Cloud Comp.

Basics

Question 1:

With cloud computing services, hardware purchases, software purchases, and

IT support are the responsibility of whom?

A. Internet service provider

B. RraaS provider
C. SaaS provider
D. Application service provider

ANS: Correct! Software as a Service (SaaS) providers deliver web-based

software over an Internet connection. The user requires only a machine with a
web browser to connect. The cloud providers must supply the hardware and
software to deliver the service over the Internet.

Question 2:

Which term best describes the ability to rapidly increase user accounts for a
given cloud service?

A. Volatility
B. Synchronicity
C. Viability
D. Elasticity
ANS: Correct. Elasticity allows consumer of cloud services to quickly add or
remove user accounts.

Question 3:
Which option describes a benefit of virtualized servers?

A. Shared hardware
B. Individual hardware per virtual server
 C. Physical servers taking less room space than virtual servers
D. Virtual servers taking less disk space than physical servers

ANS: Correct! A single physical server can host multiple virtual machines so
that the hardware is shared by the virtual machines.

4. What is the number one concern about cloud computing?

Too expensive
Security concerns
Too many platforms
Accessability

5. Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?

Google
Amazon
Blackboard
Microsoft

6.Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.

True
False

7. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?

Hardware as a Service
Platform as a Service
Software as a Service
Infrastructure as a Service

8. An Internet connection is necessary for cloud computing interaction.

True
False
 9. Which of the following characteristics should you consider when deciding
whether to deploy an application or service to a virtual machine?
a. Hardware requirements
b. Software support and compatibility
c. Licensing
d. Performance and resource requirements
e. Historical performance data
f. All of the above

Answer: f
Explanation: Hardware requirements, performance characteristics, licensing
and compatibility are all important factors related to making a decision to
virtualize an application. More information will allow you to make better
decisions related to whether you should virtualize the workload and will assist
in capacity planning.

10. In which of the following types of virtualization are applications stored

and executed on the server?
a. Application Virtualization
b. Storage Virtualization
c. Presentation Virtualization
d. Network Virtualization
e. Server Virtualization

Answer: c
Explanation: Presentation virtualization involves installing and running
applications on a central server and allowing clients to access the VMs over
the network. An example of this approach is Microsoft’s Windows Terminal
Services.

12. Server virtualization and the use of blade servers are:

a. Technically incompatible
b. Technologies that should be combined with caution to avoid putting "too many eggs in
one basket"
c. Technologies that should be used together whenever possible

Answer: B
There is nothing technically wrong or difficult about placing server-virtualization software
on blade servers. However, this practice should not be pursued without careful
consideration of the concentration of risk that it entails. For example, if you build ten
virtual machines on each of sixteen blade servers, the total number of applications
running in the blade-server shelf could be 160. If anything bad happens to the shelf (fire,
power loss) and adequate backup or redundancy (outside of the shelf) does not exist,
you will simultaneously lose 160 applications, with a potentially devastating impact on
business

13. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing ?
a) Storage
b) Application
c) CPU
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: To enable these characteristics, resources must be highly configurable and
flexible

14.What is the name of the globally unique identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel Port?
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address (Mac)
C. World Wide Name (WWN)
D. Port_ID
Ans: C

15.It is possible to Storage vMotion virtual machines that have snapshots?

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

16.What is the name of the globally unique identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel Port?
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address (Mac)
C. World Wide Name (WWN)
D. Port_ID
Ans: C

17.It is possible to Storage vMotion virtual machines that have snapshots?

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

18. NVRAM is best described as:

 A location to run the active configuration from
A location to run the power on diagnostics from
A location to store a backup copy of the router configuration file
The source of commonly used configuration commands
The primary source of the Cisco IOS

19. Which of the following protocols is unacknowledged?

TCP
SPX
Telnet
UDP
FTP

Which of the following protocol

20.

negotiates the formation of an

EtherChannel?
L2TP
EIGRP
HTTP
PAgP
Explanation:

Answer: d. Explanation: Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) can negotiate the formation of an
EtherChannel.
 Which of the following is NOT a valid
21.

configurations for the ip default-network

command?
ip default-network 192.168.10.0
ip default-network 172.16.25.0
ip default-network 126.0.0.0
ip default-network 12.0.0.0
Explanation:
Answer: b. Explanation: The ip default-network
command requires a classful network; 172.16.25.0 is not a
classful network.

8. Which of the following is NOT one of

22.

the 3 Ps of applying ACLs?

one ACL per protocol
one ACL per address
one ACL per interface
one ACL per direction
Explanation:
Answer: b. Explanation: The 3 Ps are one ACL per
protocol, per direction, per interface.

Which type of cable is used to connect

23.

two PCs?
rollover
straight through
crossover
RJ-45
Explanation:
Answer: c. Explanation: A crossover cable is used to
connect two PCs.

Which Cisco device would probably

24.

have more FastEthernet interfaces?

Router
Firewall
Buffer
Switch
Explanation:
Answer: d. Explanation: Switches provide connectivity to
end devices using Ethernet interfaces.

25. By default, the OSPF dead interval is

set to ---------- times the hello interval.
4
2
5
6
Explanation:
Answer: a. Explanation: The dead interval is set to 4
times the hello interval by default.

26.Which OSI layer is responsible for

user interaction?
Layer 2
Layer 5
Layer 6
Layer 7
Explanation:
Answer: d. Explanation: Layer 7 is responsible for user
interaction.
27.When a PC needs to send a packet to
a destination outside of its own subnet, it
sends the packet to the -------.
Default gateway
DHCP
Switch
ARP
Explanation:
Answer: a. Explanation: When a PC needs to send a
packet to a destination outside of its own subet, it sends
the packet to the default gateway.

28.The decimal number 27 is expressed

in hexadecimal as --------- .
0B
C1
1C
1B
Explanation:
Answer: d. Explanation: Decimal 27 is binary 0001 1011
which is 1B.
29. To enter privileged exec mode, enter
the ________ command.
enable
disable
shutdown
no shutdown
Explanation:
Answer: a. Explanation: To enter privileged exec mode,
enter the enable command.

30. The command ip route 10.1.1.0

255.255.255.0 fa0/0 is an example of ----
----.
static routing
default route
quad zero
dynamic routing
Explanation:
Answer: a. Explanation: The ip route command is an
example of static routing.
31. An EGP routes ------------
autonomous systems.
within
around
throughout
between
Explanation:
Answer: d. Explanation: An exterior gateway protocol
(EGP) routes between autonomous systems.

32. What port number is used for FTP data?

A. 20
B.110
C. 25
D. 21
33. What is an NIC?
A. A Network Interpolation Chiller.
B. A Network Interpreter Card.
C. A Network Interface Card.
D. A Network Interface Container.