Evoke-ATII Nurse Review Center 7.
A hospitalized client with terminal cancer has been
CGFNS Boot Camp
Pharmacology
1. A client asks the nurse about taking two medications
together. The nurse recognizes that there will be an
antagonistic medication interaction and explains that
when the two medications are taken together:
A. Medication absorption will be increased
B. There will be a decrease in stomach acid and
decreased absorption
C. One medication will decrease or eliminate the effect
of the other medication
D. One medication produces the same effects as the
other.
2. A physician orders an IV nitroglycerin drip to be titrated.
Which of the following would be the most likely
parameters for this medication?
A. chest pain and level of consciousness (LOC)
B. respirations and urine output
C. blood pressure and pulse
D. headache and blood pressure
3. In teaching a client about the side effects of a beta
blocker medication to be taken at home, the nurse
explains that the atrioventricular (A-V) node is often
affected because the function of the A-V node in the heart
is to:
A. initiate depolarizing impulses
B. increase the force of myocardial contraction and
increase myocardial oxygen demand
C. delay and block out extra impulses
D. allow for bypass of the normal conduction system
4. Two medications taken at the same time produce an effect
that is the sum of the effects of both medications. This
interaction is called:
A. Additive
B. Antagonistic
C. Interference
D. Synergistic
5. A 78 year old client is hospitalized and receives digoxin
(Lanoxin) IV. The nurse should withhold the drug and
notify the physician if the patient’s:
A. respiratory rate falls below 14
B. history reveals liver failure
C. pulse is 54 beats per minute
D. blood pressure is 72/40 mm Hg
6. For which of the following reasons would a client be
receiving furosemide (Lasix)?
A. hypotension
B. myxedema
C. anasarca
D. cerebral aneurysm
receiving morphine sulfate 5 mg IV q 4 h for the past 3
weeks for pain relief. She now states that the pain is still
present, even after the medication is given. The nurse
recognizes that this client:
A. has developed a physical dependency to the
medication
B. is seeking attention for herself because of poor self-
image
C. resents the fact that the nurse is healthy
D. has developed tolerance to the narcotic
8. A client asks a nurse what a medication is called that
increases the force of the cardiac muscle. The best
response by the nurse is, “ This medication is known as a:
A. positive chronotropic medication
B. positive inotropic medication
C. negative inotropic medication
D. negative dromotropic medication
9. Which of the following would be the most desirable diet
for a patient taking cardiac glycosides?
A. high-sodium, low potassium, high fat
B. low-sodium, low potassium, low fat
C. high-iron, high calcium, high potassium
D. low sodium, high potassium, low fat
10. A nurse assess a client to be developing the late signs of
lanoxin (Digoxin) toxicity, which include:
A. Junctional dysrhythmia, A-V block
B. Anorexia, headache
C. Renal failure, aplastic anemia
D. Disorientation, vomiting
11. In assessing a client prior to administration of a calcium
channel blocker, which of the following elements from
the client’s history would be a contraindication for the use
of these medication? A history of:
A. liver failure
B. severe hypertension
C. increased intracranial pressure
D. asthma
12. An important nursing consideration when administering
nitroglycerin (NTG) IV is:
A. place the medication in a glass bottle
B. moisten the patient’s mucous membranes first
C. follow the medication with a full glass of water
D. piggyback other medications directly into the NTG
line
13. What is a major advantage of dobutamine (Dobutrex)
over dopamine (Intropine) for clients in cardiogenic
shock?
A. It produces less hypotension as a side effect.
B. Acute renal failure is rarely seen with this medication
C. It does not produce vasoconstriction
D. The dosage of the medication is much smaller
14. The medication is to be given by injection within the
subdural space and into the cerebrospinal fluid for the
treatment of meningitis. The route is called:
A. intraspinal
B. intracutaneous
C. intra-articular
D. intrathecal
15. A client is to receive furosemide (Lasix) 60 mg IV push.
The medication comes in a vial labeled “Lasix—100 mg
in 10 mL.” How much of the medication should the nurse
give?
A. 16.6 mL
B. 0.6 mL
C. 6 mL
D. 6.6 mL
16. A 54-year old female client is receiving captopril
(Capoten) for which of the following problems?
A. chronic hypertension
B. venous thrombosis
C. hypertensive crisis
D. unstable angina pectoris
17. A client admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is
ordered to receive hydralazine (Apresoline) 20 mg IV for
a blood pressure greater than 190/100. The best response
of the nurse to this order is to:
A. call the physician because the dose is too small
B. give the medication as ordered
C. give half the dose first to see how it affects the blood
pressure
D. hold the medication, and call the physician because
the dose is too large
18. In teaching a client about methyldopa (Aldomet), the
nurse would be correct in stating that it is classified as a :
A. Peripherally-acting vasodilator
B. alpha2-adrenergic agonist
C. cholinergic agonist
D. anticholinergic, anti-hypertensive
19. A 23-year old female college student who takes birth
control pills and is a heavy smoker develops a thrombus
in her leg. She is admitted to the hospital and is started on
heparin. Which of the following nursing actions would be
the most important for this client?
A. allow her to go to the designated smoking area to
prevent nicotine withdrawal
B. give her aspirin for headaches and joint pain
C. maintain her on strict bed rest
D. have her walk every 4 hours to prevent pneumonia
and joint stiffness
20. A client is to take furosemide (Lasix) at home. The nurse
would know that the client requires more teaching if she
states:
A. “This medication should be taken just before
bedtime.”
B. “I need to eat lots of fresh fruits and vegetables.”
C. “I need to continue taking the medication even when
I start feeling really good.”
D. “If I feel really dizzy or weak, I need to call the
physician.”
21. A female client has bronchitis, so the physician orders
guaifenesin (Robitussin). Which of the following client-
teaching points should the nurse cover with her?
A. avoid becoming pregnant during guaifenesin therapy
B. to tell other physicians about the guaifenesin therapy;
it could alter thyroid function test results.
C. Restricts fluids to 300 mL per day
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach
22. In teaching a 64-year old client about acetylcysteine
(Mucomyst), the nurse should include the fact the
effectiveness of this drug results from its ability to:
A. alter the molecular composition of mucus and
decrease its viscosity
B. enter the bronchial glands and stimulate their cells to
secrete watery mucus
C. stimulate ciliary activity and the salivary glands
D. increase the viscosity of bronchial secretions
23. While taking care of a client who is receiving IV
antibiotics, the nurse suspects that he is having a delayed
hypersensitivity reaction. The nurse understands that the
delayed hypersensitivity reactions:
A. are usually fatal and must be treated immediately
B. occur within 3 to 6 hours after administration of the
medication
C. are produced by T lymphocytes
D. always produce anaphylactic shock
24. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving a
theophylline medication. Which of the following
assessments would indicate that the client was responding
positively to the medication?
A. respiratory rate of 18 bpm
B. urine output of 450 mL per shift
C. heart rate of 92 beats per minute (BPM)
D. blood pressure of 138/82
25. Which of the following statements made by a client who
is to take an antitussive with codeine at home would
indicate to the nurse that her teaching about the
medication had been effective?
a. “I should take this anytime I start to cough.”
b. “This medication may make me anxious and
nervous.”
c. “I should call the physician if I develop diarrhea
while taking this medication.”
d. “Driving my car after taking this medication could be
dangerous.”
26. A client has just received morphine sulfate 5 mg IV for
chest pain. Which of the following would be the most
important side effect of the medication to monitor her for?
a. diaphoresis and flushing
b. constipation
c. hypotension
d. suppressed cough reflex
27. A client has both morphine sulfate (MS) and meperidine
(Demerol) ordered for pain. Which of the following
client assessments would lead the nurse to decide to give
the morphine instead of the meperidine?
a. pain is much more severe than the last time the
medication was given
b. BP 110/58, pulse 60
c. Temp 97.9, respirations 12/min
d. Peripheral pulses weak, skin color flushed
28. In instructing a client about the home use of the
medication acetazolamide (Diamox), which would be the
most important element for the nurse to include in the
teaching plan?
a. The medication is safe to use and has few side effects
b. Two drops should be put in each eye twice a day
c. If the client develops weakness, heart palpitations, or
paresthesia, he or she should notify the physician
d. The medication may cause dim vision in low light, so
night driving could be dangerous
29. For which of the following conditions would a client most
likely be receiving timolol maleate (Timoptic)?
a. gastric ulcer
b. glaucoma
c. lung cancer
d. urinary tract infection
30. Medications that cause the pupil of the eye to constrict are
called:
a. mydriatics
b. vasoconstrictors
c. miotics
d. diuretics
31. A 28 year old female client is to receive her first dose of
chlordiazepoxide (Librium) after her admission. She says
to the nurse: “Is that Librium? I can’t take Librium!” The
nurse’s best response would be:
a. “It’s the hospital policy not to tell the patients what
medications they are receiving.”
b. “Go ahead and take the pill now. It’ll make you feel
better.”
c. “You have to take this pill—the doctor ordered it.”
d. “What happens when you take Librium?”
32. All of the following are important considerations when
providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to clients,
except:
a. Increase the infusion rate of the solution to “catch
up” if it should get behind.
b. Blood glucose level should be monitored daily and
liver function tests should be performed.
c. Monitor the client for weight and hydration status
d. Change the tubing every 24 hours
33. The base solution for TPN is usually:
a. D5W
b. NS
c. LR
d. D50W
34. Because of its osmotic nature, one important
consideration of TPN solutions is:
a. it needs to be run through a central vein
b. it is a good growth medium for bacteria
c. it provides all the nutrients a client needs
d. the tubing should be changed every 24 hours
.
35. Which of the following clients would be most likely
placed on an increased potassium diet?
a. one who is in renal failure
b. one who is being treated for diabetes insipidus
c. one who is taking aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis
d. one who has tumor lysis syndrome
36. Which of the following clients would the nurse question if
a narcotic analgesic medication was ordered?
a. A 68 year old client with rheumatoid arthritis
b. A 42 year old three-day postoperative gall bladder
client
c. An 8 year old burn client
d. A 22-year old car accident client with head injury
37. The nurse should be most concerned if a client develops
which of the following side effects while on levodopa
(Dopar)?
a. nausea and vomiting
b. blurred vision
c. tachycardia
d. edema
38. A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder would
most likely be receiving which medication?
a. phenytoin (Dilantin)
b. methylphenidate (Ritalin)
c. dexamethasone (Decadrom)
d. Cimetidine (Tagamet).
39. Following surgery, a client has an order for nalbuphine
HCl (Nubain) for moderate to severe pain. The
assessment for possible adverse reactions should include
observing for
a. blurred vision, palpitations, and urinary retention
b. decreased pulse rate, drowsiness, and nausea
c. increased confusion, tachycardia, and anorexia
d. irregular pulse, hypotension, and oliguria
40. The nurse teaches the client that a synergistic interaction
is likely if which of the following medications are taken
together?
a. alcohol and diazepam (Valium)
b. tetracycline and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox)
c. Cimetidine (Tagamet) and prochlorperazine
(Compazine)
d. Vincristine (Oncovin) and penicillin
41. A 32 year old male client is admitted to the unit. During
the initial assessment, the nurse notes that he has gingival
hyperplasia. Although he does not remember the names
of the medications he is taking at home, it is very likely
that one of the medications is:
a. oxazepam (Serax)
b. phenytoin (Dilantin)
c. diazepam (Valium)
d. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
42. Which of the following nursing implications would be the
most important for a client receiving amphetamine
(Dexedrine)?
a. give the last dose at bedtime
b. monitor the patient’s blood pressure
c. monitor the patient for depression
d. give medication on an empty stomach.
43. Which of the following side effects should the nurse
monitor for the client who just received atropine IV?
a. moon face, hirsutism
b. tachycardia, dry mouth
c. edema of the extremities, bradycardia
d. constricted pupils, diarrhea
44. Which of the following medications would the nurse
expect to be used for the client who has a gastric ulcer?
a. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
b. benztropine (Cogentin)
c. trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
d. dicyclomine (Bentyl)
45. What do atropine, benztropine (Cogentin),
trihexyphenidyl (Artane), and dicyclomine (Bentyl) all
have in common?
a. all are used in GI disorders
b. all are classified as anticholinergics
c. all are given only PO
d. all are classified as analgesics
46. A client is receiving propylthiouracil (Propacil) for which
condition?
a. Grave’s disease
b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Cretinism
d. Myxedema
47. A client mistakenly receives a dose of insulin twice as
large as was ordered. Symptoms he most likely will
experience are:
a. deep slow respirations, dry skin
b. low blood pressure, increased urine output
c. diaphoresis, disorientation
d. edema, tachycardia
48. In teaching a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic client about
insulin, the nurse should include the fact that the peak
action of NPH insulin will occur:
a. 1 to 2 hours after administration
b. 3 to 4 hours after administration
c. 6 to 8 hours after administraton
d. 10 to 12 hours after administration
49. To which of the following clients would the nurse be
administering glyburide (Micronase)?
a. Type 1 diabetic client
b. Type 2 diabetic client
c. Gestational diabetes
d. DKA patients
50. Teaching for clients who are receiving tetracycline
(Sumycin) should include instructions on how to:
a. avoid taking with milk or antacids
b. stay in the direct sunlight as much as possible to
increase the production of natural vitamin D
c. eat fresh fruits to prevent constipation
d. reduce fluid intake to prevent renal failure
51. A female client with a history of multiple sclerosis has
orders for dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). The nurse will
know the client understands the action of the drug when
she says
a. “I need to use a sunscreen when I go outside”.
b. “I can’t take any other medications when I’m on this
drug.”
c. “I take this drug only when my spasms are bad.”
d. “I should see a marked change in my muscle strength
within two to three days”
52. Bethanecol chloride (Urecholine) is ordered PRN for a
client following a transurethral resection of the prostate
(TURP). Which of the following conditions would need
to be present for the nurse to administer this drug?
a. Complaints of bladder spasms
b. Complaints of severe pain.
c. Inability to void
d. Frequent episodes of painful urination
53. Which of the statements is most accurate about the drug
cimetidine (Tagamet) and should be discussed with clients
who take the medications?
a. Tagamet should be taken together with an antacid to
decrease GI distress
b. Tagamet should be used cautiously with clients on
Coumadin
c. Tagamet should be taken on an empty stomach for
better absorption.
d. Tagamet is usually prescribed only for long-term
prevention of gastric ulcers.
54. A 60-year old male client with chronic osteroarthritis is
severely debilitated. Betamethasone (celestone) therapy
has been ordered for him. The nurse will advise the client
to take a single, daily dose of the drug.
a. At bedtime with a glass of milk
b. With orange juice at bedtime.
c. With milk in the morning
d. On an empty stomach in the morning
55. A client is receiving lithium carbonate for manic behavior.
Administration of this medication should be guided by
a. Maintaining a therapeutic dose of 900 mg TID
b. Encouraging regular blood studies (serum lithium
levels) until the maintenance dose is stabilized.
c. Telling the client that a lag of 7 to 10 days can be
expected between the initiation of lithium therapy
and the control of manic symptoms.
d. Telling the client that muscle weakness indicates
severe toxicity and the physician should be notified.
56. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone.
An unexpected outcome when this drug is given is
a. Increased urine sodium
b. Increased urinary output
c. Increased potassium excretion
d. Gynecomastia in males
57. A client with a fractured right hip has Buck’s traction
applied and orders for prophylactic anticoagulant therapy.
The nurse anticipates that the physician will order
a. aspirin
b. dextran
c. heparin
d. coumadin
58. A client with urinary tract infection is given an
aminoglycoside (Gentamicin) antimicrobial therapy. The
nurse understands that this drug is more effective when
the urine is
a. concentrated
b. dilute
c. alkaline
d. acid
59. A client with the diagnosis of systemic lupus
erythematosus is placed on hydroxychloroquine
(Plaquenil), an antimalarial drug, to reduce skin
inflammation. A toxic reaction to this drug that the nurse
will teach the client to report is
a. muscle cramps
b. decreased visual acuity
c. cardiac arrhythmias
d. joint pain
60. A male client is currently taking Digitalis 0.25 mg daily,
Lasix 100 mg daily, Acyclovir 10 mg QID and Tagamet
300 mg QID. Which one of the following drugs has
potential side effects that are the most life-threatening?
a. Digitalis
b. Lasix
c. Acyclovir
d. Tagamet
61. The nurse suggests which of the following foods to
minimize the risk of digitalis toxicity to a patient who is
on digoxin?
A. Turkey, green beans, and Italian bread
B. Cottage cheese, cooked broccoli, and roast beef
C. Fish, green beans, and cherry pie
D. Whole grain cereal, orange juice, and apricots
62. A patient with chronic renal failure is receiving
hemodialysis treatments 4 times per week. Patient
complains of headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue.
Which medication is contraindicated and will not alleviate
these problems?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Quinine sulfate
C. Trimeprazine tartrate (Temaril)
D. Epogen
63. A patient is instructed to report which of the following
side effect of neomycin administration?
A. Deafness
B. Nausea
C. Diarrhea
D. Anaphylaxis
64. What drug may the nurse administer to prevent
pseudoparkinsonism?
A. Chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine)
B. Trifluoperazine HCl ( Stelazine)
C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
D. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
65. Most adverse drug effects in the elderly occur because
A. The amount of body water is decreased
B. Hormone activity is generally diminished
C. The amount of body fat tends to increase with age
D. CNS effects decrease in the elderly
66. The nurse administers preop medication, atropine 0.15 mg
IM. Fifteen minutes later, the patient is breathing rapidly
and has a flushed, red face. The nurse should
A. Administer the atropine antidote stat.
B. Give the patient a cool sponge bath
C. Tell the patient these are normal side effects of
atropine
D. Page and advise the surgeon of the patient’s condition
before transporting the patient to the OR.
67. Under usual circumstances, nitroglycerin taken
sublingually should relieve pain in
A. Less than 1 minute
B. 2-3 minutes
C. Over 5 minutes
D. 7-8 minutes
68. The plan of care for a patient on clozapine (Clozaril)
includes monitoring what side effects?
A. Seizures due to reduction in seizure threshold
B. WBC above 3000/mm³
C. Granulocyte count above 1500/mm³
D. Decreased salivation
69. Health teaching regarding uncomfortable signs and
symptoms of side effects of oral antibiotic therapy
includes
A. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears)
B. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
C. Nausea and glossitis
D. Nausea, diarrhea, and vaginal yeast infections
70. In teaching parents about giving oral tetracycline to a 10-
year-old, the nurse would be most correct in advising
them to
A. Keep the child out of direct sunlight.
B. Give it with dairy products to avoid GI upset
C. Not report common side effects such as diarrhea and
rash
D. Have the child brush teeth often, because this
medication interferes with tooth enamel formation
71. In administering 0.4 mL to a 4-month-old infant, the nurse
should select which size syringe and needle?
A. Insulin syringe, 21-gauge needle
B. 1 ml syringe, 21-gauge needle
C. Tuberculin syringe, 25-gauge needle
D. 3 mL syringe, 23-gauge needle
72. The nurse prepares to teach the parents of a newborn
infant with an unrepaired cardiac defect about the side
effects of digoxin. Which side effect should the nurse
exclude from the teaching plan?
A. Dysrhythmias
B. Yellow-green visual halos
C. Bradycardia
D. Vomiting
73. In evaluating a patient’s response to beta-mimetic therapy
used to inhibit premature labor, to which sign of side
effects must the nurse be alert?
A. Maternal hypertension
B. Fetal bradycardia
C. Maternal and fetal tachycardia
D. Uterine hypertonia
74. Meperidine (Demerol), a synthetic opiate, is a commonly
used narcotic for women in labor. The nurse must time the
administration of this drug so that birth ideally occurs
A. 1 hour after administration
B. 2 hours after administration
C. 3 hours after administration
D. 4 hours after administration
75. Theophylline and 5% dextrose are being infused IV for a
patient in acute distress from asthma. The patient is
experiencing hypotension and an irregular pulse. The first
nursing action would be to
A. Stop the medication and call the ED physician
B. Check the BP and pulse frequently while the drug
infuses
C. Increase IV rate to reverse possible hypovolemia
D. Slow infusion rate and notify the ED physician
76. Dietary instructions for a patient on long-term
corticosteroid therapy include
A. Increase calcium and vitamin D supplements to
reduce osteoporosis.
B. Increase sodium intake to prevent dehydration
C. Reduce potassium to avoid cardiac complications
D. Increase carbohydrate intake to maintain ideal
weight.
77. Which drug should the RN withhold before hemodialysis?
A. Digoxin
B. Verapamil
C. Norpace
D. Ibuprofen
78. A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is given
Nimotop 60 mg PO every 4 hours. What expected
outcome will the nurse anticipate as a result of this
medication?
A. Increased BP
B. Tachycardia
C. Decrease in cerebral vasospasm
D. Focal seizure activity
79. What nursing intervention is essential when administering
nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)?
A. Assess liver function tests.
B. Dilute and administer with normal saline.
C. Assess for elevated systolic BP.
D. Cover the IV solution with aluminum foil.
80. The nurse is to give meperidine 75 mg and scopolamine
0.3 mg preoperatively to a patient with a history of
glaucoma. What would be the nurse’s response to the
order?
A. Give the drugs as ordered.
B. Teach the patient the side effects.
C. Dim the lights and raise side rails after injection.
D. Do not give and call the MD.
81. The physiological effect of using dobutamine (Dobutex)
and nitroglycerine (Tridil) together for the patient in
cardiogenic shock is to
A. Increase both renal perfusion and BP
B. Increase cardiac output and decrease myocardial
workload
C. Increase myocardial oxygen consumption and
decrease BP
D. Increase both peripheral vascular resistance and
cerebral blood flow
82. What should be the nurse’s priority in monitoring the
patient who is taking risperidone (Risperdal)?
A. Hypertensive reaction
B. Hormonal effect
C. Gastrointestinal reaction
D. Anticholinergic effects
83. The nurse anticipates that the backbone of treatment for
patients with myasthenia gravis will be
A. Adrenergic drugs
B. Anticholinergic drugs
C. Anticholinesterase drugs
D. Cholinergic drugs
84. What should a patient with Parkinson’s disease be taught
about levodopa?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Ongoing therapy brings continuous symptomatic
relief
C. Signs of toxicity include muscle flaccidity
D. Avoid multivitamins with pyridoxine
85. A patient is awaiting the insertion of a pacemaker. The BP
is 128/60. Which medication should the nurse have
available during this patient’s pre-operative period?
A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Digoxin
D. Propranolol HCl (Inderal)
86. A patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic atrial
fibrillation is on a daily dose of Coumadin 2.5 mg. The
serum INR level is 4.7. What intervention should the
nurse be prepared to initiate?
A. Observe the patient for the possibility of an embolic
event.
B. Have a PTT drawn to completely evaluate the level
of anticoagulation
C. Prepare to give the patient protamine sulfate.
D. Monitor the patient for signs of bleeding.
87. The doctor orders an IV fluid to infuse at 320 mL every 8
hours. If the nurse hangs a 500 mL bag at 10:45 AM,
when will this bag need to be changed?
A. 3 PM
B. 6:45 PM
C. 8:30 PM
D. 10:45 PM
88. Specific nursing intervention for a client who is receiving
doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for acute myelogenous
leukemia should include
A. Giving frequent oral hygiene and increasing oral
fluids
B. Administering medications IM and encouraging
activity
C. Serving hot liquids, such as broths or tea, with each
meal
D. Emphasizing that the disease will be cured with this
treatment
89. A client who is immunosuppressed is receiving filgrastim
(Neupogen). When assessing the client’s response to this
medication the finding that would be considered
significant is an increase in
A. Platelets
B. Erythrocytes
C. Thrombocytes
D. WBC
90. A client with Hodgkin’s disease is to receive the cyclic
antineoplastic vincristine (Oncovin) as part of a therapy
protocol. The nurse understands that Oncovin helps
destroy the malignant cells by
A. Arresting mitosis in metaphase
B. Inhibiting the synthesis of pyrimidine
C. Alkylating nucleic acids needed for mitosis
D. Inactivating DNA and inhibiting RNA synthesis
91. The nurse is reviewing a list of current medications with
an 80-year-old client who has developed GI bleeding. The
medication that should be questioned would be
A. Ibuprofen (Advil)
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
92. A client with DKA is initially treated with IV fluids 99. The physician prescribes cholestyramine (Questran) to
followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse treat a client’s persistent diarrhea. This drug reduces the
anticipates that the physician probably will order a absorption of fat, which may produce a deficiency of
continuous infusion of A. Thiamine
A. Humulin N insulin B. Vitamin A
B. Humulin R insulin C. Riboflavin
C. Semilente D. Vitamin B6
D. Ultralente
100. A chelating agent used for lead poisoning would be
93. The nurse should monitor a child receiving vincristine A. Calcium gluconate
(Oncovin) for untoward reactions affecting the B. Lomustine (CCNU)
A. Emotional status C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Neurologic status D. Calcium disodium edentate (EDTA)
C. Respiratory status
D. Cardiovascular status

94. A client with lymphosarcoma is receiving allopurinol and

methotrexate. The nurse can help the client prevent
complications related to uric acid nephropathy by
administering the
A. Methotrexate after providing an antacid
B. Allopurinol and promoting urine acidity
C. Methotrexate and restricting the intake of fluid
D. Allopurinol and encouraging the intake of fluid.

95. An adolescent with allergies has been using

oxymetazoline (Afrin) nasal spray. The nurse explains
that if more than the recommended dose is taken, the
client may develop
A. Nasal polyps
B. Ringing in the ears
C. Bleeding tendencies
D. Increased nasal congestion

96. A nursing care plan for a client on benazepril

hydrochloride (Lotensin) for hypertension would include
A. Monitoring the client’s EEG
B. Observing the client for dizziness
C. Administering the drug after meals
D. Varying the time of administration daily

97. A pediatric client is receiving busulfan (Myleran). The

child’s blood tests should be monitored for side effects
including
A. Polycythemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hypoalbuminemia

98. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis is to receive more

than one anti-tubercular medication. Which of the
following drugs could damage the eighth cranial nerve?
A. Isoniazid (INH)
B. Rifampin (Rifadin)
C. Ethambutol ( Myambutol)
D. Streptomycin