REVIEW QUESTIONS

16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete? Answer: 80% maximum
Answer: concrete cylinder sample
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete? Answer: Blown Asphalt
Answer: Slump test
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test? Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete? Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets? Answer: by Field Density Test
Answer:3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
Answer: Reflectorized paint
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt 23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3, with an
actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed? Answer: 101.86%
Answer: 24 hours
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat? Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade Answer: 17.58%

11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? 26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: concrete beam sample Answer: the soil is clayey

12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)? 27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests 28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be
used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials? 29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials Answer: because it can affect its weight
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
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30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture 43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
content? Answer: high degree of compressibility
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of an air –
dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of 44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
the original sample from thefield. Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)

31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents? 45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test
Answer: 2000 bags (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample 46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many
blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced Answer: 60 blows/layer
concrete structure using a pump Crete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what
admixture should it be? 47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the
Answer: Super plasticizer % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Answer: as joint filler and water proofing 48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut – back asphalt
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement 49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the
rate of approximately _____?
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water? Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%

38. Paint is composed of _____ 51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip 52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete
Class “B”?
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing? Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are Answer: Contractor
permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture
is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times. 54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
Answer: three (3) Answer: Once the source is identified

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ 55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the
hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: Twenty – four (24) Answer: 3,000 psi

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56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in
cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload
up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided
concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and
provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from
pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each
direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the
following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to
be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm
compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve
analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is
to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250
cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on
how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing
requirements. What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the
alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained
the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified
age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was
placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been
submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME
must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file
quality test of the construction materials being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or
crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
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 Answer: Liquid Limit day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a
cement sample?
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and Answer: One (1) month
tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump
of the concrete? 92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days
Answer: 127 mm before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass
percent of wear? 93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs,
fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your 94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going
actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete? to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
aggregates; 130 liters water
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is done by what test?
equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs? Answer: Extraction Test
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____? Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
Answer: week
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be Answer: glass plate
tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work 98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement 99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and
also to improve the stability of the slope.
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry? Answer: Berm
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken,
represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date except
sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation,
Materials Engineer? compaction, relative density
Answer: Sample Card
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a _____ above the top of the conduit.
40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed? Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
Answer: Three (3)
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50%
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a Answer: Class B

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103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% 117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs. Answer: Liquidity Index
Answer: Class A
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C 119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam,
frames and arches.
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D 120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm 121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch 122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35% 123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other
vertical surfaces.
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300. Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
Answer: 4% to 9%
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that
110. Range of sand size. act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø Answer: Pile cap
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio 125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
Answer: moisture content 126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal
113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the 127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The
potential cohesion of soil important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box
culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except Answer: Class A
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder
material, measures the shearing resistance of soil 128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity
walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
115. Properties of concrete are, except Answer: Class B
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical filler in steel grid floors.
thickness, except Answer: Class C
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
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 Answer: Class P Answer: 6.0 mm

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit 145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling,
Answer: 1.50 m the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of
application?
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
Answer: Item 612
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300 CBR test is _____
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm Answer: four (4)

134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____ 147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: 3% to 5 % Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density

135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____ 148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: plain bars Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil,
fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength
of _____ when tested in 14 days. 149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: 3.80 MPa Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4

137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base 150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
shall spread and compacted in ____ Answer: Group Index
` Answer: two or more layers
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____ paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A =
Answer: 80% 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm 152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40 153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3 154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for
PCCP which 10% to less than 15% 155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 70% Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more 156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
than 30 minutes in the concreting operation Answer: AASHTO T 90
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between Answer: AASHTO T 89
contacts with the surface in Item 310
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158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer 172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
Answer: 95% Answer: 45%

159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment 173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long Answer: 50%

160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of each 174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202
layer of compacted fill? Answer: 80%
Answer: three (3)
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 Answer:1 ½ inch
Answer: 12%
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 Answer: 2”
Answer: 35%
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 Answer: 1 inch
Answer: 2”
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime,
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared
with subgrade/subbase.
Answer: AASHTO T 96 Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 50% Answer: 4% to 10%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200 180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 25% Answer: 50%

167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by 181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: AASHTO T 193 Answer: 2”

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course 182. Item number for water?
Answer: 100% Answer: Item 714

169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in 183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil
accordance with aggregate?
Answer: AASHTO T 191 Answer: 3% to 12%

170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, 184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed Answer: 100%
stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel) 185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch 186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
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187. Equipment to be used for final rolling 198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as
Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive portable instrument with
dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids,
small test flame cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: flash point Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester

189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the 199. Soil stabilizing agent
surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index. Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device Cement – fro sandy soil

190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing
pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: MC – 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting
length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a
concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of
an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals
embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and
asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the
asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is
commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in
the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel
loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural
condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road
capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called
_____
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The
concrete in the area represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3
mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____
Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall
Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a
specimen will develop at _____
Answer: 60°
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210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy 224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method? Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)
Answer: 75 blows
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt? Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
Answer: 85 – 100
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan Answer: 10 to 20 cm
shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P 227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to
the construction of a bituminous surface course.
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the Answer: Prime Coat
midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa 228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
Answer: Item 304
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section 229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours 230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application
of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement Answer: Seal Coat
Answer: 24 hours
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____ Answer: ± 10°C
Answer: 1 ½ inches
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
is _____
Answer: 25% or more 233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m 234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
Answer: 5 kph
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m 235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.
Answer: faulting
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm 236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least
______
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each Answer: 100 mm
330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set 237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength 238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
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 252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete Answer: 92% to 95%
surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface
course. 253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of
Answer: Tack Coat the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2 254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of
asphalt cement?
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt? Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the performed.
testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the surface? Answer: stability
Answer: 6 mm
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310? Answer: decrease
Answer: 1.40 MPa
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T Answer: armored thermometer
65?
Answer: 70% minimum 258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7 259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive). and the construction method.
Answer: ±4
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve. Answer: excessive asphalt content
Answer: ±2
261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load. Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
Answer: stability
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and Answer: determine the trend of its strength development
traffic.
Answer: durability 263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test
machine?
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel Answer: 0.3 mm crack
loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance 264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock
at a constant rate within the range of _____
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility 265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already
doubt as to its quality should:
10
 Answer: be retested prior to use
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
purpose. Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
Answer: Stabilization
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses
taken. What will be this test? 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
Answer: referee test
281. What is particle size analysis?
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve,
DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is the required hydrometer or a combined analysis
compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days 282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky 283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through
a height of _____?
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____ Answer: 10 mm
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____ Answer: 2 rps
Answer: weak subgrade
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____ Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
Answer: very stable
286. What is specific gravity?
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___ Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined
Answer: normal as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated
temperature)
274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil 287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test 288. What Item of work is embankment?
in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction. Answer: Item 104

276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or 289. What kind of material for Item 200?
false? Answer: Aggregate sub – base course
Answer: true
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample? Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative
should be used? 291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C Answer: 100%
11

292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation
test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and
retained No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated
sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool,
plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be
soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the
molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached
a surface dry condition
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight:
Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d
abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455
grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading
A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
301. What is significance of abrasion test?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an
indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also
determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or
rolling.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its
elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.
311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
12
 Answer: cut – back asphalt Answer: 29ºC

316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of 328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
RCCP? Answer: 12 sets
Answer: 25 pieces
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be
317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement? subjected to test?
Answer: thickness and density of pavement Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc.
are recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each
side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined
thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and
compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall
be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If
you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method
that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase
course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam
mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability
(provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial
time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not
exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous
mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in
cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive
charge. It is a negatively charge electron.
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt

326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive 337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
_______ or _______. Answer: climatic condition
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job –
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____ mix formula?
13
 Answer: three (3) weeks
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
339. Who will approve the job – mix formula? Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
Answer: DPWH PE and ME
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the
340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following: mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and
a. grading of aggregates 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt 354. How is concrete consolidated?
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed? 355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC Answer: longitudinal construction joint

342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density? 356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable Answer: deformed steel tie bars

343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the 357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
required density? Answer: not less than 50 mm
Answer: trial section
358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great Answer: not less than 6 mm
significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature 359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width. Answer: asphalt or other materials

346. After the final rolling, what will be checked? 361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to
Answer: degree of compaction the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density 362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated
with _____
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement? Answer: thin film of bitumen
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement? Answer: brooming
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated? Answer: 1.5 mm
Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated? of _____
Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm Answer: 72 hours
14
366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following: 379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement 380. The maximum absorption content of CHB
c. by ponding Answer: 240 kg/m3
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the
surface 381. The maximum moisture content of CHB
Answer: 45%
367. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic 382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine 383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
sand Answer: Shelby tube

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____? 384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH Answer: wax

370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____ 385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, Answer: split spoon sampler
accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
for use in the project based on test results? Answer: Standard Penetration Test
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness. Answer: diamond bit
Answer: asphaltene
388. CQCA means
373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve? Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
Answer: No. 200
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____ Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
Answer: pothole patching
390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?
375. VMA means Answer: cationic
Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: 124ºC Answer: fifteen (15)

377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is 392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is
Answer: 163ºC Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is 393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar
Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC is
15
 Answer: 0.06% Answer: 90 minutes

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars? 405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT concrete.
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa 406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm,
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
Answer: clay content 407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up
and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is Answer: excessive asphalt
Answer: air – dried condition
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
Answer: Sand cone method
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200 Answer: Flow curve

399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? 410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
Answer: Answer: abrasion loss
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials 411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that
c. base course materials produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer: 412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
GRADING A – 12 spheres Answer: 2.75
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres 413. The standard packaging weight of cement
GRADING D – 6 spheres Answer: 40 kg/bag

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water 414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that
is in the drum is prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: 100 rpm Answer: curing compound

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing 415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is
when this method is used (Item 206) rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at
Answer: two (2) hours night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the
asphaltic material has set. 416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: 40 kph Answer: glass beads

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation

16
417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units. 431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the
Answer: Latex asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test. saturated surface dry specimens.
Answer: Triple spot test
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating. Answer: gasoline
Answer: Single spot test
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with Answer: mass of dry aggregates
varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel 434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous
mixture.
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may 435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates Answer: penetrometer
Answer: good subgrade material
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on Answer: Distillation
each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips 437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø 438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 2.15 439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 102.5ºC 440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 10 minutes 441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue
book?
427. The rate of application of traffic paint. Answer: seven (7)
Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. blue book?
Answer: 15 – 30 minutes Answer: two (2)

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint. 443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: 10 kg Answer: approximately quarter points

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving 444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
mixture. Answer: bleeding
Answer: vernier caliper
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
17
 Answer: not greater than 4 Answer: Gillmore needle

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle. 460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: raveling Answer: 19.3 MPa

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin 461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
or chicken wire. Answer: crumbled
Answer: alligator cracking
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and Answer: first seven (7) days
number of test of each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements 463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: sampling
Answer: 10 mass %
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: disturbed samples
Answer: 12 mass %
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of
451. Additives used in concrete mixing. structural properties.
Answer: admixtures Answer: thin – walled tube sampling

452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated 467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate. Answer: government
Answer: Soundness test
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, both the
Answer: Absolute Design Method natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes 469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
455. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: 10 hours 470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of
concrete.
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement Answer: accelerator
Answer: Ottawa sand
471. The best enemy of construction.
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability Answer: water
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
458. A mixture of cement and water is Answer:
Answer: cement paste a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials
such as grass, roots and sewage
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
laboratory. c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
18
 d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100% 485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3 strength by _____.
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
engineer
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
course? Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi
Answer: 0 – 12%
487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in
474. The rate of application of special curing agent concrete during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the rate of
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding 488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to
make – up for the past or future loss of time.
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be Answer: Delivery control
performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test 489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.
` Answer: potholes
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm 490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
Answer: corrugation
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of
timber. 491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.
Answer: 10 days Answer: shoving

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening. 492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
Answer: 2mm Answer: rutting

480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer. 492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) Answer: base or subbase course
4.5m (timber)
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation. means.
Answer: Compaction Answer: 3 meters

482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials. 494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and
Answer: liquid limit of fines subgrade.
Answer: base course
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected
traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section. 495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.
Answer: 3” to 5” Answer: 40 times bar Ø

484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the 496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements
differential deflection is ____. conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002” Answer: Structural concrete

19
497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons. Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi) below lowest foundation)

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure. 511. For buildings less than 930 m2
Answer: transom Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners

499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the 512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.
depth needed is _____. Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler? Answer: shrinkage cracking
Answer: 50mm
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?
501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling. Answer: consistency
Answer: 1.50m length
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.
502. The initial diameter of bore hole. Answer: ± 4mm
Answer: 76mm
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.
503. What is the core bit diameter? Answer: Cordoning
Answer: 67mm
517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic. Answer: Drenching
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD Answer: 22%
traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline) 519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 14%
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy
ground. 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road) Answer: 244 kg/m2

507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project 521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks) 522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline 523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or
Depth = ½ times base width seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
509. For ports and harbors projects:
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & 524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of
wharves) water.
Answer: dredging
510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):
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525. The slope of batter piles a. sampling of material
Answer: 1:6 b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____ d. design of concrete mix
Answer: 0.12%
540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be
527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design Answer: volume
Answer: 20%
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been Answer:
established on the ground. a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum
Answer: Minor excavation density at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity. c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
Answer: footing d. none of the above

530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above. 542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10%
Answer: Boring test higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground. compact
Answer: 700mm
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill. Answer: - 5mm
Answer: 100mm
544. Geosynthetics may be used for
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column. Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control
Answer: Spread footing
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state. Answer:
Answer: ± 3% a. beam balance
b. oven
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates c. moisture can
that d. extruder
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs
additional compaction 546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
536. Liquid limit is usually Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the
Answer: greater than plastic limit manufactured size

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least 547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
Answer: 100% modified proctor except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different
from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do? 548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer? 549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: Answer: organic
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550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as 563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser
lubricant? and grow straight.
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test Answer: Pruning

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is 564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: No. 10 Answer: Approach

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction 565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
test? Answer: before the construction work
Answer: 0.002124 m3
566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will Answer: sand and gravel
pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand 567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of
Answer: 20 meters
554. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials 568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
555. What is AASHTO? Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as
prescribed under 570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm
depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of the embankment
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory
equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications? 571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final
Answer: large placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness 572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?
Answer: Liquid membrane forming
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids 573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
Answer: 25mm 574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and specified strength
containing silt – clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates 575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose
sand having high void rather and usually not high water content
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average dimension between Answer: Weak Subgrade
75mm – 305mm
Answer: boulders 576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?
22
 Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than
300 mm in depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and
extending to the full width of the embankment
577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the
fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m in
depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment? 590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly
compacted 591. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of excellence
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also 592. What is control?
be considered) Answer: Is to regulate

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment? 593. What is quality control?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment Answer: It is conformance to requirements
correctivework consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of
the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has 594. What is assurance?
reached stability or the required settlement Answer: it the degree of certainty

581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to
accelerate consideration
582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like
reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the
slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing
595. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce
good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or
liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the
rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular
material becomes unstable if it has dried
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience
in road – mixing or priming

23
601. The theory of concrete design mix is to Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker
mortar
617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on Answer: volcanic earth
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content
618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of
603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)? Answer: C3S and C2S
Answer: Type I
619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? Answer: C3A and C4AF
Answer: Type II
620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed
605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement? Answer: hydration
Answer: Type III
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to
606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement? Portland cement
Answer: Type IV Answer: water

607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? 622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: Type V Answer: the setting time is larger

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement? 623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the
Answer: Type 1S concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Type 1P 624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
610. Type I is for general use such as
Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes 625. The water required for concrete mix should be
Answer: fresh water
611. Type III cement is used for
Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength 626.Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it
contains
612. Type IV is used for Answer: chloride
Answer: massive structures such as dams
627. The entrapped air in concrete is
613. Type V cement is used for Answer: accidental and unwanted
Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high
628. The entrained air in concrete is
614. The inventor of Portland cement was Answer: deliberate and desirable
Answer: Joseph Aspdin
629. We use aggregate in concrete as
615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing Answer: filler materials in concrete
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:
616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy
24
631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete? 644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay
Answer: Answer: 2”
a. calcium
b. chloride 645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be
c. coal sensitive up to
d. sulphate Answer: 0.1g

632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but 646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the
making it so will only result to sacrifice in oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: strength Answer: dessicator

633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the 647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant
average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc’ weight/mass
and no single core is less than _____ Answer: 4 hours
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities removed from the oven within
Answer: Colormatic Test Answer: 1 hour

635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if: 649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature;
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of
from a discarded or used bag sandy material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates
Answer: fineness modulus 650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test
637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates
Answer: free water 651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
Answer: calcium tri – chloride
638. What do you mean by SSD?
Answer: Saturated Surface Dry 652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
Answer: low
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency 653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot – mix asphalt
640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
Answer: objectionable 654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk
Answer: 1.5 m
641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
Answer: Water – reducing admixture 655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete
Answer: 0.50 – 0.60
642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Answer: five (5) 656. A cement which has a cementitious effect
Answer: Portland cement
643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
Answer: bearing capacity
25
 657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that
tension under these loads is reduced 670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250
Answer: Pre – stressing revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate 671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe
that is negligible in the volume computation?
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous

660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)

662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?

Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)

663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?

Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)

664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced

665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of
its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength

666. What is the mixing time of concrete?

Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds

667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed
beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours

668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining

669. When will truck mixing start?

Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present
26