint of developer for right of way
B. COMPLAINT BY BUYER AGAINST NON COMPLETION OF PROJECTS

22. The performance bond required under PD 957 from a developer shall be made
payable to
a. HUDCC
b. Republic of the Philippines
c. Homeowner’s Association
d. Local Government
B. REPUBLIC OF THE PHILIPPINES

23. A licensed to sell issued to a developer may be suspended motu propio by the
HLURB or by
a. Complaint by a real estate broker
b. Verified complaint by buyer
c. Written complaint by buyer
d. Written complaint by at least majority of the buyers
B. VERIFIED COMPLAINT BY BUYER

24. A certificate of registration of the developer may be revoked by HLURB except in the
following instance
a. Developer is of bad business repute
b. Violation of provisions of PD 957
c. Misrepresentation in brochures or advertisements
d. Developer has another pending case with HLURB
D. DEVELOPER HAS ANOTHER PENDING CASE WITH HLURB

26. When it shall appear that a person about to engage in any act or practice which
constitute or will constitute a violation of provisions of PD 957, it may, upon due notice
and hearing issue a
a. Cease and desist order
b. Temporary restraining order
c. Revocation Order
d. Cancellation of performance bond order
A. CEASE AND DESIST ORDER

27. In case a developer mortgaged the project without approval from HLURB, and a
buyer complained, the mortgage shall be
a. Void as to the lot of the complaining buyer
b. Valid but subject to administrative fine from HLURB
c. Void as to the whole mortgage
d. Voidable at the instance of the HLURB
C. VOID AS TO THE WHOLE MORTGAGE

28. A buyer who failed to pay te installments due for a reasons other than the failure of
the owner or developer to develop the project shall be governed by
a. PD 957
b. HLURB Rules and Regulations
c. Realty Installment Buyers’ Protection Act
d. Installment Financing Act
C. REALTY INSTALLMENT BUYERS’ PROTECTION ACT

29. Under PD 957 the owner or developer shall deliver the title of the lot or unit to the
buyer upon
a. Full payment of the lot or unit
b. Turnover of the lot or unit
c. Occupancy of the lot or unit
d. Payment of the Registration fees for issuance of the title
A. FULL PAYMENT OF THE LOT OR UNIT

30. Joan bought a house and lot in a subdivision and Real estate tax and assessment on
the house and lot shall be paid by the developer
a. Until the buyer occupies the house
b. For as long as title has not passed to the buyer
c. Until there is proper turnover of the house
d. Until buyer has paid at least 50 % if on installment
B. FOR AS LONG AS TITLE HAS NOT PASSED TO THE BUYER

32. When the developer intends to donate the roads and open spaces to the local
government, it will have to provide the following to the LGU
a. Certificate of Occupancy
b. Certificate of Completion
c. Development Permit
d. Consent of the buyers of the lots
B. CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION

33. A developer may divide the development and sale of the subdivision into phases, each
phase to cover not less than
a. 5 hectares
b. 10 hectares
c. 15 hectares
d. 12 hectares
B. 10 HECTARES

34. In case of violation by the developer, YHLURB may impose administrative fines for
violations of PD 957 not exceeding
a. P 5,000.00
b. P 10,000.00
c. P 20, 000.00
d. P 50,000.00
B. P 10,000.00

35. Any person who shall violate any provisions of PD 957 shall, upon conviction, may
be punished by
a. A fine of not more than P 50,000.00
b. Imprisonment of not more than 5 years
c. Fine of not more than P 20,000
d. Fine of not more than P 10,000
C. FINE OF NOT MORE THAN P 20,000

36. In case of conviction, a person may be imposed a penalty of imprisonment of

a. Not more than 5 years
b. Not more than 6 years
c. Not more than 10 years
d. Not more than 20 years
C. NOT MORE THAN 10 YEARS

37. The subdivision and Condominium Buyers’ Protective decree became effective last
a. 1972
b. 1976
c. 1981
d. 1986
B. 1976

38. Under the IRR of PD 957, the maximum length of a block in a subdivision should be
a. 300 meters
b. 400 meters
c. 500 meters
d. 1,000 meters
B. 400 METERS

40. Under the IRR of PD 957, the minimum lot area for as ingle detached open market
housing shall be
a. 80 square meters
b. 120 square meters
c. 60 square meters
d. 50 square meters
B. 120 SQUARE METERS

41. For a row house under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage is
a. 3 meters
b. 3.5 meters
c. 4 meters
d. 5 meters
C. 4 METERS

42. The IRR of PD 957 provides that the number of rowhouses per cluster shall not
exceed
a. 20 units per block/cluster
b. 30 units per block/cluster
c. 40 units per block/cluster
d. 10 units per block/cluster
A. 20 UNITS PER BLOCK/CLUSTER

43. The water connection for subdivisions as provided under the PD 957 is
a. 100 liters per capita per day
b. 150 liters per capita per day
c. 200 liters per capita per day
d. 250 liters per capita per day
B. 150 LITERS PER CAPITA PER DAY

44. It is referred to as a parcel of land bounded on the sides by streets or pathways or

natural or man-made features, and intended for buildings
a. Open space
b. Block
c. Alleys
d. Playground
B. BLOCK

46. In subdivisions, it is generally defined as a structure designed or used as residence

a. House
b. Dwelling
c. Living quarters
d. Row house
B. DWELLING

47. It is defined to be dwelling unit surrounded by yards under the IRR of PD 957
a. Open Space
b. Single detached
c. Single attached
d. Rowhouse
B. SINGLE DETACHED
48. A dwelling unit which contains 2 separate living units each of which is separated from
another by a firewall and provided with independent access is referred to as
a. Single detached units
b. Rowhouse
c. Duplex
d. Compound
C. DUPLEX

49. A wall which subdivides a building so as to resist the spread of fire, by starting at the
foundation and extending continuously through all storeys to, or above the roof is
referred to as a
a. Building partition
b. Firewall
c. Party wall
d. Boundary wall
B. FIREWALL

50. It is a lot situated at the intervention of two or more streets is

a. Corner lot
b. Through lot
c. Intersection lot
d. Crossing lot
A. CORNER LOT

51. It means any lot which is not rectangle nor square-shaped as defined in the IRR of PD
957
a. Irregular lot
b. Non confirming lot
c. Non regular lot
d. Corner lot
A. IRREGULAR LOT

52. Under RA 7279, it refers to the most reasonable price of land and shelter based on the
needs and financial capability of Program Beneficiaries and Appropriate Financing
Schemes
a. Reasonable cost
b. Affordable cost
c. Poverty threshold cost
d. Minimum housing cost
B. AFFORDABLE COST

53. Under the IRR of BP 220, the minimum lot size for socialized single detached unit is
a. 72 square meters
b. 64 square meters
c. 48 square meters
d. 28 square meters
B. 64 SQUARE METERS

54. For a row house under the IRR of BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of a rowhouse
a. 3 meters
b. 4 meters
c. 5 meters
d. 3.5 meters
D. 3.5 METERS

55. A public way with a width of 2.0 meters intended to break a block and to serve both
pedestrian and emergency vehicles
a. Pedestrian lane
b. Alley
c. Walkway
d. Pathway
B. ALLEY

56. The power of HLURB to hear and decide cases of complaints by a buyer versus the
developer refers to this function
a. Judicial
b. Quasi judicial
c. Admonistrative
d. Regulatory
B. QUASI JUDICIAL

58. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a housing core
with the additional components such as exterior walls, plumbing, floor and electrical
wiring for the unit
a. Socialized housing
b. Shell house
c. Core house
d. Bare house
B. SHELL HOUSE

59. Under the IRR of BP 220 it is a habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum
requirements for a shell house which includes a s part thereof: window, doors and
partition walls for separating functional areas
a. Livable house
b. Basic house
c. Complete house
d. Minimum basic house
C. COMPLETE HOUSE
60. It is a public way intended to be used as pedestrian access to property referred to as a
pathway and shall have a minimum width of
a. 3 meters
b. 3.5 meters
c. 4 meters
d. 2 meters
A. 3 METERS

61. In case a buyer would like to refund his payments for non completion of the project
within completion date, the refund shall be the total amount paid including
a. amortization interests but including delinquency interests
b. amortization interests but including delinquency interests, with interest thereon the
legal rate
c. amortization interests, with interest thereon at the legal rate
d. amortization interests but excluding delinquency interests, with interest thereon at the
legal rate
D. AMORTIZATION INTERESTS BUT EXCLUDING DELINQUENCY INTERESTS,
WITH INTEREST THEREON AT THE LEGAL RATE

62. The buyer may desist from making his monthly payment or amortization to the
developer for non completion of the project on its completion date provided the buyer
a. Issues postdated cheques
b. Gives notice to the developer
c. Notifies the HLURB
d. Has paid at least 2 years of the total monthly installments
B. GIVES NOTICE TO THE DEVELOPER

63. The law that governs the rights of a homeowner is referred to as

a. Magna Carta for Homeowners
b. Magna Carta for Subdivisions
c. Magna Carta for Homeowners and Homeowner’s Associations
d. Magna Carta for Subdivision Homeowners
C. MAGNA CARTA FOR HOMEOWNERS AND HOMEOWNER’S ASSOCIATIONS

64. Under the magna carta governing homeowners, “ Simply majority” of association
members refers to
a. 60 %
b. 51 %
c. 2/3 majority
d. 50 % plus 1
D. 50 % PLUS 1

66. The following is not a duty of a member of a homeowner’s association

a. pay membership fees, dues and special assessment
b. to attend meetings of the association
c. Propose measures to raise funds and the utilization of such funds
d. To support projects and activities of the association
C. PROPOSE MEASURES TO RAISE FUNDS AND THE UTILIZATION OF SUCH
FUNDS

67. A director of the homeowner’s association may simply be removed for causes
provided in the bylaws by
a. Petition signed by simple majority of homeowners in good standing
b. Complaint filed with the HLURB
c. 2/3 vote of all members in good standing
d. At least half of the members of the association
A. PETITION SIGNED BY SIMPLE MAJORITY OF HOMEOWNERS IN GOOD
STANDING

68. The board of association may be dissolved through a process of

a. Signed petition of at least 2/3 of the association members
b. Petition to the HLURB
c. Meeting of at least a simple majority of members
d. Signed petition of at least a simple majority of association members
A. SIGNED PETITION OF AT LEAST 2/3 OF THE ASSOCIATION MEMBERS

69. Association members may vote in person or by proxy in all meetings of members
provided a proxy shall not be valid for more than
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
C. 3 YEARS

70. A person who, intentionally or by gross negligence, violates any provision of the
Magna Carta governing homeowners shall be punished with

a. Fine of not less tha P 20,000.00 but not more than P 50,000.00
b. Fine of not less than P 5,000.00 but not more than P 50,000.00
c. Fine of not more than P 100,000.00 nor less than P 5,000.00
d. Fine of not less than P 10,000.00 and not more than P 100,000.00
B. FINE OF NOT LESS THAN P 5,000.00 BUT NOT MORE THAN P 50,000.00

Condominium Concepts and others

3. In general, it is not considered part of the Master deed of a condominium project

a. Land on where the project is located
b. Number of buildings and stories per building
c. Provision for Management body of the project
d. Extent of share in the common areas
C. PROVISION FOR MANAGEMENT BODY OF THE PROJECT
7. It is regarded as an interest in real property consisting of a separate interest in a unit in
a building and an undivided interest in common in the land on which it is located and in
other common areas
a. Condominium unit
b. Condominium
c. Common areas
d. Condominium project
B. CONDOMINIUM

8. The following is not used as a measure of the interest in the common area by a condo
unit owner
a. Equal share
b. Based on floor area of their unit
c. Based on value of their unit
d. Based on the number of bedrooms per unit
D. BASED ON THE NUMBER OF BEDROOMS PER UNIT

9. The following is not part of the Master Deed of a condominium project

a. Amenities and facilities per condo building
b. Number of buildings and stories per building
c. Condominium house rules and regulations
d. Extent of share in the common areas
C. CONDOMINIUM HOUSE RULES AND REGULATIONS

10. The condominium corporation formation is required in case

a. As provided I the articles of Incorporation
b. At least 60 % Filipino ownership
c. At least one foreigner owns a unit
d. Of purely residential condominium units
C. AT LEAST ONE FOREIGNER OWNS A UNIT

11. Ownership of a Filipinos in a residential condominium project, if based on number of

units, is limited to a minimum of
a. 40% of the units
b. 51% of the units
c. No limit
d. 60% of the units
D. 60% OF THE UNITS

12. As owner of a condominium unit, the owner would be liable to pay real estate taxes
a. on the condominium project
b. On the taxes on his unit
c. On the taxes of the total condominium areas
d. On taxes assessed by the condominium corporation
B. ON THE TAXES ON HIS UNIT
( I WILL ANSWER – ESC)
13. the condominium corporation may also be dissolved in a general or special meeting
duly called for the purpose by affirmative vote of
a. All the members of the condominium corporation
b. Simple majority of the condominium members
c. 2/3 vote of the members
d. Majority of the members of the condominium Common areas
A. ALL THE MEMBERS OF THE CONDOMINIUM CORPORATION

14. It is referred to as the space encompasses by the interior surface of the floor, ceiling,
walls and exterior doors and windows, which is susceptible of independent use and
ownership
a. Condominium unit
b. Common Areas
c. Condominium Limited common areas
d. Condominium interior
A. CONDOMINIUM UNIT

15. If one wanted to find out what his interest or share is in the common areas, it may be
found in the following document
a. Master Deed
b. Condominium Rules and Regulations
c. Deed of restrictions
d. Tax Declaration of the Condominium Unit
A. MASTER DEED

16. A condominium corporation is important as it will be the management body of the

condominium project and more importantly, will also
a. Collect the dues from the unit owners
b. Hold title to the land of the condominium project
c. Pay for the realty taxes of the unit owner
d. Pay for the insurance of the separate units
B. HOLD TITLE TO THE LAND OF THE CONDOMINIUM PROJECT

17. A unit owner does not have the following right as a condominium unit owner
a. To lease the unit
b. To pay for share in insurance of the condo project
c. To sell the condominium unit
d.. To mortgage his own unit
B. TO PAY FOR SHARE IN INSURANCE OF THE CONDO PROJECT
(???)

18. The ABC Condo Residences, a mixed use condo project, wanted to amend the master
deed. In such case the majority vote shall be based on
a. Per unit ownership
b. Per unit value
c. Per unit floor area
d. Per unit no. of occupants
C. PER UNIT FLOOR AREA

19. Mr. Rodson owned a unit in the Triple Tower. He can sell the unit to anybody unless
there is
a. Delinquency in condominium dues
b. Provision for right of first refusal
c. A mortgage on the condominium unit
d. An amount of unpaid real estate taxes
B. PROVISION FOR RIGHT OF FIRST REFUSAL

20. If a unit owner has unpaid assessments, the notice of assessment will be considered a
lien on the condominium unit if
a. A notice of assessment is given to the unit owner
b. A notice of assessment is registered with the Register of Deeds
c. The delinquency is more than 1 year
d. Registered with the city treasurer’s office
B. A NOTICE OF ASSESSMENT IS REGISTERED WITH THE REGISTER OF
DEEDS

21. It refers to the weight bearing walls, columns and beams, stairways, halls, elevators,
etc, including the electrical, water and plumbing systems and amenities in a
condominium project
a. Common Areas
b. Condominium Building
c. Condominium Structure
d. Vertical Building
A. COMMON AREAS

23. Allison sold his 3 bedroom condo unit to a buyer. To register the sale he must get
from the condominium corporation this document
a. Clearance for condominium dues
b. Certificate of transfer
c. Certificate of ownership
d. Certificate of management
D. CERTIFICATE OF MANAGEMENT

24. In buying a condominium unit, it is highly recommended that the buyer get this most
important document to have full knowledge of the project
a. Deed of Restriction
b. Master Deed
c. Articles of Incorporation of Condominium Corporation
d. House rules and regulations
B. MASTER DEED
26. Once a buyer is now the owner of a condominium unit, the law more appropriate
covering his ownership and rights as a unit owner is
a. The Condominium Act
b. Subdivision and Condominium Buyers’ Protective Decree
c. The Realty Installment Buyer’s Protective Act
d. Property Registration Decree
A. THE CONDOMINIUM ACT

27. These are areas allocated to the exclusive use of a condominium unit owner like a
parking space
a. Common Area
b. Limited common area
c. Exclusive common area
d. Assigned parking space
B. LIMITED COMMON AREA

28. A condominium corporation must be organized for the condominium project if

a. No property manager will be hired
b. Units will be sold to foreigners
c. The unit owners agree by simple majority
d. The developer deems it necessary
B. UNITS WILL BE SOLD TO FOREIGNERS

30. a partition by sale may be made provided that damage or destruction to the project
has rendered one-half or more of the units therein untreatable and that condominium
owners with common interest are opposed to repair is more than
a. 30% interest
b. 50% interest
c. 70% interest
d. 100% interest
A. 30% INTEREST

31. The condominium corporation may be dissolved if the project has been in existence in
excess of 50 years, that it is obsolete and that members of the corporations are opposed to
the repair or restoration or remodeling or modernizing of the project to the extent of more
than
a. 30% of the members
b. 50% of the members
c. 2/3 of all members
d. 51% of the members
B 50% OF THE MEMBERS

32. A residential condominium corporation shall not during its existence, sell or otherwise
dispose of the common areas owned or held by it in the condominium project unless
authorized by the affirmative vote of a
a. Simple majority of the registered owners
b. 2/3 of the registered owners
c. 51% of the registered owners
d. All of the registered owners
A. SIMPLE MAJORITY OF THE REGISTERED OWNERS

33. An obligation to the condominium corporation of a unit owner

a. Comply with use restrictions
b. Sell the unit
c. Repaint the unit
d. Pay the realty taxes on his unit
A. COMPLY WITH USE RESTRICTIONS

35. The condominium corporation may integrate the project with another upon the
affirmative vote of a simple majority of the registered owners, subject only to the final
approval of
a. City engineer
b. HLURB
c. Municipal engineer
d. Local government unit
B. HLURB

36. The HLURB may issue a temporary license to sell to a condominium developer
which will be valid for
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
B. 6 MONTHS

37.For a farmlot subdivision, the minimum lot area for a farmlot is

a. 400 sqms.
b. 500 sqms
c. 750 sqms.
d. 1,000 sqms.
D. 1,000 SQMS.

38. Mr. Calix bought a farmlot in Batangas where he intends to retire. He may only build
on the lot up to a maximum of what percentage of the total lot
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 50%
B. 25%

39. Under the REIT law, a “Constitutive Document” means

a. Articles of incorporation of the REIT
b. Approved plan of the REIT
c. Ownership documents of the REIT
d. Share of the stock of the REIT
A. ARTICLES OF INCORPORATION OF THE REIT

40. It refers to the person responsible for the allocation of the deposited property to the
allowable investment outlets and selection of income generating real estate for the REIT
a. REIT Board of Directors
b. Fund Manager
c. Property Manager
d. Investment Manager
B. FUND MANAGER

41. It is a stock corporation established under the Corporation Code of the Philippines
and those promulgated by the Commission principally for the purpose of owning income-
generating real estate assets
a. Real Estate Investment Trust
b. Real estate trust
c. Real estate investment corporation
d. Real estate trust investment
A. REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUST

42. Under the REIT, it refers to a professional administrator of real properties who is
engaged by the REIT to provide property management services, marketing services,
project management services, including rent collection
a. REIT Administrator
b. Fund Manager
c. Property Manager
d. Property Administrator
C. PROPERTY MANAGER

43. A REIT must distribute annually to its shareholders its distributable income to the
extent of at least
a. 50%
b. 75 %
c. 90%
d. 100%
C. 90%

44. A REIT which owns land can only have foreign ownership up to
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 60%
A. 40%
45. Under the REIT law, a REIT must be a public company and to be considered as such
a REIT, must have at least how many public shareholders
a. 60
b. 100
c. 500
d. 1,000
D. 1,000

46. In order for the investor group of Mr. ang to form a REIT, it must have a minimum
paid – up capital of
a. P 100,000,000.00
b. P 1,000,000,000.00
c. P 500,000,000.00
d. P 300,000,000.00
D. P 300,000,000.00

47. Income payments to a REIT, for example, rentals, shall be subject to a lower
creditable withholding tax of
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
A. 1%

48. The fund manager of the REIT must have a minimum paid-up capital “stock or
assigned capital of
a. P 5,000,000.00
b. P 10,000,000.00
c. P 50,000,000.00
d. P 100,000,000.00
B. P 10,000,000.00

49. Cash or property dividends paid by a REIT shall be subject to a final tax of
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
B. 10%

50. Mario wanted to invest in the REIT and he may make an investment in the REIT by
way of
a. Subscription of shares of stocks
b. Initial investment of P50,000.00
c. Purchase of condo unit being rented by REIT
d. Direct infusion of capital to the REIT
A. SUBSCRIPTION OF SHARES OF STOCKS
51. A developer wants to build townhouses but would like build a condominium project
instead. Such development would be called
a. Townhouse subdivision
b. Condominium project
c. Townhouse project
d. Townhouse condominium
D. TOWNHOUSE CONDOMINIUM

52. The rights o a buyer of a condominium unit, when he fails to pay the monthly
installments under the contract to sell shall be governed by
a. PD 957
b. RA 6552
c. HLURB Rules of Procedures
d. Financing Act
B. RA 6552

53. The Master Deed of a mixed use condominium would not include the following
provision
a. Land on which it is built
b. Extent of common area interest
c. Provision for maintenance and insurance
d. Number of buildings to be built
C. PROVISION FOR MAINTENANCE AND INSURANCE

54. In case of a buyer on financing of a residential condominium unit who now owns the
unit, the primary law that the buyer must refer to as owner should be
a. Condominium Act
b. Subdivision and Condominium Buyer’s Protective Decree
c. Maceda Law
d. National Building Code
A. CONDOMINIUM ACT

56. It is used by the HLURB in order that the developer of a condominium project may
start selling units, pending other requirements and to assess the market viability of the
project
a. Certificate of Registration
b. License to sell
c. Temporary license to sell
d. Interim license to sell
C. TEMPORARY LICENSE TO SELL

58. A structure, either freestanding or part of another building, containing niches for the
inurnment of cremated human remains
a. Memorial park
b. Niche
c. Mausoleum
d. columbarium
D. COLUMBARIUM

59. Condario wanted to stop payment of his monthly amortizations for a studio condo
unit since the project has not been completed but it is required that he must
a. Update hi monthly payments
b. Inform HLURB
c. have paid at least 24 monthly installments
d. Give due notice to the developer
D. GIVE DUE NOTICE TO THE DEVELOPER

60, A condo unit owner does not have the following right
a. To lease out his unit
b. To paint the exterior walls of the unit
c. Exclusive easement of the air in the unit
d. Use of common areas
B. TO PAINT THE EXTERIOR WALLS OF THE UNIT

61. When it is provided that the unit to be sold must first be offered to the existing unit
owners, it is referred to as
a. Option
b. Right of first refusal
c. Right of offer
d. Right to refuse
B. RIGHT OF FIRST REFUSAL

65. Per HLURB Administrative Order No. 2, Series of 1992, the minimum plot size for
an industrial estate is
a. 500 square meters
b. 750 square meters
c. 1,000 square meters
d. 1,500 square meters
A. 500 SQUARE METERS

66. An allocated lot in an industrial subdivision is also referred to as

a. Industrial lot
b. Factory Plot
c. Subdivision lot
d. Manufacturing lot
B. FACTORY PLOT

68. An amount collected by the developer of a columbarium project for the maintenance
and upkeep of the project separate from the contract price
a. Value added tax
b. Perpetual care fund
c. Maintenance fund
d. Columbarium association dues
B. PERPETUAL CARE FUND

69. The minimum burial plot size for ground interment as per HLURB rules is
a. 1m x 1m
b. 1m x 1.5m
c. 1m x 2.44 m
d. 1m x 3.0 m
C. 1M X 2.44 M

70. The minimum plot size for a mausoleum under the rules for memorial parks is
a. 3m x 3m
b. 3m x 4m
c. 4m x 5m
d. 5m x 5m
C. 4M X 5M

REAL ESTATE LAWS AND TAXATION

2. The taxation on ownership of real property by a person is governed by

a. Tax Code of 1997
b. Local Government Code of 1991
c. National Internal Revenue Code
d. Bureau of Internal Revenue Regulations
B. LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE OF 1991

3. A parcel of land was sold at P5,000,000.00 but the BIR Zonal Value was P
4,800,000.00 while the local assessor’s fair market value is P 2,500,000.00 and it was
appraised at p 5,500,000.00. What will be the basis of capital gains tax if sold
a. Selling Price
b. Zonal Value
c. Assessor’s value
d. Appraised fair market value
A. SELLING PRICE

5. In a sale of a house and lot, the basis of the tax for the improvements shall be based on
a. BIR Zonal Value
b. Fair market value in the tax declaration
c. Assessed value in the tax declaration
d. Value declared as selling price
B. FAIR MARKET VALUE IN THE TAX DECLARATION

7. What is the basis of the capital gains tax on the sale of a commercial lot if the selling
price is P 10,000,000.00, but the BIR Zonal Values showed that it is P 8,000,000.00 and
the Assessor Fair Market Value is P 6,000,000.00 but actual value is P 12,000,000.00 if
the owner would want a lower tax to be paid
a. P 10,000,000.00
b. P 8,000,000.00
c. P 6,000,000.00
d. P 12,000,000.00
A. P 10,000,000.00

8. The tax paid to BIR on a sale of a condo unit used as residence by the owner is also
considered a
a. Final tax
b. Withholding tax
c. Prepaid Income tax
d. Transfer tax
A. FINAL TAX

10. In an auction sale of a foreclosed lot, Mr. Beed won and the property was not
redeemed. The documentary stamp tax must be paid within
a. Five (5) days after auction sale
b. Five (5) days after the month of auction sale
c. Five (5) days after the month of expiration of redemption period
d. Five (5) days after registration of auction sale
C. FIVE (5) DAYS AFTER THE MONTH OF EXPIRATION OF REDEMPTION
PERIOD

11. The following property if one were to sell the same would be classified as a capital
asset
a. Office warehouse of a corporation
b. Lots sold by a developer
c. Vacation house of the owner
d. Condominium units sold to the public
C. VACATION HOUSE OF THE OWNER

12. A buyer can get the value of the improvements of the house in Quezon City being
sold, which may be found in the
a. Bureau of Internal Revenue
b. City Assessor’s Office
c. Land Registration Authority
d. City Engineer’s Office
B. CITY ASSESSOR’S OFFICE

13. A lot was sold located in Batangas City, the owner who was residing abroad wanted to
pay the taxes on the sale already although his local residence was in Manila and the
Buyer in Taguig. Where is the capital gains tax on the sale to be paid?
a. Taguig
b. Manila
c. Batangas City
d. BIR Head Office
C. BATANGAS CITY

14. How much will be the surcharge for the late payment of capital gains tax on the sale
of a house and lot in the amount of p 3,000,000.00
a. P 35,000.00
b. P 45,000.00
c. P 90,000.00
d. P 75,000.00
B. P 45,000.00

16. A developer sold a condo unit on Jan. 5, had the sale notarized on Jan. 7. Up to when
should the developer pay the documentary stamp tax?
a. February 4
b. March 5
c. February 5
d. February 10
C. FEBRUARY 5
17. The creditable withholding tax for the sale of a lot by a developer is also referred to as
a. Capital gains tax
b. Final tax
c. Prepaid income tax
d. Advance withholding tax
C. PREPAID INCOME TAX

18. The following does not have a BIR zonal value

a. Condominium unit
b. Agricultural land
c. Condominium parking space
d. Building improvements
D. BUILDING IMPROVEMENTS

19. One of the way to show that one is habitually engaged in the real estate business for
BIR purposes
a. Registration with HLURB
b. Registration with PRC
c. At least five sale transactions the preceding year
d. At least 6 transactions above P 100,000 each
A. REGISTRATION WITH HLURB

20. In case of socialized housing, the ceiling for the value of the lot as per trhe BIR is
a. P 450,000.00
b. P 225,000.00
c. P 180,000.00
d. P 100,000.00
C. P 180,000.00

23. Mr. Sensen rented a house which he was also using a s his office. What will be the
withholding tax on the rent he has to deduct
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%
B. 5%

24. If the tax declaration of a house & lot in a city is more than 3 years old, the seller
must get a certification it is still the latest from
a. Bureau of Internal Revenue
b. City Assessor’s Office
c. BIR Zonal Valuation Department of the City
d. City Treasurer
B. CITY ASSESSOR’S OFFICE

25. How much will be the doc. stamps to be paid in case a foreclosed property is
redeemed by the owner within the period of redemption
a. 1.5%
b. P 15.00
c. P 15.00 for every P 1,000 or fraction thereof
d. 1.5% of the selling price or zonal value whichever is higher
B. P 15.00

26. The right of redemption already lapsed last January 6 and the winning bidder must
pay the capital gains tax within what period
a. 30 days from the date of auction sale
b. 30 days from the expiration of redemption period
c. 30 days from the month of expiration of redemption period
d. 30 days from notarization of auction sale
B. 30 DAYS FROM THE EXPIRATION OF REDEMPTION PERIOD

27. Ms. Rica, a real estate broker, already earned P 800,000 in commissions for the first
two months. Thereafter, the withholding tax of Ms. Rica should be
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 12%
C. 15%

28. A manufacturing corporation bought a parcel of vacant lot in a residential subdivision

as the price was very low and attractive. When sold, the corporation shall be subject to
the tax rate on the sale of
a. 1.5%
b. 3.0%
c. 5.0%
d. 6.0%
D. 6.0%

29. To avail of exemption of capital gains tax on sale of principal residence, one
important requirement is
a. Title must be registered under name of a natural person
b. Must own only 1 residence
c. Must have owned the resident for at least 10 years
d. Must buy another property within 18 months
A. TITLE MUST BE REGISTERED UNDER NAME OF A NATURAL PERSON

30. The following sale of property is not exempted from value added tax
a. Sale of a rented commercial lot worth P 3,400,000.00
b. Sale of socialized housing units
c. Sale of house and lot in the amount of P 2,500,000.00
d. Sale of principal residence
A. SALE OF A RENTED COMMERCIAL LOT WORTH P 3,400,000.00

31. The amount of exempted capital gains tax in the sale of principal residence shall be
a. Held by the taxpayer until a new residence is bought
b. Deposited in the account of the seller
c. Put in escrow
d. A tax credit for the seller
C. PUT IN ESCROW

32. A bank foreclosed a condominium unit and after it was consolidated in the name of
the bank sold the property worth P 6,500,000.00. What will be the tax initially to be paid
by the bank on the sale
a. Capital gains tax
b. Creditable withholding tax
c. Value added tax
d. Income tax
B. CREDITABLE WITHHOLDING TAX withholding tax

35. A real estate broker will earn P 1,800,000.00 for 2012 in professional fees. The
broker shall be subject to
a. 10% VAT
b. 3% percentage tax
c. 12% VAT
d. 5%
B. 3% PERCENTAGE TAX
37. Spouses Ed and Susie are both real estate brokers. For 2012, Ed will earn P
1,850,000.00 an Susie will earn P 2,000,000.00. How much will be the VAT paid by the
spouses
a. P 385,000.00
b. P 462,000.00
c. P 240,000.00
d. P 200,000.00
C. P 240,000.00

38. Transrealty Inc, sold two adjacent lots to Mr. Trias in a subdivision this March 2012.
Lot 1 P 1,800,000.00 and Lot 2 at P 2,200,00.00. What will be the VAT paid by Mr. Trias
a. P 264,000.00
b. P 480,000.00
c. P 400,00000
d. Exempted
B. P 480,000.00

43. The law governing taxation of real property for real estate taxes is
a. Local Government Tax Code of 1991
b. Local Government Code of 1991
c. Local Tax code
d. Local Property Tax Code
B. LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE OF 1991

45. An assessor in valuing the property of the land owner must base his value of the
property
a. On the zonal value
b. On the current and fair market value
c. On the value of the private appraiser
d. On the current declared value
B. ON THE CURRENT AND FAIR MARKET VALUE

46. The basic real property tax to be imposed by the sangguniang panlalawigan in a
province shall not exceed
a. 1% of the assessed value
b. 1% of the fair market value
c. 2% of the assessed value
d. 2% of the fair market value of the assessor
A. 1% OF THE ASSESSED VALUE

47. A special levy is the special education fund tax which shall be a rate of
a. Not exceeding 1% of the assessed value
b. 1% of the assessed value
c. 1% of the fair market value
d. Not exceeding 1% of the fair market value
B. 1% OF THE ASSESSED VALUE
50. To compute for basic real property tax, the owner will use the formula
a. Fair market value x tax rate
b. Assessed value x tax rate
c. Assessment level x tax rate
d. Fair market value x assessment level
B. ASSESSED VALUE X TAX RATE

52. In order for the local government to impose and implement the tax due for the real
estate taxes for the city, it must be through
a. Executive order for the Mayor
b. Approved local tax ordinance
c. Memorandum of the city council
d. Resolution of the sangguniang kabataan
B. APPROVED LOCAL TAX ORDINANCE

55. A parcel of the and was assessed as commercial at a rate of 45% with a fair market
value of P 2,300,000.00, although the zonal value is P 3,000,000.00. What will be the
assessed value?
a. P 1,150,000.00
b. P 1,500,000.00
c. P 1,035,000.00
d. P 1,350,000.00
C. P 1,035,000.00

56. The assessment level of the improvements of a property owned by Ms. Berna will be
based on the classification and
a. Fair market value of the improvement of the assessor
b. Assessed value of the improvement of the assessor
c. Zonal value of the improvement
d. Declared value by the owner x tax rate
A. FAIR MARKET VALUE OF THE IMPROVEMENT OF THE ASSESSOR

58. The city of Baguio may provide a discount for early payment of the annual tax in the
discount amount not exceeding
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 24%
C. 20%

60. For real estate taxes, the Local Government Code provides the same accrues
a. Every end of the quarter for the year
b. On 1st day of January
c. Upon notice of assessment
d. Every beginning of the quarter for the year
B. ON 1ST DAY OF JANUARY

61. The idle land tax does not apply to the following property
a. Uncultivated agricultural land of 3 hectares
b. Rawland of unimproved 5,000 square meters
c. Land with unfavorable physical factors
d. 2 hectares of land suitable for farming ½ of which is unimproved

65. Roger did not agree the assessment made by the assessor on his property. Roger may
appeal the same within what period
a. 30 days from receipt of notice of assessment
b. 60 days from receipt of notice of assessment
d. 90 days from the receipt of notice
d. 45 days from receipt of notice
B. 60 DAYS FROM RECEIPT OF NOTICE OF ASSESSMENT

67. Persons who transfer ownership of their property to another have to notify the
assessor within what period
a. 30 days from the date of transfer
b. 60 days from the date of transfer
c. 90 days from the date of transfer
d. 6 months from date of transfer
B. 60 DAYS FROM THE DATE OF TRANSFER

68. In case of payment of real estate taxes under protest, the first thing the taxpayer must
do is to
a. Pay the real estate tax
b. File letter of protest
c. File an appeal with the Local Board of Assessment Appeals
d. Request for an assessment from the assessor
A. PAY THE REAL ESTATE TAX

69. The following may condone real estate taxes in whole or in part
a. Provincial Assessor
b. City Mayor
c. City Treasurer
d. President of the Philippines
D. PRESIDENT OF THE PHILIPPINES

70. The local government shall cause a notice of delinquency and thereafter the property
sold at public auction in case of
a. Unpaid delinquent real estate taxes
b. Under declaration of value
c. Payment under protest
d. Delinquent real estate taxes for at least 5 years
A. UNPAID DELINQUENT REAL ESTATE TAXES
71. In computing the assessed value of the property, one will use the following formula
a. Fair market value x assessment level
b. Assessed value x assessment level
c. Assessed value x tax rate
d. Fair market value x tax rate
A. FAIR MARKET VALUE X ASSESSMENT LEVEL

72. In case of all assessments and reassessments made after January 1 of any year, the
same take effect
a. Upon publication in a newspaper of general circulation
b. Upon approval
c. On January 1 of the next year
d. 90 days after the reassessment
C. ON JANUARY 1 OF THE NEXT YEAR

74. What will be the interest monthly in case the owner fails to pay the basic real estate
taxes due in the amount of p 5,000
a. P 1,250.00
b. P 100.00
c. P 8.33
d. P 125.00
B. P 100.00

75. No action for the collection of the real estate tax, whether administrative or judicial,
shall be instituted after the expiration of
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
A. 5 YEARS

76. The special education fund tax collected by the municipality shall be allocated to the
a. General fund of the province
b. Local School Boards
c. National education school fund
d. Education fund of the city
B. LOCAL SCHOOL BOARDS

77. The assessment level of your property may also be found in the
a. Tax declaration of the property
b. Schedule of fair market values of assessor
c. Local government code of 1991]
d. Official receipt of payment of transfer tax
A. TAX DECLARATION OF THE PROPERTY
81. Mang Benito will declare his real property for the first time and its shall b assessed
for taxes for the period during which it would have been liable but in no case for more
than
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 20 years
C. 10 YEARS

83. The Quezon City local government imposed starting January 2012 a socialized
housing tax in the amount of
a. ½ of 1% of assessed value
b. 1% of assessed value
c. 2% of assessed value
d. Not exceeding 1% of assessed value
A. ½ OF 1% OF ASSESSED VALUE

84. The real estate taxes for socialized housing of Quezon City shall be imposed on land
with an assessed value for more than
a. P 50,000.00
b. P 100,000.00
c. P 200,000.00
d. P 500,000.00
B. P 100,000.00

85. Ruther owned a residential house used for business and assessed as commercial. What
will the assessed value of the land of the land’s fair market value is P 4,500,000.00
a. P 90,000.00
b. P 2,250,000.00
c. P 1,800,000.00
d. P 675,000.00
B. P 2,250,000.00

86. How much will be the quarterly tax payment for a residential parcel of land valued at
P 1,800,000.00 if the tax rate is 2%
a. P 7,200.00
b. P 1,800.00
c. P 3,600.00
d. P 4,500.00
D. P 4,500.00

87. If land is in a residential area but the building is used for commercial purposes, the
assessment level classification shall be based on
a. Residential
b. Commercial
c. Predominant use
d. Mixed residential and commercial
B. COMMERCIAL

88. The owner failed to pay his basic real estate tax of P 10,000 in 2006 and p 5,000 SEF.
How much will be the total interest to be paid for the unpaid basic real property for the 5
years delinquency
a. P 12,000.00
b. P 7, 200.00
c. P 10,000.00
d. P 18,000.00
B. P 7, 200.00

89. A change in actual use of the property reported to the assessor shall take effect
beginning
a. The next month after reassessment
b. The next quarter upon reassessment
c. Immediately upon reassessment
d. 90 days after reassessment
B. THE NEXT QUARTER UPON REASSESSMENT

90. The assessor is mandated to undertake a general revision of real property assessments
every
a. Year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. A necessary
C. 3 YEARS

91. The law referred to as Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program Extension with
Reforms (CARPER) is
a. RA 6657
b. RA 9646
c. RA 9700
d. RA 7160
C. RA 9700

92. The CARPER primarily extends the land distribution program of CARP by
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
B. 5 YEARS

93. Beneficiaries under the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program and CARPER
shall be awarded an area not exceeding
a. 2 hectares
b. 3 hectares
c. 5 hectares
d. 7 hectares

94. Lands acquired by beneficiaries under the CARP shall not be sold, transferred or
conveyed except through hereditary succession, or to the government, or to the
government, or to the LBP, or to other qualified beneficiaries through the DAR for a
period of
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 25 years
C. 10 YEARS

95. When the land ceases to be economically feasible and sound for agricultural purposes,
the DAR, may authorize the reclassification or conversion of the land its disposition after
the lapse of
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
B. 5 YEARS

96. in case of non-redemption of foreclosed property, the capital gains tax or credible
withholding tax shall be paid based on
a. Winning bid price
b. Bid price or zonal value or assessor’s value whichever is higher
d. Zonal value
B. BID PRICE OR ZONAL VALUE OR ASSESSOR’S VALUE WHICHEVER IS
HIGHER

98. The donation of a house and lot to the daughter is not subject to the following tax
charges
a. Transfer tax
b. Donor’s tax
c. Documentary stamp tax
d. Registration fees
C. DOCUMENTARY STAMP TAX
DOCUMENTATION AND REGISTRATION

1. A contract of lease like a contract of sale, to be registered with the Registry of Property
must be
a. Duly signed by all parties
b. In a public instrument
c. Stamped paid by the Bureau of Internal Revenue
d. In legal size paper
B. IN A PUBLIC INSTRUMENT

2. A deed of absolute sale was entered into over a parcel of land and signed by the parties
but not was notarized. The sale shall be considered
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. No effect
A. VALID

3. A contract of lease entered into by the tenant before leaving for abroad may be
registered with the Registry of Deeds, provided it must be
a. Over one year lease
b. Involves only a parcel of land
c. Duly notarized
d. Duly authenticated by the Philippine Consular Office
C. DULY NOTARIZED

4. In order to give consent to a contract of sale of a condo units, the person purchasing
must have the capacity to give consent at the age of
a. At least 18 years of age with consent of parents
b. At lease 18 years old
c. At lease 21 years of age
d. At lease 18 and be represented by a legal guardian
B. AT LEASE 18 YEARS OLD

5. The three essential elements of a contract of sale of personal property are consent, the
object certain and
a. Terms and condition
b. Cause or consideration
c. Time of delivery
d. With no terms and condition
B. CAUSE OR CONSIDERATION

6.If there is consent but is vitiated such as error, fraud, or undue influence on the seller of
the house and land, the contract is considered
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Unenforceable
C. VOIDABLE

7. A deed of sale was signed by the parties in Makati involving a parcel of land in Davao,
the deed must be duly notarized in
a. Makati City
b. Where the property is located
c. Where the parties will appear before the notary public
d. Where the Registry of Deeds of the land is located
C. WHERE THE PARTIES WILL APPEAR BEFORE THE NOTARY PUBLIC

8. For notarization, the following may be used and presented by the parties for
notarization before the notary public
a. Community Tax Certificate
b. Any Identification Card
c. Competent evidence of identity
d. Company identification card
C. COMPETENT EVIDENCE OF IDENTITY

9. Melissa was living in Korea and her sister was her attorney in fact and she sent a
special power of attorney to sell notarized by a Korean lawyer. The sale entered into by
her sister the Philippines will be
a. Valid
b. Of no effect
c. Void
d. Invalid
A. VALID

10. Under the law, in case of sale of a piece of land is through an agent, to be valid, the
authority of the latter shall be
a. Duly notarized
b. In writing
c. Must be a licensed real estate salesperson
d. Must not have an expiry date
B. IN WRITING

11. The following is not a common designation for real estate transactions involving sale
of real properties
a. Deed of Absolute Sale
b. Deed of Reconveyance
c. Deed of sale
d. Deed of Extrajudicial Settlement
D. DEED OF EXTRAJUDICIAL SETTLEMENT

12. Mr. B had unpaid loans with the bank and decided to pay off the loans by using the
property for payment. The same is referred to as
a. Deed of Conditional Sale
b. Dacion en pago
c. Deed of loan payment
d. Deed of reconveyance
B. DACION EN PAGO
13. The buyer was abroad and was buying a condo unit in Taguig City from the owner. To
be able to sell without requiring the buyer to be present, the following may be executed
by the seller
a. Bilateral deed of sale
b. Special power of attorney
c. Unilateral deed of sale
d. Affidavit of Sale
C. UNILATERAL DEED OF SALE

14. The community tax certificate is no longer valid for proof of identification for
notarization because of the absence of
a. Thumb mark
b. Photograph
c. Signature
d. Credibility
B. PHOTOGRAPH

15. In a deed of absolute sale, the following must be indicated or shown with respect to
the corporate buyer
a. Martial status
b. Capacity to buy land
c. Citizenship
d. Of legal age
B. CAPACITY TO BUY LAND (my answer is C. Citizenship – ESC)

16. The notary public license is valid for a period of

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. Until revoked
d. 3 years
B. 2 YEARS

17. DDD Corporation will sell its parcel of land in Cavite. The sale must be accompanied
by the following for purpose of the person signing for the corporation
a. Corporate secretary resolution
b. Affidavit of authority
c. Corporate sectary’s certificate
d. Letter of authority
A. CORPORATE SECRETARY RESOLUTION
(Corp Sec. Certificate that there is a Board Resolution authorizing the sale of the land
- ESC)

18. For a minor to purchase a condominium unit, it is required that

a. The minor be at least 15 years old
b. The minor represented by the legal guardian
c. There must court approval
d. There must be consent of the parents
B. THE MINOR REPRESENTED BY THE LEGAL GUARDIAN

19. A car acquired through a bank loan is covered by a chattel mortgage which is
registered with
a. Land Transportation Office
b.Department of Transportation
c. Civil Registry
d. Registry of Deeds
D. REGISTRY OF DEEDS

20. It refers to an act whereby a person appears before a notary public and represents to
the notary public that he signed the document
a. Acknowledgement
b. Jurat
c. Certification
d. Authentication
A. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

21. The seller cannot use the following document for purposes of notarization of a
contract to sell
a. Passport
b. Postal ID
c. Company ID
d. NBI clearance
C. COMPANY ID

25. The book where the Registrar of Deeds records the instrument of sale and other
pertinent documents is referred to under PD 1529 as
a. Primary Record Book
b. Primary Entry Book
c. Primary Logbook
d. Primary Date Entry Sheet Record
B. PRIMARY ENTRY BOOK

26. The law governing the use and requirement of a power of attorney in a sale is
provided under the
a. Law on powers of attorney
b. Law on agency
c. Law on property registration
d. Law on sale
B. LAW ON AGENCY

29. A buyer who is abroad and will not go to the Philippines may still buy a parcel of land
by a sale instrument which is a
a. Unilateral Deed of Absolute Sale
b. Bilateral Deed of sale
c. Special Power of attorney
d. Authority to Buy
A. UNILATERAL DEED OF ABSOLUTE SALE

30. In case of a bilateral deed of absolute sale of a condominium unit, the following signs
the deed of absolute sale
a. Seller
b. Seller and witness
c. Buyer
d. Seller and buyer
B. SELLER AND WITNESS (My answer is D. SELLER AND BUYER – ESC)

35. When a sale of a piece of land or any interest is through an agent, the authority of the
latter to be valid must be
a. In writing
b. In writing and duly notarized
c. In writing and authenticated
d. In the proper legal size form
A. IN WRITING

36. A special power of attorney, under the law, will be required in the following instance
a. Acts of administration
b. Lease of real property for more than 1 year
c. Lease of real property for six months
d. Administering property of owner for rent
B. LEASE OF REAL PROPERTY FOR MORE THAN 1 YEAR

38. A parcel of land covered only by a tax declaration in order to be issued a title requires
the filing of a land registration proceeding in the
a. Regional trial court where the property is located
b. Land Registration Authority
c. Registry of Deeds where the property is located
d. Department of Justice
A. REGIONAL TRIAL COURT WHERE THE PROPERTY IS LOCATED

39. Mr. Jun was issued a special power of attorney but would not be able to be present for
the signing of the sale. In order for the sale to proceed through his brother, he may
execute a
a. Authority letter
b. Substitute power of attorney
c. General power of attorney
d. Letter of authority
B. SUBSTITUTE POWER OF ATTORNEY
40. The special power of attorney executed by the buyer to purchase land will not be
extinguished under the following
a. Death of the seller
b. Expiration of the power of attorney
c. Death of the purchaser
d. Revocation by the buyer
A. DEATH OF THE SELLER

41. Ian executed a document titled general power of attorney which however contained
the power to sell his land. In such case, the power of attorney shall be treated as
a. Null and void
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Cannot be used in the sale
B. VALID

44. The Land Registration Authority is directly under the supervision of this government
agency
a. Department of Justice
b. Department of Environment and natural Resources
c. Office of the President
d. Department of Land Registration
A. DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE

45. PD 1529 covers matters governing registration and dealing with registred land and is
referred to as
a. Decree of Land Registration
b. Property Registration Decree
c. Property and Land Registration Decree
d. Registration of Land Decree
B. PROPERTY REGISTRATION DECREE

46. It shall be the operative act to convey or affect the land in a sale insofar as third
persons are concerned
a. Act of registration
b. notice of registration
c. Payment of registration fees
d. Notarization of deed of sale
A. ACT OF REGISTRATION

49. Under the Property Registration Decree, if the buyer is a married person, he does not
need to indicate the following
a. Status
b. name of husband or wife
c. Citizenship of the spouse
d. If property is conjugal
D. IF PROPERTY IS CONJUGAL

50. A mortgage on registered land may be discharged or cancelled by means of an

instrument executed by the mortgage which shall be filed with the Register of Deeds
referred to as
a. Affidavit of Cancellation
b. Cancellation of Mortgage
c. Proof of payment of loan
d. Loan Cancellation
B. CANCELLATION OF MORTGAGE

54. Before the case is decided, the adverse claim may also be cancelled by
a. Order of the court
b. Affidavit of cancellation by claimant
c. Notice of cancellation filed by claimant
d. Register of deeds
A. ORDER OF THE COURT

57. To cancel the lien based on Rule 74, any of the heirs may file a
a. Verified complaint
b. Notice of cancellation
c. Verified petition for cancellation
d. Deed of cancellation signed by all heirs
C. VERIFIED PETITION FOR CANCELLATION

58. No deed of extrajudicial settlement shall be registered unless the fact of extrajudicial
settlement of adjudication is published
a. Once a week
b. Once a week for two consecutive weeks
c. Once a week for three consecutive weeks
d. Three times a week for one week
C. ONCE A WEEK FOR THREE CONSECUTIVE WEEKS

59. To show proof that the publication requirement for extrajudicial settlement has been
done, the following document may be presented
a. Copy of newspaper publication
b. Certification by heir of publication
c. Affidavit of publication by heir
d. Affidavit of publication by newspaper
C. AFFIDAVIT OF PUBLICATION BY HEIR

60. Alma was the sole heir of the estate of her deceased parent and must register the
following document for the settlement of the estate
a. Affidavit of Extrajudicial settlement
b. Affidavit of self adjudication
c. Deed of extrajudicial settlement
d. Deed of adjudication signed by heirs
B. AFFIDAVIT OF SELF ADJUDICATION

61. No erasure, alteration, or amendment shall be made upon the registration book after
the entry of a certificate of title except by
a. Order of the court
b. Order by the Registry of Deed
c. Order by the Land Registration Authority
d. Request for correction by registered owner
A. ORDER OF THE COURT

64. Original copies of certificate of title lost or destroyed in the offices of Register of
Deeds as well as liens and encumbrances affecting the lands covered by such titles shall
be reconstituted through
a. The Regional Trial Court
b. Registry of Deeds
c. Land Registration Authority
d. Department of Justice
A. THE REGIONAL TRIAL COURT

65. Under PD 1529 deeds, conveyances and other voluntary instruments, affecting
registered land, executed in accordance with law in the form of public instruments shall
be registrable. Provided, that every such instrument shall be signed by the person or
persons executing the same in the presence of at least
a. One witness
b. Two witness
c. Two witness per party signing
d. Four witness
B. TWO WITNESS

68. An owner was able to redeem the property foreclosed and to cancel the certificate of
sale annotated on the title, he must present the following document to the Register of
Deeds
a. Certificate of cancellation
b. Annulment of foreclosure
c. Certificate of redemption
d. Certificate of non foreclosure
C. CERTIFICATE OF REDEMPTION

69. No Register of Deeds shall register a sale of property in Manila unless it is shown that
the following yearly taxes have been paid and updated in the city treasurer’s office
a. Transfer tax
b. Real estate taxes
c. Capital gains tax
d. Registration fees
B. REAL ESTATE TAXES
70. In line with the LRA’s mission to preserve the stability and integrity of land
ownership and maintain the trust and confidence of the public in the Torrens System, the
LRA shall enable the quick and secure registration of land titles in the country through
the application of state-of-the-art information technology under this program called
a. Land Title Technology program
b. Land Titling Computerization Project
c. Land Title and Registration Computerization Project
d. Land Computerization Program
B. LAND TITLING COMPUTERIZATION PROJECT

71. The notary public has the authority to perform notarial acts within a period valid for
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. Until revoked
d. Until death
B. 2 YEARS

72. The form used for the issuance of the transfer certificate of title is referred to as a/an
a. Title form
b. Judicial form
c. Owner’s copy
d. Registry of Deeds form
B. JUDICIAL FORM

73. For a special power of attorney to be irrevocable the same must be

a. Duly notarized
b. State that it is revocable
c. Coupled with an interest
d. Signed by the attorney-in-fact
C. COUPLED WITH AN INTEREST

74. The following is required by law to be registered with the Registry of Deeds
a. Contract of lease
b. Contract to sell of subdivision lot
c. Option contract
d. Revocation of special power of attorney
B. CONTRACT TO SELL OF SUBDIVISION LOT
(or condo unit or house and lot as required of developers by by PD 957 -ESC)

76. Prior to the Property Registration Decree, the law governing registration of titles was
a. Property Registration act
b. Land Registration act
c.Torrens System of Land Registration
d. National Land Titles and Deeds Registration Act
B. LAND REGISTRATION ACT
77. An affidavit of adjudication of a sole heir to be registered must be published
a. Three times a eek for one week
b. Once a week for three weeks
c. Once a week for three consecutive weeks
d. Three consecutive times in one week
C. ONCE A WEEK FOR THREE CONSECUTIVE WEEKS

79. The current Administrator of the Land Registration Authority is

a. Leila de Lima
b. Eulalio Diaz III
c. Ronald A. Ortile
d. Benedicto Ulep
B. EULALIO DIAZ III

80. A deed of absolute sale to be registered with the Registry of Deeds must be in the
form of
a. Legal size bond paper
b. A4 size paper
c. Any sufficient form
d. Any while bond paper
C. ANY SUFFICIENT FORM
FUNDAMENTALS OF PROPERTY OWNERSHIP

1. Ownership of real estate in the Philippines is foremost and primarily governed by

a. 1987 Philippine constitution
b. Special laws enacted by Congress
c. New Civil Code provisions of property Ownership
d. 1935 Philippine Constitution
A. 1987 PHILIPPINE CONSTITUTION

5. The government may dispose or alienate lands of the public domain provided the
classification is
a. Residential
b. Forest Land
c. Commercial
d. Agricultural
D. AGRICULTURAL

6. The share of an illegitimate child in their father’s estate is equivalent to the share of the
legitimate of the legitimate child in the share of
a. Equal share
b. One-third share
c. One-half share
d. No share
C. ONE-HALF SHARE
7. It is the power of the state to take private property for the purpose of public use,
provided there is payment of just compensation
a. Expropriation
b. Eminent Domain
c. Police Power
d. Escheat
B. EMINENT DOMAIN

10. One of the most important rights of someone who owns agricultural land and which is
part of the bundle of rights of an owner is
a. Right to dispose
b. Right to harvest
c. Right to plant
d. Right to sell the harvest
A. RIGHT TO DISPOSE

11. Under the 1987 Phil. Constitution the government may transfer land to a Filipino
Citizen by homestead provided the size does not exceed
a. 1,000 square meters
b. 12 hectares
c. 3 hectares
d. 1 hectare
B. 12 HECTARES

12. There are two main types of limitations on the right of ownership over land, one of
which is legal or by the government, while the other is
a. Private limitation
b. Self-imposed limitation
c. deed Restrictions
d. Contractual
D. CONTRACTUAL

13. Ms. Alonpa will get married this year and will enter into a prenuptial agreement with
agreement on complete separation of property regime. What will be their property
relations after marriage?
a. Conjugal partnership of gains
b. Separation of Property
c. Absolute community of property
d. Co-ownership
B. SEPARATION OF PROPERTY

15. A Filipina got married to a foreigner in august 3, 1998. In such case, the Filipina may
still buy land in the Philippines, provided
a. She becomes a dual citizen
b. She has not renounced her citizenship
c. She buys land under BP 185
d. She buys a maximum of 1,000 sqms. of residential land only
B. SHE HAS NOT RENOUNCED HER CITIZENSHIP

17. An owner is said to be an owner in fee simple, which means that the owner
a. Has a certificate of title
b. Has the bundle of rights
c. Has the right to sell the property
d. Has bought the property
B. HAS THE BUNDLE OF RIGHTS

19. A proceeding which the government undertakes in the exercise of its power to take
private property for road widening and payment of just compensation
a. Expropriation
b. Eminent Domain
c. Exercise of State Power
d. Road Widening
A. EXPROPRIATION

20. A natural born American citizen from Hawaii may own a house in the Philippines
which may be possible under this condition
a. He leases the land and builds a house
b. He marries a Filipina
c. He becomes a dual citizen
d. He avails of the special resident visa
A. HE LEASES THE LAND AND BUILDS A HOUSE

22. For one to have a property relation of complete separation of property the future
spouses must execute this document before marriage.
a. Marriage contract
b. Prenuptial agreement
c. Judicial Separation of property
d. Affidavit of waiver\
B. PRENUPTIAL AGREEMENT

23. It is the right of a person to the fruits of a property even if the property is not owned
by the said person
a. Usufruct
b. Tenancy Agreement
c. Harvest agreement
d. Lease agreement
A. USUFRUCT

24. The Family Code that now governs the property relations between married people
after the New Civil Code became effective
a. August 8, 1993
b. August 3, 1998
c. August 3, 1988
d. August 8, 1990
C. AUGUST 3, 1988

25. Two people desire to get married under the Family Code of the Philippines, it is now
required that their ages should be
a. 14 for the girl, 16 for the boy
b. 16 years old with parent’s consent
c. 18 years old for both
d. 21 years old for the boy and 18 years old for the girl
C. 18 YEARS OLD FOR BOTH

26. It is voluntary limitation on one’s right of ownership to land

a. Deed of Restrictions
b. Building code
c. Zoning
d. Land Use Plan
A. DEED OF RESTRICTIONS

27. Two neighbors enter into a sale of a house and lot in cash. This type of transfer is
referred to as
a. Involuntary grant
b. Private grant
c. Installment grant
d. Adjacent owner grant
B. PRIVATE GRANT

28. A foreigner married a Filipina who then bought a house and lot and the Register of
deeds required the foreigner to execute an affidavit of waiver of his rights over the
property. The affidavit of waiver is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Required for issuance of title
B. VOID

29. A Filipino who became a Canadian citizen may still buy land in the Philippines for
business purposes provided
a. He executes an affidavit under BP 185
b. He is a former natural born Filipino citizen
c. He buys only up to a maximum of P 1,000 square meters
d. He will permanently reside in the Philippines
B. HE IS A FORMER NATURAL BORN FILIPINO CITIZEN
30. Mrs. Chi got married last August 2012 but her father donated to her a condominium
unit in Makati before she got married. In such case, the property will b considered
a. Exclusive property
b. Conjugal property
c. Community property
d. Separate property
C. COMMUNITY PROPERTY

31. A foreigner may own land in the Philippines through hereditary succession, but it is
required that the foreigner must be
a. A dual citizen
b. A legal heir
c. A resident of the Philippines
d. A citizen and resident
B. A LEGAL HEIR

33. This principle states that the citizenship of a person shall be based on the location of
birth of a person is called
a. Jus sanguinis
b. Jus soli
c. Jus locandi
d. Dual citizenship
B. JUS SOLI

34. To apply as a dual citizen of the Philippines under RA 9225, one must be a former
natural born Filipino and do the following
a. Renounce his or her foreign citizenship
b. File a petition with the Bureau of Immigration
c. File an application with the Department of Foreign Affairs
d. File for permanent residency
B. FILE A PETITION WITH THE BUREAU OF IMMIGRATION

35. Arnold and Ces were both 18 years old but decided not to get married yet and just
lived as husband and wife. Their property relations shall be
a. Conjugal property
b. Co-ownership
c. Community property
d. Sole property of each other
B. CO-OWNERSHIP

37. Baby got married last June 1998, but now separated from her husband. In case she
inherited property when she was still single, she can still sell the property provided
a. No consent of the husband is required
b. She gets the consent of her husband
c. She is legally separated
d. They have been separated for more than 7 years
B. SHE GETS THE CONSENT OF HER HUSBAND

38. A natural born Filipino neighbor migrated to the United States and became an
American but now wants to do business in the Philippines and acquire land in Bonifacio
Global City. What is the maximum area that your friend can purchase under the Foreign
Investments Act?
a. 1,000 square meters
b. 3,000 square meters
c. 5,000 square meters
d. 500 square meters
C. 5,000 SQUARE METERS

39. An owner of a house borrowed money from the bank but failed to pay his loan and
the property was sold at public auction. This is referred to as a method of acquiring title
by
a. Voluntary grant
b. Private grant
c. Involuntary grant
d. Foreclosure grant
C. INVOLUNTARY GRANT

41. Acquisition of land under the Foreign Investments Act is allowed for business
purpose but cannot be done for the purpose of
a. Agriculture
b. Manufacturing
c. Buying and selling
d. Leasing of land
C. BUYING AND SELLING

43. C Corporation engaged in the corn business wanted to expand its plantation and lease
more land from the government, but it can do so provided the maximum area does not
exceed.
a. 5 hectares
b. 500 hectares
c. 1,000 hectares
d. 5,000 hectares
C. 1,000 HECTARES

44. A husband and wife cannot sell property to each other, except if their property
relations is separation of property or
a. They have a judicial separation of property
b. They have a marriage settlement
c. They have no children
d. They execute a joint affidavit of waiver
A. THEY HAVE A JUDICIAL SEPARATION OF PROPERTY
45. Mr. Felipe sold their conjugal house and lot to the buyer but did not get the consent of
his wife, Alexis. Alexis may question the sale still provided she does so within a period of
how many years from date of sale
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
C. 5 YEARS

48. In addition to the process of naturalization, a foreigner may also become a Filipino
Citizen through
a. Marriage to a Filipino
b Residency in the Philippines for 10 years
c. Act of legislature
d. Born before the 1935 Philippine Constitution
C. ACT OF LEGISLATURE

49. Under the law, the following person cannot acquire land of the person under whom
the administration of the property is given
a. Legal guardian
b. Relative up to the first degree of consanguinity
c. Eldest sibling
d. Real estate property manager
A. LEGAL GUARDIAN

50. A female child was born of parents who could not marry because they were both
minors at the time of birth of the child, and is classified as
a. Natural child
b. Illegitimate child
c. Legitimate child
d. Acknowledged child
B. ILLEGITIMATE CHILD

51. If ABC Corporation wanted to lease lands of the public domain, the lease can only be
for a period of
a. 25 years
b. 25 years renewable for another 25 years
c. 50 years
d. Up to 99 years
B. 25 YEARS RENEWABLE FOR ANOTHER 25 YEARS

55. Manny and Hengee got married last 1976 but did not have a marriage settlement prior
to their marriage
a. Absolute Community of Property
b. Separation Property
c. Community Property
d. relative community of property
A. ABSOLUTE COMMUNITY OF PROPERTY

56. The marital consent of the husband is not required in the sale of the following
property of a couple who got married in 1986 when
a. It was bought by the couple during marriage
b. It was inherited property of the husband
c. It was bought after August 3, 1988
d. It was bought with exclusive money of the wife
D. IT WAS BOUGHT WITH EXCLUSIVE MONEY OF THE WIFE

58. Mang Pepito occupied a parcel of agricultural land way back in 1952 under adverse
and continuous possession. He may acquire title to the land if he was in good faith and if
he has been in possession for at least
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 50 years
d. 25 years
A. 10 YEARS

59. Mr. & Mrs. Federico got married without marriage settlement. Still their property
relations may be changed still during marriage by
a. Waiver of the spouse
b. Agreement between the spouses
c. Judicial order
d. Order o the Registry of Deeds
C. JUDICIAL ORDER

60. It refers to the temporary or limited turnover of the use and possession of one’s
property to another at an agreed price
a. Contract to sell
b. Lease contract
c. Assignments of rights
d. Usufruct
B. LEASE CONTRACT

62. Under BP 185, for land to be classified as an urban area, it means

a. An area where there are malls and shopping centers
b. A municipality with a population density of 1,000 persons per square kilometer
c. Poblaciones with a population density of 800 persons per sq. km.
d. An area with mass transport system
B. A MUNICIPALITY WITH A POPULATION DENSITY OF 1,000 PERSONS PER
SQUARE KILOMETER
63. Francis migrated to America in 1980. Born of Filipino parents, he wants to retire in
the Philippines and wants to buy a house and lot in Batangas City. As such, he must
execute this document
a. Affidavit of waiver
b. Affidavit under BP 185
c. Sworn statement of land ownership
d. Sworn statement of citizenship
B. AFFIDAVIT UNDER BP 185

64. Natural-born citizens of the Philippines who had become a citizen of a foreign
country shall retain Philippine citizenship, under the Dual Citizenship law, upon
a. Renouncing their foreign citizenship
b. Becoming a permanent resident
c. Taking oath of allegiance to the Philippines
d. Application with the Department of Foreign Affairs
C. TAKING OATH OF ALLEGIANCE TO THE PHILIPPINES

65. For prescription as a mode of acquiring title, it requires that possession must be
adverse, continuous, actual, and if in bad faith, for a period of
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 25 years
C. 30 YEARS

66. In the absence of an express declaration in the marriage settlements, the separation of
property between spouses once married shall not take place except by
a. Duly notarized agreement signed by the spouses
b. Separation de Facto
c. Judicial Separation of Property
d. Separation of Property Agreement
C. JUDICIAL SEPARATION OF PROPERTY

68. The Philippines applies the principle of citizenship based on the citizenship of the
parents and is also referred to as the principle of
a. Jus sangunis
b. Jus soli
c. Jus parentis
d. Jus citizen
A. JUS SANGUNIS

69. A vacant land in Cebu that was escheated to the government because the deceased left
no will and no heirs will be classified as
a. Land of the public domain
b. Patrimonial property
c. National property
d. Public state property
B. PATRIMONIAL PROPERTY

70. The following person may own land in the Philippines for purpose of either residence
of business purpose, provided the person is
a. A foreigner married to a Filipina
b. A natural born Canadian citizen
c. A dual citizen
d. A permanent resident of the Philippines
C. A DUAL CITIZEN

71. Under the Philippine Retirement Authority, a foreigner may reside in the Philippines
and will be given a visa referred to as
a. Tourist visa
b. Non-immigrant visa
c. Special Resident Retiree’s Visa
d. Special Non-immigrant visa
C. SPECIAL RESIDENT RETIREE’S VISA

72. If a parcel of land owned by the city is no longer intended for public use, it is referred
to as
a. Patrimonial property
b. Idle land
c. Private property
d. Public Reserved property
A. PATRIMONIAL PROPERTY

74. Any Filipino citizen may apply for a free patent title under RA 10023 and in case of
first and second class municipalities, the same should not exceed
a. 200 square meters
b. 500 square meters
c. 750 square meters
d. 1,000 square meters
C. 750 SQUARE METERS

75. A child born out of wedlock from minor parents, but who eventually got married, will
now be classified as
a. Legitimate
b. Illegitimate
c. Acknowledge Natural child
d. Spurious Child
A. LEGITIMATE

76. A sale of a parcel of land, bought by a foreigner who was not allowed to own land,
sold eventually to a Filipino citizen s considered
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Of no effect
A. VALID

77. For a Filipino, now 33 years old and who is now a citizen of Australia, to be able to
acquire land under BP 185, the person should
a. Be a dual citizen
b. Be born of at least one Filipino parent
c. Be residing in the country within 3 years
d. Not buy more than 5,000 square meters of urban land
B. BE BORN OF AT LEAST ONE FILIPINO PARENT

78. Property reserved for compulsory heirs of the decedent is referred to as

a. Inheritance
b. Legitime
c. Free portion
d. Hereditary succession
B. LEGITIME

79. A former natural born Filipino may acquire land in a rural area not exceeding 3
hectares for business purpose under
a. Batas Pambansa Blg. 185
b. Foreign Investor Lease Act
c. Foreign Investment Act of 1991
d. Real Estate Investment Trust
C. FOREIGN INVESTMENT ACT OF 1991

80. A couple married in August 3, 1998 entered into a marriage settlement but was
declared void by the court. Their property relations shall be
a. Conjugal Partnership of gains
b. Absolute Community of Property
c. Separation of property
d. Relative community of property
B. ABSOLUTE COMMUNITY OF PROPERTY

81. The following is not considered a public grant

a. Free patent issued by the government
b. Sales patent
c. Sale by city treasurer due to delinquent real estate taxes
d. Homestead grant
C. SALE BY CITY TREASURER DUE TO DELINQUENT REAL ESTATE TAXES

82. An illegitimate minor child may use the surname of the father who is married to
another, provided
a. The mother agrees
b. The father executes an affidavit of acknowledgement
c. The child is not over 7 years of age
d. The father and mother eventually marries
B. THE FATHER EXECUTES AN AFFIDAVIT OF ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

83. Land acquired through public auction due to nonpayment of delinquent real estate
taxes is a grant referred to as
a. Private grant
b. Public grant
c. Involuntary grant
d. Foreclosure grant
C. INVOLUNTARY GRANT

84. When a person inherits real estate from the deceased who died with a will but which
was declared void, would be an inheritance through
a. Intestate succession
b. Hereditary succession
c. Testamentary succession
d. Testate succession
A. INTESTATE SUCCESSION

85. A Filipina who married last August 3, 1988 may sell her property to her husband
provided
a. She makes a waiver
b. She bought the same Before August 3, 1988
c. She has a judicial separation of property
d. She bought it through her own money
C. SHE HAS A JUDICIAL SEPARATION OF PROPERTY

86. The general classification of property under the Civil Code is that one is classified as
movable property and the other is
a. Real property
b. Personal property
c. Immovable property
d. Real estate
C. IMMOVABLE PROPERTY

87. A foreigner who was given Filipino citizenship through a law under a Republic Act
approved by Congress may now own a land under
a. 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. BP 185
c. Foreign Investments Act of 1991
d. Dual citizenship law
A. 1987 PHILIPPINE CONSTITUTION
88. In case two people, both single, lived together as husband and wife last 2012 up to
now, their property relations shall be governed by
a. Absolute community of property
b. Separation of property
c. Co-ownership
d. Pro-rated to their contribution
C. CO-OWNERSHIP

91. The children inherited property from their father who just died. The rights over the
property shall be deemed transmitted to the heirs
a. Upon Death of the father
b. Upon payment of the estate taxes
c. Upon settlement of the estate of the father
d. Upon transfer of the title in their names
A. UPON DEATH OF THE FATHER

92. A foreigner may inherit and own real property located in the Philippines, provided
that the foreigner must be
a. A natural born Filipino
b. A legal heir
c. A dual citizen
d. An heir
B. A LEGAL HEIR

93. The following is not considered as an involuntary grant

a. Sale through foreclosure sale
b. Sale through execution sale
c. Sale of condo unit to a foreigner
d. Sale through auction sale due to unpaid real estate taxes
C. SALE OF CONDO UNIT TO A FOREIGNER

94. A couple got married in 1986 with marriage settlement that their property relations
will be under separation of property. The marriage settlement to be valid must be
executed
a. Before marriage
b. Before August 3, 1988
c. Anytime during marriage
d. Before purchase of any property
A. BEFORE MARRIAGE

95. It is not required for purpose of becoming a dual citizen under RA 9225
a. Execute an oath of allegiance
b. Petition through the consular office abroad
c. Make a renunciation of his foreign citizenship
d. Be a former natural born citizen of the Philippines
C. MAKE A RENUNCIATION OF HIS FOREIGN CITIZENSHIP

96. Which one of the following is considered as a voluntary limitation on one’s of

ownership to land
a. Right of way agreement
b. Police power
c. Taxation
d. Zoning regulations
A. RIGHT OF WAY AGREEMENT

97. Mario wanted to lease alienable land of the government. In this case the constitution
allows that he may lease up to
a. 3 hectares
b. 12 hectares
c. 500 hectares
d. 1,000 hctares
C. 500 HECTARES

99. The right of the owner of a parcel of land to receive civil fruits means the following
a. Right to harvest the land
b. Right to receive rent
c. Right to sell the produce from the harvest
d. Right to receive money in exchange for the harvest
B. RIGHT TO RECEIVE RENT

100. It is not an essential requisite for the exercise of eminent domain by the government
a. For public use
b. Must be titled land
c. Payment of just compensation
d. Due process of law
B. MUST BE TITLED LAND

LEGAL REQUIREMENTS FOR REAL ESTATE SERVICE PRACTICE

2. As Freddie decided to be a real estate broker, it is therefore required he must, in the

meantime, be a graduate of
a. A bachelor’s degree in real estate brokerage
b. A bachelor’s degree in real estate management
c. A relevant bachelor’s degree
d. At least two years of college
C. A RELEVANT BACHELOR’S DEGREE

5. In case DD Development Corporation will engage in the development of land for a

memorial park, the corporation shall be referred to under the RESA and defined as a
a. Real Estate Business Corporation
b. Real Estate Dealer
c. Real Estate Development & Memorial Company
d. Real Estate Developer
D. REAL ESTATE DEVELOPER

6. Herbert, as a real estate appraiser, is a person who conducts valuation/appraisal with

the necessary qualifications and experience to direct the valuation of real property, and is
also referred to as
a. Property appraiser
b. Real estate assessor
c. Value estimator
d. Valuer
D. VALUER

7. It refers to the land, improvements and all those attached to the land which are tangible
and physical
a. Real estate
b. Real property
c. Real estate improvements
d. Real property & improvements
A. REAL ESTATE

9. For the assessor, as provided under the RESA it shall refer to the Chief Assessor of the
municipality or city or province and includes the
a. Public government appraiser
b. Assistant assessor
c. Public real estate assessor
d. Government chief appraiser
B. ASSISTANT ASSESSOR

11. A real estate appraiser who was licensed then under the DTI may still be allowed to
register without examination under the principle of
a. Licensing
b. Carryover clause
c. Practice exemption
d. Grandfather clause
D. GRANDFATHER CLAUSE

13. For its creation, the nomination of members to the Real Estate Service Board is
initially made by the
a. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
b. Professional Regulation Commission
c. Professional Real Estate Organization
d. Accredited Professional Real Estate Organization
A. ACCREDITED AND INTEGRATED PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATION
14. A real estate broker employed a real estate salesperson to help him sell condo units. In
this case, the real estate salesperson must be a
a. Licensed and registered real estate salesperson
b. Licensed real estate salesperson
c. Registered real estate salesperson with HLURB
d. Accredited real estate salesperson
D. ACCREDITED REAL ESTATE SALESPERSON

15. The first national organization which was recognized and appointed to perform duties
prior to the recognition of the official AIPO was the
a. Interim Accredited Professional Organization
b. Interim Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization
c. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
d. Interim Accredited Professional Organization
A. INTERIM ACCREDITED PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATION

18. A real estate salesperson’s registration with the HLURB shall automatically be
terminated upon
a. Termination by the real estate association
b. Termination of his employment by the real estate broker
c. Suspension of the registration of the real estate developer
d. Expiration date January 31 of the year
B. TERMINATION OF HIS EMPLOYMENT BY THE REAL ESTATE BROKER

19. The Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service has the supervisory powers
over the real estate broker and the broker’s license may be suspended under the following
ground
a. Engaging in practice during suspension
b. Unethical practice
c. Violation of his association’s by laws
d. Non registration with HLURB
B. UNETHICAL PRACTICE
20. In case of a vacancy in the Board, it shall be filled up for the position vacated, which
shall be for the period of
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. Unexpired portion of the term of member who vacated
d. Not more than 6 years
C. UNEXPIRED PORTION OF THE TERM OF MEMBER WHO VACATED

23. As provided under Presidential Decree No. 957, a real estate salesperson who sells
condominium units for a project must file a bond in the amount of
a. P 1,000.00
b. P 5,000.00
c. P 20,000.00
d. No bond required
A. P 1,000.00

24. The PRBRES shall prescribed the essential requirements as to the curricular and
facilities of schools, colleges or universities in cooperation with the
a. Commission on Higher Education
b. Department of Education
c. Private Association of Schools in the Philippines
d. Philippine Universities Association
A. COMMISSION ON HIGHER EDUCATION

25. If a complaint was filed by a buyer with the PRBRES for violation of the RESA and
the broker was found liable. He may appeal to the
a. Court of Appeals
b. Professional Regulatory Commission
c. Supreme Court
d. Professional Regulation Commission
D. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

27. Suspension of a member of the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
for grounds under the RESA, shall be made by the
a. Professional Regulatory Commission
b. Ombudsman
c. President of the Philippines
d. Majority vote of the members of the Real Estate Service Board
C. PRESIDENT OF THE PHILIPPINES

28. It is considered not a ground for the removal of the chairperson of the Professional
Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
a. Unprofessional conduct
b. immortal conduct
c. Conviction of the crime of slight physical injuries
d. Neglect of duty
C. CONVICTION OF THE CRIME OF SLIGHT PHYSICAL INJURIES

30. In order to conform to technological and modern developments, the subjects for
examinations may be re-clustered, modified, added to, or excluded as may be found
necessary by the
a. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
b. Commission on Higher Education
c. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
d. Department of Education
A. PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF REAL ESTATE SERVICE

31. The bachelor’s degree adopted in coordination with the CHED for real estate service
and required under the RESA, is called
a. Bachelor of Science in Real Estate
b. Bachelor of Science in Real Estate Management
c. Bachelor of Science in Real Estate
d. Bachelor of Science in Real Estate Service Practice
B. BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN REAL ESTATE MANAGEMENT

32. The following is not a requirement to qualify to take the real estate appraiser’s
licensure examination
a. Must be a citizen of the Philippines
b. Must take continuing professional education units
c. Must be a resident of the Philippines
d. Must have NBI clearance
C. MUST BE A RESIDENT OF THE PHILIPPINES

33. In case of an applicant for the examination for real estate consultants, proof must be
shown that he/she has years experience as a licensed real estate appraiser or as a bank, or
institutional appraiser of
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
B. 5 YEARS

36. Results of the licensure examination shall be released by the Board from the last day
of the examination within
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
B. 10 DAYS

39. Under the RESA, in addition to the certification of registration a successful examinee
shall also be given by the PRC the following
a. Certificate of attendance
b. Professional Identification Card
c. Certificate of oath taking
d. Professional Rating certificate
B. PROFESSIONAL IDENTIFICATION CARD

43. A real estate broker is required to post a bond in the amount of P 20,000 with PRC
and P 5,000 with HLURB under PD 957 and P 1,000 for real estate salesperson also with
HLURB. How much total bond should therefore be posted by a real estate broker
a. P 20,000.00
b. P 5,000.00
c. P 25,000.00
d. P 26,000.00
A. P 20,000.00
44. Upon application and payments of the required fees, subject to the approval of the
PRC, special/ temporary permits may be issued to real estate service practitioner from
foreign countries in case of
a. Specific foreign development projects
b. Unavailability of local practitioners to enhance the practice
c. Government to government realty projects
d. Lack of real estate salesperson
B. UNAVAILABILITY OF LOCAL PRACTITIONERS TO ENHANCE THE
PRACTICE

46. In case of practice involving condominium projects, the following shall not be
required to post a bond with the government
a. Real estate salesperson
b. Real estate broker
c. real estate private appraiser
d. Real estate consultant
D. REAL ESTATE CONSULTANT

48. A successful examinee must, before engaging in the practice of real estate service,
undertake the following
a. Take an oath before the Board
b. Register with HLURB
c. Secure an NBI Clearance
d. Post a bond in the total amount of P 25,000.00
A. TAKE AN OATH BEFORE THE BOARD

49. The following number of acts performed by a real estate service practitioner shall
constitute an act of engaging in the practice of real estate service
a. More than one transaction
b. At least one transaction
c. Several transaction
d. Two consecutive transaction
B. AT LEAST ONE TRANSACTION

53. To engage in practice of the profession of a real estate broker whose office is in
Manila, professional tax must be paid and is payable to
a. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
b. City Treasure of Manila
c. Treasurer of the PRC
d. Bureau of Internal Revenue
B. CITY TREASURE OF MANILA

54. A real estate appraiser was found liable by the PRBRES. He may appeal the decision
of the PRBRES to the PRC Commission
a. Within 15 days from receipt of decision
b. Within 30 days from receipt of decision
c. Within 15 days from date of decision
d. Within 60 days from date of decision
A. WITHIN 15 DAYS FROM RECEIPT OF DECISION

55. Upon application and compliance with the required CPE units, and for reasons
deemed proper and sufficient, the Board may reinstate any revoked certificate of
registration and reissue a suspended professional identification card after a period of
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Upon approval
B. TWO YEARS

59. Arnold, a licensed real estate broker anted to set up a real estate marketing group and
he may engage the services of
a. 20 real estate salesperson
b. 20 accredited real estate salesperson
c. No limit
d. 20 licensed real estate salesperson
B. 20 ACCREDITED REAL ESTATE SALESPERSON

60. Jules just passed the real estate brokers’ examinations and rented out an office space
for her practice. It is required tat se must display in her place of business the following
a. Professional Identification card
b. Business name
c. Certificate of Registration
d. APO Receipt Number
C. CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION

62. Aling Meding used to sell lots in a subdivision but only finished high school. Under
the IRR of the RESA se could have continued to practice so long as she takes continuing
education program for
a. 60 hours real estate seminar
b. 120 hours real estate seminar and training
c. 120 hours on the job training
d. 60 hours on the job training and seminar
B. 120 HOURS REAL ESTATE SEMINAR AND TRAINING

63. As required under the IRR of the RESA the following practitioner should be full time
in his or her work
a. Real estate broker
b. Division Manager
c. Unit manager
d. Real estate salesperson
B. DIVISION MANAGER
64. For violation of the provisions of the RESA and its IRR by a real estate partnership,
the following may be made liable for violation
a. The president
b. The Director of the corporation
c. The partner
d. The chief Operating Officer
C. THE PARTNER

65. If one wanted to be qualified to be a member of the Professional Regulatory Board, it

is required that one should have experience as a licensed real estate broker for at least
a. One year
b. Five years
c. Ten years
d. Not required
C. TEN YEARS

66. It is the power of the Board not to register and issue a certificate of registration to any
successful examinee if
a. Found to be psychological unfit
b. Charged with the crime of murder
c. Convicted of traffic violation
d. Being investigated for immoral conduct
A. FOUND TO BE PSYCHOLOGICAL UNFIT

67. For the renewal of the professional identification card of a real estate consultant, it is
required that the practitioner must
a. Post a bond for P 20,000
b. Be under a real estate broker
c. Be a member in good standing of the AIPO
d. Be a member in good standing of his/her association
C. BE A MEMBER IN GOOD STANDING OF THE AIPO

68. In order for a person aspiring to be city assessor or to a higher credential level, under
the RESA, the person must be
a. A licensed real estate assessor
b. A licensed real estate appraiser
c. Experience as a real estate broker for ten years
d. Been in government for at least 15 years
B. A LICENSED REAL ESTATE APPRAISER

69. A current assessor who, on the date of the effectivity of R.A. No.9646 shall be
allowed to register without examination among others, provided they hold permanent
appointments and are performing actual appraisal and assessment functions for the last
five (5) years, and have passed the
a. PRC licensure examination for assessors
b. Real property assessing officer ( RPAO) examinations
c. Civil Serviced Examination
d. Real estate appraiser’s examinations
B. REAL PROPERTY ASSESSING OFFICER ( RPAO) EXAMINATIONS

70. A person who wants to engage in real estate service practice shall be required to post
a bond in the amount of P 20,000 if he will be a
a. Real estate salesperson
b. Real estate consultant
c. Real estate private appraiser
d. Real estate public appraiser
C. REAL ESTATE PRIVATE APPRAISER

71. Marie wanted to sell condo projects as a real estate salesperson, she must register
with HLURB and post a bond in the amount of
a. P 1,000.00
b. P 2,000.00
c. P 5,000.00
d. P 20,000.00
A. P 1,000.00

72. The expiry of the registration with HLURB of real estate broker expires every
a. December 31 of the year
b. 3 years
c. On the birthdate of the real estate broker
d. Every 2 years
A. DECEMBER 31 OF THE YEAR

73. In addition to the license number and PTR, the broker must also indicate in the
documents he sign the following
a. Address of the broker
b. AIPO Receipt Number
c. Email address
d. Date of release of Professional Identification Card
B. AIPO RECEIPT NUMBER

74. The required membership to the AIPO of a real estate practitioner shall be
a. Upon approval by the AIPO
b. Automatic and mandatory
c. Upon approval by the PRBRES
d. Upon approval by PRC
B. AUTOMATIC AND MANDATORY

79. One of the following is exempted from the coverage of the real estate service practice
in case of selling the property of a private owner
a. Real estate salesperson
b. Real estate broker
c. Attorney in fact who does not require compensation
d. A person appraising a property of another person
C. ATTORNEY IN FACT WHO DOES NOT REQUIRE COMPENSATION

82. As the AIPO, the accredited and integrated professional organization approved by the
PRC last 2011 is called
a. Institute of Real Estate Professional
b. Institute of Philippine Real Estate Service Practitioners
c. Philippine Institute of Real Estate Service Practitioners
d. Philippine Institute of Real Estate Professionals
C. PHILIPPINE INSTITUTE OF REAL ESTATE SERVICE PRACTITIONERS

83. The various regulatory boards under the PRC are grouped into an association referred
to as the
a. PAPRB
b. PARBR
c. PABRES
d. PRBRES
A. PAPRB

84. As of December 2012, the total number of real estate service practitioners approved
for registration without examination and those who passed the broker exams in 2011 and
2012 is estimated at
a. More than 16,000
b. More than 20,000
c. More than 10,000
d. More than 25,000
B. MORE THAN 20,000

85. The following is not issued a separate license for the practice of their specified
profession
a. Real Estate Broker
b. Real Estate Assessor
c. Real Estate Appraiser
d. Real Estate Consultant
B. REAL ESTATE ASSESSOR

86. The total number of regulatory boards in the country supervised by PRC is estimated
at
a. More than 30
b. More than 40
c. More than 50
d. More than 100
B. MORE THAN 40
87. Prior to the Professional Regulation Commission, the same was referred to as
a. Office of the Board Examiners
b. Professional Regulation Authority
c. Professional Board Examiners
d. Office of the Professional Board of Examiners
A. OFFICE OF THE BOARD EXAMINERS

89. There are four sectors categorized under the PRC for the various profession, which
one is not a sector
a. Medical and Health
b. Business, Education an Management
c. Engineering
d. Vocational Technology
D. VOCATIONAL TECHNOLOGY

90. The law governing the Professional Regulation Commission is called

a. Professional Regulation Act
b. Professional Modernization Act of 2000
c. Professional Modernization Law
d. Professional Regulatory Act of 2000
B. PROFESSIONAL MODERNIZATION ACT OF 2000

91. The Real Estate Service Practice is classified under the PRC as belonging to this
sector
a. Real Estate Sector
b. Business, Education and Management Sector
c. Technology Sector
d. Business and Services Sector
B. BUSINESS, EDUCATION AND MANAGEMENT SECTOR

92. The term of office of the commissioners of the Professional Regulation shall be
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
D. 7 YEARS

93. Under the PRC law, a Practicing Professional is defined to be a person who
a. Passed the licensure examination
b. Name is entered in the PRC registry book
c. Name and license are entered in the PRC registry book
d. Paid the fees for professional license
C. NAME AND LICENSE ARE ENTERED IN THE PRC REGISTRY BOOK

94. The PRBRES may cluster the examination subjects for the Real Estate Brokers
Licensure examinations, which is clustered into
a. 3 subjects
b. 5 subjects
c. 4 subjects
d. 12 subjects
A. 3 SUBJECTS

95. Aside from RA 9646, the law that governs the current practice of real estate service is
a. Ministry Order No. 39 Series 1985
b. Subdivision and Condominium Buyer’s Protective Decree
c. Local Government Code of 1991
d. HLURB Rules of Procedures
B. SUBDIVISION AND CONDOMINIUM BUYER’S PROTECTIVE DECREE

96. The real estate broker, aside from the license, is required to pay yearly professional
tax which is due for payment every year on or before
a. January 30
b. January 31
c. February 28
d. April 15
B. JANUARY 31

97. A community tax must be paid by the real estate broker to the treasurer of the local
government which should not be later than
a. January 31
b. February 28
c. Last day of January
d. Last day of February
D. LAST DAY OF FEBRUARY

98. The First Professional Summit was held by the PAPRB in cooperation with the PRC
in Manila last
a. October 2012
b. October 2010
c. November 2011
d. December 2012
A. OCTOBER 2012

99. A judgment or decision of the Professional Regulation Commission becomes final

and executory within a period of
a. 10 days from receipt of judgment
b. 15 days from receipt of judgment
c. 15 days from date of decision
d. 30 days from receipt of decision
B. 15 DAYS FROM RECEIPT OF JUDGMENT
100. President Noynoy Aquino has declared the “ Philippine Professionals
Competitiveness Week” every year during the period
a. 1st week of October
b. 2nd week of October
c. 3rd week of October
d. 4th week of October
C. 3RD WEEK OF OCTOBER

CODE OF ETHICS

1. The power to adopt the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities, under the RESA shall be
under the
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professional Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
D. PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF REAL ESTATE SERVICE

2. The following person is not covered by the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for
real estate service practice
a. Real estate salesperson
b. Real estate broker
c. Real estate appraiser
d. real estate dealer
D. REAL ESTATE DEALER

3. The code of ethics and responsibilities, as provided under the RESA shall be
prescribed and issued by the
a. National Association of real estate service practitioner
b. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professional Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
B. ACCREDITED AND INTEGRATED PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATION

4. Before the RESA , the code of ethics under the DTI was referred to as
a. National Code of Ethics
b. National Code of Ethics for Real Estate Service
c. National Code of Ethics for Realty Service Practice
d. national Code of Ethics and Responsibilities
C. NATIONAL CODE OF ETHICS FOR REALTY SERVICE PRACTICE

5. Under the then code of ethics, the realty service is considered the following and not a
a. Calling
b. Profession
c. Business
d. Occupation
C. BUSINESS

6. As per the definition of real estate service practitioners under the RESA, the codes of
ethics no longer cover the following
a. Real estate salesman
b. Real estate consultants
c. Real estate brokerage partnership
d. Real estate appraiser
C. REAL ESTATE BROKERAGE PARTNERSHIP

7. Under the code of ethics, it does not include the relation of the real estate service
practitioner to the
a. public
b. government
c. developer
d. client
C. DEVELOPER

8. Attendance in a continuing professional education is provided also in the code of ethics

under the following provision
a. The spirit of camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship of other shall be
promoted
b. Their dealings with each shall be fair, honest and just
c. A high level of respect relationship with colleagues in the Realty Service Practice shall
be maintained
d. Adequate knowledge, competence and expertise in real estate development and
management shall be maintained
D. ADEQUATE KNOWLEDGE, COMPETENCE AND EXPERTISE IN REAL
ESTATE DEVELOPMENT AND MANAGEMENT SHALL BE MAINTAINED

9. The statement “ do unto others what you want others to do unto you” is referred to as
the
a. Good manners and right conduct
b. Golden rule
c. Spirit of Camaraderie
d. Respect for others
B. GOLDEN RULE

10. As to their relation with the government, the practitioner is not the following
a. License
b. Permits
c. Authority to pay surety bond
d. Required registration
C. AUTHORITY TO PAY SURETY BOND
11. The real estate broker is not required under the code of ethics and the RESA to secure
the following before engaging in practice
a. Postal I.D
b. Payment of professional tax
c. Professional Identification Card
d. Certificate of Registration with PRC
A. POSTAL I.D

12. The following act should not be done by the broker and is unethical
a. Split commission with an unlicensed broker
b. Share commission as agreed
c. Agree to revise commission sharing
d. Accept the arrangement for reduction in commission as agreed
A. SPLIT COMMISSION WITH AN UNLICENSED BROKER

13. The owner requested the broker on how to reduce the capital gains tax to be paid. It is
unethical for the broker to recommend the following
a. To undervalue the sale price
b. To pay the capital gains on time
c. To pay transfer tax to the city treasurer
d. To pay in manager’s check to the bank
A. TO UNDERVALUE THE SALE PRICE

14.If one participated in the undervaluation of the sale, the broker is deemed to have
violated his relation to the
a. Client
b. Public
c. Government
d. Organization he belongs
C. GOVERNMENT

15. As a real estate broker, one is not required to indicate the professional license no. in
the following documents
a. Advertisements
b. Letterhead
c. Deed of absolute sale
d. Calling cards
C. DEED OF ABSOLUTE SALE

16. The practitioner must display the following in their place of business as provided in
the Code of Ethics
a. AIPO Receipt
b. Surety bond
c. Professional Identification Card
d. Certificate of registration
D. CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION

17. The statement that the practitioner should be imbued with a social conscience for he
does not live by himself and his family alone can be said to reflect the following idea
a. Network with others
b. No man is an island
c. Better to live inside a subdivision
d. Join a professional organization
B. NO MAN IS AN ISLAND

18. Acts of treating others irrespective of political beliefs, cultural background, sect,
religion or class is to have no
a. Discrimination
b. Religion
c. Partisan politics
d. Foreign friends
A. DISCRIMINATION

19. An act that can be said to be unethical in dealing with a real property being sold by
the owner
a. Avoid exaggeration
b. Conceal relevant information
c. Refrain from misrepresentation
d. Ascertain
B. CONCEAL RELEVANT INFORMATION

20. A real estate broker bought a lot in a residential subdivision, and it would be
unethical for him to construct on the property the following
a. Residential house
b. His professional office
c. Piggery
d. Duplex residential apartment
C. PIGGERY

21. If the owner wants to undervalue the sale price, the real estate broker is expected to
tell the owner
a. To undervalue not lower than zonal value
b. To get a contact with the BIR
c. To have 2 deeds of sale
d. The true basis of capital gains tax
D. THE TRUE BASIS OF CAPITAL GAINS TAX

22. Funds which come into the hands of real estate broker from the client should be,
under the Code of Ethics
a. Placed in a separate bank account
b. Deposited in the broker’s account
c. Just put in the wallet of the broker
d. Returned after using the money
A. PLACED IN A SEPARATE BANK ACCOUNT

23. An accredited real estate salesperson must be under the supervision of the real estate
broker and should indicate
a. Name and license number of the broker
b. Email address of the broker
c. The website of the broker
d. Name and field of specialization of the broker
A. NAME AND LICENSE NUMBER OF THE BROKER

24. As part of the obligation under the code of ethics the broker must, as much as possible
see to it that the agreements are
a. Notarized
b. In writing
c. In triplicate copies
d. Not required to be in writing
B. IN WRITING

25. In accepting an appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of a client or

customer the broker should pledge himself with utmost fidelity and good faith to protect
and promote the interest of his client which means
a. Loyalty to the client
b. Be loyal to the client at all costs
c. Be only working to the advantage of the client
d. Be unfair to the buyer in favor of the seller
A. LOYALTY TO THE CLIENT

26. A real estate broker uploaded an advertisement of a property in the internet. Which
one would be considered unethical
a. “ With nice view of the lake”
b. “ Property to appreciate in value within a year”
c. Located in gated subdivision”
d. “ With wifi connection”
B. “ PROPERTY TO APPRECIATE IN VALUE WITHIN A YEAR”

27. Considered unethical for a real estate broker, with regards to his professional fee is to
obtain the same from both parties unless
a. The buyer was informed ahead of time
b. The owner did not know he will get a free from the buyer
c. The owner and seller knows and both agreed
d. The parties were not informed by the broker
C. THE OWNER AND SELLER KNOWS AND BOTH AGREED
28. For one to put up a for sale sign on the lot of the owner, the real estate broker must
a. Put a decent sign
b. Use only a tarpaulin signage
c. Make sure the sign is very visible
d. Be authorized by the owner
D. BE AUTHORIZED BY THE OWNER

29. If the real estate broker already saw another sign for sale of another broker, under the
code of ethics the broker must
a. Remove the sign before putting his sign
b. No longer put his or her sign for sale
c. Put the sign at least 3 meters away
d. Cover the sign of the other broker
B. NO LONGER PUT HIS OR HER SIGN FOR SALE

30. Mr. Yumul decided to sell his lot for P 5,500,000.00 although broker knew it can be
sold for P 7,000,000.00 and the zonal value is P 6,500.000.00. What price should the
broker offer to sell the house?
a. P 5,500,000.00
b. P 6,000,000.00
c. P 6,500,000.00
d. P 7,000,000.00
A. P 5,500,000.00

31. The code of ethics provides that the real estate broker in a real estate transaction
should
a. Always make sure the seller is at an advantage
b. Be in favor of the seller always
c. have the seller and buyer conclude a fair deal
d. Be inclined to just thick of the commission
C. HAVE THE SELLER AND BUYER CONCLUDE A FAIR DEAL

32.. In a court case, the real estate appraiser was called to testify and under the code of
ethics he must testify in a manner
a. To protect his interest
b. To protect the interests of the client
c. To protect both their interest
d. To testify in a truthful manner
D. TO TESTIFY IN A TRUTHFUL MANNER

33. A licensed real estate appraiser can undertake the appraisal of the factory and plant
under the following
a. With assistance from one familiar with the appraisal of such
b. Is also a licensed real estate broker with experience
c. He or she has gained experience as assessor
d. The owner is not in a hurry
A. WITH ASSISTANCE FROM ONE FAMILIAR WITH THE APPRAISAL OF
SUCH

34. The real estate broker should not solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively
with another broker unless the listing agreement has expired and
a. The broker knows the contact no. of the owner
b. The broker already met the owner
c. Solicits the same from the owner
d. The owner offers to list the same to the new broker
D. THE OWNER OFFERS TO LIST THE SAME TO THE NEW BROKER

35. Real estate broker X accepted a listing from another broker Y. The agency of the
broker Y who offers the listing should be respected until it has expired and
a. Broker X is able to contact the owner
b. Come to the attention of broker X from a different source
c. Broker Y does not answer his text messages
d. Broker X solicits the listing from the owner
B. COME TO THE ATTENTION OF BROKER X FROM A DIFFERENT SOURCE

36. As to negotiations on a property listed exclusively with one broker, it should be

through the listing broker and not the owner, except
a. With consent of the owner
b. The listing broker has consented
c. The listing broker is just new
d. The listing broker is not knowledgeable
B. THE LISTING BROKER HAS CONSENTED

37. When a client asks the real estate broker for his opinion on a transaction not being
handled properly by another broker, he should
a. Criticize the manner of handling by the other broker
b. Simply say” No comment”
c. His opinion should be done with courtesy and professional respect
d. Point out the errors committed by the other broker
C. HIS OPINION SHOULD BE DONE WITH COURTESY AND PROFESSIONAL
RESPECT

38. A newly passed broker was dealing with a broker already 10 years in the profession.
The more experienced real estate broker should
a. Share his experienced on the transaction
b. Try to put one over the new broker
c. Use the advantage of his experience over the new broker
d. Keep quiet when asked for advice by the new broker
A. SHARE HIS EXPERIENCED ON THE TRANSACTION

39. So that no controversy or misunderstanding arises between the two brokers dealing on
the sale of the lot, the code of ethics requires
a. The two brokers assume that sharing will be 50-50
b. Discuss and clear the commission arrangement beforehand
c. Discuss the sharing only when the professional fee is received
d. The broker who transferred the title to the buyer should get more
B. DISCUSS AND CLEAR THE COMMISSION ARRANGEMENT BEFOREHAND
40. Broker Y has a complaint against Broker P who belonged to the same real estate
service organization. Broker Y must therefore
a. File the case in court
b. Exhaust remedies within their organization
c. File an administrative case with PRC
d. Tell other members openly about his complaint
B. EXHAUST REMEDIES WITHIN THEIR ORGANIZATION

41. For violation of the code of ethics, the following penalty may be imposed by the
broker’s professional real estate organization
a. Removal of license
b. Suspension of license
c. Removal from roster of registered real estate brokers
d. Expulsion from the organization
D. EXPULSION FROM THE ORGANIZATION

42. Which of the following acts can be considered to be unethical for a real estate broker
a. The broker should cooperate with other brokers on property listed
b. The broker should share the commission on an agreed basis
c. The broker should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow brokers
d. The broker can use the services of the salesman of another broker provided he pays the
salesperson a commission
D. THE BROKER CAN USE THE SERVICES OF THE SALESMAN OF ANOTHER
BROKER PROVIDED HE PAYS THE SALESPERSON A COMMISSION

43. A 2 story house and lot was being rented out by the owner and listed it through
several brokers. A broker who also obtained the listing can place his for rent sign if
authorized by the owner and only if
a. It does not exceed two signs for rent
b. It is placed not less than 2 meters away from the other sign
c. His sign is not more than 2 meters by 2 meters in size
d. There is no sign placed on the property
D. THERE IS NO SIGN PLACED ON THE PROPERTY

44. Several offers for the purchase of the property were submitted by the real estate
broker to the owner and then another offer to purchase was received by the real estate
broker. What should the real estate broker do?
a. Wait for the owner to decide first before giving the latest offer
b. Tell the purchaser that his offer will have to wait till owner decides
c. The latest offer should be presented to the owner for his decision
d. The real estate broker should tell the buyer to revise his offer
C. THE LATEST OFFER SHOULD BE PRESENTED TO THE OWNER FOR HIS
DECISION

45. In his brochures, advertisement, or announcement the real estate broker should
present a true picture of the property and is not required to indicate the following
a. Rights or interest over the property
b. Liens or encumbrances on the property
c. Name and firm name
d. Field of specialization as a real estate broker
D. FIELD OF SPECIALIZATION AS A REAL ESTATE BROKER

46. The following is considered unethical for the real estate broker should not engage in
the following
a. To have the house cleaned before bringing the buyer
b. To tell the buyer there are many buyers interested although there are only a few
interested buyers
c. To open the windows of the house before bringing the buyer
d. To pass through a better road instead of the road with squatters
B. TO TELL THE BUYER THERE ARE MANY BUYERS INTERESTED
ALTHOUGH THERE ARE ONLY A FEW INTERESTED BUYERS

47. If a broker is a member of an organization, the real estate broker should not engage in
the following
a. Be an officer and serve if elected
b. Electioneering during annual election
c. Support the programs or the organization
d. Pay on time the dues of the organization
B. ELECTIONEERING DURING ANNUAL ELECTION

48. In case a real estate broker is also a real estate appraiser, he or she may not appraise
the property of his client if
a. He will not paid a professional fee
b. He will also sell the property after appraising it
c. He is new real estate appraiser
d. The owner wants a predetermined price of the property
B. HE WILL ALSO SELL THE PROPERTY AFTER APPRAISING IT

49. As to the following acts of a real estate broker, which one can be considered within
the bounds of the code of ethics?
a. Delay the submission of an offer of another buyer
b. Encouraging the seller to undervalue the sale price
c. Willingly share his experience with new brokers
d. Criticize publicly another broker for his manner of selling
C. WILLINGLY SHARE HIS EXPERIENCE WITH NEW BROKERS
50. As a real estate broker, it is ethical to do the following acts. Which one however is not
ethical
a. Share professional fees as agreed with the other broker
b. Engage the services of the salesperson of another broker without informing the broker
concerned
c. Publish a listing of another broker only with his consent
d. Not give rebates or split commission with an unlicensed real estate broker
B. ENGAGE THE SERVICES OF THE SALESPERSON OF ANOTHER BROKER
WITHOUT INFORMING THE BROKER CONCERNED

LEGAL ASPECT OF SALE MORTGAGE LEASE

1. Two people entered into a contract and to be valid, it is essential that

a. It is in writing
b. There is a meeting of minds
c. It is in writing and duly notarized
d. It must have two witnesses and in writing
B. THERE IS A MEETING OF MINDS

2. A contract defined as, where one of the parties obligates himself to transfer the
ownership of and to deliver a determinate thing, and the other to pay therefore a price
certain in money or its equivalent
a. Contract to sell
b. Contract of sale
c. Contract of conditional sale
d. Contract of lease
B. CONTRACT OF SALE

3. An important element in a contract of sale is that the seller is that the seller will do this
in favor of the buyer
a. execute a deed of sale
b. Pay the price
c. Transfer the ownership
d. Turnover the property physically
C. TRANSFER THE OWNERSHIP

4. Leny purchased a house and lot but the agreement contained terms and conditions to be
undertaken by the seller on the house for her to but the house and is referred to as a
e. Absolute sale
f. Conditional sale
g. Premiary sale
h. Option contract
F. CONDITIONAL SALE

5. In a contract of sale of a 2 story house and lot the three essential elements are cause,
object being sold and
a. Consideration for the property
b. Consent
c. Execution of the contract
d. Age of the buyer
A. CONSIDERATION FOR THE PROPERTY

6. Mr. and Mrs. Sison cannot sell property to each other as a general rule except when
there is
a. Prenuptial agreement
b. Written agreement between the spouses
c. Judicial separation of property
d. Property relations of absolute community
C. JUDICIAL SEPARATION OF PROPERTY

7. The following person cannot acquire by purchase the property because of fiduciary
relationship
a. Purchase by the aunt of the property of the minor
b. Purchase by the husband under separation of property
c. An agent under whose administrator the property is entrusted
d. An assessor who will buy his neighbors property
C. AN AGENT UNDER WHOSE ADMINISTRATOR THE PROPERTY IS
ENTRUSTED

8. Under the law, when a person sells a lot the person is bound to
a. Transfer the ownership
b. Issue an official receipt for the payment
c. Deliver the lot plan
d. Have the lot surveyed
A. TRANSFER THE OWNERSHIP

9. A lot was bought by Nestor and only indicated in the sale price the amount of P
2,000,000.00 consisting of 2,000 square meters but which turned out to be only 1,900.
What is a right of Nestor?
a. Right to refund of excess
b. Right to cancel the contract
c. No right to rescind the contract
d. No right reduction in price
D. NO RIGHT REDUCTION IN PRICE

10. Rocky purchased a house and lot and in such contract of sale, he has the obligation to
a. Transfer the title to his name
b. Pay for notarial fees
c. Transfer the ownership
d. Accept delivery of the house
D. ACCEPT DELIVERY OF THE HOUSE
11. The most important difference between a contract to sell and a contract of sale is that
in a contract of sale
a. Notarization of the contract of sale
b. Transfer of ownership
c. Payment of the price in full
d. Execution of the contract
B. TRANSFER OF OWNERSHIP

12. Franco entered into a pacto de retro sale but wac actually a mortgage as he just
needed to borrow money and he continued to live in the house, In such case, it may be
considered as
a. Contract of Sale
b. Equitable mortgage
c. Voluntary mortgage
d. Conditional sale
B. EQUITABLE MORTGAGE

13. The following sale on financing of property is covered by the Maceda law
a. Commercial lot
b. Sales to tenants under RA 384
c. Residential lot
d. Industrial lots
C. RESIDENTIAL LOT

14. In case Wilma fails to pay her monthly installments after paying 20 months
installments, her right under the Maceda law shall be
a. Grace period of 30 days to pay
b. Refund of 50% of payments made
c. 60 days grace period
d. Grace period of 1 month to update payments
C. 60 days grace period

15. A bungalow was bought by Junior last week but the same house was sold to Renee
after, who did not know that it was already sold. Who had a better right to the property.
a. The first one to occupy the house
b. The first one to register with the register of deeds
c. The first one to have the deed of sale notarized
d. The first one to transfer the tax declaration in his name
B. THE FIRST ONE TO REGISTER WITH THE REGISTER OF DEEDS

16. Under the Realty Installment Buyer’s Act the buyer of the lot will be entitled to how
many percent additional per year after 5 years of payment
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 15%
A. 5%

17. The formula to be used in computing the cash surrender value of a buyer under the
Maceda law is
a. Monthly amortization x no. of years paid
b. Total payments made x percentage refund
c. Monthly amortization paid x percentage refund
d. Total payments made- expenses of sale
B. TOTAL PAYMENTS MADE X PERCENTAGE REFUND

18. The following is not allowed to be deducted from the refund of the buyer under RA
6552 or Maceda Law
a. Reservation deposit
b. Broker’s commission already paid
c. Downpayment
d. Amortizations paid
B. BROKER’S COMMISSION ALREADY PAID

19. In case a buyer fails to pay after making 96 monthly installment on a 10 year term
purchase of a lot, the percentage refund shall be
a. 50%
b. 65%
c. 100%
d. 50% + 5% of the installment for the years beyond 5 years
B. 65%

20. Rommel entered into a pacto de retro sale over his lot but no mention was made of
when he can buy back the property. In this case the period to buy back shall be
considered as
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 4 years
d. Not more than 10 years
C. 4 YEARS

21. A contract where one of the parties binds himself to give to another the enjoyment or
use of a thing for a price and for a certain period is referred to as
a. Lease agreement
b. Occupancy agreement
c. Rent to own agreement
d. Contract to sell
A. LEASE AGREEMENT

22. If n owner is residential house will enter into a lease contract with the lease to renew
the lease, it is owner’s obligation to
a. Pay for the expenses of the purpose
b. Make it suitable for the purpose
c. Repair broken fixtures due to the tenant
d. Make a contract in writing
B. MAKE IT SUITABLE FOR THE PURPOSE

23. The lessee who rented the house in Alabang for P90,000 per month paid in advance
for 1 year cannot do the following without the written consent of the owner
a. Sublease part of the house
b. Pay in postdated monthly checks
c. Assign the contract of lease
d. Hire a gardener to take care of the garden
C. ASSIGN THE CONTRACT OF LEASE

24. The lessee shall also be required to make this payment to answer for unpaid utilities
or damages to the premises
a. Advance rental
b. Surety bond
c. Deposit
d. Performance bond
C. DEPOSIT

25. The written contract of lease for 1 year already expired but the owner continued to
receive rental during the first 5 days of the month and is considered as
a. Renewed one year lease
b. Month to month lease
c. Implied renewal for one year
d. Continuing lease
B. MONTH TO MONTH LEASE

26. Under the Rent Control Act of 2009, the following shall not be covered by rent
control
a. Residential house in Manila rented out at P 9,000 per month
b. An apartment in Pateros rented out for P 16,000.00 per month
c. A residential townhouse in Quezon City rented at P 10,000 per month
d. A residential condo until in Ayala Makati rented out at P 9,500 per month
B. AN APARTMENT IN PATEROS RENTED OUT FOR P 16,000.00 PER MONTH

27. Alex rented a residential apartment in Sampaloc, Manila for P 8,000 per month and
the owner may only collect from A, the following
a. 1 month advance and 3 months deposit
b. 1 month advance and 1 month deposit
c. 2 months advance and 2 months deposit
d. 1 month advance and 2 months deposit
D. 1 MONTH ADVANCE AND 2 MONTHS DEPOSIT
28. The rental of Sandra of a 1 bedroom condominium unit for P 15,000 per month shall
be paid on or before
a. First 5 days of the contract month
b. First 10 days of the contract month
c. As provided in the contract of lease
d. The end of the contract month
C. AS PROVIDED IN THE CONTRACT OF LEASE

29. The owner may judicially eject the lease for her 3 BR condo unit in Makati for the
following ground
a. Nonpayment of rental for 2 months
b. Nonpayment of rental for 3 months
c. Nonpayment of rental for 1 month
d. Nonpayment on time of Meralco bill
C. NONPAYMENT OF RENTAL FOR 1 MONTH

30. The following is not a ground to eject the lease of a house being rented out at P
15,000 per month under a one yaer contract of lease
a. Expiration of the lease contract
b. Violation on number of occupants
c. Non payment of rental
d. Need of lessor for use of his immediate family
D. NEED OF LESSOR FOR USE OF HIS IMMEDIATE FAMILY

31. In case the owner refuses to receive the rental payment of the lessee under rent
control, the lessee may deposit by way of consignation to
a. City/municipal treasurer
b. House of the lessor
c. Neighbor of the lessor
d. Nearest relative of kind
A. CITY/MUNICIPAL TREASURER

32. Under the Rent Control Act of 2009, a ground for judicial ejectment is arrears in
rentals of the lessee for a total of
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 5 months
C. 3 MONTHS

33. Benjo rented a residential apartment in San Juan City P 8,500.00 per month. He may
not do the following unless with the written consent of the owner
a. Make immediate minor repairs on the premises
b. Pay the rental in advance
c. Sublease the premises
d. Make improvements already approved by the owner
C. SUBLEASE THE PREMISES

34. The following is not a ground for judicial ejectment of the tenant leasing a studio
condo in Marikina City for P 9,5000.00 per month
a. Arrears in payment of rentals for a total of 3 months
b. Need of Lessor for use of immediate family
c. Nonpayment of wireless landline
d. Expiration of the period of the lease
C. NONPAYMENT OF WIRELESS LANDLINE

35. If the unit of the owner is covered by the Rent Control Act of 2009, the owner may
increase the rent for the same tenant not to exceed
s. 5%
b. 7%
c. 8%
d. 10%
B. 7%

36. Jun rented out an apartment from the owner but no written agreement was executed
by the owner on the lease. The lease contract is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Non existent
A. VALID

37. The purchaser of a house a lot which is being rented may eject the lessee in the
following instance
a. Expiration of the contract of lease
b. If indicated in the deed of sale
c. If registered with the Register of Deeds
d. If the buyer knows the property is being leased
A. EXPIRATION OF THE CONTRACT OF LEASE

38. To be valid contract of lease between the owner and the lessee, there must be
a. A written contract of lease
b. A meeting of minds between the owner and lessee
c. A written contract duly notarized
d. A written contract lo lease signed by both parties
B. A MEETING OF MINDS BETWEEN THE OWNER AND LESSEE

39. Under the rent control, the lessor may eject the lessee to make necessary repairs of the
leased premises which is the subject of an existing order of condemnation by appropriate
authorities in order to make said premises safe and habitable provided the lessee shall
have the first preference to lease and the new rental shall be
a. Not to exceed 7%
b. Not to exceed 10%
c. Reasonably commensurate to the expenses incurred for the repair
d. Not to exceed 15% of previous rental
C. REASONABLY COMMENSURATE TO THE EXPENSES INCURRED FOR THE
REPAIR

40. In case of ejectment, the owner may file a case in the municipal or metropolitan trial
which is legally called
a. Forcible
b. Unlawful detainer
c. Recovery of possession
d. Breach of contract
B. UNLAWFUL DETAINER

41. Unlike the contract of sale which is a principal contract, a mortgage contract is
considered what kind of contract
a. Secondary contract
b. Primary contract
c. Accessory contract
d. Addendum contract
C. ACCESSORY CONTRACT

42. The following cannot be subject of a real estate mortgage with one lending institution
a. Right of redemption
b. Construction heavy equipment
c. A parcel of vacant land
d. Residential studio unit
B. CONSTRUCTION HEAVY EQUIPMENT

43. A developer decide to go on a rent own scheme for his condo individual owner, the
same shall be subject to withholding tax rate of
a. Not to exceed 5% per year
b. Not to exceed 7% per year
c. Not to exceed 10% per year
d. No limit in increase
D. NO LIMIT IN INCREASE

44. In case of rent of an office space by a business corporation from the individual owner,
the same shall be subject to withholding tax rate of
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 12%
d. 20%
A. 5%
45. Under the rent control, the lessor may eject the tenant for the legitimate need of the
owner/lessor to repossess his or her own use for the use of any immediate member of his
or her family as a residential unit: provided notice is served on the tenant in advance
a. 1 month notice
b. 2 months notice
c. 3 months notice
d. 6 months notice
C. 3 MONTHS NOTICE

46. A provision in a mortgage contract which allows the creditor to immediately

appropriate the property mortgaged upon non payment of the amortizations is referred to
as
a. Pactum appropriation
b. Pactum non aliendo
c. Pactum commissorium
d. Pactum stipulation
C. PACTUM COMMISSORIUM

47. A bank foreclosed a lot of M corporation and it can redeem the same within how
many months foreclosure sale
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 18 months
A. 3 MONTHS

48. The mortgage of the owner after borrowing from a lending investor will have to be
registered with
a. Registrar of Deeds
b. Bangko Sentral
c. Department of Finance
d. Court’s sheriff’s office
A. REGISTRAR OF DEEDS

49. A contract whereby real property is given as collateral to secure the performance or
fulfillment of a principal obligation
a. Promissory note
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Real estate mortgage
d. Collateral mortgage
C. REAL ESTATE MORTGAGE

50. In case of extrajudicial foreclosure of a real estate mortgage, the property mortgaged
shall be sold through
a. Negotiated sale
b. Private auction sale
c. Public auction sale
d. Banks foreclosed assets
C. PUBLIC AUCTION SALE

51. For the bank to be able to sell the property under extrajudicial foreclosure, there is a
provision in the mortgage called
a. Authority to sell
b. Special power of attorney
c. Automatic foreclosure
d. Right to bank foreclosure
B. SPECIAL POWER OF ATTORNEY

52. The creditor prohibited the mortgagor from selling the mortgaged property during the
life of the loan which s void and is called
a. Pactum non-sale
b. Pactum non aliendo
c. Pactum commissorium
d. Pactum selium
B. PACTUM NON ALIENDO

53. It is a mortgage which allow although in the form of a contract of sale is actually a
mortgage
a. Actual mortgage
b. Simulated mortgage
c. Equity mortgage
d. Equitable mortgage
D. EQUITABLE MORTGAGE

54. A loan had to be secured by several properties of the owner since one property was
not sufficient. It is referred to as
a. Blanket mortgage
b. Consolidated mortgage
c. Multiple mortgage
d. Basket mortgage
D. BASKET MORTGAGE

55. A ground for the foreclosure of a real estate mortgage based on payments is
a. Non payment of 2 monthly payments
b. No issuance of post dated checks
c. Non payment of principal obligation
d. Non payment of real estate taxes
C. NON PAYMENT OF PRINCIPAL OBLIGATION

56. In mortgage it is one required by express provision of law

a. Law mortgage
b. Express mortgage
c. Legal mortgage
d. Judicial mortgage
C. LEGAL MORTGAGE

57. It is regarded as a transaction through which the mortgagor, or one claiming in his
right by means of a payment or the performance of a condition re-acquires or buys back
the value of one title which may have passed under the mortgage
a. Recovery of property
b. Cancellation of mortgage
c. Redemption
d. Release of mortgage
C. REDEMPTION

58. In order that the mortgage can foreclose the property due to non payment of monthly
payments a provision is inserted so the principal obligation will become due and
demandable called
a. Acceleration clause
b. Foreclosure clause
c. Extrajudicial foreclosure clause
d. Non payment clause
A. ACCELERATION CLAUSE

59. The mortgagor may redeem his property which has been foreclosed extrajudicially
within a period of
a. 1 year from date of foreclosure sale
b. 1 year from registration of foreclosure sale
c. 3 months
d. 1 year from date of notice of foreclosure
B. 1 YEAR FROM REGISTRATION OF FORECLOSURE SALE

60. Y corporation borrowed from a bank but thereafter the property was foreclosed. It
may redeem the property within a period of
a. 1 year from registration of sale
b. Until, but not after registration of sale
c. 3 months from date of registration of sale
d. 1 year from date foreclosure sale
B. UNTIL, BUT NOT AFTER REGISTRATION OF SALE

61. A contract where the creditor acquires the right to receive the fruits of the property
with obligation to apply them to payment of interest and principal
a. Mortgage
b. Antichresis
c. Dacion en pago
d. Usufruct
B. ANTICHRESIS
62. When personal property is recorded in the Registry of Property as a security for the
performance of an obligation it is called
a. Real estate mortgage
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Pledge
d. Registration
B. CHATTEL MORTGAGE

63. A contract of lease between the lessor and lessee must be duly notarized for the
purpose of
a. Registration
b. Validity
c. Binding effect on both parties
d. Requirement by law
A. REGISTRATION

64. A contract granting a person the privilege to buy or not to buy certain real property at
anytime with the agreed period at a fixed price
a. Option
b. Contract to sell
c. Reservation agreement
d. Letter of Intent
A. OPTION

65. The law that provides the redemption period of foreclosed property of a corporation
from a bank for maximum period of 3 months
a. Mortgage Law
b. General Banking Act
c. BSP Circular
d. Extrajudicial Foreclosure Law
B. GENERAL BANKING ACT

66. The rent control law, RA 9653, covers residential apartments and if located in
municipalities, it is covered if the rentals at the time of the effectively of the law is from
a. P 1.00 to P 10,000 per month
b. P 1.00 to P 12,800 per month
c. P 1.00 to P 5,000 per moth
d. P 1.00 to P 6,000 per month
C. P 1.00 TO P 5,000 PER MOTH

67. In case the area on a purchaser of a lot turns out different from that stated in the
contract, the buyer may rescind the sale provided the lack in area is at least
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 50%
A. 10%

68. A sale of real property which is valid but which may be annulled on grounds such as
vitiation of consent is classified as
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Unenforceable
d. Simulated
B. VOIDABLE

69. A 5-year lease over a house and lot was entered into by the parties and to be valid the
same must be
a. Duly notarized
b. Registered with the Registry of Deeds
c. Paid the documentary stamp tax
d. With a meeting of minds
D. WITH A MEETING OF MINDS

70. The Maceda Law is applicable in the following case involving a residential property
a. Sale through pag-ibig loan
b. Sale through bank financing
c. Sale through financing of payment from the seller
d. Sale through borrowed money lending company
C. SALE THROUGH FINANCING OF PAYMENT FROM THE SELLER