IFR Study Questions
1 Q: What are the instrument currency requirements?
2 Q: What happens if a pilot allows his instrument
currency to expire?
3 Q: Who can be a safety pilot?
4 Q: What is legally considered instrument flight time?
5 Q: When do you have to file an alternate?
6 Q: What are the standard alternate minimums?
7 Q: How can you tell if an airport has non-standard
alternate minimums?
8 Q: What are the standard take-off minimums?
9 Q: What are the fuel requirements for an IFR flight?
10 Q: What is the standard take-off procedure?
11 Q: How can you tell if an airport has non-standard
take-off minimums and procedures?
A: FAR 61.57 (c) (d). Within the preceding 6 calendar months, that
person has completed 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures,
and intercepting and tracking through the use of navigation systems
either in flight in the appropriate category of aircraft being flown or a
flight simulator or flight training device representative of the aircraft
category for the instrument privileges being sought. If these are not
done within the prescribed time or 6 months thereafter, the pilot must
pass an instrument proficiency check in order to operate under IFR.
A: FAR 61.57 (d). If a pilot does not meet the instrument experience
requirements within the prescribed time or 6 months thereafter, the
pilot must pass an instrument proficiency check before acting as PIC
in IFR. The proficiency check must be in an aircraft in the
appropriate category, flight simulator, or flight-training device
representative of that category.
A: An appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot's certificate.
A: FAR 61.51 (g). Only flight time when the aircraft is operated solely
by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions.
A: FAR 91.167 (b) (2). An alternate must be filed if at least 1 hr. before
and 1 hr. after the ETA at the first intended point of landing, the
ceiling will be less than 2,000' AGL and visibility is less than 3 SM.
An alternate is also required if the destination airport has no IAP.
A: FAR 91.169 (c). The airport minima specified, or, if none specified,
600'/2 SM for a precision approach, 800'/2SM for a non-precision
approach.
A: On NOS charts, a dark triangle with the letter "A" on the approach
charts. On Jeppesen airport diagrams.
A: FAR 91.175 (f). Under part 121, 125, 129, or 135, the minimums
prescribed under part 97. If none are prescribed, the following
applies: 2 engines or less - 1 SM visibility, greater than 2 engines -
1/2 SM visibility. Part 91 operators need not comply with this
regulation, although non-standard takeoff procedures require
adherence.
A: FAR 91.167 (a). Enough to complete the flight to the first airport of
intended landing, fly from there to the alternate airport, and for 45
minutes thereafter at normal cruising speed.
A: AIM 5-2-6. Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance
for all published departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot
crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the
departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400' above the
departure end of the runway elevation before making the initial turn,
and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200' per NM.
Exceptions and/or variances are explained in published DP's.
A: On NOS charts, a dark triangle with the letter "T" on the approach
charts.
Page 1 of 25
12 Q: What documents do you need on board an
aircraft for it to be airworthy?
13 Q: How often must the VOR be checked for
accuracy for IFR?
14 Q: What are the legal methods of checking VOR
receiver accuracy and what are the tolerances
for each?
15 Q: Which inspections and what maintenance are
required for IFR flight?
16 Q: Where can you find the frequency for a VOT
check?
17 Q: How frequently should you check your altimeter
setting?
18 Q: When can you cancel an IFR flight plan?
19 Q: What are the conditions for a visual approach?
20 Q: What are the conditions for a contact approach?
A: AROW - Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Operations
handbook, Weight and Balance information. A radio station license
is required on international flights.
A: FAR 91.171 (a). Within the preceding 30 days.
A: FAR 91.171 (b). VOT, ± 4°. Designated ground checkpoint, ± 4°.
Designated airborne checkpoint, ± 6°. VOR radial along a prominent
ground reference along the centerline of a designated airway and
more than 20 miles from the VOR station, ± 6°. Dual VOR check
tuned to the same VOR, within 4°.
A: FAR 91.171, 91.409, 91.411, 91.413. VOR within preceding 30
days. An annual and 100 hr. inspection (if for hire). Pitot-static,
altimeter, and transponder within the preceding 24 calendar months.
A: A/FD or A/G voice communications on the low altitude enroute chart.
A: FAR 91.121 (a). Altimeter should be set to current reported altimeter
setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of
the aircraft. If no station is available, the current reported altimeter
setting of an appropriate available station.
A: AIM 5-1-13. You may cancel anytime the flight is in VFR conditions
outside of class A airspace. If completing an IFR flight to an airport
without an operating control tower, the pilot must initiate the closing
of the flight plan by calling FSS or other means of direct
communication with ATC.
A: AIM 5-4-20 A visual approach can be initiated by ATC or the pilot. It
is an IFR procedure and the reported weather must be 1,000'/3 SM.
If the pilot has the airport in sight but not the aircraft to be followed,
then ATC retains separation and wake turbulence responsibility.
When following a preceding aircraft, the pilot assumes acceptance of
the visual clearance and is responsible for separation.
A: AIM 5-4-22. A contact approach must be requested by the pilot.
Conditions must be at least 1 SM visibility, pilot is operating clear of
clouds, and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination
airport in those conditions. ATC may authorize it provided ground
visibility is greater than or equal to 1 SM, the airport has a standard
or special instrument approach procedure, and separation is applied
between aircraft so cleared and other IFR or special VFR aircraft.
Page 2 of 25
21 Q: Which reports do you have to make to ATC
without a request when in radar contact? When
not in radar contact?
22 Q: What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) for IFR
operations?
23 Q: When are you required to have a Mode C
transponder?
24 Q: What instruments are required for IFR flight?
A: AIM 5-3-3
At all times:
When leaving a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned
altitude
When changing altitude operating VFR on top
When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm
When going missed approach
Change in TAS of 5% or 10 knots from the filed TAS
Time and altitude of reaching a holding fix or point where cleared
When leaving a holding fix or point
Any loss in controlled airspace of radio or navigation equipment
Any info relating to safety of the flight
Not in radar contact:
When leaving a FAF/outer marker or fix inbound for final approach
A corrected ETA if the error is over 3 minutes
Un-forecast/hazardous weather; and
Compulsory reporting points
A: Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000'
of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance
from the navigation facility (usually 25 miles) upon which a procedure
is predicated. These altitudes are for emergency use and do not
guarantee acceptable nav signal coverage.
A: FAR 91.215. Class A, B, and C airspace; in all airspace within 30
NM of an airport with a mode C veil, within and above the boundaries
of class B or C airspace up to 10,000' MSL, and all airspace above
10,000' MSL except that airspace at or below 2,500' AGL.
A: FAR 91.205. TOMATO FLAMES, FLAPS, CDART, GAS
Tachometer
Oil temp. gauge
Magnetic compass
Altimeter
Temperature gauge (if liquid cooled)
Oil pressure gauge
Fuel gauge (for each engine/tank)
Landing gear position lights
Airspeed indicator
Manifold pressure gauge
ELT
Safety belts
Fuses (3 of each type)
Landing light (if for hire)
Anti-collision lights
Position lights
Source of electricity (adequate)
Clock with seconds (must be installed)
Directional gyro
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn indicator
Two way radios and navigational equipment appropriate to the
ground facilities being used (DME above FL240)
Generator or alternator of adequate capacity
Altimeter adjustable to pressure (sensitive)
Slip/skid indicator
Page 3 of 25
25 Q: How is an aircraft approach category
determined?
26 Q: When is a procedure turn not to be authorized?
27 Q: What is the maximum holding speed for
reciprocating engine aircraft and when are you
expected to effect the speed reduction?
28 Q: What procedure do you follow when you have
diverted from your destination and your alternate
has gone below alternate minimums?
29 Q: How wide is a victor airway?
30 Q: What is a cruise clearance?
31 Q: What is the sequence of information given when
making a routine report IFR in a non-radar
environment?
32 Q: How often are the enroute charts and approach
plates revised?
33 Q: What is the lost communication transponder
code?
A: 1.3 times Vso at max gross weight.
A: Straight in approaches, holding patterns, DME arcs, radar vectored,
when designated "NoPT", and timed approaches.
A: The maximum holding speeds for all civil aircraft are:
Up to 6,000' MSL - 200 kias
from 6,001' to 14,000' MSL - 230 kias
from 14,001' up - 265 kias
Slowdown must be initiated 3 minutes before reaching the clearance
limit that is an IAF.
A: Continue unless minimums have gone below minimums for approach
or request another diversion if possible.
A: 4 NM each side of centerline. When an airway extends more than 51
NM from the nearest navaid, it includes the airspace between lines
diverging at angle of 4.5° from centerline. These lines extend until
they intersect the diverging lines from the navaid at the other end of
the segment.
A: Authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum
IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the
clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within
the block of airspace. Once you descend from an altitude and report,
you may not go back to that altitude without further clearance.
Cruise clearance also gives approval for making approach to a
destination airport.
A: Identification, position, time, altitude, position (over next reporting
point), time, position (over following reporting point).
A: Every 56 days.
A: 7600
Page 4 of 25
34 Q: Explain in detail the lost communication A: FAR 91.185 & AIM 6-4-1
procedure with regard to altitude, routes and
holding. VFR Conditions: Land as soon as practicable.

IFR Conditions:

Route - Last assigned; if being radar vectored by the direct route

from the point of radio failure to the fix, route or airway specified in
the clearance, in its absence, the advised EFC route; or in its
absence, the route filed in the flight plan.

Altitude - The highest of the following for the route being flown: MEA,
EFC altitude, or altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance.

Leave clearance limit - If the clearance limit is an IAF, descend as

close as possible to the EFC time (if received) or the ETA in the flight
plan. If the clearance limit is not an IAF, leave it at the EFC time (if
received) or upon arrival over the limit and then direct to an IAF and
commence descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA in
the flight plan.

35 Q: If while enroute to your destination you lost your A: Go to the alternate immediately. ATC will have cleared the airport for
communication completely, and upon arrival at 30 minutes only, and shooting multiple approaches or holding will
the airport you were forced to execute a missed create a problem.
approach, what would your next action be?

36 Q: Define MDA A: MDA - Minimum Descent Altitude. Used for non-precision

approaches, is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on
final or during circle-to-land approaches.

37 Q: Define DH A: DH - Decision Height or Decision Altitude (DA). Used for precision

approaches, is the altitude at which a decision is made to continue
the approach or do a missed approach procedure (i.e. you may
descend below DA briefly while executing the missed approach).

38 Q: Define HAA. A: HAA - Height Above Airport. Height of MDA above the published
airport elevation. Used in circling minimums.

39 Q: Define HAT. A: HAT - Height Above Touchdown. Height of the DA or MDA above
the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone. Used with
straight-in minimums.

40 Q: Define TCH. A: TCH - Threshold Crossing Height. Theoretical height above the
runway threshold at which the aircraft's glideslope antenna would be
if the aircraft maintains the trajectory established by the mean ILS
glideslope or MLS glidepath.

41 Q: Define NoPT. A: NoPT - No Procedure Turn. None authorized in a full approach with
"NoPT".

42 Q: Define TDZE. A: TDZE - Touchdown Zone Elevation. Highest elevation in the first
3,000' of landing surface.

43 Q: What is the primary difference between a A: Precision gives you glideslope information.
precision and non-precision approach?

44 Q: What is meant by the term "cleared for the A: Used primarily in a training environment, it authorizes a stop & go,
option" when issued in an approach clearance? touch & go, full stop, etc. Published missed approach procedures
are not to be carried out. Climb out instructions should be followed if
doing a missed approach.

Page 5 of 25
45 Q: When can you descend below the MDA or DH? A: FAR 91.175 (c)

When the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent

to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of
descent using normal maneuvers.

The flight visibility cannot be less than that prescribed in the

approach briefing, and one of the following must be visible:

Threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights

REIL's
VASI
TDZ, TDZ markings, TDZL's
Runway or its markings, or runway lights

NOTE: the ALS may be in sight , but you may only descend to 100'
above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference, unless the
red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly
visible and identifiable (ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 systems only).

46 Q: What are the components of the ILS system? A: Localizer, glideslope, marker beacons and ALS.

47 Q: What is a compass locator? A: An NDB co-located at the outer marker or a middle marker.

48 Q: What is an ASR approach? A: ASR - Airport Surveillance Radar. Approach control radar used to
detect and display an aircraft's position in the terminal area. ASR
provides range and azimuth information but does not provide
elevation data. Coverage of the ASR can extend up to 60 miles.

49 Q: What is a PAR approach? A: PAR - Precision Approach Radar. Primary radar equipment used to
determine the position of an aircraft during final approach, in terms of
lateral and vertical deviations relative to a normal approach path, and
in range relative to touchdown.

50 Q: What is an no-gyro approach? A: A radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-

compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with
headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and
issues control instructions "turn right/left" or "stop turn" as
appropriate.

51 Q: What does the term VOR-A and VOR-B mean A: Approaches with an "A" or "B" designation means that the approach
on the approach plate margin? is not aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course. They
are circling approaches.

52 Q: Explain a step-down fix. A: A fix permitting additional descent within a segment of an instrument
approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling
obstacle has been safely overflown.

53 Q: Does an aircraft on an instrument flight plan A: No.

making an instrument approach in VFR
conditions have the right-of-way or priority over
other VFR traffic?

54 Q: When reporting missed approach, what A: Advise ATC upon reaching the missed approach point that you are
procedure do you follow and what information do going missed, and execute the missed approach instructions for the
you give? procedure being used, or alternate instructions given by ATC.
Advise ATC of your intentions.

55 Q: When will radar be used to assist an instrument A: When radar is required on the approach plate and to expedite traffic.
approach?

Page 6 of 25
56 Q: Where is the missed approach executed when
the approach facility is on the field; and how do
you time the approach?
57 Q: What is the maximum recommended allowable
altimeter error for IFR?
58 Q: What is the maximum recommended allowable
precession error in the DG for IFR?
59 Q: What are the allowable errors for the attitude
indicator and how long is the gyro allowed to
stabilize?
60 Q: Does it matter where a VOT check is
performed? Can it be done in the air?
61 Q: After approach says, "Turn left heading 230,
expect ILS 5 approach", two-way radio
communication failure is experienced, what is
your next action?
62 Q: What is the procedure for timing the outbound
leg of a holding pattern when holding at a VOR,
NDB or an intersection?
63 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding
pattern with a parallel entry.
64 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding
pattern with a direct entry.
65 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding
pattern with a teardrop entry.
66 Q: What is the maximum altitude you can fly in
reference to the IFR low altitude enroute charts?
67 Q: What are the three AGL altitudes on the
approach plates?
68 Q: Explain the sensing on the ILS, front and back
course, inbound and outbound.
A: At station passage. Timing is not required.
A: ± 75'
A: No more than 3° in 15 minutes.
A: 5° in a turn while taxiing, and 5 minutes to stabilize.
A: A VOT check can only be performed as published in the A/FD,
whether a ground or airborne checkpoint.
A: AIM 6-4-1. Squawk 7600, proceed direct to the IAF and complete
the full approach if in IMC.
A: AIM 5-3-7. Outbound timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever
occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start
timing when turn to outbound is completed. For VOR watch for
to/from flip. For NDB's watch for the ADF needle to point to the
wingtip, or the tail of the ADF needle to point 90° from the inbound
bearing.
A: When approaching from the parallel sector, the parallel entry
procedure would be to turn to a heading parallel to the holding
course outbound on the non-holding side for one minute, turn in the
direction of the holding pattern through more than 180°, and return to
the holding fix or intercept the holding course inbound.
A: When approaching from the direct sector, the direct entry would be
to fly directly to the fix and turn to follow the holding pattern.
A: When approaching from the teardrop sector the procedure is to fly to
the fix, turn outbound to a heading for a 30° teardrop entry within the
pattern on the holding side for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of
the holding pattern to intercept the inbound holding course.
A: The chart is valid up to 17,999' but the maximum cruising altitude is
17,000'.
A: HAT, HAA, and TCH.
A: Front course sensing - follow glideslope indication at the proper
altitude, and when tracking inbound, direct sensing occurs.
Outbound, reverse sensing occurs.
Back course sensing - Ignore the glideslope indications, and when
tracking inbound, reverse sensing occurs. Outbound, direct sensing
occurs.
NOTE: Doesn’t apply to an HSI.
Page 7 of 25
69 Q: How would you correct for a fly up or fly down
error while on an ILS approach?
70 Q: What is the FAF on a precision approach?
71 Q: Define MEA.
72 Q: Define MOCA.
73 Q: Define MAA.
74 Q: Define MRA.
75 Q: Define MCA.
76 Q: What symbol on the chart indicates a change in
MEA, MOCA or MAA?
77 Q: Explain the term "straight-in" vs. circling
minimums.
78 Q: What is Tower Enroute Control (TEC)?
79 Q: What is a timed approach?
80 Q: What is a side-step maneuver and why would
you have to do such a maneuver?
A: Small adjustments will require small pitch changes. Larger
adjustments may require power changes. Fly towards the glideslope
indicators.
A: Glideslope interception.
A: MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude - Lowest published altitude between
radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
and meets obstacle clearance requirements (2000' above highest
obstacle within 4 NM of course to be flown in mountainous areas;
1000' above highest obstacle within 4 NM of course to be flown
elsewhere).
A: MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - Lowest published
altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway
routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance
requirements for the entire route segment and which assures
acceptable navigation signal coverage within 22 NM of a VOR.
A: MAA- Maximum Authorized Altitude. Published altitude representing
the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure
or route segment that provides adequate reception of navigation aid
signals.
A: MRA - Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude at which an
intersection can be identified.
A: MCA - Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain
fixes that an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a
higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA).
A: The symbol ------| |------
A: Straight in minimums require that the runway be aligned within 30° of
the approach, otherwise circling minimums apply.
A: AIM 4-1-18. It is an ATC program to provide service to aircraft
proceeding to and from metropolitan areas by using designated
approach control areas linked by a network of identified routes. It is
generally for non-turbojet aircraft at and below 10,000' MSL that are
on flights of 2 hours or less. TEC information can be found in the
A/FD when applicable.
A: Approaches at busy airports to expedite traffic. The follow must
apply: Control tower in operation, direct communication maintained
between the pilot and the center or approach controller until pilot is
instructed to contact tower, if more than one missed approach none
require course reversal, if only one missed approach then no course
reversal and visibility and ceiling are above prescribed circling
minimums, no procedure turn is authorized when cleared for the
approach.
A: A visual maneuver accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an
instrument approach to permit a straight in landing on a parallel
runway not more than 1,200' to either side of the runway to which the
instrument approach was conducted. It is used in case of traffic or
other hazards on the approach runway.
Page 8 of 25
81 Q: You are on a circling approach and have started
your circling maneuver when you suddenly lose
sight of the runway environment, how should you
execute your missed approach?
82 Q: What it a visual descent point?
83 Q: What can you use as substitutions for inoperable
components on an ILS approach?
84 Q: What are the limits of the area where you can
receive proper course guidance from the
localizer?
85 Q: What is an LDA?
86 Q: What is an SDF?
87 Q: What are the names, colors, and identifiers for
the marker beacons?
88 Q: What are the primary instruments for pitch and
bank during a descent on the glideslope of an
ILS approach?
89 Q: Is an alternate static source required for IFR
flight?
90 Q: What are the standard IFR clearance items?
91 Q: Explain the "VFR-on top" clearance.
92 Q: What is TDZL?
A: AIM 5-4-19. The pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the
landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed
approach course.
A: A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision
straight in approach procedure from which a normal descent from the
MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided
identifiable markings at the approach end of the runway are clearly
visible to the pilot.
A: Middle marker - PAR or compass locator. Outer marker - PAR, ASR,
NDB, VOR or DME.
A: At altitudes from 1,000' - 4,500', 35° within 10 NM then 10° out to 18
NM.
A: LDA - Localizer Type Directional aid. A navaid used for non-
precision instrument approaches with utility and accuracy
comparable to a localizer but which is not a part of a complete ILS
and is not aligned with the runway.
A: SDF - Simplified Directional Facility. A navaid used for non-precision
instrument approaches. The final approach course is similar to that
of an ILS localizer except that the SDF course may be offset from the
runway, generally not more than 3°, and the course may be wider
than the localizer, resulting in a lower degree of accuracy.
A: Outer Marker - Blue, 2 kHz, dashes
Middle Marker - Amber, 3 kHz, dashes and dots
Inner Marker - White, 6 kHz, dots
A: HSI - Glideslope indicator for pitch, CDI for bank. OBS - VSI for
pitch, DG for bank.
A: Only if flying for hire.
A: CRAFT - Clearance, Route, Altitude, Frequency, and Transponder
code.
A: Must be requested by a pilot on an IFR flight plan, and if approved,
the pilot assumes the following responsibilities: Fly at appropriate
VFR altitudes, comply with VFR visibility and distance from clouds,
comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight
(minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications,
course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc.), and should
advise ATC prior to any altitude change to ensure the exchange of
accurate traffic information.
A: AIM 2-1-5. Touchdown Zone Lights - Installed on some precision
runways and are composed of two rows of transverse light bars
disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. They are
steady burning white lights, which start 100' beyond the landing
threshold and extend to 3,000' beyond the landing threshold or
midpoint of the runway, whichever is less.
Page 9 of 25
 93 Q: If a runway has RCLS, how are the lights
configured?
94 Q: What requires immediate notification to the
NTSB?
95 Q: The NTSB requires what follow up reports?
96 Q: What is a profile descent?
97 Q: What are the different VORs and what are their
service volumes?
98 Q: What are the different NDBs and what are their
service volumes?
99 Q: What are the standard IFR separation
standards?
100 Q: What are the altimeter setting procedures?
101 Q: What is the ADIZ and what is required to pass
through it?
102 Q: What color are the runway edge lights on an
instrument runway?
103 Q: Who must have an ELT?
A: AIM 2-1-5. RCLS are located along the runway centerline and are
spaced at 50' intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the
runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000' of the runway.
The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000', and for
the last 1,000' of the runway, all centerline lights are red.
A: An accident or any of the following incidents: Flight control system
malfunction, injury or sickness of flight crew member, failure of
structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor or
blades, in flight fire, collision in flight, $25,000 damage to property
other than aircraft, aircraft overdue and believed to have been
involved in an accident.
A: Accident - 10 days. Incident - If requested. Missing aircraft - 7 days.
A: An uninterrupted descent from cruising altitude to interception of a
glideslope or to a minimum altitude specified for the initial or
intermediate approach segment of a non-precision instrument
approach.
A: Terminal
1,000' to 12,000' and 25 NM
Low Altitude
1,000' to 18,000' and 40 NM
High Altitude
1,000' to 14,500' and 40 NM
14,500' to 18,000' and 100 NM
18,000' to 45,000' and 130 NM
45,000 to 60,000' and 100 NM.
A: Compass Locator - 15 NM
MH - 25 NM
H - Up to 50 NM
HH - 70 NM
A: Within 40 miles of a radar site, 3 NM separation. Otherwise 5 NM.
A: When below 18,000' MSL: If less than 31.00" Hg, set to the current
reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100
NM of the aircraft. If pressure is above 31.00" Hg, then set to 31.00"
and consult the NOTAM procedures. Over 18,000" set the altimeter
to 29.92" to read pressure altitude.
A: Air Defense Identification Zone. Requirements to transition through it
include a flight plan, 2-way radio, if transponder is equipped, then it
must be on and position reports must be made.
A: AIM 2-1-4. Runway edge lights are white except on instrument
runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000' or half the runway
length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.
A: All aircraft except: Jet, scheduled flights, training within 50 NM of a
base airport, design and testing, new aircraft being delivered, crop
dusters, research and development, and single seat aircraft.
Page 10 of 25
104 Q: What is a warning area? A: AIM 3-4-4. Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nm
outward from the coast of the US that contains activity that may be
hazardous to non-participating aircraft.

105 Q: When both the pitot tube and drain hole are A: ...an altimeter.
blocked, the ASI acts like...

106 Q: When both the pitot tube and drain hole are A: A climb will show a rise in airspeed and a descent will show a
blocked, what effect will a climb or descent have decrease in airspeed because the gauge is acting as an altimeter.
on the airspeed indicator?

107 Q: If the alternate static source is used, what will A: The static pressure will be lower because of the venturi effect on the
happen to the static pressure and why? cockpit.

108 Q: What happens to the VSI if the static ports A: It will stabilize and not show any change in a climb or descent
become blocked? because the change in air pressure can't be detected.

109 Q: What happens to true airspeed as the outside air A: It increases.

temperature increases?

110 Q: What does the altimeter read when a local A: True altitude at field elevation.
altimeter setting is used and the aircraft is on the
ground?

111 Q: How much does atmospheric pressure decrease A: 1" Hg.

(approx.) for every 1,000' of elevation?

112 Q: If a current altimeter setting is not available at A: Departure airport elevation.

the time of departure, what may be used as a
substitute?

113 Q: Above 18,000' what is the setting in the A: 29.92" to read pressure altitude. Above FL180, all aircraft are flying
Kohlsman window of the altimeter and why? pressure altitudes.

114 Q: If an aircraft flies from an area of high pressure A: ...higher than the true altitude. "High to low, look out below!"
to an area of low pressure without adjusting the
altimeter the indicated altitude will read...

115 Q: How long should you allow the attitude indicator A: 5 minutes.
to become erect?

116 Q: What information does the turn coordinator give? A: Rate of roll and rate of turn. The inclinometer (ball) shows the
quality/coordination (i.e. slip/skid) of the turn.

117 Q: If the VOR is out of service, but the DME is A: Once every 30 seconds at 1350 Hz
working, how often will you hear it's ID?

118 Q: What indicates passage of a VOR station? A: A complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator.

119 Q: At 30 NM out from a VOR, one dot deflection A: 30 NM - one dot = 1 NM off course
represents how many miles off course? At 60 60 NM - one dot = 2 NM off course
NM out?

120 Q: What is required for a PIC to operate under IFR, A: An instrument rating.
or in weather conditions less than the minimums
prescribed for VFR flight?

Page 11 of 25
121 Q: What must the PIC familiarize himself with A: DWARF
before beginning an IFR flight?
Delays (ATC)
Weather conditions
Alternate Airports
Runway information
Fuel requirements

122 Q: If you deviate from an ATC clearance in an A: Notify ATC ASAP.

emergency, what must be done.

123 Q: What should you do if while in flight a distress A: The pilot should immediately declare an emergency and obtain an
situation is encountered? amended clearance.

124 Q: What must be done if an aircraft's transponder A: Nothing, it is not required in class D airspace.
fails in class D airspace?

125 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM
Class B airspace?
Distance from Clouds
Clear of clouds.

126 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM
Class C airspace?
Distance from Clouds
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontally

127 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM
Class D airspace?
Distance from Clouds
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontally

128 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for A: At or below 10,000' MSL
Class E airspace? Flight Visibility - 3 SM
Distance from Clouds - 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontally

At or above 10,000 MSL

Flight Visibility - 5 SM
Distance from Clouds - 1000' below, 1,000' above, 1 SM horizontally

129 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for A: 1,200' or less AGL
Class G airspace? Day - 1 SM, Clear of clouds
Night - 3 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal

More than 1,200' AGL but less than 10,000' MSL

Day - 1 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal
Night - 3 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal

More than 1,200 AGL and over 10,000' MSL

5 SM, 1,000' above, 1,000' below, 1 SM horizontal

130 Q: What are the requirements for special VFR? A: 1 SM visibility and ability to remain clear of clouds. At night, only IFR
rated pilots in an IFR equipped aircraft can request them.

131 Q: What fuel reserves are required for an IFR flight? A: Enough fuel to make it to the intended airport, then fly to the
alternate airport (if required), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise.

Page 12 of 25
132 Q: What are the minimums required for listing an A: The weather forecast must allow a descent from the MEA , approach,
airport without an instrument approach as an and landing under basic VFR.
alternate?

133 Q: What are the oxygen requirements between A: 12,500' - 14,000' Pilots can fly for up to 30 minutes without
12,500' and 14,000'? Between 14,000' and supplemental oxygen. If the flight lasts longer than 30 minutes at
15,000'? Above 15,000'? that altitude, the crew must use supplemental oxygen.

14,000' - 15,000' The required crew must be provided and use

supplemental oxygen for the entire time.

Above 15,000' All crew must use oxygen and passenger must be
provided oxygen for their use.

134 Q: If an aircraft doesn't have a transponder, how A: 1 hour.

long in advance must the pilot request a
deviation?

135 Q: What is the NTSB part that covers accident and A: NTSB 830
incident reporting responsibilities?

136 Q: What is the distance from the runway threshold A: 1,000'

to the fixed distance markers?

137 Q: What is the distance from the runway threshold A: 500'

to the TDZ marker?

138 Q: What is the distance from the beginning of the A: 500'

TDZ marker to the beginning of the fixed
distance marker?

139 Q: What information does a VASI provide? A: Only glide path guidance and safe obstruction clearance within ± 10°
of the extended centerline from as far as 4 NM from the threshold. It
does not provide information on alignment with the runway.

140 Q: What does a distant NOTAM(D) contain? A: Information for all navigation facilities that are part of the National
Airspace System (NAS) and all public airports in the A/FD.

141 Q: What does a local NOTAM(L) contain? A: It includes such data as runway closures, personnel or equipment
near or crossing runways, beacon outages, and lighting aids not
affecting instrument approach criteria, such as VASI.

142 Q: What is an FDC NOTAM and what does it A: It is a temporary or permanent regulatory change published as
contain? needed by the National Flight Data Center (FDC). FDC NOTAMS
advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach
procedures, and amended aeronautical charts and flight restrictions
prior to normal publication.

143 Q: What is a composite flight plan? A: A flight plan that is part VFR and part IFR.

144 Q: What does the absence of sky condition and A: It implies that a ceiling of more than 5,000' and visibility of more than
visibility from the ATIS imply? 5 SM exist.

145 Q: What does the operation of an airport beacon A: IFR weather exists.
during the day mean?

Page 13 of 25
146 Q: What altitude should you enter on the flight plan A: The altitude for the first leg.
for a plan that has different altitudes for different
legs?

147 Q: If a clearance contains a void time, but that time A: Advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes after
has passed before you were able to take off, the void time if a decision is made not to take off.
what should be done?

148 Q: What does minimum fuel mean to ATC? A: It is an advisory to ATC that indicates an emergency situation is
possible should any undue delay occur.

149 Q: What should you do if you lose your transponder A: Advise ATC and continue to the next airport of intended landing
above FL240? where repairs can be made.

150 Q: What are the normal limits for class D airspace? A: 4 NM radius and 2,500' AGL.

151 Q: What are the normal limits for class C airspace? A: 5 NM radius, SFC - 4,000 AGL
10 NM radius, 1,200' - 4,000 AGL

153 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are A: Ceilings less than 1,000' and/or visibility less than 3 SM
considered IFR?

154 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are A: Ceiling 1,000' - 3,000' and/or visibility 3-5 SM
considered MVFR?

155 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are A: Ceilings greater than 3,000' and/or visibility greater than 5 SM
considered VFR?

156 Q: What is RVR? A: RVR - Runway Visual Range. An instrumentally derived value that
represents the horizontal distance the pilot can see down the runway
from the approach end. The transmissometer (which determines the
distance) is located near the touchdown point on instrument
runways, and reports in hundreds of feet.

157 Q: What are the normal ILS visibility minimums? A: 1/2 SM, or 2400 RVR.

158 Q: What should you do if executing the missed A: Continue the approach to the MAP, at or above the MDA/DA, before
approach before reaching the MAP? executing any turns.

159 Q: Which two letters of the localizer does an outer A: The outer compass locator (LOM) transmits the first two letters of the
compass locator (LOM) transmit? The middle localizer and the middle compass locator (LMM) transmits the last
compass locator (LMM)? two letters.

160 Q: What should you do if while on an ILS approach, A: Continue the approach using the VASI, and report the malfunction to
you lose the signal, but you have the VASI in ATC.
sight.

161 Q: What effect does groundspeed have on descent A: If your groundspeed increases, the descent rate increases.
rates? If your groundspeed decreases, the descent rate decreases.

162 Q: When cleared for an approach, does/can the A: No.

pilot execute a procedure turn?

163 Q: What is the minimum navigational equipment for A: One VOR receiver and DME.
a VOR/DME approach?

Page 14 of 25
164 Q: What do you put in the remarks section of the A: No DP's and STAR's.
flight plan if you don't want to use published DP's
or STAR's?

165 Q: If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring A: No. You have to select a different form of navigation and approach.
(RAIM) is not available, can you still use a GPS
approach?

166 Q: What are the requirements for an alternate when A: Any alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach
using GPS for navigation and instrument procedure, other than GPS, which is anticipated to be in use at the
approaches? ETA, and which the airplane is equipped to fly.

167 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal A: Cleared to land.
"Steady Green" mean?

168 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal A: Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).
"Flashing Green" mean?

169 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal A: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
"Steady Red" mean?

170 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal A: Airport unsafe - do not land.
"Flashing Red" mean?

171 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal A: Exercise extreme caution.
"Alternating Red & Green" mean?

172 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Exercise extreme caution.
signal "Alternating Red & Green" mean?

173 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Return to starting point on airport.
signal "Flashing White" mean?

174 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Taxi clear of runway in use.
signal "Flashing Red" mean?

175 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Stop.
signal "Steady Red" mean?

176 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Cleared to taxi.
signal "Flashing Green" mean?

177 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun A: Cleared for takeoff.
signal "Steady Green" mean?

178 Q: What is a feeder route? A: A transition from the enroute phase to the IAF.

179 Q: When is the flight crew required to wear A: During take-off and landing.
shoulder harnesses?

180 Q: What is wind shift and pressure change A: A frontal passage.

indicative of?

181 Q: Is wind direction given in ATIS reports magnetic A: Magnetic.

or true?

Page 15 of 25
182 Q: What weather is associated with a cold front? A: Unstable air, cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, good visibility and
showery precipitation.

183 Q: What weather is associated with a warm front? A: Stable air, stratiform clouds and fog, smooth air, fair to poor visibility
in haze and smoke, steady precipitation.

184 Q: When can you continue an approach after the A: If you are already established on the final segment.
weather has gone below minimums for that
approach?

185 Q: When climbing or descending to a new altitude, A: At an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of
at what rate should this be done? the aircraft to within 1,000' of the assigned altitude, and then attempt
to climb or descend at a rate of 500-1,500 FPM until the assigned
altitude is reached.

186 Q: On an ILS approach with centerline lighting and A: 1800 RVR.

touchdown zone lighting available, the standard
minimum of 2400 RVR can be reduced to what
value?

187 Q: How far behind a heavy jet should a small A: At least 5 NM.
aircraft be?

188 Q: What is the frequency range in which localizers A: 108.10 - 111.95 MHz (odd tenth's)
operate?

189 Q: What are the required read backs to ATC? A: Headings, Altimeter Setting, Leaving Altitude and New Altitude,
Frequencies

190 Q: What is the required information for a PIREP? A: Type (UA/UUA), Location, Time, Flt. Level, Aircraft, Wx

191 Q: How long should holding legs be? A: Below 14,000' - 1 minute
Above 14,000' - 1 1/2 minutes

192 Q: What are the ADF errors? A: Thunderstorms, Rain, Interference, Coast Line, Night, Mountain

193 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are A: Ceilings less than 500' and/or Visibility less than 1 SM.
considered LIFR?

194 Q: What is the rule of thumb for leveling off at an A: 10% of VSI.
altitude?

195 Q: What is the rule of thumb for leading a roll out. A: Half the bank angle.

196 Q: What is the rule of thumb for less than 100' of A: 1/2 bar width pitch.
altitude adjustment?

197 Q: What is the rule of thumb for more than 100' of A: Full bar width pitch.
altitude adjustment?

198 Q: What are the rules of thumb for a 100 RPM/1" A: 100 fpm descent/climb or ± 5 KIAS
Hg change in engine power?

199 Q: What is the rule of thumb for a standard rate A: Bank angle equal to 15% of TAS.
turn?

Page 16 of 25
200 Q: What is the rule of thumb for figuring how far out
to begin a 3° glidepath descent?
201 Q: What is the rule of thumb for figuring the rate of
descent for a 3° glide path?
202 Q: What are the 4 S's of aircraft control?
203 Q: What is the frequency range used for VORs?
204 Q: What are the operational principles of a VOR?
205 Q: What are some errors related to VORs?
206 Q: What is the frequency range of an NDB?
207 Q: Why must you constantly monitor an NDB when
using it for navigation?
208 Q: What are the operating principles of an NDB?
209 Q: How does a loop antenna on an ADF work?
210 Q: How does a sense antenna on an ADF work?
A: Altitude to be lost/300 = Distance
A: Ground Speed/2 and add a zero on the end.
A: Soon, Small, Slow, Smooth (Don't forget to trim!)
A: 108.0 - 117.95 MHz (Localizers use 108.1 to 111.95 - odd tenths)
A: A. Line of sight operation
B. Two signals transmitted (reference and variable); reference beam
is a 360° continuous cone, while variable beam rotates continuously
at 1800 RPM around the reference signal. Location is defined by
use of phase difference between the two signals. The two signals
are in phase at 360° magnetic. Receiver measures phase
difference. Degree of phase difference is based on the variable
signal's position in relation to reference signal.
C. Course/radials are referenced to magnetic north.
A: Course Bends - needle moves slower than normal
Course Scalloping - needle moves faster than normal (scalloping
sounds like galloping)
Fluctuations up to 6° can be caused by certain RPM settings.
Note: VOR is NOT affected by weather, electrical and atmospheric
disturbances.
A: 190 - 535 KHz. (except for compass locators, all transmit a 3 letter
ID Morse code.) "W" indicates no voice capability for the beacon.
A: Since there is no "flag" to warn the pilot when erroneous bearing
information is being displayed, the pilot should continuously monitor
the NDB's identification.
A: Two antenna receivers (sense and loop); when loop is parallel to
signal, a max induced voltage difference between two sides of loop
received; when loop is perpendicular to signal, a minimum and equal
voltage differences between two sides exists. Due to ambiguity
(behind or ahead, left or right), a separate sense antenna is
necessary to eliminate ambiguity. The loop antenna senses
direction by comparison of voltages.
A: The position of the plane of the loop in reference to the station
determines the induced voltages in the sides of the loop and the
strength of the signal received through the antenna. Maximum signal
strength is received when there is a maximum difference in the
induced voltages in the sides of the loop. Plane of loop parallel to
direction of wave travel. Minimum signal strength exists when equal
voltages are induced in both sides of the loop simultaneously. Thus,
loop antenna senses direction by comparison of voltages. It cannot
determine if signal is coming from behind or ahead or left or right (no
ambiguity)
A: Since the loop antenna cannot discern between front/back and
left/right, a sense antenna (vertical wire that receives from all
directions) is combined with the loop antenna for ambiguity.
Page 17 of 25
211 Q: What does "BFO" on the ADF radio mean?
212 Q: How does DME work?
213 Q: In regards to DME, what does slant range
mean? What are the errors associated with it?
214 Q: What is the frequency range of DME? How does
an aircraft send/receive signals?
215 Q: How often is the DME coded identification
transmitted?
216 Q: What happens if there are many users of the
same DME ground station?
217 Q: Where is the localizer for an ILS approach
located on the airfield?
218 Q: How wide is the course of an ILS localizer at the
runway threshold?
219 Q: What letter precedes the ID of all ILS localizers?
220 Q: What are the frequencies of the two "lobes" that
are used in a localizer?
221 Q: How does the VOR receiver get glideslope
information.
222 Q: Where is the glideslope transmitter located?
How wide is the beam?
223 Q: What are the frequencies of the two "lobes" that
are used by the glideslope?
A: Beat Frequency Oscillator (underlined identifiers on JEPP products).
BFO is required to hear Morse code identifiers in some countries.
A: Aircraft equipment transmits (interrogates) paired RF pulses to
ground transponder. Ground transponder returns same RF pulse
pair with same spacing but on a different frequency. The DME unit
times the round trip and reports a distance in NM.
A: The distance reported by a DME unit is slant range, not horizontal
range; therefore, DME is only accurate when you are farther from the
station in nautical miles than you are in thousands of feet of altitude.
For example, if you are cruising at FL240, DME is inaccurate within
24 DME due to slant range error. However, DME will tell you your
altitude in NM, when you are directly above the station. In the above
example, directly above the station your DME readout will be 4 DME
(4 NM x 6000'; 6000'/nm)
A: UHF 962 - 1213 MHz. Military aircraft equipped with TACAN will
receive distance information from a TACAN or VORTAC
automatically. Civil aircraft must have a separate/independent
interrogator which utilizes VHF frequency pairing. When a ground
TACAN or DME station is not paired with a VOR geographically, its
"ghost" VOR/VHF frequency is charted on enroute charts (VHF
frequency pairing). In this case, the airborne equipment must be
switched from "remote" to "frequency" for manual tuning. "Remote"
slaves the DME interrogator to whatever is tuned into the navigation
radios (freq. Pairing).
A: One time for each three or four times that the VOR or LOC coded ID
is transmitted. About every 30 seconds.
A: It may become overloaded and signal update delays are possible.
A: 1,000' from the far end of runway along extended centerline.
A: 700'. 350' to either side of center at full scale deflection.
A: I ".."
A: Right side - 150 Hz
Left side - 90 Hz
A: Through a UHF frequency paired with its associated VHF localizer
frequency.
A: Between 750' and 1,250' from the approach end of the runway and
offset 250' to 650' from the runway centerline. It transmits a glide
path beam 1.4° wide.
A: Bottom - 150 Hz (0.7° bottom lobe transmits 150Hz)
Top - 90 Hz
Page 18 of 25
224 Q: What is the normal projection angle of a
glideslope and where (altitude) does it usually
cross the middle and outer markers? What is
the normal glideslope range?
225 Q: When should you disregard the glideslope
information?
226 Q: What is the thickness of an ILS glideslope at 10
NM?
At 1 NM?
At the threshold?
227 Q: What is the BC marker?
228 Q: When are ILS critical areas active?
229 Q: Why use holding patterns?
230 Q: What is the standard direction for turns in a
holding pattern?
231 Q: What does an BFR (Biennial Flight Review)
consist of?
232 Q: What recency of experience is necessary in
order to carry passengers?
233 Q: What are some things to consider when planning
an IFR route?
234 Q: What are some things to consider when
selecting an altitude for an IFR flight plan?
A: Projection angle is normally 3° so that it intersect that MM at about
200' and the OM at about 1,400' above the runway elevation.
Normal glide slope range is 10 NM.
A: When at angles considerable greater than the published path (False
courses) and when on a localizer back course approach (they are
non-precision anyway).
A: 10 NM - 1,500'
1 NM - 150'
Threshold - 1'
A: A white light with the Morse code for I twice ".. ..". It signifies the
back-course FAF.
A: When Wx is 800' ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
A: Delay, separate traffic, weather, missed approaches.
A: Right turns.
A: At least 1 hour of ground instruction and 1 hour of flight instruction.
FAR 61.56: must be accomplished once for every 24 calendar
month period. Results in a logbook endorsement by a CFI. You
cannot lose your license from a failed BFR, you just don't get the
endorsement until you satisfy the CFI.
Note: the clock starts over for an applicant who has satisfactorily
completed a test for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege.
A: FAR 91.57: Recent pilot experience, PIC. Within the preceding 90
days, 3 takeoffs and landings in the same category and class. Night:
1 hr after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, 3 takeoffs and landings
to a full stop in the same category and class.
A: Always check for preferred routes. Check for prohibited and
restricted airspace as well as MOAs and consider placing a call to
FSS to see if these areas will be hot/affect your flight. Check the
NAVAIDS you are planning on using in the A/FD to ensure they will
be useable. Also check for any NOTAMS affecting possible
routing/MEAs. Check for DPs/STARs. For direct routes, ensure that
full radar coverage/controlled airspace covers the route. Be
cognizant of extensive overwater routes, high terrain.
A: Save altitude selection until towards the end of the flight planning
problem so that you may get the most current winds and
temperatures aloft data. Use winds aloft to look for favorable
winds/tailwinds. Look at temperatures aloft for TAS computation and
passenger comfort. Do you have an oxygen system in place for
aircrew/passengers? In not, place "NO OXYGEN" on your IFR flight
plan and plan to stay below 12,500' (lower at night). Consider terrain
elevations and MEAs along the route. Consider how much distance
is involved; with long flights you might as well climb high if it proves
beneficial. There is no point in climbing high for a very short flight.
Consider passenger comfort.
Page 19 of 25
235 Q: How long after you file a flight plan with a FSS
will it remain active before being "kicked out" of
the system?
236 Q: What are the different methods for filing a flight
plan.
237 Q: What is the procedure for receiving a IFR
clearance at an uncontrolled field?
238 Q: How do you receive IFR clearance at a
controlled airfield?
239 Q: What are the methods for closing an IFR flight
plan?
240 Q: Define MVA.
241 Q: What information is derived from upper air
observations and how often are measurements
taken?
242 Q: What are the three types of briefings that a pilot
can request from a FSS briefer/DUATS?
243 Q: What are METARs and how often are they
issued? What's a SPECI and when is it issued?
244 Q: What is a radar report and when is it issued?
245 Q: What are the two types of satellite imagery and
when is it retrieved?
246 Q: What is a TAF? How often are they issued?
How long are they valid?
A: 1 hour after proposed departure time on the flight plan.
A: Call a FSS at 1-800-WXBRIEF. File online at duats. Contact a FSS
on the ground through a RCO. Contact a FSS in the air.
A: At an uncontrolled field, when you call the FSS to file your flight plan,
you will get an IFR clearance as well, but it will have a void time. At
busy fields, the void time will be in about 10 minutes; at quiet fields
there will be a little more time. Thus, it is important to have all the
passengers and luggage loaded and everything ready to go before
calling FSS to file/receive clearance.
A: Contact clearance delivery or ground control. (Not all airports have
clearance delivery or it's not always active)
A: At controlled fields it is automatically done for you. At uncontrolled
fields, you can call a FSS or ATC on the telephone upon landing
(within 30 minutes) or you can cancel with ATC/FSS on the radio
once you have the destination airport in sight visually. This allows
more traffic into the airport sooner.
A: MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude. Can be lower than MEA/MOCA.
Provides 3 miles of obstruction clearance and 1,000' non-
mountainous and 2,000' mountainous.
A: Taken twice daily by sounding balloons. Information provided by
sounding balloons: temperatures, humidity, pressure, winds and
freezing level. With regard to upper air observations, PIREPS are
still the only "direct" information for turbulence, icing and cloud tops.
A: Standard (within 6 hours)
Outlook (more than 6 hours away)
Abbreviated (to supplement information)
A: Hourly surface observations. Taken before the top of each hour. A
SPECI is issued whenever warranted (when there is a significant
change) Sky cover is in eighths
A: Radar reports are transmitted at 35 minutes past the hour and
contains data that is used in preparing the graphic radar summary
chart (via a grid and VIP). W is short for rain showers. Slashes
separate azimuth and range information for returns from either a
VOR or a station/airport.
XX = extreme, X = intense, + = heavy, D = Diameter, A = Area, L =
Line, C = Cell
A: Visual and infrared. Images are received every 30 minutes.
A: Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts. Issued 4 times daily, with each
covering a 24 hour period. (0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z). Sky
cover is in eighths.
Page 20 of 25
247 Q: What is included in an Area Forecast (FA)? How
often are they issued? How long are they valid?
248 Q: What is a CONVECTIVE SIGMET (WST)?
When are they issued? How long are they valid?
249 Q: What is a SIGMET (WS)? When are they
issued? How long are they valid?
250 Q: What is a AIRMET (WA)? When are they
issued? How long are they valid?
251 Q: What is included in an TWEB? How often are
they issued? How long are they valid?
A: Area Forecasts (FA) forecast enroute weather and forecast
conditions for airports that do not have TAF reporting capability.
Hazardous weather is included in SIGMETS/AIRMETS/CONV.
SIGMETS. Issued 3 times daily for 6 separate multi-state
geographical areas.
18 hour synopsis: location and movement of fronts and pressure
systems, ceilings, visibility and winds.
12 hour VFR clouds and weather. Breakdown by state: Visibility,
precipitation, thunderstorm activity, winds greater than 20 knots.
6 hour outlook: a general outlook statement for expected conditions.
This is attached at the end of the VFR clouds and weather section.
A: Issued for: severe thunderstorms (winds > 50, hail > 3/4", tornadoes),
embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, level 4
thunderstorms with 40% coverage. Implies severe or greater
turbulence, severe icing and low level wind shear. Wind shear is any
change in wind velocity (speed/direction). Hazards to ALL aircraft.
Issued for three separate areas: West (W) for the west coast to 107°
W longitude; Central (C) for 107° W - 87° W longitude, and East (E)
for the area from 87° longitude to the east coast.
Issued at 55 minutes past the hour and with special bulletins as
warranted. Maximum forecast period is 2 hours.
Each convective sigmet is issued with a sequential number followed
by "E" for east, "W" for west, and "C" for central. Ex. CONVECTIVE
SIGMET 26E. Next = 27E.
A: Corresponds with associated area forecast. 4 hours maximum
forecast period. Non-convective weather hazardous to ALL aircraft.
Includes severe icing not associated with thunderstorms, severe
turbulence or CAT not associated with thunderstorms, dust storms,
sandstorms, volcanic ash (visibility at surface less than 3 miles),
volcanic eruption. Names are NOVEMBER through ROMEO and
VICTOR through YANKEE followed by sequential numbering.
SIERRA, TANGO and ZULU are exclusively used by AIRMETS.
A: Issued for the 6 areas corresponding to the area forecasts. Forecast
period is 6 hours. Issued every 6 hours, and as necessary. Includes
moderate icing, moderate turbulence, surface winds greater than 30
knots sustained, ceilings and visibilities below basic VFR for over
50% area coverage, mountain obscurement. AIRMET SIERRA: IFR
and mountain obscurement. AIRMET TANGO: turbulence, strong
surface winds, low level wind shear. AIRMET ZULU: icing and
freezing level.
A: Just like an area forecast but it is in a route format. Route width is 25
miles either side of the route. Sky cover, tops, visibility, weather,
obstructions to visibility and synopsis. There are more than 300
selected routes identified by a separate route number Forecasts are
used in TWEB, TIBS, and PATWAS. These forecasts are issued
three times a day, each valid for 15 hours.
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252 Q: Describe a Winds and Temperatures Aloft
Forecast (FD).
How often are they issued?
How long are they valid?
How are light and variable winds shown?
How are winds over 100 knots shown?
Over 200 knots?
253 Q: What is included in a Center Weather Advisory
(CWA)? Who issues them? How long are they
valid?
254 Q: What is included in a Convective Outlook (AC)?
How often are they issued? How long are they
valid? Describe the two panels and what they
contain.
255 Q: What is a Severe weather watch bulletin
(WW,AWW, "willy willy")? When are they
issued?
256 Q: What is a Surface Analysis Chart? How often
are they issued?
257 Q: What is a Weather Depiction Chart? How often
are they issued?
A: Issued twice daily at 0000Z and 12000Z (each good for 12 hours)
No winds are forecast within 1500 feet of station elevation. No
temperatures are forecast for the 3000' level, or for any level within
2500' of station elevation.
9900 means light and variable winds.
Winds greater than 100, subtract 50 from the first 2 digits and add
100 to the next digit(s). Ex. 850552 means winds 350° at 105 knots,
and -52° C temp. Winds 200 knots or greater are plotted as 99 (199
or greater). Ex. 7799 = 270° at 199 knots or greater.
3000, 6000, 9000, 12000, and 18000 (true altitudes); 24000, 30000,
34000, 39000 (pressure altitudes).
Observed winds aloft are also available twice daily (1200/0000Z), but
the information is already 5-8 hours old at issuance. Forecast
winds/temps aloft are more widely used.
A: NOWCAST for conditions beginning within the next 2 hours.
Maximum valid time = 2 hours. Relevant to the ARTCC area of
responsibility. Issued by Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU).
A: Prospects for general thunderstorm activity and severe thunderstorm
activity during the following 48 hours. Issued once a day at 0800Z.
Use AC chart (severe weather outlook chart) for planning flights that
will take place alter in the day; the chart is used strictly for advanced
planning.
Left Panel: 1st 24 hour period. Areas of possible general
thunderstorm activity as well as severe thunderstorm activity. Areas
of hatching shows severe activity. Thunderstorm activity is expected
to the right of the line when facing in the direction of the arrow.
Right Panel: shows the following day/2nd 24 hour period. Severe
thunderstorm outlook only.
A: Not exclusively for aviation, used for public broadcast also. Depicts
area of severe thunderstorms or tornado activity. Unscheduled and
issued as required. Ex. "Severe Thunderstorm Watch", "Tornado
Watch" Alert message (AWW) is sent out in short abbreviated text
before the WW is sent out (WW is in plain text format for easier use
by the public) to alert WSFOs, WSOs, CWSUs, and FSSs.
A: Issued once every 3 hours starting at 0000Z. Depicts isobars,
pressure systems, troughs, ridges, fronts and station models. It is a
ready means of locating pressure systems and fronts. Overview of
winds, temperatures and dewpoint at chart time.
A: Transmitted at 3 hour intervals starting at 0100Z, and is compiled
from surface observations (METARS). Includes areas of IFR, MVFR,
and VFR. Cloud height or ceiling information is found under the
station circle. Weather and obstructions to vision are located to the
left of the station circle. Visibility values are entered to the left side of
the obstruction to visibility symbol that is immediately to the left of the
station circle.
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258 Q: What is a Radar Summary Chart? How often
are they issued? How are radar returns and cell
movement shown on the chart. What are some
of its limitations?
259 Q: What is a Composite Moisture Stability Chart?
How often are they issued?
260 Q: Describe the stability panel of a Composite
Moisture Stability Chart.
261 Q: Describe the freezing level panel of a Composite
Moisture Stability Chart.
262 Q: When may a CFII log instrument time?
271 Q: How many GPS satellites are required to
determine a three dimentional postion?
272 Q: How many satellites make up the GPS
"constellation" and what is the minimum number
visible on any given spot on earth?
A: Graphically displays radar reports using a grid system for plotting.
Also shows intensity (VIP: video integrated processor) levels.
Transmitted at 35 past the hour. Cell movement: arrow pointing in
the direction the cell is moving TO with the speed in knots at the top
of the arrow head. Lines and areas use shaft and barb. Radar only
detect liquid precipitation drops and ice particles of precipitation
size. Does not detect clouds and fog. Cloud tops may be higher
than precipitation tops seen by radar.
A: It is called composite because it consists of 4 panels. Upper left is
stability panel and lower left is the freezing level panel. This chart
uses observed upper air data and is issued twice daily at 1200Z and
0000Z.
A: Stability panel: outlines areas of stable and unstable air using a
lifted index (LI). Large positive values (+8) represent very stable air
(colder than ambient air that falls after being lifted and resists vertical
rising). Large negative values (-4) represent unstable air (air that is
warmer than surrounding air after lifting and adiabatic/expansion
cooling so it is conductive to vertical motion. The lifted index is the
number above the small line and the k index (used by
meteorologists) is placed below the small line. The K index can be
used to determine a % chance of thunderstorms with unstable air.
A: Freezing level panel: observed freezing level data from upper air
observations. Solid lines are contours of the LOWEST freezing level
and are drawn for 4000' intervals. THIS IS IN CONTRAST TO THE
LOW LEVEL SIGN. PROG. ON WHICH THE FREEZING LEVEL
ALOFT IS THE HIGHEST FREEZING LEVEL AT 4000' INTERVALS.
A: When the airplane is in actual instrument conditions.
A: AIM 1-1-19 (6).
Using the calculated pseudo-range and position information supplied
by the satellite, the GPS receiver mathematically determines its
position by triangulation. The GPS receiver needs at least four
satellites to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude,
and altitude) and time solution. The GPS receiver computes
navigational values such as distance and bearing to a waypoint,
ground speed, etc., by using the aircraft's known latitude/longitude
and referencing these to a database built into the receiver.
A: AIM 1-1-19 (7)
The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum
of five are always observable by a user anywhere on earth. The
receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites above the mask
angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which it can use a
satellite).
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273 Q: What is RAIM? How many satellites must be in
view in order to perform the RAIM function? Can
you navigate using GPS withouth RAIM?
274 Q: What functions of DME and ADF can a GPS
replace?
A: AIM 1-1-19 (8) & (9)
The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals
received from the GPS constellation through receiver autonomous
integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing
corrupted information. At least one satellite, in addition to those
required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform
the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in
view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect
an integrity anomaly. For receivers capable of doing so, RAIM needs
6 satellites in view (or 5 satellites with baro-aiding) to isolate the
corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution.
Baro-aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by
using a nonsatellite input source. GPS derived altitude should not be
relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can
be quite large. To ensure that baro-aiding is available, the current
altimeter setting must be entered into the receiver as described in
the operating manual. (we don't have this on the Seminole)
RAIM messages vary somewhat between receivers; however,
generally there are two types. One type indicates that there are not
enough satellites available to provide RAIM integrity monitoring and
another type indicates that the RAIM integrity monitor has detected a
potential error that exceeds the limit for the current phase of flight.
Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy
of the GPS position.
If RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and approach
system must be used, another destination selected, or the trip
delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. On longer
flights, pilots should consider rechecking the RAIM prediction for the
destination during the flight. This may provide early indications that
an unscheduled satellite outage has occurred since takeoff.
Aircraft using GPS navigation equipment under IFR must be
equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of
navigation appropriate to the flight. Active monitoring of alternative
navigation equipment is not required if the GPS receiver uses RAIM
for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of
navigation is required when the RAIM capability of the GPS
equipment is lost.
A: (1) Determining the aircraft position over a DME fix. GPS satisfies the
14 CFR Section 91.205(e) requirement for DME at and above 24,000
feet mean sea level (MSL) (FL 240).
(2) Flying a DME arc.
(3) Navigating to/from an NDB/compass locator.
(4) Determining the aircraft position over an NDB/compass locator.
(5) Determining the aircraft position over a fix defined by an
NDB/compass locator bearing crossing a VOR/LOC course.
(6) Holding over an NDB/compass locator.
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275 Q: What is the difference between a fly-over and a
fly-by waypoint?
A: AIM 1-1-19
GPS approaches make use of both fly-over and fly-by waypoints. Fly-
by waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a turn to the
next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route
segments. This is known as turn anticipation and is compensated for
in the airspace and terrain clearances. Approach waypoints, except
for the MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint (MAHWP),
are normally fly-by waypoints.
Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over the point
prior to starting a turn. New approach charts depict fly-over
waypoints as a circled waypoint symbol. Overlay approach charts
and some early stand alone GPS approach charts may not reflect
this convention.
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