TEST1. ANSWER: A D. 9.

1096 x 10-31 C
ANSWER: A
1. What composes all matter whether a liquid, 8. Approximate diameter of a Hydrogen atom
solid, or gas? A. 1.1 x 10-10 µµm 15. The mass of a proton is approximately
A. Atoms B. 1.1 x 10-10 µm A. 1.6726 x 10-19 Kg
B. Electrons C. 1.1 x 10-10 mm B. 1.6726 x 10-27 Kg
C. Protons D. 1.1 x 10-10 m C. 1.6022 x 10-19 Kg
D. Neutrons ANSWER: B D. 1.6022 x 10-27 Kg
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
9. A commonly used model in predicting the
2. Which of the following is not a basic part of atomic structure of a material. 16. Protons are about _________ heavier than
an atom? A. String model electrons.
A. Electron B. Wave model A. 1,800 times
B. Proton C. Particle model B. less than thrice
C. Neutron D. Bohr model C. less
D. Coulomb ANSWER: D D. twice
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
10. Is at the center of an atomic structure in a
3. What is the smallest element of a matter? Bohr model. 17. Approximately, how many electrons that
A. atom A. electrons could equal to the mass of a single proton or
B. molecule B. protons neutron?
C. crystal C. neutrons A. 1,863 electrons
D. wafer D. nucleus B. 1,683 electrons
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D C. 1,638 electrons
D. 1,836 electrons
4. To determine whether a material can 11. The nucleus of an atom is normally ANSWER: D
support the flow of electricity or not, we A. neutral
need to examine its B. positively charged 18. The maximum number of electrons (Ne)
A. atomic structure C. negatively charged that can occupy a given shell (n) is
B. physical state D. either positively or negatively determined by the formula
C. molecular structure charged A. Ne = 2n2
D. chemical composition ANSWER: A B. Ne = n2
ANSWER: A C. Ne = 2n
12. What particles that revolve around the D. Ne = 2n
5. Approximate diameter of an atom positive nucleus? ANSWER: A
A. 10-10 µµm A. electrons
B. 10-10 µm B. protons 19. The discrete amount of energy required to
C. 10-10 mm C. neutrons move an electron from a lower shell to a
D. 10-10 m D. electrons & protons higher shell.
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A A. negative energy
B. positive energy
6. The lightest kind of atom or element 13. In electricity, positive electric charge refers C. quantum
A. Helium to ____________. D. quanta
B. Oxygen A. protons ANSWER: C
C. Hydrogen B. neutrons
D. Titanium C. electrons 20. Maximum number of orbiting electrons at
ANSWER: C D. atoms the first or K shell
ANSWER: A A. 2
7. Known as the simplest type of atom. B. 4
A. Hydrogen 14. What is the charge of an electron? C. 6
B. Oxygen A. 1.6022 x 10-19 C D. 8
C. Helium B. 9.1096 x 10-19 C ANSWER: A
D. Nitrogen C. 1.6022 x 10-31 C
21. Electron is derived from the Greek name B. 10 B. Semi-insulators
elektron which means C. 16 C. Semiconductors
A. huge D. 18 D. Conductors
B. tiny ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
C. particle
D. amber 28. It is composed of a series of energy levels 35. A good conductor has how many valence
ANSWER: D containing the valence electrons. electrons?
A. conduction band A. 1
22. Electric charge of neutron is the same as B. forbidden band B. 2
A. proton C. side band C. 4
B. electron D. valence band D. 8
C. current ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
D. atom
ANSWER: D 29. Electrons at the conduction band are called 36. Materials that might have eight valence
A. free electrons electrons
23. In an atomic structure, what particle that B. valence electrons A. conductor
has no charge and therefore has no effect C. deep state electrons B. insulator
on its atomic charge D. shallow state electrons C. semiconductor
A. electrons ANSWER: A D. semi-insulator
B. protons ANSWER: B
C. neutrons 30. _____________ are electrons at the outer
D. nucleons shell 37. An insulating element or material has
ANSWER: C A. Inside shell electrons capability of _________.
B. Conductor electrons A. conducting large current
24. The atomic number of an element is C. Outside shell electrons B. storing voltage
determined by the number of D. Valence electrons C. storing high current
A. electrons ANSWER: D D. preventing short circuit between
B. valence electrons two conducting wires
C. protons 31. Electrons at the outermost shell are called ANSWER: D
D. protons or neutrons A. free electrons
ANSWER: C B. valence electrons 38. A law of nature makes certain materials
C. deep state electrons tend to form combinations that will make
25. The atomic weight of an element is D. shallow state electrons them stable. How many electrons in the
determined by the number of ANSWER: B valence orbit are needed to give stability?
A. electrons A. 1
B. valence electrons 32. Which material has more free electrons? B. 2
C. protons A. Conductor C. 4
D. protons and neutrons B. insulators D. 8
ANSWER: D C. mica ANSWER: D
D. dielectric
26. If an element has an atomic number of 12, ANSWER: A 39. Determine which statement is true?
there are how many protons and electrons? A. The current carriers in conductors
A. 6 protons and 12 electrons 33. Which material has the least number of are protons.
B. 12 protons and 6 electrons valence electrons? B. The current carriers in conductors
C. 12 protons and 12 electrons A. conductor are valence electrons.
D. 12 protons and 24 electrons B. semiconductor C. Valence and inner electrons are the
ANSWER: C C. insulator carriers in conductors.
D. semi-insulator D. Valence electrons are not the ones
27. Suppose there is an atom containing eight ANSWER: A that become free electrons.
protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus, ANSWER: B
and two neutron are added to the nucleus, 34. What elements possess four valence
the resulting atomic weight is about electrons? 40. A material that contains an abundance of
A. 8 A. Insulators free carrier is called
 A. insulator B. one electron volt (1 eV) 53. When an atom gains an additional
B. semi-insulator C. five electron volt (5 eV) _________, it results to a negative ion.
C. conductor D. one-tenth electron volt (0.1 eV) A. neutron
D. semiconductor ANSWER: C B. proton
ANSWER: C C. electron
47. In materials, what do you call the region D. atom
41. From the combined energy-gap diagram, that separates the valence and conduction ANSWER: C
which material has the widest gap between bands?
valence band and the conduction band? A. energy gap 54. An electrical insulator can be made a
A. conductor B. forbidden band conductor by
B. semiconductor C. insulation band A. ionizing
C. super conductor D. energy gap or forbidden band B. electroplating
D. insulator ANSWER: D C. oxidizing
ANSWER: D D. metalization
48. What do you call the potential required to ANSWER: A
42. From the combined energy-gap diagram, remove a valence electron?
which material has the smallest energy gap A. valence potential 55. Refers to the lowest voltage across any
between valence band and the conduction B. threshold potential insulator that can cause current flow.
band? C. critical potential A. conduction voltage
A. conductor D. ionization potential B. breakdown voltage
B. semiconductor ANSWER: D C. voltage flow
C. super conductor D. voltage drop
D. insulator 49. A factor that does not affect the resistance ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A of the material.
A. atomic structure 56. Dielectric is another name for
43. __________ has a unit of electronvolt(eV). B. mass A. conductor
A. Charge C. length B. semiconductor
B. Potential difference D. cross-sectional area C. insulator
C. Energy ANSWER: B D. semi-insulator
D. Current ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 50. Copper atom has how many protons?
A. 1 57. When all atoms of a molecule are the same,
44. The difference in energy between the B. 4 the substance is called
valence and conduction bands of a C. 8 A. a crystal
semiconductor is called D. 29 B. an element
A. band gap ANSWER: D C. a compound
B. extrinsict photoeffect D. an ion
C. conductivity 51. Ion is __________. ANSWER: B
D. energy density A. an atom with unbalanced charges
ANSWER: A B. free electron 58. An isotope
C. proton A. has a negative charge
45. The energy gap between the valence band D. nucleus without protons B. has a positive charge
and conduction band of a conductor is in the ANSWER: A C. might have either positive or
order of negative charge
A. zero electron volt (0 eV) 52. What will happen to an atom if an electron is D. is neutral
B. one electron volt (1 eV) either taken out or taken into the same ANSWER: D
C. five electron volt (5 eV) atom?
D. ten electron volt (10 eV) A. Becomes negative ion 59. Isotope means, the same element but with
ANSWER: A B. Becomes positive ion different number of
C. Becomes an ion A. electrons
46. The energy gap of an insulator is in the D. Nothing will happen B. neutrons
order of ANSWER: C C. protons
A. zero electron volt (0 eV) D. atoms
 ANSWER: B 73. __________ is the procedure by which an
66. When the charge of an atom becomes atom is given a net charge by adding or
60. The particles that make up the lattice in unbalanced, the atom is said to carry taking away electron.
ionic crystal A. Electric charge A. Polarization
A. molecules B. Magnetic charge B. Irradiation
B. ions C. Electromagnetic charge C. Ionization
C. electrons D. Electrical current D. Doping
D. neutrons ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
67. A charged atom is also known as 74. Is a process by which an atom is constantly
61. A structure for solids in which the position of A. ion losing and then regaining electrons?
atoms are predetermined B. anion A. oxidation
A. Crystalline C. cation B. passivation
B. Polycrystalline D. domain C. metallization
C. Lattice ANSWER: A D. ionization
D. Non-Crystalline ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 68. An atom or group of atoms that carries a
net electric charge is called 75. The process in which atoms are changed
62. A solid, which has no defined crystal A. ion into ions.
structure. B. anion A. oxidation
A. Crystalline C. cation B. passivation
B. Non-crystalline D. domain C. metallization
C. Amorphous ANSWER: A D. ionization
D. Non-crystalline or Amorphous ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 69. A negative ion results when an atom
A. loss some of its inside electrons 76. Gases with charged particles.
63. States that each electron in an atom must B. loss some of its valence electrons A. inert
have a different set of quantum numbers. C. gains additional electron B. plasma
A. Quantum principle D. gains additional proton C. conductive
B. Fermi-Dirac principle ANSWER: C D. reactive
C. Spin principle ANSWER: B
D. Exclusion principle 70. A positive ion has
ANSWER: D A. excess of electrons 77. One Coulomb of charge has how many
B. excess of neutrons electrons?
64. Given an atomic structure of a certain C. lack of electrons A. 6.24 x 1018 electrons
material, what data can you determine out D. lack of protons B. 6.24 x 1019 electrons
from it? ANSWER: C C. 62.4 x 1018 electrons
A. atomic number D. 62.4 x 1019 electrons
B. atomic mass 71. What do you call a positively charged ion? ANSWER: A
C. the number of protons and A. cathode
electrons B. anion 78. Coulomb is the SI unit of charge, how about
D. all of the above C. cation in cgs?
ANSWER: D D. domain A. Statcoulomb
ANSWER: C B. electron volt
65. Ideally, all atoms have the same number of C. electron unit
positively charged protons and negatively 72. What do you call a negatively charged ion? D. static unit
charged electrons, and is therefore A. electron ANSWER: A
considered as B. anion
A. electrically neutral C. cation 79. Statcoulomb is also known as
B. physically stable D. domain A. electrostatic unit (esu)
C. magnetically aligned ANSWER: B B. electron volt
D. technically rigid C. electron unit
ANSWER: A D. static unit
 ANSWER: A C. 1 A
D. 10 A 93. The amount of resistance that a wire has
80. An isolated body under normal condition is ANSWER: C with regards to the flow of electric current
always A. is less for a conductor than for an
A. neutral 87. One ampere is equal to how many electrons insulator
B. positively charged per second? B. is less for an insulator than for a
C. negatively charged A. 1 x 1018 electrons/sec. semiconductor
D. ionized B. 1 x 1019 electrons/sec. C. is less for a semiconductor than for
ANSWER: A C. 6.25 x 1018 electrons/sec. a conductor
D. 6.25 x 1019 electrons/sec. D. is high for a semiconductor than for
81. What is the charge magnitude, Q of a body ANSWER: D an insulator
if it lacks 5 electrons? ANSWER: A
A. 5 x 10-19 Coulomb 88. The bigger the diameter of a wire,
B. 5 Coulomb A. more current can pass 94. The area of a conductor whose diameter is
C. 8 x 10-19 Coulomb B. less current can pass 0.001 inch is equal to
D. 19 x 10-19 Coulomb C. more heat is generated when A. one angstrom
ANSWER: C current flow B. one circular mil
D. the higher is the electrical C. one micron
82. The net movement of charged particles in resistance D. one steradian
one direction or another. ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
A. flow
B. current 89. If in a material, current can hardly pass, it 95. A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional
C. drift current means area A=10-3 m2 has a resistance of 10Ω.
D. diffusion current A. the material is very hard Determine the resistivity of the wire.
ANSWER: B B. the material is very soft A. 10-2 Ω-m
C. the material has high resistance B. 10-3 Ω-m
83. The rate at which electrons pass a given D. the material has less resistance C. 10-4 Ω-m
point in the circuit gives the magnitude of ANSWER: C D. 10-5 Ω-m
A. electron current ANSWER: C
B. magnetic current 90. The greater the diameter of a wire, the
C. drift current _______ is the resistance. 96. the reciprocal of resistance
D. diffusion current A. greater A. permeance
ANSWER: A B. lesser B. elastance
C. harder C. inductance
84. The unit of current. D. bigger D. conductance
A. Ampere ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
B. Ampere/sec.
C. Ampere-sec. 91. The longer the wire the ________ is the 97. The science of physical phenomena at very
D. Ampere-hr. resistance low temperature, approaching absolute zero
ANSWER: A A. higher is called ________.
B. lesser A. crytanalysis
85. The unit Ampere is equivalent to C. harder B. cybernetics
A. one Coulomb/second D. smaller C. temperature inversion
B. one Coulomb/min ANSWER: A D. cryogenics
C. one Joule/sec ANSWER: D
D. one Joule/min 92. If a conductor’s cross-sectional area is
ANSWER: A doubled and its length is halved, the value 98. What happens in the resistance of copper
of its resistance will wire when its temperature is raised?
86. When one coulomb of electric charge A. double A. decreased
continuously passes a given point every B. quadruple B. steady
second, the electric current is said to C. decrease by a factor of two C. increased
A. 1 µA D. decrease by a factor of four D. zero
B. 1 mA ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
 A. temperature A. experimental charge
99. A wire has a resistance of 5Ω at room B. length & cross-sectional area B. unit charge
temperature and a temperature coefficient C. atomic structure C. dipole
α=4x10-3/°C, calculate the wire resistance D. all of these D. test charge
at 75°C. ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
A. 8.925 Ω
B. 7.925 Ω 105. Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric 111. Test charge has a charge of
C. 6.925 Ω that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to A. 0 Coulomb
D. 6.050 Ω the 18th power protons. B. +1 Coulomb
ANSWER: D A. 29 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs C. -1 Coulomb
B. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs D. Infinity
100. The temperature coefficient of resistance C. 14.5 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs ANSWER: B
of a certain wire is known to be 0.004/°C D. 29 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
at zero degrees Celsius. What would be ANSWER: C 112. Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C are
the temperature coefficient at room placed inside a sphere, what is the total
temperature? 106. Electron volt (eV) is a unit of charge of the sphere?
A. 0.00018/°C A. power A. +5 Coulomb
B. 0.00036/°C B. energy B. -6 Coulomb
C. 0.00180/°C C. magnetic field C. -7 Coulomb
D. 0.00360/°C D. magnetic force D. +6 Coulomb
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B ANSWER: D

101. Where does practically all of the RF 107. One electron volt (eV) is equivalent to 113. A combination of two charges, with
current flow in a conductor? A. 1.0 watt-sec equal charge magnitude but opposite signs.
A. along the surface B. 1.6 x 10-19 watt-sec A. magnetic dipole
B. in the center of the conductor C. 1.0 Joule B. static dipole
C. in the electromagnetic field in the D. 1.6 x 10-19 Joules C. dynamic dipole
conductor center ANSWER: D D. electric dipole
D. in the magnetic field around the ASNWER: D
conductor 108. What law that describes the force of
ANSWER: A attraction or repulsion between two 114. The space outside or surrounding an
charges is directly proportional to their electric charge where it has a force of
102. ________ is one factor that does not strengths and inversely proportional to attraction or repulsion.
affect resistance. the square of the distance between them? A. Electric field
A. Cross sectional area A. Coulomb’s first law B. Magnetic field
B. Resistivity B. Coulomb’s second law C. Electromagnetic field
C. Mass C. Coulomb’s third law D. Electric flux
D. Length D. Coulomb’s law or law of ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C electrostatics
ANSWER: D 115. Refers to a force of field that exists
103. Why is the resistance of a conductor between ions where they either repel or
different for RF current than for DC? 109. What is the law whereby the force of attract each other.
A. Because of skin effect attraction and repulsion between poles is A. Resisting field
B. Because conductors are non-linear inversely proportional to the square of the B. Potential field
devices distance between them? C. Dielectric
C. Because the insulation conducts A. Newton’s first law D. Electromotive
current at radio frequency B. Newton’s second law ANSWER: D
D. Because of the Heisenberg effect C. Norton’s law
ANSWER: A D. Coulomb’s second law 116. The imaginary lines representing the
ANSWER: D electric field.
104. The ability of a material to resist current A. Electric field
flow is called “resistance”. What is (are) 110. Is usually used to detect the presence B. Electric flux
the factor(s) that affect its value? of electric charge. C. Electric flux density
 D. Electric lines of force D. Amperes/meter 129. The ability of the material to store
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A electrical potential energy under the
influence of an electric field.
117. What is true in visualizing electric field 123. Electric field intensity is A. capacity
lines of force from a charge body? A. a scalar quantity B. permeability
A. Field lines are continuous curve and B. a vector quantity C. permittivity
they never intersect. C. an absolute value D. conductivity
B. The spacing between these lines D. a relative value ANSWER: C
increases as they get far from the ANSWER: B
charged body. 130. The absolute permittivity of air or free
C. The number of field lines is directly 124. Electric flux is a/an ________ quantity. space.
proportional to the magnitude of A. scalar A. 1/36π x 10-9 F/m
the electric field. B. vector B. 36π x 10-9 F/m
D. All of the above. C. absolute C. 1/36π x 10-19 F/m
ANSWER: D D. relative D. 36π x 10-19 F/m
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
118. What do you call the total number of
electric lines of force in an electric field? 125. Electric flux density is a/an ________ 131. The relative permittivity of air.
A. Electric field quantity. A. 0
B. Electric flux A. scalar B. 1
C. Electric flux density B. vector C. 1/36π x 10-9 F/m
D. Electric lines of force C. absolute D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER: B D. relative ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
119. The number of lines per unit area in a 132. Calculate the permittivity of a material
plane perpendicular to the electric lines of 126. Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +7 C with relative permittivity of 5.
force. are inside a sphere, what is the total A. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
A. Electric field electric flux passing through the surface B. 4.42 x 10-11 F/m
B. Electric flux of the sphere? C. 1/36π x 10-9 F/m
C. Electric flux density A. 5 Coulombs D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
D. Electric lines of force B. 6 Coulombs ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C C. 7 Coulombs
D. 8 Coulombs 133. What is the term used to express the
120. Electric lines of force leave and enter ANSWER: B amount of electrical energy stored in an
the charge surface at what angle? electrostatic field?
A. 15° 127. An electric charge produces a total electric A. Volts
B. 30° field of 6 Coulombs, calculate the electric B. Watts
C. 45° flux density in an area of one square C. Coulombs
D. 90° meter (1m2). D. Joules
ANSWER: D A. 1 C/m2 ANSWER: D
B. 2 C/m2
121. Find the dielectric constant of air. C. 4 C/m2 134. How does permittivity affect electric
A. approximately 1 D. 6 C/m2 field intensity?
B. approximately 0 ANSWER: D A. It causes the field intensity to
C. approximately 2 increase.
D. approximately 4 128. The measure of density of the electric B. It causes the field intensity to
ANSWER: A charge decrease.
A. Electric gradient C. It causes the field intensity to
122. Electric field intensity is measured in B. Electric current fluctuate up and down.
terms of C. Electric charge D. It has no effect on field intensity.
A. Volts/meter D. Electric potential ANSWER: B
B. Newtons/meter ANSWER: D
C. Watts/meter 135. Relative permittivity is also known as
 A. dielectric constant C. Tesla B. 9 x 107 N/C
B. dielectric strength D. Coulomb C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
C. isolation strength ANSWER: D D. infinite
D. permeability ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 142. Determine the force in Newton between
4μC charges separated by 0.1 meter in 148. Calculate the total electric field at the
136. Most materials’ relative permittivity lies air. surface of a sphere of radius r=1cm, and
between A. 1.44 N enclosing a net charge of 2μC.
A. 0.01 – 1 B. 14.4 N A. 0 (zero)
B. 1 – 10 C. 144 N B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 10 – 50 D. 1440 N C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. 50 – 100 ANSWER: B D. infinite
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
143. What will happen when two opposite
137. Charge body at rest is said to exhibit charges get closer? 149. A 2nC point charge will produce what
electric field, which interacts with other A. repels less potential at 2m away?
bodies. The study of this phenomena is B. attracts less A. 4.0 Volts
known as C. repels more B. 6.0 Volts
A. electricity D. attracts more C. 7.5 Volts
B. electrostatics ANSWER: D D. 9.0 Volts
C. electromagnetism ANSWER: D
D. field interactions 144. The value of k in Coulomb’s electrostatic
ANSWER: B force equation ( F = kQ1Q2/r2 ) is 150. A charged body in free space produces
oftentimes expressed as 1/4πεο. What is 10-V potential at a distance 25cn away.
138. The basic law for interaction of charged εο? What will be the potential at 50cm away?
bodies at rest. A. absolute permeability A. 5.0 Volts
A. Charged law B. absolute permittivity B. 7.5 Volts
B. Gauss’ law C. relative permeability C. 10.0 Volts
C. Faraday’s law D. relative permittivity D. 15.0 Volts
D. Coulomb’s law ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D
145. The measure of electric field strength per 151. What do you call the phenomenon
139. The force between the two electrically unit length is known as electric field whereby substance attracts pieces of iron?
charged body is called intensity or simply electric intensity. What A. Permeability
A. electromotive force is its unit? B. Magnetism
B. electrostatic force A. Volt/meter (V/m) C. Naturalism
C. electromagnetic force B. Joules/Coulomb-meter (J/Cm) D. Electromagnetism
D. magnetic force C. Newton/Coulomb (N/C) ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B D. All of the above
ANSWER: D 152. The condition in which a substance
140. The force between two electrically attracts pieces of iron is known as
charged body is 146. Calculate the electric field intensity 10cm A. Electromagnetism
A. directly proportional to the charge from a charge Q=5nC. B. Electrolysis
B. inversely proportional to the charge A. 450 N/C C. Magnetism
C. not affected by the charge B. 900 N/C D. Magnetic Induction
D. universally constant C. 4.5 x 103 N/C ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A D. 9.0 x 103 N/C
ANSWER: C 153. A substance that attracts pieces iron is
141. In 1784, who demonstrated that the force known as
between charges is inversely related to 147. Determine the magnitude of the electric A. magnet
the square of the distance between them? field inside a sphere that encloses a net B. conductor
A. Maxwell charge of 2μC. C. ferrite
B. Gauss A. 0 (zero) D. superconductor
 ANSWER: A C. Convergence pole D. two pole magnet
D. Universal Pole ANSWER: C
154. A natural magnet ANSWER: B
A. loadstone 166. Which of the materials below that can be
B. carbon 160. In a magnet, the straight line passing easily magnetized?
C. lodestone through the two poles is called A. soft magnetic materials
D. magnesium A. real axis B. hard magnetic materials
ANSWER: C B. imaginary axis C. low conductive materials
C. Cartesian axis D. high conductive materials
155. Group of magnetically aligned atoms. D. magnetic axis ANSWER: A
A. Lattice ANSWER: D
B. Crystal 167. Materials that can be easily magnetized in
C. Domain 161. The phenomenon in which a substance both directions
D. Range becomes a magnet when placed near a A. soft magnetic materials
ANSWER: C magnet. B. hard magnetic materials
A. magnetic transfer C. diamagnetic
156. In a magnet, what do you call the point in B. magnetic induction D. paramagnetic
which the magnetic lines of force is C. electromagnetism ANSWER: A
maximum? D. magnetism
A. maximum pole ANSWER: B 168. Ability of a material to conduct magnetic
B. intensified pole flux through it refers to
C. unit pole 162. A force which causes a substance to A. permittivity
D. magnetic pole become a magnet. B. permeability
ANSWER: D A. magnetizing force C. reluctivity
B. magnetomotive D. conductivity
157. Which of the following refers to a C. creative force ANSWER: B
characteristic of a magnetic line of force? D. electromagnetic force
A. Travels from south to north ANSWER: A 169. The ability to concentrate magnetic lines
through the surrounding medium of of force.
a bar magnet 163. What do you call the quantity of A. retentivity
B. Travels back and forth between the magnetism retained by a magnetic B. permeability
north and south pole of a bar material after the withdrawal of a C. susceptability
magnet magnetizing force? D. reluctivity
C. Travels from north to south A. Left over magnetism ANSWER: B
through the surrounding medium of B. Coercivity
a bar magnet C. Hysteresis 170. The permeability of free space.
D. Stay stationary between the north D. Residual magnetism A. 4π x 10-7 H/m
and the south of a bar magnet ANSWER: D B. 12.56 x 10-7 F/m
ANSWER: C C. 8.854 x 10-7 H/m
164. Is the property of magnetic materials, D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
158. Is believed to be the pole where the which retain magnetism after the ANSWER: A
magnetic lines of force are originating. withdrawal of magnetizing force.
A. North Pole A. retentivity 171. The ratio of material permeability to the
B. South Pole B. permeability permeability of air or vacuum.
C. Unit Pole C. reluctivity A. relative conductivity
D. Universal Pole D. susceptability B. relative permeability
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A C. inverse permeability
D. inverse permittivity
159. What do you call a pole that when place in 165. A substance having high retentivity is best ANSWER: B
air with a similar and equal pole will cause suited in making
a force of repulsion of 1/4πμο Newtons? A. an electromagnet 172. What is the relative permeability of air?
A. South Pole B. a temporary magnet A. 0
B. Unit pole C. a permanent magnet B. 1
 C. 4π x 10-7 H/m ANSWER: B 185. The number of lines per unit area in a
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m plane perpendicular to the magnetic lines
ANSWER: B 179. Cores of magnetic equipment use of force.
magnetic material which has A. magnetic field
173. Materials with permeability slightly less A. very low permeability B. magnetic flux
than that of free space. B. moderate permeability C. magnetic flux density
A. diamagnetic C. low permeability D. magnetic lines of force
B. paramagnetic D. high permeability ANSWER: C
C. ferromagnetic ANSWER: D
D. antimagnetic 186. The direction of field lines outside a
ANSWER: A 180. Hydrogen is an example of a _________ magnet is
material. A. from north to south pole
174. Materials with permeability slightly A. diamagnetic B. from south to north pole
greater than that of free space. B. ferromagnetic C. either from north to south or south
A. diamagnetic C. paramagnetic to north pole
B. paramagnetic D. magnetic D. dependent on the magnet’s
C. ferromagnetic ANSWER: A orientation with respect to the
D. antimagnetic earth’s magnetic pole
ANSWER: B 181. Cobalt is an example of a _________ ANSWER: C
material.
175. What do you call materials, which possess A. diamagnetic 187. The entire group of magnetic field lines
very high permeabilities? B. ferromagnetic flowing outward from the north pole of a
A. diamagnetic C. paramagnetic magnet.
B. paramagnetic D. magnetic A. magnetic field
C. ferromagnetic ANSWER: B B. magnetic flux density
D. antimagnetic C. magnetic flux
ANSWER: C 182. The space outside a magnet where its D. electromagnetic field
poles has a force of attraction or repulsion ANSWER: C
176. What is the relative permeability of on another magnetic pole.
paramagnetic substance? A. magnetic field 188. Magnetic lines of force are called
A. slightly greater than 1 B. magnetic flux A. magnetic field
B. very much greater than 1 C. magnetic flux density B. magnetic flux density
C. slightly less than 1 D. magnetic lines of force C. magnetic flux
D. very much smaller than 1 ANSWER: A D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
183. The imaginary lines representing the
177. Permeability of a material means: magnetic field. 189. What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI
A. The ability of the material to A. magnetic field system?
conduct electric field B. magnetic flux A. Weber
B. The conductivity of the material for C. magnetic flux density B. Maxwell
electromagnetic field D. magnetic lines of force C. Tesla
C. The ability of the material to hold ANSWER: D D. Gauss
magnetic flux ANSWER: A
D. The conductivity of the material for 184. What do you call the total number of
magnetic lines of force magnetic lines of force in a magnetic 190. The unit of magnetic flux density in SI:
ANSWER: D field? A. Gauss
A. magnetic field B. Weber
178. Nonmetallic materials that has B. magnetic flux C. Maxwell
ferromagnetic properties. C. magnetic flux density D. Tesla
A. termites D. magnetic lines of force ANSWER: D
B. ferrites ANSWER: B
C. ferrous 191. A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an
D. loadstone area of 5 sqcm. results in flux density of
 A. 5,000 Gauss (G) C. increases two times ANSWER: A
B. 125,000 G D. increases four times
C. 5,000 Tesla (T) ANSWER: D 205. The equivalent of 1 x 109 Maxwells is
D. 125,000 T A. 1 Weber
ANSWER: A 198. A force of 20 N is acting on a 10 Wb B. 10 Weber
magnetic pole, calculate the intensity of C. 100 Weber
192. Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G) the magnetic field? D. 1,000 Weber
having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a A. 0.5 N/Wb ANSWER: B
perpendicular area of 6cm. B. 2 N/Wb
A. 200 G C. 10 N/Wb 206. A magnetic flux of 500,000,000 lines is
B. 2,000 G D. 20 N/Wb equivalent to
C. 7,200 G ANSWER: B A. 5 x 108 Maxwells
D. 72,000 G B. 5 Weber
ANSWER: B 199. Unit of permeability C. 500 x 106 MAxwells
A. Henry/meter (H/m) D. all of the above
193. What does a gaussmeter measure? B. Farad/meter (F/m) ANSWER: D
A. flux C. Henry-meter (H-m)
B. magnetic field D. Farad-meter (F-m) 207. The unit of flux density in mks
C. magnetic flux density ANSWER: A A. Gauss
D. mmf B. Weber/m2
ANSWER: C 200. The unit of permittivity C. Maxwell
A. Henry/meter (H/m) D. Tesla
194. The capacity of a substance to become B. Farad/meter (F/m) ANSWER: B
magnetized. This is expressed as a ratio C. Henry-meter (H-m)
between the magnetization produced in a D. Farad-meter (F-m) 208. What do you call the force that sets up or
substance to the magnetizing force ANSWER: B tends to set up magnetic flux in a
producing it. magnetic circuit?
A. magnetic conductivity 201. Magnetic intensity is A. electromotive force
B. magnetic susceptibility A. a vector quantity B. potential difference
C. magnetic resistivity B. a scalar quantity C. magnetomotive force
D. magnetic reluctivity C. an imaginary quantity D. dynamic force
ANSWER: B D. either a vector or scalar ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A
195. The typical saturation flux density for 209. Voltage in electrical circuits is analogous
most magnetic materials. 202. The Gauss is a unit of to _________ in magnetic circuits.
A. 0.1 Wb/m2 A. permeability A. Ampere-turn
B. 2 Wb/m2 B. electromagnetic force B. Magnetomotive force
C. 10 Wb/m2 C. magnetic force C. Magnetizing force
D. 20 Wb/m2 D. magnetic flux density D. Flux
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D ANSWER: B

196. The force between two magnetic poles is 203. What is the unit of flux in cgs? 210. Electrical current is analogous to
_________ permeability of the medium. A. Ampere-turn (At) _________ in magnetic circuits.
A. directly proportional to the B. Coulomb/sec. (C/s) A. Ampere-turn
B. inversely proportional to the C. Maxwell (Mx) B. Magnetomotive force
C. not dependent of the D. Gauss C. Magnetizing force
D. exponentially proportional to the ANSWER: C D. Flux
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
204. One Weber is equivalent to
197. If the distance between two magnetic A. 108 Maxwells 211. __________ capability is analogous to
poles is halve, the force between them B. 106 Maxwells permeance.
A. decreases two times C. 104 Maxwells A. Admittance
B. decreases four times D. 102 Maxwells B. Conductance
 C. Reluctance 218. It is easier to establish flux line in soft B. 0.796 At
D. Resistance iron than it is to establish them in air, this C. 7.96 At
ANSWER: B is because iron has a lower D. 79.6 At
A. Permeance ANSWER: B
212. Resistance in electrical circuits is B. Inductance
analogous to _________ in magnetic C. elastance 226. One Ampere-turn (At) is equivalent to
circuits. D. reluctance A. 0.126 Gilbert
A. Conductance ANSWER: D B. 1.260 Gilberts
B. Permeance C. 12.60 Gilberts
C. Elastance 219. The Oersted (Oe) is the same as D. 126 Gilberts
D. reluctance A. 1 Gb/cm ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D B. 1 Gb/m
C. 10 Gb/cm 227. The current needed for a coil of 200 turns
213. The property of a material which opposes D. 10 Gb/cm to provide a 400 ampere turn magnetizing
the creation of magnetic flux. ANSWER: A force is
A. elastance A. 2 A
B. permeance 220. The unit of reluctance B. 4 A
C. susceptance A. Gilbert C. 6 A
D. reluctance B. Tesla D. 8 A
ANSWER: D C. At/Wb ANSWER: A
D. Gauss
214. The reciprocal of reluctance ANSWER: C 228. Determine the ampere-turns when a 10 V
A. conductance battery is connected across a solenoid
B. permeance 221. It is the specific reluctance of a material. having 100 turns and a resistance of 5 Ω.
C. elastance A. resistivity A. 50 At
D. capacitance B. retentivity B. 200 At
ANSWER: B C. reluctivity C. 100 At
D. permeability D. 1,000 At
215. Permeance is analogous to ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
A. conductance
B. resistance 222. At/m is a unit of 229. What is residual magnetism?
C. impedance A. magnetic field A. The external magnetic field when
D. elastance B. reluctance the current is flowing through the
ANSWER: A C. magnetizing force exciting coil.
D. magnetic power B. The flux density, which exist in the
216. Is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies ANSWER: C iron core when the magnetic field
the readiness of a material to develop intensity is reduced to zero.
magnetic flux. 223. Magnetomotive force has a unit of C. The flux density, which exist in the
A. elastance A. Volt (V) iron core when the magnetic field
B. permeance B. Watt (W) intensity is at its maximum value.
C. susceptance C. Joule (J) D. The flux density when the magnetic
D. conductance D. Ampere-turn (At) core is saturated.
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D ANSWER: B

217. Magnetic circuit property that permits 224. The cgs unit of magnetomotive force 230. When you demagnetize property by
flux. A. Volt applying an AC field and then gradually
A. elastance B. Weber reduced it to zero, it is called
B. permeance C. Gilbert A. damping
C. susceptance D. Ampere-turn B. decaying
D. conductance ANSWER: C C. degaussing
ANSWER: B D. gaussing
225. One Gilbert is equal to ANSWER: C
A. 0.0796 At
231. In a magnetic circuit, a flux that drifts ANSWER: D D.
In a direction determined by the
away from its intended path is called right-hand screw rule.
A. lost flux 237. Electromagnet whose core is in the form ANSWER: A
B. linked flux of a close magnetic ring
C. drift flux A. solenoid 243. If the electrical current carried by each of
D. leakage flux B. relay the two long parallel wire is doubled, and
ANSWER: D C. toroid their separation is also doubled, the force
D. circular between them
232. Is the quantity of magnetizing force ANSWER: C A. also doubles
needed to counter balance the residual B. increases by a factor of four
magnetism of a magnetic material. 238. Magnetic flux can always be attributed to C. decreases by a factor of four
A. hysteresis A. static charged particles D. decreases by a factor of two
B. degaussing B. motion of charge particles ANSWER: A
C. retentivity C. static electric field
D. coercivity D. every applied potential 244. Reversing the flow of current in a circuit
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B A. reverses the magnetic polarity
B. increase the magnetic field
233. What do you call the loss of electrical 239. What is a magnetic field? intensity
energy in counter balancing the residual A. A force set up when current flows C. decreases the magnetic intensity
magnetism in each cycle? through a conductor. D. enhances hysteresis
A. hysteresis B. A force set up when a charged ANSWER: A
B. magnetomotive body is at static.
C. leakage C. The space between two electrically 245. Is used to maintain strength of magnetic
D. coercivity charged particles. field.
ANSWER: D D. The space around a conductor. A. storer
ANSWER: A B. energizer
234. The amount of magnetic field needed to C. gausser
remove residual magnetism from a 240. Which of the following determines the D. keeper
transformer core during each half cycle is strength of a magnetic field around a ANSWER: D
called the conductor?
A. coercive force A. amount of current 246. What law that describes the force of
B. residual field B. diameter of the conductor attraction or repulsion between two
C. hysteresis field C. length of the conductor magnetic poles is directly proportional to
D. demagnetizing force D. amount of voltage their strengths?
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A A. Coulomb’s first law
B. Coulomb’s second law
235. If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.3 241. The magnetic flux around a straight, C. Ampere’s law
A of current, calculate the magnetomotive current carrying wire, is stronger D. Gauss’ law
force in Gilbert. A. near the edge ANSWER: A
A. 163.3 B. near the wire
B. 16.33 C. at the center 247. What is the law whereby the force of
C. 1.633 D. at both edge attraction or repulsion between poles is
D. 0.1633 ANSWER: B inversely proportional to the square of the
ANSWER: A distance between them?
242. In what direction is the magnetic field A. Coulomb’s first law
236. An advantage of an electromagnet over a about a conductor when current is B. Coulomb’s second law
permanent magnet flowing? C. Coulomb’s third law
A. An electromagnet can be A. In a direction determined by the D. Coulomb’s law
demagnetized left-hand rule. ANSWER: B
B. An electromagnet is simpler B. Always in a clock wise direction.
C. An electromagnet is cheaper C. Always in a counter clockwise 248. The physical motion resulting from the
D. An electromagnet can be switched direction. forces of magnetic fields.
ON and OFF A. motor action
 B. linear motion induced. The amount of voltage is always A. resistance
C. rectilinear motion proportional to B. capacitance
D. generator action A. the diameter of the conductor used C. inductance
ANSWER: A B. the length of the conductor D. elastance
C. the distance of the conductor from ANSWER: C
249. What law in electronics where an induced the field
current will be in such a direction that its D. the rate at which the conductor is 260. Which of the given below can produce the
own magnetic field will oppose the moved most induced voltage?
magnetic field that produces the same? ANSWER: D A. 1 A dc
A. Electromagnetic law B. 1 A, 60 Hz
B. Nortons law 255. The term of energy that is stored in an C. 50 A dc
C. Lenz law electromagnetic or electrostatic field D. 1 A, 400 Hz
D. Maxwell law A. kinetic energy ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C B. static energy
C. dynamic energy 261. In all cases of electromagnetic induction,
250. A changing magnetic field D. potential energy the current set-up by an induced voltage
A. produces an electric field ANSWER: D tends to create flux whose direction
B. induces potential opposes any change in the existing flux.
C. produces a fluctuating electric field 256. What is meant by back EMF? This law is called
D. produces a steady electric field A. A voltage that is applied in the A. Ampere’s law
ANSWER: B reverse direction. B. Lenz’ law
B. An EMF that is dude to the fly C. Coulomb’s law
251. The emf induced in a coil due to the wheel effect. D. Faraday’s law
change of its flux linked with it is called C. An EMF that is generated from the ANSWER: B
A. mutual emf back of an electromagnet.
B. crossfire induced emf D. A voltage that opposes the applied 262. In electromagnetism, what law that
C. self induced emf EMF. determines the polarity of an induced
D. virtually induced emf ANSWER: D voltage?
ANSWER: C A. Ampere’s law
257. When current in a conductor increases, B. Lenz’ law
252. If two coils are close enough together for Lenz’ law states that the self-induced C. Coulomb’s law
their magnetic fields to interact, a change potential will D. Faraday’s law
in current in one will induce a A. produce current opposite to the ANSWER: B
corresponding voltage in the other, This increasing current
condition is known as B. tend to produce more magnetic 263. In electromagnetism, what law that
A. self-inductance field determines the amount of induced
B. mutual inductance C. tend to augment the increase in voltage?
C. crossfire inductance current A. Ampere’s law
D. linked inductance D. produce current with the same B. Lenz’ law
ANSWER: B direction to the increasing current C. Coulomb’s law
ANSWER: A D. Faraday’s law
253. If the magnetic flux through a coil ANSWER: D
changes, the induced EMF acts in such a 258. If a magnetic flux occurs across 100 turns
direction as to at a rate of 2 Wb/sec. What is the induced 264. Electromotive force (emf) is induced
A. oppose that change voltage as per Faraday’s law? whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux
B. magnify that change A. 100 V A. Faraday’s first law
C. augment that change B. 400 V B. Faraday’s second law
D. amplify that change C. 200 V C. Coulomb’s first law
ANSWER: A D. 800 V D. Coulomb’s second law
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
254. When a conductor is moved through a
magnetic field a voltage is always 259. The circuit element that is used represent 265. The magnitude of electromotive force
the energy stored in a magnetic field. (emf) that is induced when a conductor
 cuts magnetic flux is directly proportional ANSWER: C ohm resistor and a 7.8 kilo ohm resistor. What is
to its rate. the total combined resistance of these three
A. Faraday’s first law TEST2. resistors?
B. Faraday’s second law A. 63769 ohms
C. Coulomb’s first law 1. The total resistance of a two similar wire B. 49069 ohms
D. Coulomb’s second law conductors connected in parallel is ________. C. 95800 ohms
ANSWER: B A. resistance of one wire multiplied by 4 D. 39067 ohms
B. same resistance of one wire ANSWER: D
266. The effect that describes the ability of a C. one half the resistance of one wire
8. If you need a 1.25 kΩ resistance and you only
mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire D. double the resistance of one wire have resistors of 5 kΩ, how many of these
to recognize rapid switching of ANSWER: C
available resistors you should connect in parallel
magnetization when subjected to a DC to get a 1.25 kΩ value?
magnetic field. 2. What is the value of a resistor with colors from
left: Orange, Blue, Gold, and Silver? A. 2
A. Wiegand effect
A. 34 ohms ± 10% B. 3
B. Wertheim effect
B. 3.6 ohms ± 10% C. 4
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect C. 3.4 ohms ± 10% D. 5
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A D. 36 ohms ± 10%
ANSWER: B
9. Insulating elements or materials has a capability
267. The concept whereby a small voltage is of
3. Determine the value of a resistor with colors
generated by a conductor with current in from left to right; Brown, Green, Gold, and A. allowing electric current to flow
an external magnetic field is known as Silver. B. supporting charge flow
A. Wiegand effect A. 1.5 ohms ± 10% C. preventing short circuit between
B. Hall effect B. 15 ohms ± 10% conducting wires
C. Wiedemann effect D. making electrical circuits to be
C. 1.5 ohms ± 20%
D. Wall effect completed
D. 15 ohms ± 20% ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A

268. _________ is called the magnetic field. 10. _________ is used to store electrical energy in
4. Resistors with high value usually have lower
an electrostatic field?
A. The force that drives current wattage ratings because of _________.
through a resistor A. varying current A. A transformer
B. Current flow through space around B. lower current B. A battery
a permanent magnet C. bigger size C. A capacitor
C. The force between the plates of D. high current D. An inductor
charged capacitor ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B
D. A force set up when current flow
11. What factors determine the capacitance of a
through a conductor 5. Smaller resistors usually have ________
capacitor?
ANSWER: D resistance value.
A. small A. Area of the plates, amount of charge on
the plates and the dielectric constant of
269. The natural magnet refers to B. high the material between the plates
A. steel C. low B. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates
B. soft iron D. very small and the distance between the plates
C. magnesia ANSWER: B C. Area of the plates, distance between
D. loadstone (lodestone) the plates, and the dielectric constant of
6. When resistors are connected in series, what the material between the plates
ANSWER: D
happens?
D. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates
270. The force between two magnetic poles in
A. The effective resistance is decreased and dielectric constant of the material
relation to their pole strength is
B. Nothing between the plates
C. The tolerance is decreased ANSWER: C
________.
A. not related D. The effective resistance is increased
12. Factors that determine the capacitance of a
B. inversely proportional ANSWER: D
capacitor.
C. directly proportional A. area of the plate; directly proportional
7. A 33 kilo ohms resistor is connected in series
D. independent with a parallel combination made up of a 56 kilo
 B.distance between plate; inversely 19. Which of the following characterizes inductance? 0.1 A
B.
proportional A. Tends to oppose dc 1.0 A
C.
C. dielectric constant; directly proportional B. Tends to oppose changes in voltage 10 A
D.
D. all of these C. Tends to oppose changes in current ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D D. Opposes all frequencies equally
ANSWER: C 26. Two resistors, 10Ω and 100Ω are connected in
13. An electronic/electrical component/device used parallel, approximately, aht is the total
to store electrical energy. 20. A coil of wire wound, with or without a magnetic resistance?
A. Capacitor core designed to have a higher self-inductance A. 10Ω
B. Inductor than a straight wire. B. 50Ω
C. Resistor A. Inductor C. 90Ω
D. lightning arrester B. Solenoid D. 100Ω
ANSWER: A C. Toroid ANSWER: A
D. Inductive relay
14. Which of the following describes the action of a ANSWER: A 27. A shunt resistor is used to limit the load current
capacitor? to 0.5 A, if the load resistance is 100Ω and the
A. Converts ac into dc 21. With the same voltage applied, which of the original current is 1amp, what should be the
following allows more current? value of the shunt resistance?
B. Stores electrical energy
C. Opposes change in current flow A. 25 ohms A. 25Ω
D. Creates a dc resistance B. 250 ohms B. 50Ω
ANSWER: B C. 0.25 ohms C. 75Ω
D. 2.5 ohms D. 100Ω
15. A parallel plate capacitor has the following ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
values: k=81; d=0.025 inches; A=6 square
inches. What is the capacitance of the capacitor? 22. In electrical circuits, current is known as the flow 28. How many 1kΩ resistors to be connected in
A. 4.372 picofarad of charged carriers, such as electrons. When can parallel are needed in order to get 100Ω?
B. 43.72 picofarad this happen? A. 2
C. 4372 picofarad A. when an electrical force (called emf) is B. 5
applied C. 10
D. 437.2 picofarad
ANSWER: C B. when material used allows electrons to D. 20
flow ANSWER: C
16. Five picofarad is equivalent to ________. C. when there is circuit continuity
A. 5 x 10 to the -12th D. all of the above 29. Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are
ANSWER: D connected in series, if the voltage across R2 is
B. 50 x 10 to the -12th 20V, what is the voltage across R1?
C. 5 x 10 to the -10th 23. What utilizes electrical energy in electrical A. 5 V
D. 500 x 10 to the -10th circuits? B. 10 V
ANSWER: A
A. supply emf C. 15 V
17. If two micro-farad capacitors are connected in B. load D. 20 V
series, what will be the total effective C. the conducting wires ANSWER: B
capacitance? D. all of the above
A. 0.125 microfarad ANSWER: B 30. Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are
connected in parallel. If the current through R1 is
B. 0.0624 microfarad 1 A, what would be the current on R2?
24. An electronic device draws 300 watts from its
C. 2.5 microfarad 24-volt power source. Find effective resistance. A. 0.125 A
D. 0.50 microfarad A. 1.92 ohms B. 0.25 A
ANSWER: A
B. 19.20 ohms C. 0.35 A
18. A 20 μF capacitor is charged by a 12-V battery. C. 1.25 ohms D. 0.50 A
What is the stored energy at the capacitor? D. 12.50 ohms ANSWER: D
A. 2.88 x 10-3 J ANSWER: A
31. A 6A current source drives a load consisting a
B. 1.07 x 10-3 J parallel combination of R1 = 50Ω and R2 = 25Ω.
25. A 50Ω resistor is connected in series with a 150C
C. 1.44 x 10-3 J resistor and to a supply voltage of 20V. What is Determine the current I1 through R1.
D. 2.88 x 10-2 J the current through the 50Ω resistor? A. 1 amp
ANSWER: C
A. 0.01 A B. 2 amps
 3 amps
C. B.5 watts D. Kirchhoff’s
4 amps
D. C.20 watts ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B D.40 watts
44. Considered as the reverse of Thevenin’s
ANSWER: D
32. A constant voltage source Vs = 60 is delivering a theorem.
power to a series combination of R1 = 100Ω, R2 38. How many nodes are needed to completely A. Maxwell
= 200Ω and R3 = 300Ω. Calculate the voltage analyze a circuit according to kirchhoff’s current B. Superposition
drop across R2. law? C. Kirchhoff
A. 10 V A. two D. Norton’s
B. 20 V B. all nodes in the circuit ANSWER: D
C. 30 V C. one less than the total number of nodes
D. 40 V in the circuit 45. A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has
ANSWER: B parameters RTH = 10 Ω and VTH = 20 V. If this is
D. one converted to Norton’s equivalent circuit, RN and
ANSWER: C
33. If 12 V are applied to a circuit that consumes 78 IN would be
W, what is the current flow through the circuit? 39. Loop currents should be assumed to flow in A. 10Ω and 2A
A. 6.5 A which direction? B. 10Ω and 4A
B. 936 A A. Straight C. 0.10 and 2A
C. 0.15 A B. Either C or D arbitrarily selected D. 0.10 and 4A
D. 9.36 A C. Counter-clockwise ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A D. Clockwise 46. RN and IN of a Norton’s equivalent circuit are
ANSWER: B
34. Find the current that flows through the filament known to be 100Ω and 10A, respectively. If a
of a 400 watts flat iron connected to a 220 Volt 400Ω load is connected, it will have a load
40. What theorem we should use in solving electrical
power line. current of
circuits with several voltage sources?
A. 50 mA A. superposition A. 1 A
B. 5 A B. Norton B. 2 A
C. 5 mA C. Thevenin C. 3 A
D. 500 mA D. Kirchhoff D. 4 A
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A

35. An electrical device has a resistance of 10Ω and 47. A chosen closed path of current flow in a
41. In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all voltages and
is supplied with a 5 ampere constant current network. In making this current path there
voltage drops is equal to zero.
source. If the deice is rated 100 Vdc, determine should be no node nor elements that are passed
its power consumed.
A. superposition theorem more than once.
A. 250 W B. Norton’s law A. node
B. 450 W C. Kirchhoff’s first law B. junction
C. 750 W D. Kirchhoff’s second law C. mesh
ANSWER: D
D. 1000 W D. loop
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
42. The sum of all currents entering a junction is
equal to the sum of currents leaving away from
36. The power dissipated by a 10 Ω load resistor 48. A set of circuit elements that forms a closed path
that junction.
with a current rating of 5 amperes is _________ in a network over which signal can circulate.
if supplied with a 20 volt dc potential.
A. Kirchhoff’s first law A. node
A. 40 W B. Kirchhoff’s second law B. junction
B. 80 W C. Norton’s theorem C. mesh
C. 160W D. Thevenin’s theorem D. loop
ANSWER: A
D. 250 W ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 43. Theorem used to simplify complex circuits
49. In a network, what do we call a reference point
wherein, the simplified circuit contains an
37. The power in a circuit consisting of two equal chosen such that more branches in a circuit met.
equivalent open circuit resistance and open
resistors in series is known to be 10 watts. If the circuit voltage. A. node
two resistors are connected in parallel, what B. junction
would be the circuit power dissipation?
A. Norton’s
B. Thevenin’s C. ground
A. 2.5 watts D. mesh
C. Maxwell’s
 ANSWER: A be transformed into star, what would be the ANSWER: C
value of the resistor opposite of R2?
50. A common connection between circuit elements A. 25.0 Ω 63. The time taken by an alternating voltage, v =
or conductors from different branches. 100sin240πt to reach 50V for the first time
B. 33.3 Ω
A. node C. 45.0 Ω A. 358 μs
B. junction D. 56.7 Ω B. 695 μs
C. ground ANSWER: A C. 358 ms
D. mesh D. 695 ms
ANSWER: B 57. The description of two sine waves that are in ANSWER: D
step with each other going through their
51. The return point in a circuit, where all voltage maximum and minimum points at the same time 64. An alternating voltage of sine-wave form has a
measurements are referred. and in the same direction maximum voltage of 311V. What is its value at
A. node A. phased sine wave 225°?
B. junction B. sine waves in phase A. 110 V
C. ground C. sine wave in coordination B. 220 V
D. loop D. stepped sine waves C. -220 V
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B D. -110 V
ANSWER: C
52. Mesh analysis is best used together with what 58. Most ac-supplies are in the form of
circuit law? A. sine-wave 65. If an alternating voltage has a magnitude of 10
A. KVL V at 30°, what is its maximum voltage?
B. square-wave
B. KCL C. triangular-wave A. 20 V
C. VDT D. rectangular-wave B. 30 V
D. CDT ANSWER: A C. 40 V
ANSWER: A D. 50 V
59. Advantage(s) of ac over dc ANSWER: A
53. Nodal analysis is best used together with A. economically produced
A. KVL 66. What is the frequency of an alternating current,
B. transmission of ac is more efficient if it reaches 90° within 4.167 ms?
B. KCL C. ac voltages can be easily changed
C. VDT A. 20 Hz
D. all of the above B. 30 Hz
D. CDT ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B C. 50 HZ
60. An ac-voltage has an equation v = 240 sin120πt, D. 60 Hz
54. Three 100Ω resistors are connected in a tee- its frequency is ANSWER: D
form (T) network and is set up between a 100 V A. 60 Hz
supply and a load resistor RL. If maximum power 67. At what angle does an alternating voltage of
transfer is desired, what should be the resistance
B. 90 Hz cosine-waveform reaches its negative peak?
of the load resistor RL? C. 120 Hz A. 45°
A. 50 Ω D. 240 Hz B. 90°
ANSWER: A
B. 75 Ω C. 135°
C. 125 Ω 61. When can an ac-voltage, v = 120sin120πt reach D. 180°
D. 150 Ω its first peak? ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D A. 4.167 μs
68. When comparing rms voltages and average
55. Theorem used in simplifying circuit analysis by
B. 8.334 μs voltages, which of the following statement is
considering the effect of supply voltages one at a C. 4.167 ms true, assuming sine waves?
time. D. 8.334 ms A. Either the rms voltage or the average
A. Thevenin’s theorem ANSWER: C voltage might be larger
B. Norton’s theorem 62. Calculate the period of an alternating current
B. The rms voltage is always greater than
C. Superposition the average voltage
having an equation of I = 20sin120πt.
D. KVL A. 4.167 ms C. There will always be a very large
ANSWER: C difference between the rms voltage and
B. 8.33 ms the average voltage
56. Three resistors, R1 = 60 Ω, R2 = 80 Ω and R3 = C. 16.67 ms D. The average voltage is always greater
100 are connected in delta. If the network is to D. 33.33 ms than the rms voltage
 ANSWER: B D. purely inductive 82. Ignoring any inductive effects, what is the
ANSWER: B impedance of RC series capacitor made up of a
69. What is the average voltage of an alternating 56 kilo ohms resistor and a 0.33 μF capacitor at
voltage, v = 100sin120πt? 76. In a purely inductive circuit the current a signal frequency of 450 Hz?
A. 31.8 V A. leads the voltage by 45° A. 66,730 ohms
B. 63.6 V B. leads the voltage by 90° B. 57,019 ohms
C. 70.71 V C. lags the voltage by 90° C. 45,270 ohms
D. 0 (zero) V D. lags the voltage by 45° D. 10,730 ohms
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C ANSWER: B

70. Determine the effective voltage of v = 77. If the current and voltage in an ac-circuit has a 83. A 220-volt, 60-Hz source is driving a series RL
100sin120πt. phase difference, it would mean the load is circuit. Determine the current in the circuit if R =
A. 31.80 V 100 Ω and XL = 100 Ω.
A. resistive
B. 35.35 V B. capacitive A. 1.10 A (lagging)
C. 70.71 V C. inductive B. 1.55 A (lagging)
D. 90.00 V D. reactive C. 2.20 A (lagging)
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D D. 4.40 A (lagging)
ANSWER: B
71. What do you mean by root-mean-squared (rms) 78. A resistive and a capacitive load of equal
value? magnitude is connected in series, determine the 84. How many electrical degrees a current will lead
A. it is the average value phase difference between the voltage and the the voltage in a series RC load with R = 100 Ω
current. and XC = 50 Ω?
B. it is the effective value
C. it is the value that causes the same A. current leads the voltage by 45° A. 13.28°
heating effect as a dc-voltage B. current lags the voltage by 45° B. 26.56°
D. B or C C. current leads the voltage by 90° C. 31.72°
ANSWER: D D. current lags the voltage by 90° D. 63.44°
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
72. The power dissipated across the resistance in an
AC circuit 79. The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 500 Hz is which 85. What will be the current equation in a series RC
A. real power of the following? network if supplied with v = Vmsin120πt source.
The circuit has a power factor pf = 0.5?
B. reactive power A. 785 ohms
C. apparent power B. 785,000 ohms A. i = Imaxsin(120πt + 60)
D. true power C. 13 ohms B. i = Imaxsin(120πt - 60)
ANSWER: D D. 0.0013 ohms C. i = Imaxsin(120πt + 30)
ANSWER: A D. i = Imaxsin(120πt - 30)
73. In AC circuit, resistors will dissipate what power? ANSWER: A
A. reactive 80. The impedance in the study of electronics is
represented by resistance and ________. 86. The power factor (pf) of a series LC circuit is
B. passive
C. inductive A. inductance and capacitance A. 0
D. true B. inductance B. 0.5
ANSWER: D C. reactance C. 0.75
D. capacitance D. 1.0
74. In an ac-circuit, if the voltage and current are in ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
phase, the circuit is
A. resistive 81. A series circuit consists of an 80 mH inductor 87. What is the power factor (pf) of a series RL
and a 150μF capacitor. Calculate the total circuit having R = 50Ω and XL = 20Ω?
B. reactive
C. capacitive reactance if it is connected to a 220-volt 60- A. 0.63
cycle source. B. 0.71
D. inductive A. 12.5 Ω inductive
ANSWER: A C. 0.81
B. 12.5 Ω capacitive D. 0.93
75. If the current in an ac-circuit leads the voltage C. 47.8 Ω inductive ANSWER: D
by 90°, the circuit is D. 47.8 Ω capacitive
A. resistive ANSWER: A 88. A 200Ω resistor if connected in series with a
capacitive reactance of 100 will give a total
B. capacitive circuit impedance of
C. inductive
 A.173.2 Ω 94. The apparent power of a series RC network is 25 @ -45° Ω
B.
given to be 4000 W. If R = 6 Ω, and XC = 8 Ω,
B.223.6 Ω 35.35 @ 45° Ω
C.
calculate the true power of the network.
C.250.6 Ω 35.35 @ -45° Ω
D.
A. 1200 W ANSWER: D
D.300.0 Ω
ANSWER: B
B. 2400 W
C. 3200 W 101. A 100-volt source is supplying a parallel RC
89. What will happen when the power factor of a D. 4000 W circuit having a total impedance of 35.35Ω.
circuit is increased? ANSWER: B Calculate the total line current.
A. reactive power increases A. 2.83  45°
B. active power increases 95. A series RC circuit has an apparent power of B. 2.83  -45°
4000 W. If R = 6Ω, and XC = 8Ω, determine the
C. both active and reactive powers C. 4.00  45°
reactive power.
increases 4.00  -45°
D.
A. 1200 W
D. both active and reactive powers ANSWER: A
decreases
B. 2400 W
ANSWER: B C. 3200 W 102. What is the power factor of a circuit if the
D. 4000 W inductive susceptance and conductance have
90. A series RL network is supplied with a 200-volt, ANSWER: C the same value?
60-cycle source. If the voltage across the A. 0.325
resistor R is 100 V, what is the voltage across 96. A network has a true power and a reactive B. 0.525
the inductor L? power of 2400 W and 3200 W respectively. What
is its apparent power? C. 0.673
A. 0 V
A. 800 W D. 0.707
B. 100 V ANSWER: D
C. 173.2 V B. 1600 W
D. 200 V C. 4000 W 103. If a circuit has an admittance of Y = 0.2 +
ANSWER: C D. 5600 W j0.6, the circuit is
ANSWER: C A. purely inductive
91. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a B. inductive
capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply voltage 97. What is the total impedance of a series circuit
is 200 V, what is the power consumed by the consisting of R = 6Ω, XC = 8Ω, and XL = 16Ω? C. capacitive
circuit? A. 10 Ω D. reactive
A. 2400 W ANSWER: C
B. 14 Ω
B. 4000 W C. 24.73 Ω 104. The circuit admittance Y = 0.2 - j0.6, the
C. 5000 W D. 30 Ω circuit is
D. 6666.67 W ANSWER: A A. resistive
ANSWER: A B. inductive
98. What is the significance of connecting loads in
92. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a parallel? C. capacitive
capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply voltage A. it makes power consumption less D. reactive
is 200 V, what is the circuit current magnitude? ANSWER: B
B. it provides greater efficiency
A. 14.28 A C. it increases the safety factor 105. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit
B. 20 A D. it allows independent operations of when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40
C. 25 A loads picofarads are in parallel?
D. 33.33 A ANSWER: D A. 7.96 MHz
ANSWER: B B. 79.6 MHz
99. A parallel RL circuit with R = 60Ω, and XL = 40Ω
93. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a has a total impedance of C. 3.56 MHz
capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply voltage A. 24.3 Ω D. 1.78 MHz
is 200 V, what is the apparent power of the ANSWER: C
circuit?
B. 28.3 Ω
A. 1200 W C. 33.3 Ω 106. If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at
D. 38.3 Ω 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what should
B. 2400 W ANSWER: C the capacitance value be?
C. 3200 W A. 0.027 μF
D. 4000 W 100. Calculate the total impedance of a parallel RC B. 0.015 μF
ANSWER: D circuit if R = XC = 50Ω.
C. 0.15 μF
A. 25 @ 45° Ω
D. 27 μF
 ANSWER: A resistive
A. D. 100 Hz
inductive
B. ANSWER: D
107. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit
when L of 3 microhenry and C of 40 picofarad reactive
C. 120. Absolutely, when can we say that the circuit is
are in series? capacitive
D. at resonance?
A. 1.33 MHz ANSWER: A
A. when XL = XC
B. 14.5 MHz 114. What will happen to a parallel ac-circuit if its B. when the current is minimum
C. 14.5 kHz line frequency is more than the resonant C. when the voltage and current are in-
D. 1.33 kHz frequency? phase
ANSWER: B A. becomes purely resistive D. all of the above
B. becomes purely capacitive ANSWER: C
108. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit
when L of 25 microhenry and C of 10 picofarad C. becomes inductive
TEST3.
are in parallel? D. becomes capacitive
A. 63.7 MHz ANSWER: D
1. The name of pure semiconductor material that
B. 10.1 MHz 115. In a series ac-circuit, if the line frequency is has an equal number of electrons and holes
C. 63.7 kHz more than the resonant frequency, the circuit A. n-type
D. 10.1 kHz behaves as B. pure type
ANSWER: B C. intrinsic
A. resistive D. p-type
109. A series circuit at resonance would mean, the
B. inductive ANSWER: C
circuit is C. reactive
D. capacitive 2. Elements that has four valence electrons are
A. resistive classified as
ANSWER: B
B. inductive A. conductor
C. capacitive 116. If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit is B. insulator
D. reactive less than the resonant frequency, the circuit
C. elemental semiconductor
ANSWER: A behaves as
A. resistive D. compound semiconductor
110. Characteristics of the current in a series R-L-C ANSWER: C
circuit at resonance.
B. reactive
A. It is dc C. capacitive 3. An example of an elemental semiconductor.
D. purely inductive A. Germanium (Ge)
B. It is a minimum ANSWER: B B. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
C. It is zero C. Gallium Phosphide (GaP)
D. It is at maximum 117. If an ac-series circuit is supplied with a source D. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs)
ANSWER: D whose frequency is less than that of fr, the ANSWER A
circuit becomes
111. What is the cause of a minimum Q on a single- A. resistive 4. Which of the following is an example of a
tuned LC circuit? compound semiconductor?
B. reactive A. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
A. decreased series resistor C. inductive B. Gallium Phosphide (GaP)
B. decreased shunt resistor D. capacitive C. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs)
C. increased shunt resistor ANSWER: D D. All of the above
D. decreased capacitance ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 118. _________ is a parallel LC circuit.
A. Parallel resisting circuit 5. Germanium has an atomic number of 32 and an
112. Find the half-power bandwidth of a parallel atomic weight of approximately 72 amu. How
resonant circuit, which has a resonant
B. Static circuit many electrons, protons and neutrons are there?
frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218. C. Tank circuit A. 32, 32, 40
A. 606 kHz D. Hartley circuit B. 32, 32, 104
ANSWER: C C. 40, 32, 32
B. 58.7 kHz D. 40, 32, 104
C. 16.5 kHz 119. A parallel LC network with L = 100 mH and C ANSWER: A
D. 47.3 kHz = 25μF will resonate at what frequency?
ANSWER: C A. 25 Hz 6. The chemical bond that is present in a crystal
lattice of silicon atoms.
113. A parallel circuit at resonance would mean, the
B. 45.5 Hz A. covalent bond
circuit is C. 75.6 Hz B. electrovalent bond
 C. ionic bond A. intrinsic semiconductor C. compound semiconductor
D. metallic bond B. extrinsic semiconductor D. diffused semiconductor
ANSWER: A C. compensated semiconductor ANSWER: B
D. elemental semiconductor
7. The atomic weight of a silicon atom is ANSWER: A 23. The resistance of a semiconductor is known as
approximately 28 amu. How many electrons, A. bulk resistance
protons and neutrons does the atom consist? 15. The process of adding impurities in a B. intrinsic resistance
A. 14, 42, 14 semiconductor material. C. extrinsic resistance
B. 14, 14, 42 A. growing D. dynamic resistance
C. 42, 14, 14 B. diffusion ANSWER: A
D. 14, 14, 14 C. doping
ANSWER: D D. depleting 24. The most extensively used semiconductor.
ANSWER: C A. silicon
8. What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon B. germanium
atom? 16. Impurities with five valence electrons. C. gallium phosphide
A. -12e C A. acceptor D. gallium arsenide
B. 12e C B. donor ANSWER: A
C. -14e C C. trivalent
D. 14e C D. pentavalent 25. Semiconductor whose electron and hole
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D concentrations are equal.
A. extrinsic semiconductor
9. In materials, what do you call the area that 17. Example of acceptor impurities. B. intrinsic semiconductor
separates the valence band and the conduction A. pentavalent impurities C. compensated semiconductor
band? B. trivalent impurities D. doped semiconductor
A. energy gap C. tetravalent impurities ANSWER: B
B. forbidden band D. hexavalent impurities
C. insulation band ANSWER: B 26. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its
D. A and B are correct several advantages, what do you think is its
ANSWER: B 18. If the substance used in doping has less than most significant advantage?
four valence electrons, it is known as A. abundant
10. At absolute zero temperature, semiconductor A. acceptor B. cheap
acts as B. donor C. temperature stable
A. an insulator C. trivalent D. low leakage current
B. a conductor D. pentavalent ANSWER: D
C. a semi-insulator ANSWER: A
D. usual 27. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to
ANSWER: A 19. Commonly used as donor impurities. the applied electric field.
A. Antimony (Sb) A. diffusion current
11. The electron flow in a semiconductor material is B. Arsenic (As) B. conventional current
A. opposite in direction of hole flow C. Phosphorus (P) C. drift velocity
B. the same direction with hole flow D. all of the above D. drift current
C. the drift current ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
D. known as the conventional current
ANSWER: A 20. Example of trivalent impurities. 28. The movement of charge carriers in a
A. Boron (B) semiconductor even without the application of
12. Typical range of the resistivity of a B. Gallium (Ga) electric potential.
semiconductor C. Indium (In) A. diffusion current
A. 10-15 – 10-18 Ω-cm D. all of the above B. conventional current
B. 10-5 – 10-8 Ω-cm ANSWER: D C. drift current
C. 10 – 104 Ω-cm D. saturation current
D. 108 – 1015 Ω-cm 21. Donor-doped semiconductor becomes a ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C A. N-type semiconductor
B. good conductor 29. Typically, how much energy is required for a
13. Chemical bond that is significant in metals C. p-n semiconductor valence electron to move to the conduction band
A. ionic bonding D. P-type semiconductor for a doped semiconductor?
B. electrovalent bonding ANSWER: A A. 0 eV
C. covalent bonding B. 0.05 eV
D. metallic bonding 22. What do you call a semiconductor that is doped C. 1.0 eV
ANSWER: D with both donor and acceptor impurities? D. 5.0 eV
A. double doped semiconductor ANSWER: B
14. A semiconductor that is free from impurities B. compensated semiconductor
30. Conduction of electrons in a doped 37. Among the given elements, which is considered A. Bohr model
semiconductor happens at as nonmetal? B. string model
A. conduction band A. silicon (Si) C. wave model
B. germanium (Ge) D. particle model
B. forbidden band C. tin (Sn) ANSWER: A
C. valence band D. lead (Pb)
D. nuclei band ANSWER: A 45. Is defined as the energy acquired by an electron
ANSWER: A moving through a potential of one volt.
38. A semiconductor that is classified as a metalloid A. electron Joules (eJ)
31. Theoretically, where does the conduction of or semimetal B. electron-potential
holes occur in a doped semiconductor? A. silicon (Si) C. oxidation potential
A. conduction band B. germanium (Ge) D. electron Volt (eV)
B. forbidden band C. tin (Sn) ANSWER: D
C. valence band D. carbon (C)
D. empty band ANSWER: B 46. At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal,
ANSWER: C the equilibrium concentration of thermally
39. Semiconductor that is very rare, it only occurs in generated electrons in the conduction band is
32. In energy band diagram of a doped minute quantities in many metal sulfides about
semiconductor, the donor level A. silicon (Si) A. 1.5 x 105 per cubic cm.
A. is near the valence band B. germanium (Ge) B. 1.5 x 1010 per cubic cm.
B. is near the conduction band C. tin (Sn) C. 1.5 x 1015 per cubic cm.
C. is exactly in between the valence and D. lead (Pb) D. 1.5 x 1020 per cubic cm.
conduction band ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
D. depends on the amount of doping
ANSWER: B 40. Compound semiconductors are also known as 47. What is the basis in operation of semiconductor
A. compensated semiconductors photoconductors?
33. The acceptor level in a doped semiconductor B. amorphous semiconductors A. EHP generation
A. is near the valence band level C. organic semiconductors B. EHP degeneration
B. is near the conduction level D. inner-mettalic semiconductors C. EHP optical degeneration
C. is exactly in between the conduction ANSWER: D D. EHP optical generation
and valence band ANSWER: D
D. will depend on the concentration of 41. What semiconductor that is mostly used in
doping devices requiring the emission or absorption of 48. The semiconductor that is used in xerography
ANSWER: A lights? A. selenium (Se)
A. amorphous semiconductor B. gallium phosphide (GaP)
34. In a semiconductor material, what will happen to B. organic semiconductor C. cadmium compound
the number of free electrons when the C. compound semiconductor D. organic semiconductor
temperature rises? D. elemental semiconductor ANSWER: A
A. increases ANSWER: C
B. decreases exponentially 49. A silicon material has an intrinsic concentration
C. decreases 42. For high-speed integrated circuit, which ni=1010 per cubic centimeter at room
D. remains the same semiconductor material given below is best to be temperature. If it is doped with 1015 antimony
ANSWER: A used? atoms per cubic centimeter, what is now the
A. silicon approximate electron concentration at the
35. The electrical resistance of a semiconductor B. germanium conduction band?
material will ________ as the temperature C. carbon A. 105 electrons
increases. D. gallium arsenide B. 1010 electrons
A. increase ANSWER: D C. 1015 electrons
B. increase exponentially D. 1020 electrons
C. decrease 43. How much impurity concentration is needed for a ANSWER: C
D. not change sample of silicon to change its electrical property
ANSWER: C from a poor conductor to a good conductor? 50. When an electron at the conduction band falls
A. one part per hundred back to the valence band it will recombine with
36. The potential required to removed a valence B. one part per thousand the hole. This is known as
electron C. one part per million A. regeneration
A. valence potential D. one part per billion B. reunion
B. threshold potential ANSWER: C C. combination
C. critical potential D. recombination
D. ionization potential 44. The restriction of certain discrete energy levels ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D in a semiconductor material can be predicted
generally by using what model?
51. Which semiconductor is mostly used to detect B.the leads should be made shorter and ANSWER: D
near infrared? smaller
A. silicon C. smaller packaging 64. What is formed when n-type and p-type
B. germanium D. all of the above semiconductors are brought together?
C. carbon ANSWER: D A. pn junction
D. silicon carbide B. semiconductor junction
ANSWER: D 59. Before an electron can participate in the C. energy band gap
conduction of electricity, it must leave from the D. semiconductor diode
52. What semiconductor that is good for high- valence band and transfer to the conduction ANSWER: A
temperature applications? band. Transferring to the conduction band
A. indium antimonide (InSb) involves energy acquisition by an electron from 65. PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons
B. gallium anitmonide(GaSb) external sources and this energy must be because _________.
C. silicon carbide (SiC) greater than the energy gap of the material. A. the circuit in which the diode is used,
D. diamond (C) Which semiconductor material has the highest only attempts to pump electrons in one
ANSWER: A energy gap? diode
A. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS) B. electrons tend to follow the direction of
53. Among the given semiconductors below, which B. silicon (Si) the hole
has the highest mobility? C. germanium (Ge) C. there is a little mechanical switch inside
A. silicon D. Indium Antimonide (InSb) a diode
B. germanium ANSWER: A D. when electrons are pump from P to N,
C. gallium arsenide free electrons and holes are force apart
D. indium antimonide 60. Which of the following semiconductors has the leaving no way for electrons to cross
ANSWER: D smallest energy gap? the junction
A. ZnS ANSWER: D
54. A semiconducting glass is known as B. Si
A. isomorphous semiconductor C. Ge 66. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-
B. amorphous semiconductor D. InSb type semiconductors are brought together
C. organic semiconductor ANSWER: D A. pn junction
D. compound semiconductor B. semiconductor junction
ANSWER: B 61. The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or C. depletion region
hole) moves in a semiconductor material is D. junction diode
55. For an electroluminescent of green and red known as mobility. It is also defined as the ANSWER: D
lights, which semiconductor is best? average drift velocity of electrons and holes per
A. silicon carbide unit electrostatic field. Which of the 67. An external voltage applied to a junction reduces
B. gallium arsenide semiconductor materials has the highest value of its barrier and aid current to flow through the
C. indium antimonide electron-mobility? junction
D. gallium phosphide A. InSb A. reverse bias
ANSWER: D B. Ge B. external bias
C. Si C. junction bias
56. Typical range of power dissipation for a D. AlP D. forward bias
semiconductor to be considered as “low power” ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
or “small signal”
A. less than 1 watt 62. In semiconductor materials, electrons have a 68. A device containing an anode and a cathode or a
B. 5 < P < 10 watts higher value of mobility than holes, but which pn junction of a semiconductor as the principal
C. 10 < P < 20 watts semiconductor material has the slowest electron- elements and provides unidirectional conduction.
D. 20 watts above mobility? A. diode
ANSWER: A A. InSb B. diac
B. GaP C. triode
57. In the design of high power semiconductor C. GaAs D. triac
devices, it involves what factors? D. AlP ANSWER: A
A. making the size of the semiconductor ANSWER: D
bigger 69. Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes in
B. packing the device into a bigger case 63. Solar cell is a semiconductor electric-junction any device other than a diode, such that
C. excellent contact between the device, which absorbs the radiant energy of rectification between the grid and cathode of a
semiconductor and the case sunlight and converts it directly and efficiently triode, or asymmetrical conduction between the
D. all of the above into electrical energy. This device, uses what collector and base of a transistor is called
ANSWER: D type of semiconductor materials? A. rectification
A. single-crystal silicon B. diode action
58. How to have a better high-frequency response in B. amorphous or polycrystalline silicon C. clipping
designing semiconductor devices? C. GaAs, CdS, CdTe, CuS D. clamping
A. make the chip as small as possible D. all of the above ANSWER: B
 D. holding current voltage is one of the limiting parameter of diodes
70. The p-type material in a semiconductor junction ANSWER: B and is known as
diode is technically termed as A. breakdown voltage (VBR)
A. positive terminal 76. When the diode is supplied with forward B. peak inverse voltage (PIV)
B. negative terminal direction potentials but with a magnitude less C. peak reverse voltage (PRV)
C. cathode than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it D. all are correct
D. anode will not “turn-on” and will only allow a very small ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D amount of current to pass. This very small
current is known 83. For a silicon diode, calculate the current at room
71. Cathode in a semiconductor junction diode is A. as leakage current temperature if the forward voltage VF = 0.3 V
referred to the B. as forward saturation current and the reverse saturation current IS = 100 nA.
A. positive terminal C. as holding current A. 32.8 μA
B. junction D. as cut-off current B. 10.8 μA
C. p-type terminal ANSWER: D C. 32.8 mA
D. n-type terminal D. 10.8 mA
ANSWER: D 77. The minimum voltage required before a diode ANSWER: A
can totally conduct in a forward direction.
72. The area in the semiconductor diode where there A. triggering voltage 84. The breakdown voltage of a junction diode will
are no charge carriers B. breakdown voltage ___________
A. depletion layer C. saturation voltage A. Increase as operating temperature
B. depletion region D. threshold voltage rises.
C. depletion mode ANSWER: D B. Increase exponentially as operating
D. depletion area temperature rises.
ANSWER: B 78. What will happen to the threshold voltage of the C. Decrease as operating temperature
diode when it operates at higher temperatures. rises.
73. Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor A. increases D. Not change as operating temperature
device where there are no charge carriers exist. B. increases exponentially rises.
This will be always near the junction of n-type C. decreases ANSWER: C
and p-type materials. What causes this junction D. decreases exponentially
to be depleted by charge carriers? ANSWER: C 85. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a
A. Due to the recombination of holes and germanium diode when it operates at 100 0C.
electrons at the junction 79. The forward current in a conducting diode will A. 0.113 V
B. Due to the cancellation of positively ______________ as the operating temperature B. 0.188 V
charge protons and negatively charge increases. C. 0.215 V
electrons A. not be affected D. 0.513 V
C. Due to the annihilation of charge B. decrease ANSWER: A
carriers C. decrease exponentially
D. Due to the combination of positively D. increase 86. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current
charge holes and negatively charge ANSWER: D of 50 nA at room temperature. If the operating
electrons temperature is raised by 50°C, what is now the
ANSWER: D 80. As the operating temperature of a reverse- reverse saturation current?
biased diode is increased, its leakage or reverse A. 105.56 nA
74. A junction diode is said to be forward-biased if saturation current will B. 287.73 nA
A. Anode is supplied more positive than A. Increase C. 827.89 nA
the cathode. B. increase exponentially D. 1.66 µA
B. Anode is supplied more negative than C. decrease ANSWER: D
the cathode. D. decrease exponentially
C. A voltage greater than threshold is ANSWER: B 87. In every increase of 10°C in the operating
applied, with cathode less positive than temperature of a diode will cause its reverse
anode. 81. The small value of direct current that flows when saturation current to
D. A voltage greater than threshold is a semiconductor device has reverse bias A. decrease
applied, with cathode less negative than A. surge current B. double
anode. B. bias current C. triple
ANSWER: C C. reverse current D. quadruple
D. current limit ANSWER: B
75. What do you call the very small amount of ANSWER: C
current that will flow in the diode when it is 88. What do you call the resistance of the diode
reverse biased? 82. Normally, diodes will not conduct when reverse- when operating at a steady state voltage?
A. saturation current biased, but if the reverse voltage is increased A. dc resistance
B. reverse saturation current further, a point will be reached where the diode B. dynamic resistance
C. cut-off current gives up and allowing the current to surge. This C. ac resistance
 D. average resistance C. depletion-region capacitance ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A D. diode capacitance
ANSWER: D 103. What is the most important specification for
89. The resistance of the diode that is significant semiconductor diode?
when operating with a small ac signal 96. What capacitance is significant when the diode is A. Forward resistance
A. dc resistance forward biased? B. Reverse resistance
B. static resistance A. diffusion capacitance or storage C. Peak inverse voltage
C. dynamic resistance capacitance D. Current capacity
D. average resistance B. transition capacitance ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C C. depletion-region capacitance
D. stray capacitance 104. What will happen to the power handling
90. When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the ANSWER: A capability of the diode if it is to be operated at a
resistance that is to be considered is higher temperature?
A. dc resistance 97. A diode that is especially designed to operate as A. decreases
B. static resistance a voltage-variable capacitor. It utilizes the B. increases
C. dynamic resistance junction capacitance of a semiconductor diode. C. increases exponentially
D. average resistance A. varactor D. will not be affected
ANSWER: D B. varicap ANSWER: A
C. varistor
91. At forward bias condition, what will happen to D. A and B are correct 105. Diode parameter that will inform the user as to
the diode resistance when the applied voltage is ANSWER: D what factor does the power handling capability of
increased? the diode is reduced as the operating
A. will also increase 98. The capacitance of a varactor will _______ when temperature is increased.
B. will increase exponentially the forward bias voltage is increased. A. power derating factor
C. will decrease A. increase B. power dissipating factor
D. will not change B. decrease C. power reduction constant
ANSWER: C C. exponentially decrease D. all of the above
D. not change ANSWER: A
92. The primary use of Zener diode in electronic ANSWER: A
circuits. 106. A certain diode has a maximum power
A. resistance regulator 99. The time taken by the diode to operate in the dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature and
B. rectifier reverse condition from forward conduction a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/°C.
C. voltage regulator A. reverse recovery time How much power the diode can handle if
D. current regulator B. forward recovery time operated at 50°C.
ANSWER: C C. reverse holding time A. 625 mW
D. reverse time constant B. 505 mW
93. What phenomenon in electronics does an ANSWER: A C. 495 mW
avalanche breakdown primarily dependent? D. 375 mW
A. Doping 100. In operating a diode at high-speed switching ANSWER: D
B. Recombination circuits, one of the most important parameters
C. Ionization to be considered is 107. A semiconductor device especially fabricated to
D. Collision A. ac resistance utilize the avalanche or zener breakdown region.
ANSWER: C B. diode capacitance This is normally operated in the reverse-region
C. noise figure and its application is mostly for voltage
94. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion D. reverse recovery time (trr) reference or regulation.
region widens, since it is in between positively ANSWER: D A. varactor diode
charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it B. zener diode
will have an effect of a capacitor, this 101. The time required for forward voltage or current C. shockley diode
capacitance is called what? to reach a specified value after switching the D. Schottky barrier diode
A. diffusion capacitance diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state. ANSWER: B
B. storage capacitance A. reverse recovery time
C. stray capacitance B. forward recovery time (tfr) 108. Refers to a special type of diode which is
D. transition capacitance C. saturation time capable of both amplification and oscillation.
ANSWER: D D. conduction time A. Junction diode
ANSWER: B B. Tunnel diode
95. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, C. Point contact diode
that is the capacitance between terminals and 102. The maximum power the diode can handle. D. Zener diode
electrodes, and the internal voltage variable A. maximum derating power ANSWER: B
capacitance of the junction is called B. maximum consumption power
A. diffusion capacitance C. breakdown power 109. The effect obtain when the electric field across
B. transition capacitance D. maximum dissipation power a semiconductor is strong enough which causes
 the free electrons to collide with valence B. IMPATT diode D. MITATT
electrons, thereby releasing more electrons and C. TRAPATT diode ANSWER: A
a cumulative multiplication of charge carriers D. all of the above
occur. ANSWER: D 122. A device containing more than one diode. An
A. Gunn example is the full-wave bridge-rectifier
116. What semiconductor diode that have a integrated circuit.
B. avalanche fine wire (called a cat-whisker) whose point is in A. diode array
C. tunneling permanent contact with the surface of a wafer of B. diode IC
D. diffusion semiconductor material such as silicon, C. diode pack
ANSWER: B germanium or gallium arsenide? D. combined diode
A. point-contact diode ANSWER: C
110. A negative resistance diode commonly used in B. diac
microwave oscillators and detectors, it is C. PiN diode 123. Is the combination of the inductance of the
sometimes used as amplifiers. This device is also D. thyrector leads and electrodes, capacitance of the
known as Esaki diode. ANSWER: A junction, and the resistance of the junction of a
A. varactor diode semiconductor diode.
B. Schottky diode 117. When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode A. diode impedance
is inserted with an intrinsic material, the diode B. diode ac resistance
C. IMPATT diode becomes a C. diode reactance
D. tunnel diode A. backward diode D. diode ac parameter
ANSWER: D B. Read diode ANSWER: A
C. Schokley diode
111. A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction D. PiN diode 124. In a reverse-biased pn junction, the sudden
A. Schottky barrier diode ANSWER: D large increase in current that occurs when a
B. surface barrier diode particular value of reversed voltage is reached,
118. A four layer semiconductor diode whose and which is due to ionization by the high
C. hot-carrier or hot-electron diode characteristic at the first quadrant is similar to intensity electric field in the depletion region.
D. all of the above are correct that of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). A. Zener effect
ANSWER: D A. Shockley diode B. Hall effect
B. thyrector C. breakdown voltage
112. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a C. Schottky diode D. ionization
specific form of quantum-mechanical bond D. diac ANSWER: A
structure of the material ANSWER: A
A. Gunn diode 125. The appearance of RF current oscillations in a
B. tunnel diode 119. A diode that is especially processed so that its dc-biased slab of n-type gallium arsenide in a
C. TRAPATT diode high-current flow takes place when the junction 3.3 kV electric field
D. backward diode is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel A. Gunn effect
ANSWER: A diode. B. Hall effect
A. Esaki diode C. Zener effect
113. One of the electronic semiconductor devices B. Read diode D. avalanche
known as diac, function as C. zener diode ANSWER: A
A. Four terminal multi-directional switch D. backward diode
B. Two terminal bi-directional switch ANSWER: D 126. The impedance presented by a junction
C. Two terminal unidirectional switch operating in its zener breakdown region.
D. Three terminal bi-directional switch 120. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high A. diode impedance
ANSWER: C resistance in both directions up to certain B. zener impedance
voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a C. breakdown impedance
114. Another name of a three-layer diode. This is low-resistance conducting state. It can be D. critical impedance
also considered as an ac diode. viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to- ANSWER: B
A. Shockley diode back in series.
B. thyrector A. bizener diode 127. A curve showing the relationship between the
C. thyristor B. diac voltage and the current of the diode at any given
D. diac C. thyristor temperature
ANSWER: D D. thyrector A. characteristic curve
ANSWER: D B. transfer curve
115. A diode whose negative resistance is dependent C. transfer characteristic curve
on the classical effects of phase shift introduced 121. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped D. all are correct
by the time lag between maximum field and n-type material as its drift region ANSWER: A
maximum avalanche current, and by the transit A. IMPATT diode
time through the device. B. TRAPATT diode 128. The line that is plotted in the diode
A. Read diode C. TUNNETT diode characteristic curve which represents the load
 A. linear line 0.6 V
C. ANSWER: B
B. operating line
0.3 V
D.
C. load line 141. Half-wave rectifier is a good example of
ANSWER: B
D. transfer load line A. a series clamper
ANSWER: C
135. A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium B. a parallel clamper
diode and is connected to a load resistor having C. a parallel clipper
129. Diode is said to be operating at a point where
a value of 20 kΩ and a forward supply voltage of
the characteristic curve and the load line
10 V. What is the approximate voltage across
D. a series clipper
intersect. This point is technically termed as ANSWER: D
the silicon diode?
A. Q-point A. 10 V 142. Which of the given circuit below must have a
B. operating point B. 1.0 V capacitor?
C. quiescent point C. 0.7 V A. rectifier
D. all are correct D. 0.3 V B. clipper
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D C. clamper
130. What will happen to the magnitude of the load-
136. What is the output voltage across a load
D. all of the above
line slope when the load resistance is decreased? ANSWER: C
resistor if it is paralleled with a forward biased
A. it will also decrease silicon diode? The resistor network is supplied
143. How many capacitors are used in a diode-
B. it will increase with 10 V.
capacitor half- wave voltage doubler?
C. it will increase exponentially A. 0.7 V A. 1
D. is not affected by the load B. 9.3 V B. 2
ANSWER: B C. 10 V C. 3
131. Quiescent or Q-point position is dependent on
D. Can’t be solve, lack of data. D. 4
ANSWER: A
A. the supply voltage ANSWER: B
B. the load resistance 137. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the
144. An improvement of a diode-capacitor half-wave
C. the type of diode input signal
voltage doubler is the full-wave doubler, this
D. all of the above A. clipper circuit uses how many capacitors?
ANSWER: D B. clamper A. 1
C. peak detector B. 2
132. A germanium diode is connected to a load
resistance of 1.5 kΩ and is supplied with 12-V
D. level shifter C. 3
ANSWER: A
such that the diode will be forward biased. What D. 4
is the voltage across the diode? ANSWER: B
138. A clipper circuit wherein the diode is connected
A. approximately 12 V in series with the load
145. In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler, what is
B. approximately 0.7 V A. series clipper the voltage across the third stage capacitor?
C. approximately 0.3 V B. parallel clipper A. Vmax
D. lack of data and can’t be solved C. shunt clipper B. 2 Vmax
ANSWER: C
D. series feed clipper C. 3 Vmax
ANSWER: A
133. What is the drop across the diode when it is D. 4 Vmax
connected in series to a resistor of 1.8 kΩ and a ANSWER: B
139. What do you call a clipper circuit wherein the
supply voltage of 50 V. The supply voltage
diode is shunted with the load?
causes the diode to be reverse-biased. 146. A combination of several diodes in a single
A. 50 V A. series clipper housing
B. 0.7 V B. parallel clipper A. diode array
C. 0.3 V C. cascade clipper B. diode network
D. can not be solve, lack of data
D. cascade clipper C. diode IC
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A D. diode matrix
ANSWER: A
140. A network with a diode and a capacitor that is
134. Two germanium diodes are connected in series
used to shift the dc-level of the input signal
and have a load resistance of 10 kΩ and a 147. A chopper, employing an alternately biased
forward supply voltage of 5 V. Calculate the A. clipper diodes as the switching element.
voltage across the load resistor. B. clamper A. diode chopper
A. 4.7 V C. shifter B. active chopper
B. 4.4 V D. level inverter C. junction chopper
 D. all are correct emitter to collector
C. 159. A transistor in which the base is diffused and
ANSWER: A the emitter is alloyed. The collector is provided
base to emitter
D. by the semiconductor substrate into which
ANSWER: C
148. A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a alloying and diffusion are affected.
circuit with a supply voltage of 5 V. What should 154. A three terminal, three layer semiconductor A. alloy-transistor
be the value of the resistor needed by the LED to device that has the ability to multiply charge B. alloy-diffused transistor
operate normally? carriers. This device was first introduced at Bell C. alloy junction transistor
A. 25 Ω Laboratories, by Brattain and Bardeen in 1947
D. diffused junction transistor
B. 250 Ω and which opens a completely new direction of
ANSWER: B
interest and development in the field of
C. 25 kΩ electronics.
D. 250 kΩ 160. A transistor whose junctions are created by
ANSWER: B
A. triode alloying
B. triac A. alloy transistor
149. A simple voltage-regulator whose output is the C. SCR B. alloy-diffused transistor
constant voltage drop developed across a zener D. transistor
diode conducting in the reverse breakdown
C. diffused transistor
ANSWER: D
region. The regulator circuit consists of a zener D. alloy junction
diode in parallel with the load and an appropriate ANSWER: A
155. An active semiconductor device, capable of
limiting resistor. amplification, oscillation, and switching action. It
161. In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction
A. ordinary voltage regulator is an acronym for transfer resistor and had
formed by alloying a suitable material such as
B. zener voltage regulator replaced the tube in most applications.
indium with the semiconductor.
C. series voltage regulator A. thyristor A. alloy junction
D. switching voltage regulator B. thyrector B. diffused junction
ANSWER: B C. SBS C. depletion junction
D. transistor D. storage junction
150. Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic ANSWER: D
element and a transistor acts as an inverting ANSWER: A
amplifier. 156. Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes
162. A transistor in which one or both electrodes are
A. RTL because it has several obvious advantages, what
created by diffusion
B. DTL are they?
A. smaller, lightweight and rugged A. diffused transistor
C. HDTL B. alloy transistor
construction
D. ECL C. planar transistor
ANSWER: B B. no heater loss, low operating voltage
and therefore efficient D. mesa transistor
151. What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in two C. low power consumption and low power ANSWER: A
arms and resistors in the other two? dissipation
163. A two-junction transistor whose construction
A. full-wave bridge D. all of the above takes the form of a pnp or a npn. Such device
B. half-wave bridge ANSWER: D
uses both electron and hole conduction and is
C. half-bridge 157. Which of the three regions/areas in a transistor
current-driven.
D. full bridge that is the smallest in construction? A. bipolar transistor
ANSWER: C B. unipolar transistor
A. emitter
152. An over-voltage protection circuit employing a B. collector C. bi-directional transistor
zener diode and an SCR whose function is to C. base D. double junction transistor
produce high overload by-pass current on a ANSWER: A
D. all are equal
circuit. ANSWER: C
164. The predecessor of the junction transistor, and
A. regulator is characterized by a current amplification factor,
B. current enhancer 158. The region or area in a transistor that is heavily
alpha of greater than one.
doped
C. crowbar A. surface-charge transistor
D. shunted zener A. at the junction
B. emitter B. surface-barrier transistor
ANSWER: C
C. collector C. schottky transistor
153. The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when D. base D. point-contact transistor
used in electronic circuit is from _______. ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B
A. collector to base 165. For a transistor, the outer layers are
B. collector to base
 A.lightly doped semiconductors D. A and B above A.npn and pnp
B.heavily doped semiconductors ANSWER: A B.pnp and npn
C.no doping at all C.npn only
172. The minority-current component of a transistor
D.A and B above is called D.pnp only
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
A. leakage current
166. The ratio of the total width of the outer layers B. emitter current 179. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IB are
to that of the center layer C. cut-off current related by a quantity called
A. 100:1 D. all of the above A. α
B. 150:5 ANSWER: A B. β
C. 150:1 173. For general-purpose transistors, IC is measured
C. γ
D. 1:150 in ____, while ICO is measured in ____. D. A and B above
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
A. micro and nanoamperes
167. The ratio of the doping level of the outer layers B. milliamperes and microamperes 180. For practical transistor devices, the level of β
to that of the sandwiched material C. milliamperes and nanoamperes typically ranges
A. 10:3 or more D. b and c above A. from about 25 to over 400
B. 10:2 or more ANSWER: D B. less than 1
C. 10:3 174. Is temperature sensitive, and can severely
C. mostly in midrange of 50 to 400
D. 10:1 or less affect the stability of the system, when not D. A or C above
ANSWER: D carefully examined during design ANSWER: C

168. Limiting the number of “free” carriers will

A. IC 181. The formal name of βac
A. increase the conductivity but decreases B. ICO A. Common-collector reverse-current
the resistance C. IS amplification factor
B. decrease the conductivity but increases D. IE B. Common-collector forward-current
the resistance ANSWER: B amplification factor
C. increase the conductivity as well as 175. For the transistor, the arrow in the graphic
C. Common-emitter forward-current
resistivity amplification factor
symbol defines the direction of _______ through
D. decrease the conductivity as well as the device D. Common-emitter reverse-current
resistivity amplification factor
ANSWER: B
A. leakage current flow ANSWER: C
B. emitter electron flow
169. The term ________ reflects the fact that holes C. majority carrier flow 182. It is a particularly important parameter that
and electrons participate in the injection process D. emitter conventional current flow provides a direct link between current levels of
into the oppositely polarized material. ANSWER: D the input and output circuits for a common-
A. unipolar emitter configuration.
B. bipolar 176. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due to A. α
the majority carriers are related by the quantity B. β
C. tetrode
D. pentode A. alpha (α) C. A and B above
ANSWER: B B. beta (β) D. none of the above
C. gamma (γ) ANSWER: B
170. What device, that employs only electron or D. A and B above
hole? ANSWER: A 183. The _______ id defined as that area below IC=
A. unipolar ICEO.
B. bipolar 177. In the ac mode, alpha α is formally called A. active region
C. tetrode A. common-base, short-circuit, B. cutoff region
amplification factor C. saturation region
D. pentode
ANSWER: A B. common-emitter, amplification factor D. none of the above
C. common-collector, amplification factor ANSWER: B
171. At forward-biased junction of pnp transistor, D. all of the above are correct
majority carriers flow heavily ANSWER: A 184. It is referred to as the communication link
A. from p- to the n-type material between the manufacturer and user
B. from n- to the p-type material 178. Phrases “not pointing in” and “pointing in” A. specification sheet
simply mean B. characteristic manual
C. from p- to p-type material
 C.characteristic curve D. all of the above both reverse-biased
A.
D.all of the above ANSWER: C forward and reverse-biased
B.
ANSWER: D both forward-biased
C.
191. It is applied to any system where levels have
reached their maximum values reverse and forward-biased
D.
185. The information that can be found in most
ANSWER: C
specification sheets? A. saturation
A. maximum ratings B. active 198. If the base-emitter junction is reverse biased
B. thermal characteristics C. cutoff and the base-collector junction is forward biased,
C. electrical characteristics D. quiescent point the transistor will be at what region of
ANSWER: A operation?
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D A. active region
192. For an “on” transistor, the voltage VBE should be B. cut-off region
186. With an ohmmeter, a large or small resistance in the neighborhood of
C. saturation region
in either junction of an npn or pnp transistor A. 0.3 V D. breakdown region
indicates B. 0.55 V ANSWER: B
A. faulty device C. 0.7 V
B. well functioning device D. 1.7 V 199. Under what region does the transistor operate if
C. leaky device ANSWER: C both the base-emitter and base-collector
junctions are reverse-biased?
D. either A or C
ANSWER: A 193. Among the three characteristics of a transistor A. active region
amplifier, which region is normally employed for B. cut-off region
187. At base-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if linear (undistorted) amplifiers?
C. saturation region
the positive (+) lead is connected to the base A. active region D. breakdown region
and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low B. cutoff region ANSWER: B
resistance reading would indicate
C. saturation region
A. npn transistor D. capital region 200. What region the transistor should be operating
B. pnp transistor ANSWER: A to have minimum distortion at the output signal?
C. germanium transistor A. active region
D. silicon transistor 194. In the active region, the collector-base junction B. cut-off region
ANSWER: A is ________, while the base-emitter junction is
________.
C. saturation region
188. At base-emitter junction, if the positive (+) A. forward and forward-biased D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
lead is connected to the base and the negative (- B. forward and reverse-biased
) lead to the emitter, a high resistance reading
would indicate
C. reverse and reverse biased 201. In dc biasing, it means quiet, still, inactive

A. npn transistor D. reverse and forward-biased A. passive

ANSWER: D B. quench
B. pnp transistor
C. germanium transistor 195. It is necessary, in order to establish the proper
C. static
D. silicon transistor region of operation for ac amplification. D. quiescent
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B A. ac biasing
B. dc biasing 202. The transistor terminal that handles most
189. Transistors of heavy duty construction
C. A and B above current
A. high-power devices D. none of the above A. base
B. low-power devices ANSWER: B B. collector
C. medium-power devices C. emitter
D. all of the above 196. At cutoff region, the collector-base and base-
ANSWER: A emitter junctions of a transistor are D. collector and emitter
ANSWER: C
A. both reverse-biased
190. On a voltage-current condition curve, the point B. forward and reverse-biased 203. Which indicates the degree of change, in
belong to which a further increase in voltage
produces no (or very little) further increase in
C. both forward-biased operating-point due to temperature variation in
D. reverse and forward-biased the dc biasing?
current.
A. saturation flux ANSWER: A A. temperature coefficient
B. saturation value B. factor of safety
197. In saturation region, the collector-base and
C. saturation point base-emitter junctions of a transistor are
C. merit factor
 D. stability factor 210. The most correct technical term of the reverse D.unity gain bandwidth product or unity
ANSWER: D leakage current that flows between the collector current gain bandwidth product
and base junctions when the emitter is open ANSWER: D
204. What best describes the transistor current that circuited.
flows between the collector and emitter A. leakage current 216. When base is common to both the input and
terminals when the base is open? B. saturation current output sides of the configuration and is usually
A. leakage current the terminal closes to, or at ground potential, it
C. reverse saturation current is called what?
B. cut-off current D. cut-off current
C. reverse saturation current ANSWER: C
A. common-emitter terminology
D. all of the above B. common-collector terminology
ANSWER: B 211. How is the collector cut-off or reverse C. common-base terminology
saturation current ICBO related to the emitter cut- D. all of the these
205. Solve for the base current if collector current is off current IEBO? ANSWER: C
600 mA and the current gain is 20. A. ICBO  β IEBO p
A. 30 mA B. ICBO  IEBO/β 217. Which transistor configuration has the highest
input resistance?
B. 3 mA C. ICBO  IEBO(1-α)
A. common base
C. 12 mA ICBO
D.  IEBO
D. 1.2 mA ANSWER: D B. common emitter
ANSWER: A C. common collector
212. ICBO of an ideal transistor D. common transistor
206. When the transistor is saturated, VCE is A. increases as temperature increases ANSWER: C
approximately B. increases as temperature decreases
A. 0 V 218. One of the following amplifier characteristic
C. is not affected by a temperature change refers to that of a common-base (C-B) as
B. ½ VCC D. is zero (0) mA compared to common-emitter (C-E) and
C. VCC ANSWER: D common-collector (C-C) amplifiers.
D. infinite A. Has larger current gain
ANSWER: A 213. The maximum voltage that can be applied
across the collector-emitter terminal for a given B. Has lower input resistance
207. Collector-emitter resistance of ideal transistor transistor is specified as C. Has higher input resistance
at cut-off A. VCEO D. Has larger voltage gain
A. 0 Ω B. VECO ANSWER: B
B. infinite C. V(BR)BEO 219. A transistor is said to be configured as common
C. a function of the load resistance D. V(BR)CEO emitter if the emitter terminal is
D. a function of the collector current ANSWER: D A. grounded
ANSWER: B
214. If the current-gain-bandwidth product of B. connected to V+
208. The leakage current that flows at the collector- transistor is 250 MHz and is operated at 100 C. floating
base junction when the emitter is open MHz, what is the effective current gain of the D. not used as an input nor output
A. ICO transistor? ANSWER: D
B. ICBO A. 2.5
B. 25 220. Most frequently used transistor configuration
C. ICEO for pnp and npn
D. ICBE C. 250
A. common-base
ANSWER: B D. 350
ANSWER: A B. common-collector
209. A transistor with β = 100 is connected as C. common-emitter
common base, was found to have a leakage 215. The current gain of a transistor decreases as D. A and C above
current ICBO = 1µA. If the transistor is configured the operating frequency increases. As the ANSWER: C
as common emitter, what is the approximate operating frequency is increased continuously, a
value of its ICEO? point occurs where the current gain becomes 221. Calculate the common-emitter amplification
A. 0.01 µA unity. This point, is best described by what factor β of a transistor with a common-base
transistor parameter? amplification factor α=0.99.
B. 1.0 µA
C. 100 µA A. unity gain frequency A. 10
D. 10 mA B. 0 dB frequency B. 50
ANSWER: C C. cut-off frequency C. 100
D. 200
 ANSWER: C 228. Common-base configuration has a high voltage 234. Another difference between a BJT and a FET
gain and a current gain of with regards to its normal biasing.
222. Which transistor configuration hybrid A. low A. The input circuit is forward-biased for
parameters, that is usually specified by the BJT while reverse for FET.
manufacturers?
B. moderate
C. high B. The input circuit is reverse-biased for
A. for common-base BJT while forward for FET.
B. for common-collector D. approximately equal to one (1)
ANSWER: D C. The output circuit is forward-biased for
C. for common-emitter BJT while reverse for FET.
D. a combination of the three 229. Common-collector has the lowest power gain D. The output circuit is reverse-biased for
configurations and a voltage gain of approximately one. In BJT while forward for FET.
ANSWER: C contrast to this, what configuration has the ANSWER: A
highest power gain?
223. For a common-emitter transistor configuration, A. common-base 235. Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high input
the hybrid parameter hfe stands for forward impedance than BJT. What makes FETs have
transfer current ratio. This parameter is
B. common-collector high input impedance?
approximately equal to C. common-emitter A. The way FETs are constructed.
A. HFE D. emitter follower B. Because of the materials used.
ANSWER: C
B. βac C. Due to the level of doping
C. β 230. Which of the following transistor characteristic D. Due to the reverse-biased input circuit
D. all of the above curves that is most useful? of FETs
ANSWER: D A. input characteristic curve ANSWER: D

224. Hybrid parameter that is usually neglected in

B. output characteristic curve 236. The operation of BJT involves both the flow of
circuit analysis C. transfer characteristic curve electrons and holes and is therefore, considered
A. hi and ho D. all of the above as a bipolar device. Unlike BJT, FET’s operation
ANSWER: B involves only either electrons or holes and is
B. hr and hf considered as a _________ device.
C. hi and hf 231. The graph of the product of collector-emitter A. single polar
D. hr and ho voltage VCE and collector current IC in the
B. unipolar
ANSWER: D transistor output characteristic curve.
A. maximum power curve C. unpolar
225. The input impedance of a common-base
B. minimum power curve D. polarized
configuration is hib, and its magnitude is ANSWER: B
approximately equal to C. saturation power curve
A. hie/hfe D. breakdown curve 237. Considered as the basic FET or the simplest
ANSWER: A form of FET
B. hie/(1+β)
C. re for dynamic model A. JFET
232. The base of a transistor serves a purpose to
D. all of these what element of the FET?
B. MOS-FET
ANSWER: D A. source C. IGFET
B. ground D. VMOS-FET
226. In most transistor input equivalent circuit it ANSWER: A
comprises of a resistor and a C. substrate
A. voltage source D. gate 238. Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three
ANSWER: D terminals, which corresponds to the E-B-C of the
B. stiff voltage source BJT?
C. current source 233. What is the primary difference between the BJT A. D-S-G
D. stiff current source and the FET?
B. D-G-S
ANSWER: A A. current-controlled device and voltage-
controlled device, respectively
C. S-G-D
227. Which transistor configuration has the highest
B. voltage-controlled device and current- D. S-D-G
input resistance? ANSWER: C
controlled device, respectively
A. common-base C. impedance transformed device and 239. One obvious advantage of a JFET over BJT is its
B. common-collector conductance transformed device,
C. common-emitter respectively
A. high voltage gain
D. emitter follower D. A and C above are correct B. high current gain
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A C. high input resistance
D. high output resistance
 ANSWER: C output characteristic curve
B. 252. What is the insulator used in most MOS-FET?
input characteristic curve
C. A. CO2
240. A BJT is a current-controlled current-source
device while JFET is a _________ device. current-voltage characteristic curve
D. B. SiO2
A. current-controlled voltage-source ANSWER: D C. mica
B. voltage-controlled voltage-source D. plastic
247. In FET, the conduction path of the output is ANSWER: B
C. voltage-controlled current-source controlled by the electric field as its name
D. voltage-controlled transconductance- implies. How does an electric field in FET 253. An n-channel JFET has a drain-source
source established? saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gate-
ANSWER: C A. By the charges present at the gate due source pinch-off voltage Vp = -4 V. If the applied
to the reverse-biased junction. reverse gate-source voltage VGS = 2 V, calculate
241. What do you call the area in a JFET where B. By the application of reverse-biased the drain current ID.
current passes as it flows from source (S) to between the gate and drain. A. 2.5 mA
drain (D).
C. By the charges produced due to the B. 5.0 mA
A. channel applied potential between drain and C. 10.0 mA
B. substrate source VDS.
D. 22.5 mA
C. depletion D. By the charges present at each terminal ANSWER: A
D. drift due to the applied potential.
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A 254. Base from Shockley’s equation of a JFET, what
is the drain current when the applied voltage VGS
242. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as 248. An early version of the field effect transistor in is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage Vp?
current flows to it? which limited control of current carriers near the
surface of a semiconductor bar or film was
A. IDSS
A. widens obtained by an external electric field applied B. maximum
B. narrows transversely. C. minimum
C. skews A. fieldistor D. zero
D. nothing B. JFET ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
C. IGFET 255. The transconductance of a JFET is defined as
243. For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, D. MOSFET A. dID/dVGS
how do you bias the gate-source junction? ANSWER: A
B. dVGS/dID
A. positive-negative respectively 249. A FET in which the gate electrode consists of a C. dIDSS/dVGS
B. negative-positive respectively pn junction D. dID/dVp
C. forward-biased A. JFET ANSWER: A
D. any of the above B. fieldistor
ANSWER: B 256. A field-effect transistor in which the gate
C. MOS-FET electrode is not a pn junction (as in the junction
244. The voltage across the gate-source terminal of D. IGFET field-effect transistor) but a thin metal film
a FET that causes drain current ID equal to zero. ANSWER: A insulated from the semiconductor channel by a
A. saturation voltage thin oxide film.
250. Which type of FET has the lowest input
B. threshold voltage resistance?
A. MOSFET (enhancement type)
C. cut-off voltage A. JFET B. MOSFET (depletion type)
D. pinch-off voltage B. MOS-FET C. IGFET
ANSWER: D
C. IGFET D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
245. The current that flows into the channel of a D. VMOSFET
JFET when the gate-source voltage is zero. ANSWER: A 257. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the
A. drain-source saturation current device will be constructed and is formed from a
251. In order to increase further the input resistance silicon base
B. drain-source cut-off current of a FET, its gate is insulated. An example of this
C. drain-source leakage current type is the
A. substrate
D. drain-source pinch-off current A. fieldistor B. slab
ANSWER: A B. JFET C. source
C. MOS-FET D. base
246. The graph of the drain current ID versus drain- ANSWER: A
source voltage VDS with VGS as the parameter. D. A and B above
ANSWER: C
A. transfer characteristic curve
258. A type of MOSFET wherein originally there is no 270. One drawback of JFET devices is the strong
channel between the drain and the source 264. To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET dependence of the devices’ parameters on the
A. depletion type depletion type, the gate voltage should be channel geometry. Which parameter is an
________ with respect to the source. example of this?
B. enhancement type
C. break type A. the same A. drain saturation current (IDSS)
D. insulated type B. positive B. pinch-off voltage (VP)
ANSWER: B C. negative C. transconductance (gm)
D. either positive or negative as long as it D. all of the above
259. What type of MOSFET whose channel is is greater ANSWER: D
originally thick but narrows as the proper gate ANSWER: B
bias is applied? 271. JFET cutoff frequency is dependent on channel
A. enhancement 265. The substrate used in a p-channel IGFET length by a factor of
enhancement type A. 1/L
B. depletion
C. transverse A. n -type material B. 1/L2
D. all of the above B. n+ -type material C. 1/L3
ANSWER: B C. p -type material D. 1/L4
D. p+ -type material ANSWER: B
260. The amount of voltage needed at the gate- ANSWER: A
source terminal for an enhancement type 272. Which FET operates as close as BJT in terms of
MOSFET so that a channel can be formed for the 266. The base material of a MOSFET which extends switching?
current to flow. as an additional terminal A. JFET
A. “ON” voltage A. source (S) B. MOSFET depletion type
B. pinch-off voltage B. channel (C) C. MOSFET enhancement type
C. threshold voltage C. drain (D) D. IGFET
D. trigger voltage D. substrate (SS) ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
273. Generally, MOSFET has low power handling
261. To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the 267. Which FET that has a substrate? capability than BJT. To increase MOSFET power,
channel should be depleted. Depletion of the A. MOSFET enhancement type the channel should be made
channel is done by applying enough voltage A. narrow and long
across the gate-source terminal. What do you
B. IGFET
call this voltage? C. MOSFET depletion type B. narrow and short
A. pinch-off voltage D. all of the above C. wide and long
B. trigger voltage ANSWER: D D. wide and short
ANSWER: D
C. holding voltage 268. What is the difference between a JFET and a
D. threshold voltage MOSFET? 274. Which FET has a wide and short effective
ANSWER: A A. The gate of a MOSFET is insulated. channel?
B. MOSFET uses a substrate in its A. JFET
262. The substrate of a MOSFET is usually connected
internally to
construction. B. MOSFET
A. source C. MOSFET can work in both forward and C. IGFET
reverse gate-source voltages. D. V-MOSFET
B. gate D. all of the above ANSWER: D
C. drain ANSWER: D
D. channel 275. A type of FET wherein the channel is formed in
ANSWER: A 269. Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel the vertical direction rather than horizontal
MOSFET enhancement type if the gate-source A. JFET
263. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold voltage VT = -4
the gate voltage should be ________ with and a constant k = 0.3 mA/V2.
B. MOSFET
respect to the source in order to produce or A. 1.2 mS C. IGFET
enhance a channel.
B. 2.4 mS D. V-MOSFET
A. the same ANSWER: D
C. 3.6 mS
B. positive D. 7.2 mS 276. Advantage or advantages of V-MOS over BJT
C. negative ANSWER: B A. No stored charge and therefore faster in
D. either positive or negative switching action.
ANSWER: B
 A negative temperature dependence of
B. ANSWER: A
output current which eliminates thermal TEST4.
runaway. 7. A full 360° sine-wave signal is applied as an
1. What do you call an amplifier which has an input to an unknown class of amplifier, if the
C. High input impedance and therefore output delivers only a pulse of less than 180°, of
high current gain. output current flowing during the whole input
current cycle? what class does this amplifier belongs?
D. all of the above A. class AB
ANSWER: D A. class AB amplifier
B. class B amplifier B. class B
277. In general, which of the transistors is C. class A amplifier C. class C
particularly more useful in integrated-circuit (IC) D. class D
chips?
D. class C amplifier
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
A. BJTs
B. FETs 2. Class A amplifier can be built from what 8. Which class of amplifiers that is intended for
transistor configuration? pulse operation?
C. UJTs
D. all of the above A. common base A. class B
ANSWER: B B. common emitter B. class C
C. common collector C. class D
278. A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying device D. class S
in which a high-impedance GATE electrode
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
controls the flow of current carriers through a
thin bar of semiconductor called the CHANNEL. 9. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify
3. If a transistor amplifier provides a 360° output
Ohmic connections made to the ends of the either amplitude modulated (AM) or frequency
signal, it is classified as
channel constitute SOURCE and DRAIN modulated (FM) signals?
electrodes. A. class A
B. class B A. class C
A. BJT B. class BC
B. UJT C. class C
D. class D C. class D
C. FET D. class S
ANSWER: A
D. UPT ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
4. An amplifier that delivers an output signal of
180° only. 10. Which class of amplifiers that has the highest
279. A junction field effect transistor has a drain efficiency?
saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off A. class A
voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum B. class B A. class A
transconductance. C. class AB B. class B
A. 2.5 mS D. class D C. class C
B. 5.0 mS ANSWER: B D. class D
ANSWER: D
C. 25.0 mS
5. A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal
D. 50.0 mS swings more than 180° but less than 360°. 11. What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A
ANSWER: B amplifier?
A. class A
280. In semiconductor application, which of the B. class B A. 25%
following statement is not true? C. class C B. 50%
A. An ohmmeter test across the base- D. class AB C. 78.5%
collector terminal of a transistor should ANSWER: D D. above 90%
show low resistance in one polarity and ANSWER: A
high resistance in the opposite polarity. 6. What is the distinguishing feature of a class C
B. A triac is a bidirectional device. amplifier? 12. A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%,
but this can be increased if the output is coupled
C. An ohmmeter test across a diode shows A. Output is present for less than 180 with a transformer. Up to how much is its
low resistance in one polarity and high degrees of the input signal cycle
efficiency will reach due to coupling?
resistance in the opposite polarity. B. Output is present for the entire signal
D. An ohmmeter test across the base- cycle
A. 36.5%
collector of a transistor should show low C. Output is present for exactly 180 B. 50%
resistance for both polarities. degrees of the input signal cycle C. 68.5%
ANSWER: D D. 78.5%
D. Output is present for more than 180
degrees but less than 60 degrees of the ANSWER: B
input signal cycle
13. Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of D. At the saturation point class B
B.
180° and have a maximum efficiency of ANSWER: A class C
C.
A. 50% class A or B
D.
B. 68.5% 19. In most transistor class A amplifiers, the
ANSWER: D
quiescent point is set at
C. 78.55
D. above 90% A. near saturation 26. What do you call an amplifier that is biased to
ANSWER: C B. near cutoff class C but modulates over the same portion of
C. below cutoff the curve as if it were biased to class B?
14. Transistorized class C power amplifiers will D. at the center A. class S
usually have an efficiency of ANSWER: D B. class D
A. 25% C. class AB
B. 33% 20. For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Q-
point is set at
D. class BC
C. 50% ANSWER: D
D. 78.5% A. the top of the load line
ANSWER: B B. saturation 27. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one
C. the center amplifies the positive cycle and the other
15. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both
D. cutoff output signals are then coupled by a transformer
mostly used. How efficient is a class D amplifier? ANSWER: D
to the load.
A. about 25% efficient
B. less efficient than class B 21. The Q-point for class A amplifier is at the active A. transformer-coupled push –pull
region, while for class B it is at cutoff region, amplifier
C. more efficient than class A but less how about for class AB? B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
efficient than class B
D. its efficiency reaches over 90% A. it is slightly below saturation C. quasi-complementary push-pull
B. it is slightly above cutoff amplifier
ANSWER: D
C. it is slightly above saturation D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
16. An amplifier of class AB means its output signal ANSWER: A
D. it is at the saturation region
is between the output of class B and A, such that ANSWER: B
it varies from 180° (class B) to 360° (class A). 28. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp
How about its efficiency? transistors to amplify the positive and negative
22. Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier
cycles respectively.
A. Efficiency of class AB is in between the positioned?
efficiency of class A and B, that is from A. at saturation region A. transformer-coupled push –pull
25% - 78.5%. amplifier
B. at active region B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
B. It is always as efficient as class A C. at cutoff region
(25%). C. quasi-complementary push-pull
C. It is always as efficient as class B D. below cutoff region amplifier
ANSWER: D
(78.5%) D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
D. The efficiency of class AB is the average ANSWER: B
23. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or
of the efficiencies of both class A and positioned at what region in the load line?
class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 = 51.75% 29. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp
ANSWER: A
A. below saturation as its final stage. The circuit configuration looks
B. above cutoff like the complementary-symmetry.
17. Among the given amplifiers below, which is the C. at cutoff A. transformer-coupled push –pull
most efficient? D. any of the above amplifier
A. class A (series-fed) ANSWER: D B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
B. class A (transformer-coupled) C. quasi-complementary push-pull
24. Which of the amplifiers given below that is amplifier
C. class A (directly-coupled) considered as non-linear?
D. class A (capacitor-coupled) D. feed-back pair amplifier
ANSWER: B
A. class A ANSWER: C
B. class B
18. In order to have the best efficiency and stability, C. class AB 30. Amplifiers conversion efficiency are calculated
where at the loadline should a solid state power D. class C using what formula?
amplifier be operated? ANSWER: D A. ac-power/dc-power
A. Just below the saturation point B. ac-power/dissipated power
B. At 1.414 times the saturation point 25. Which amplifiers can be used for linear C. dc-power/ac-power
amplification?
C. Just above the saturation point D. A or B are correct
A. class A ANSWER: D
 37. Which of the following refers to the gain of a D. complementary amplifier
31. Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least circuit? ANSWER: B
distortion? A. Input quantity of an amplifier divided by
A. class A the output quantity. 43. Famous transistor amplifier configuration
B. class B B. The difference between the input designed to eliminate the so called Miller effect.
C. class C voltage and the output voltage of a A. cascode amplifier
circuit. B. darlington amplifier
D. class D
ANSWER: A C. The ratio of the output quantity to input C. differential amplifier
quantity of an amplifier.
D. complementary-symmetry
32. A type of distortion wherein the output signal D. The total increase in output quality over ANSWER: A
does not have the desired linear relation to the the input quantity of an amplifier.
input. ANSWER: C 44. What are the transistor configurations used in a
A. linear distortion cascade amplifier?
38. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is
B. nonlinear distortion A. common-base and common-emitter
C. cross-over distortion A. the sum B. common-base and common-collector
D. all of the above B. the average of each C. common-collector and common-emitter
ANSWER: B C. the product D. common-emitter and common-base
D. 100% the sum ANSWER: D
33. Distortion that is due to the inability of an ANSWER: C
amplifier to amplify equally well all the 45. Transistor configuration known to have a super-
frequencies present at the input signal. 39. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in beta (β2).
A. nonlinear distortion cascade, how much is the overall gain?
A. cascade
B. amplitude distortion A. 72 B. cascode
C. harmonic distortion B. 24 C. darlington
D. cross-over distortion C. 512 D. differential
ANSWER: B D. 8 ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
34. A nonlinear distortion in which the output 46. What is the approximate threshold voltage
consists of undesired harmonic frequencies of 40. A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a between the base-emitter junction of a silicon
the input signal. conventional series manner, the output of one darlington transistor?
A. amplitude distortion stage is forward-coupled to the next stage.
A. 0.3 V
B. frequency distortion A. cascaded amplifier B. 0.6 V
C. cross-over distortion B. cascoded amplifier C. 1.6 V
D. harmonic distortion C. darlington configuration D. 3.0 V
ANSWER: D D. feed-back pair configuration ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A
35. Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an 47. Transistor arrangement that operates like a
output signal having a fundamental amplitude of 41. A direct-coupled two-stage transistor darlington but uses a combination of pnp and
3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V. configuration wherein the output of the firs npn transistors instead of both npn.
A. 1.0% transistor is directly coupled and amplified by
the second transistor. This configuration gives a
A. differential
B. 10% very high current gain. B. common
C. 23.33% A. cascade configuration C. cascode
D. 43.33% B. cascode configuration D. feedback pair
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
C. darlington configuration
36. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic D. feed-back pair 48. An amplifier basically constructed from two
distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% and D4=1%. ANSWER: C transistors and whose output is proportional to
What is the amplifier % THD? the difference between the voltages applied to
A. 5.33% 42. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the its two inputs.
output collector of the first stage provides input
B. 11.22% to the emitter of the second stage. The final
A. differential amplifier
C. 16.0% output is then taken from the collector of the B. cascode amplifier
D. 22.11% second stage. C. complementary amplifier
ANSWER: B A. cascade configuration D. quasi-complementary amplifier
B. cascode configuration ANSWER: A
C. quasi-complementary
49. An amplifier having high direct-current stability B.differencing 62. Why do most op-amps use a common collector
and high immunity to oscillation, this is initially at the output stage?
C.delta amp
used to perform analog-computer functions such A. to have a higher output power
as summing and integrating. D.cascode-amp
ANSWER: A B. to have a better frequency response
A. operational amplifier (op-amp) C. to have a low harmonic distortion
B. parametric amplifier (par-amp) 56. In op-amps functional block diagram, what D. to have a very low output resistance
C. instrumentation amplifier follows the differential amplifier? ANSWER: D
D. DC-amplifier A. cascode-amplifier
ANSWER: A B. complementary amplifier 63. The stage followed by the output complementary
in op-amps functional block diagram.
50. One of the most versatile and widely used
C. level shifter
D. high gain amplifier A. level shifter
electronic device in linear applications.
ANSWER: D B. phase shifter
A. SCR C. current mirror
B. FET 57. A good op-amp has a D. polarizer
C. UJT A. very high input resistance ANSWER: A
D. op-amp B. very low input resistance
ANSWER: D 64. What is the purpose of a level shifter in op-
C. very high output resistance amps?
51. It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with D. very low CMRR A. to set and/or adjust the output voltage
very high input impedance and very low output ANSWER: A
to zero when the input signal is zero
impedance.
58. Ideally, op-amps have infinite input resistance B. to set and/or adjust the input offset
A. par-amp and ________ output resistance. voltage to zero
B. op-amp A. infinite C. to shift the input offset current to zero
C. differential amp B. zero D. all of the above
D. complementary amp C. variable ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
D. a highly stabilized 65. Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar
52. What are the possible applications of operational ANSWER: B power supply, however, we can also use single
amplifiers (op-amps)? polarity power supply by
59. How does the input of an op-amp made high?
A. ac and dc-amplifiers A. generating a reference voltage above
B. oscillators and signal conditioning A. by using super beta transistor at the ground.
input differential stage
C. voltage-level detectors and comparators B. “floating” the negative supply terminal
B. by using FETs at the input differential (V-) of the op-amp.
D. all of the above stage
ANSWER: D C. simply connecting the negative supply
C. by connecting a very high resistance in terminal (V-) of the op-amp to ground.
series with the input differential stage
53. An operational amplifier must have at least how D. isolating the negative supply terminal
many usable terminals? D. A and B above (V-) by a capacitor.
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
A. 3 terminals
B. 5 terminals 60. What type of amplifier commonly used at the 66. Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the
C. 8 terminals output stage of op-amps? inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs. What
D. 14 terminals A. differential amplifier is the significance of its name?
ANSWER: B B. cascade-amplifier A. If a sine-wave is applied to the inverting
C. complementary amplifier (-) input, the output will be inverted or
54. The circuit at the input stage of operational shifted by 180°, while if applied to the
amplifiers D. darlington stage amplifier
ANSWER: C non-inverting (+) there will be no phase
A. differential amplifier shift at the output.
B. cascaded amplifier 61. The transistor configuration used at the output B. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-)
C. current mirror complementary stage of most op-amps input, the positive pulse becomes
D. complementary amplifier A. cascode configuration negative at the output and vice versa,
ANSWER: A while if applied at the non-inverting
B. common emitter (+) there will be no reversal of the
55. An amplifier whose output is proportional to the
C. common collector pulse at the output.
difference between the voltages applied to its D. common base C. In dc amplifier applications, increasing
two inputs. ANSWER: C input at the inverting (-) terminal
A. differential amplifier causes the output to decrease and vice
versa, while at the non-inverting (+)
 input, the output magnitude goes with 73. The ratio of the differential gain and common
the input. gain of an op-amp 79. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to
D. all of these are correct A. differential-common mode ratio operate it normally
ANSWER: D B. common-mode ratio A. input bias current
C. differential-mode rejection ratio B. input offset current
67. When the same signal is applied to both
inverting and non-inverting input terminals of an D. common-mode rejection ratio C. input threshold current
ideal op-amp, the output voltage would be ANSWER: D D. input holding current
ANSWER: A
A. zero (0) V 74. An operational amplifier has a common-mode
B. +VSAT voltage gain of 10 and a differential-mode 80. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real
C. –VSAT voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its common- op-amp needs a very small input current called
D. offset voltage mode rejection ratio (CMRR). input bias current. At both inputs, the bias
ANSWER: A A. 200 currents have a slight difference. What do you
call this difference?
B. 2,000
68. The operating mode of an op-amp, when both
C. 20,000 A. differential input current
inputs are tied together or when the input signal B. differential bias
is common to both inputs. D. 200,000
ANSWER: B C. input offset difference
A. differential mode D. input offset current
B. rejection mode 75. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a ANSWER: D
C. double-ended mode common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-
D. common mode mode gain of 100,000. 81. The change in input offset current due to
ANSWER: D A. 1000 dB temperature change
B. 100 dB A. delta input offset current
69. What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if B. slew rate
operated in common mode input?
C. 80 dB
D. 40 dB C. input offset current drift
A. differential gain ANSWER: C D. PSRR
B. common gain ANSWER: C
C. double-ended gain 76. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-
D. rejection gain amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and 1.0 82. The reason why a slight difference between the
ANSWER: B mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a common- input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to
mode voltage gain of 10 and a differential-mode the unsymmetrical circuit component
70. When one input of the op-amp is connected to gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage? parameters. This unsymmetrical condition also
ground and the other is to the signal source, its A. 5.0 V produces a difference in input voltage called
operation is called what?
B. 5.0125 mV
A. single-ended output C. 5.0125 V A. drift voltage
B. double-ended output D. 25.0125 V B. differential voltage
C. single-ended input ANSWER: C C. input offset voltage
D. double-ended input D. input threshold voltage
ANSWER: C 77. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an ANSWER: C
op-amp?
71. If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its A. +V to -V (supply voltage) 83. As electronic circuit operates, its operating
gain is technically termed as temperature changes which causes device
B. +VSAT to -VSAT parameters to change. In op-amps, what do you
A. common-mode differential gain C. +½V to -½V call the change in input offset voltage due to the
B. differential gain D. depends on the input signal change in temperature?
C. open-loop gain ANSWER: B A. input differential drift
D. closed-loop gain B. input offset voltage drift
ANSWER: B 78. The µA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a
differential-mode voltage amplification of C. slew rate
72. In op-amps, which gain is the highest? 200,000.What is the op-amp’s common-mode D. PSRR
voltage gain? ANSWER: B
A. common-mode gain
B. differential gain A. 31,622.778
84. It is known through experiment that the input
C. closed-loop gain B. 632.40 bias currents at the non-inverting (IB+) and
D. open-loop gain C. 6.324 inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100
ANSWER: D D. 0.158 nA and 80 nA, respectively. Determine the op-
ANSWER: C amp’s input offset current.
 -20 nA
A. ANSWER: C 95. What is the effect of the input offset voltage to
the output voltage if the op-amp has no
20 nA
B. 90. How will you minimize the output offset voltage feedback element?
90 nA
C. due to the input offset current of an op-amp? A. causes the output to be always at cutoff
180 nA
D. A. by installing a bias-current-
ANSWER: B
B. causes the output to saturate towards
compensating resistor positive
85. Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero
B. by increasing the value of the feedback C. causes the output to saturate towards
resistor negative
when there is no input signal, however, in
practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, C. by decreasing the value of the input D. causes the output to saturate either
this voltage is known as resistor towards positive or negative
A. minimum output voltage D. B and C above ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A
B. pinch-off voltage 96. How can we minimize the effect of the input
C. output offset voltage 91. What is a bias-current compensating resistor in offset current and input offset voltage at the
D. saturation voltage op-amp circuits? output offset voltage?
ANSWER: C A. A resistor used to reduce the undesired A. by making the feedback resistance
output offset voltage due to the input small
86. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is (are) offset current.
due to
B. by making the feedback resistance large
B. A resistor connected between the non- C. by making the input resistance small
A. input offset current inverting terminal and ground.
B. input offset voltage D. by making the input resistance large
C. A resistor used to balance both input ANSWER: A
C. voltage and current drift bias currents and therefore eliminates
D. A and B above the input offset current. 97. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with
ANSWER: D D. all of these an input and feedback resistances of 1 kΩ and
ANSWER: D 100 kΩ, respectively. When the input signal is
87. Calculate the output offset voltage of an set to zero, the output was found to have an
inverting amplifier using op-amp with an input 92. The approximate value of the bias-current offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the input
offset current of 10 nA. The circuit is having an compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is offset voltage.
input resistance of 10 kΩ and a feedback A. equal to the feedback resistor A. 0.01 mV
resistance of 100 kΩ.
B. equal to the input resistor B. 0.1 mV
A. 0.1 mV C. equal to the series combination of the C. 1.0 mV
B. 1.0 mV input and feedback resistors D. 10.0 mV
C. 10.0 mV D. equal to the parallel combination of the ANSWER: C
D. 100.0 mV input and feedback resistors
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D 98. What is the most effective way of minimizing the
output offset voltage of an op-amp?
88. An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback 93. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is A. by reducing the value of the feedback
resistor of 100 kΩ and input resistor of 10 kΩ. If represented by resistor
the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV, A. a battery
approximate the amplifier output offset voltage
B. by increasing the value of the input
due to this input offset voltage.
B. a signal generator resistor

A. 10 mV C. Thevenin’s voltage source C. by a capacitor-compensation technique

B. 11 mV D. Norton’s current source D. by properly using and adjusting the
ANSWER: A offset-null terminals
C. 20 mV ANSWER: D
D. 22 mV 94. The battery representing the input offset voltage
ANSWER: D in op-amp circuit analysis is connected where? 99. What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset
A. between the inverting and ground voltage of op-amps to change?
89. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to terminal A. change in operating temperature
the input offset current and voltage. If 1 mV is
due to the input offset current and 22 mV due to
B. between the non-inverting and ground B. component aging
terminal C. variations in supply voltage
the input offset voltage, what is the total output
offset voltage of the op-amp? C. between the inverting and non-inverting D. all of the above
terminal ANSWER: D
A. 11.5 mV
B. 22 mV D. either B and C above
ANSWER: B 100. Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally
C. 23 mV affects its small signal dc-amplification
D. 45 mV performance?
 A.input bias current 112. The low and high cutoff frequencies of an
106. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of amplifier is also called
B.input offset voltage
an op-amp is 0.707 times its value at very low A. corner frequencies
C.input offset current frequency
D.all of the above
B. 0.707 frequencies
A. threshold frequency C. 3-dB frequencies
ANSWER: D
B. break frequency D. all of these are correct
101. Op-amp parameter(s) that is important in C. minimum frequency ANSWER: D
large signal dc-amplification. D. operating frequency
A. input offset voltage ANSWER: B 113. Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an op-
amp having a unity-gain bandwidth product B1
B. input offset current 107. What will happen to the voltage gain of op- = 1 MHz and a open-loop voltage gain AOL =
C. slew rate amp when its operating frequency is 100,000.
D. all of the above increased? A. 10 Hz
ANSWER: C A. also increases B. 20 Hz
102. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp,
B. increases exponentially C. 100 Hz
which parameter has the least effect on its C. will decrease D. 200 Hz
performance? D. decreases exponentially ANSWER: A
A. drift ANSWER: C
114. An op-amp has a specified transient response
B. slew rate 108. The reduction of op-amps gain due to rise time of 0.3 µs, calculate its unity-gain
C. input offset voltage increasing operating frequency. bandwidth.
D. input offset current A. Cutoff A. 0.857 MHz
ANSWER: A
B. roll-off B. 1.0 MHz
103. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what C. diminishing factor C. 1.167 MHz
parameters can affect its performance. D. reduction step D. 2.334 MHz
A. input offset current and voltage ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
B. input bias current and voltage 109. What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade roll-off? 115. Rise time is defined as the time required for
C. drift and slew rate A. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per the output voltage to rise from _______ to
D. slew rate and frequency response decade ________ of its final value.
ANSWER: D A. 0% - 100%
B. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per
104. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-
decade B. 1% - 99%
signals, what parameter you should greatly C. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per C. 5% - 95%
consider to ensure better performance? 10 Hz increased in frequency D. 10% - 90%
A. input bias current D. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per ANSWER: D
10 Hz increased in frequency
B. drift ANSWER: A 116. The maximum output voltage rate of change
C. frequency response of an op-amp.
D. slew rate 110. A reduction of op-amp’s voltage gain by a A. rise time
ANSWER: C factor of two each time the frequency doubles.
B. maximum voltage swing
A. 2 dB/octave C. differential rate
105. What do we mean by internally compensated
op-amps?
B. 2 dB/decade D. slew rate
A. Op-amps with internal frequency C. 6 dB/octave ANSWER: D
compensation capacitor to prevent D. 6 dB/decade
oscillation. ANSWER: C 117. Factor(s) or parameter(s) that determine(s)
the op-amps maximum operating temperature
B. Op-amps with an internal compensating 111. Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-
resistor to make the output offset A. PSRR
amp reduces to unity.
voltage zero. B. slew rate
C. Op-amps with internal coupling A. unity-gain frequency C. unity-gain bandwidth product
capacitor to block dc-voltages and B. cutoff frequency D. B and C above
allows ac-voltages to pass. C. bandwidth point ANSWER: D
D. Op-amps with internal active D. unity-gain bandwidth product
components to make its gain constant ANSWER: D 118. What is the maximum signal frequency that
at the entire operating frequency. can be used in an op-amp having a specified
ANSWER: A
 slew rate of 0.5 V/µsec? The maximum output 124. The feedback element of a differentiator 130. A unity-gain summing amplifier has three
voltage desired is 5 V. constructed from op-amp is inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV, and V3 =
A. 16 kHz A. a resistor 2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage.
B. 32 kHz B. an inductor A. 2.5 mV
C. 100 kHz C. a capacitor B. 3.5 mV
D. 1 MHz D. an RC network C. 4.0 mV
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A D. 5.0 mV
ANSWER: D
119. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to 125. An active integrator uses an op-amp, what is
be used in order to provide an undistorted its feedback element? 131. The random voltage at the output of an op-
output voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of A. Resistor amp which could occupy the entire bandwidth.
100,000 rad/sec? A. noise
B. capacitor
A. 0.1 V/µsec C. inductor B. hash
B. 0.5 V/µsec D. RC network C. interference
C. 1.0 V/µsec ANSWER: B D. all of the above
D. 6.28 V/µsec ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 126. The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage
follower. 132. Which of the following of the resistor
120. When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the A. unity combinations that provides lesser noise in op-
output voltage would be +VSAT if amp circuits?
B. Rf/Ri
A. V+ > V- C. 1 + Rf/Ri A. Make both the feedback and input
B. V- > V+ resistances as large as possible
D. depends on the type of op-amp B. Make the feedback as large as possible,
C. V- = V+ ANSWER: A
while the input as low as possible.
D. V- and V+ are both zero
ANSWER: A 127. Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an C. Make the feedback as low as possible,
inverting amplifier having a feedback and an while the input as large as possible.
121. Two comparators using op-amps, configured input resistance of 100 kΩ and 10 kΩ, D. Make the feedback and input
such that it can detect voltage levels within a respectively. resistances as small as possible.
certain range of values rather than simply A. 10 ANSWER: D
comparing whether a voltage is above or
below a certain reference.
B. 11 133. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the
A. analog comparator C. 100 feedback resistor is shunted with a very small
B. regenerative comparator D. 110 capacitance, what is its purpose?
ANSWER: A A. to prevent oscillation
C. parallel comparator
D. window comparator 128. The gain of an inverting amplifier is
B. to improve stability
ANSWER: D determined by the ratio of the feedback and C. to minimize high frequency noise
input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select D. to compensate for high frequency loss
122. What gain is significant when an op-amp is any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the ANSWER: C
used as a voltage comparator? same. What op-amp parameter that helps us
A. open-loop gain determine the appropriate values of these 134. Approximate the noise gain of an inverting
resistors? adder using op-amps if it has five inputs.
B. common gain
C. differential closed loop gain A. CMRR A. unity (1)
D. closed loop gain B. PSRR B. two (2)
ANSWER: A C. SR C. four (4)
D. input bias current D. six (6)
123. An op-amp zero-crossing detector without ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
hysteresis,
A. uses a resistor as its feedback element 129. What is the noise gain of op-amps? 135. Op-amps with internal frequency
A. equal to the open loop gain compensation are very stable with respect to
B. uses a capacitor as its feedback signal frequencies. However, the trade-off for
element B. Rf/Ri frequency stability is (are)
C. uses an inductor as its feedback C. 1 + Rf/Ri A. limited small-signal bandwidth
element D. equal to the common gain
D. has no feedback ANSWER: C
B. slow slew rate
ANSWER: D C. limited open-loop frequency response
D. all of these
 ANSWER: D D. A and B above PLCCs
A.
ANSWER: D SOICs
B.
136. What do we mean by externally compensated
op-amps? LCCCs
C.
142. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset
A. op-amps with frequency-compensation voltage before it can be classified as a low- all of the above
D.
terminals input offset voltage op-amp ANSWER: D
B. op-amps with provision to externally A. 0.2 mV 149. Which condition must exist for a circuit to
compensate for frequency stability B. 2.0 mV oscillate?
C. op-amps whose gain is externally C. 2.5 mV A. It must have a negative feedback
compensated
D. 5.0 mV sufficient to cancel the input
D. A and B above ANSWER: A B. It must have a gain of less than 1
ANSWER: D
143. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can
C. It must have a positive feedback
137. What is true about the external frequency- sufficient to overcome losses
be controlled externally are categorize as
compensation capacitor?
A. general purpose op-amps D. It must be neutralized
A. the higher its value, the wider is its ANSWER: C
bandwidth
B. programmable op-amps
B. the lower its value, the wider is its C. variable op-amps 150. Which of the following is not an essential part
D. externally compensated op-amps of an oscillator?
bandwidth
C. the higher its value, the faster its slew ANSWER: B A. Source of energy that supply the losses
in tank circuit.
rate
144. What op-amp parameter(s) that can be B. A resistor IC combination circuit.
D. A and C above governed by the bias control in a
ANSWER: B programmable op-amp?
C. Resonant circuit consist of inductance
and capacitance.
138. Typical value of the external frequency-
A. open-loop gain and slew rate D. Regenerative feedback circuit.
compensating capacitor of op-amps. B. unity-gain bandwidth ANSWER: B
A. 3 - 30 nF C. input bias current
D. all of the above 151. Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating
B. 30 - 300 nF current or voltage.
ANSWER: D
C. 0.3 - 3.0 µF A. Damper
D. 3.0 - 30 µF 145. The most popular op-amp packages are the B. Generator
ANSWER: D metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of
these corresponds to TO-99?
C. oscillator
139. What do we mean by a general-purpose op-
A. metal can D. mixer
amps? ANSWER: C
A. op-amps with limited unity-gain B. 8-pin DIP
bandwidth up to approximately 1 MHz C. SMT 152. What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses
D. all of the above a tapped coli in the tuned circuit?
B. op-amps with slew rate about 0.5
V/µsec ANSWER: A A. Pierce
C. op-amps that has unlimited application B. Colpitts
146. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as
D. A and B above C. Hartley
ANSWER: D
A. TO-99 D. Ultraudion
B. TO-91 ANSWER: C
140. Op-amps designed to operate at high slew C. TO-116
rate, about 2000 V/µsec and at high D. TO-220 153. What determines the resonant frequency of a
frequencies, more than 50 MHz. ANSWER: C crystal?
A. general purpose op-amps A. external components
B. high power op-amps 147. For high density ICs involving many op-amps, B. the temperature of the crystal
what packaging is suitable?
C. high-stability op-amps C. the size and thickness of the crystal
D. high-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps A. metal can material
ANSWER: D B. 14-pin DIL D. the hermitic seal
C. SMT ANSWER: C
141. Generally, where does hybrid op-amps found D. flat-pack
its application? ANSWER: C 154. Type of oscillator whose frequency is
A. for high-output voltage dependent on the charge and discharge of RC
148. Example(s) of surface-mounted technology networks.
B. for high-output current
C. for high-frequency (SMT) devices. A. Hartley oscillator
 B.Copitts oscillator 161. What determines the pulse time in a 3. A secondary cell whose active positive plate
monostable multivibrator? consists of nickel hydroxide, and active negative-
C.Relaxation oscillator
A. resistor combinations plate material is powdered iron oxide mixed with
D.Klystron oscillator cadmium. Its typical output when fully charged
ANSWER: C B. capacitor combinations is VO = 1.2V
C. inductor combinations A. Leclanche cell
155. A microwave oscillator D. resistor and capacitor combinations
A. Hartley oscillator ANSWER: D
B. dry cell
B. Copitts oscillator C. Edison cell
C. Relaxation oscillator 162. A multivibrator having two stable state D. lead-acid cell
A. monostable ANSWER: C
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: D B. bistable 4. If a cell can be charged after it is depleted, it is
C. astable considered as
156. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is D. unstable
divided into input and feedback portions by a
A. a secondary cell
ANSWER: B
capacitive voltage divider. B. a storage cell
A. Hartley capacitor 163. Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit C. an accumulator
B. Copitts oscillator A. Monostable multivibrator D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
C. Relaxation oscillator B. bistable multivibrator
D. Klystron oscillator C. astable multivibrator 5. What type of cell that cannot be recharged which
ANSWER: B D. unstable multivibrator cannot restore chemical reaction?
ANSWER: B A. nickel-cadmium cell
157. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is
divided into input and feedback portions by an 164. Flip-flop is actually a _______ multivibrator.
B. secondary cell
inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil.
A. Monostable C. primary cell
A. Hartley oscillator B. bistable D. lead-acid wet cell
B. Copitts oscillator ANSWER: C
C. astable
C. Relaxation oscillator D. unstable 6. A cell whose chemical reaction is not reversible
D. Klystron oscillator ANSWER: B A. primary cell
ANSWER: A
165. Considered as a free-running multivibrator
B. secondary cell
158. A circuit usually containing two transistors or
A. monostable C. rechargeable cell
tubes in an RC-coupled amplifier, the two D. solar cell
active devices switch each other alternately on B. bistable ANSWER: A
and off. C. astable
A. Multivibrator D. unstable 7. A voltage source in a single container made from
B. Signal generator ANSWER: C one or more cells combines in series, parallel, or
series-parallel.
C. Oscillator TEST5.
D. Thyristor A. photoelectric
ANSWER: A B. thermocouple
1. A device that transforms chemical energy into
electrical energy
C. battery
159. A multivibrator that generates one output D. piezo-electric
pulse for each input trigger pulse. A. secondary battery ANSWER: C
A. monostable B. cell
B. astable C. battery 8. A battery means
C. bistable D. primary battery A. cells connected in series
ANSWER: B B. cells connected in parallel
D. tristate
ANSWER: A
2. A device that is capable of converting chemical
C. cells connected in series-parallel
energy into electrical energy D. all of the above
160. Monostable multivibrator is also known as ANSWER: D
A. one shot A. generator
B. single shot B. battery 9. A battery is used to
C. direct shot C. converter A. supply a steady dc voltage
D. one shot or single shot D. cell B. supply an unstable dc voltage
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D C. supply an ac voltage
 D. supply an ac/dc voltage ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 16. Find the output of a four (4) lead acid cells.
A. 3.2 V 23. Substance used in photovoltaic cells
10. In a dry cell, what will happen to the internal B. 8.4 V A. Silicon
resistance as it aged? B. Selenium
C. 5.8 V
A. decreases D. 12 V C. Germanium
B. increases ANSWER: B D. All of these
C. remains constant ANSWER: D
D. decreases or increases, depends on the 17. Silver-cadmium cell has a nominal open-circuit
chemical composition voltage of 24. A junction between two conductors that exhibits
ANSWER: B A. 1.05 V electrical characteristics under condition of
changing temperature
B. 1.5 V
11. The maximum current a cell can deliver through
C. 2.1 V A. pn junction
a 0.01 ohm load during testing B. photojunction
A. flash current D. 2.2 V
ANSWER: A C. thermoelectric junction
B. surge current D. hydroelectric junction
C. ideal current 18. Output of six carbon-zinc cells connected in ANSWER: C
D. full-load current series
ANSWER: A A. 3 V 25. Electricity that is generated due to heat, as in
thermocouple.
B. 6 V
12. In batteries, the material used to insulate the
C. 6.6 V A. thermodynamics
positive plates from negative plates are B. thermojunction
technically called D. 9 V
ANSWER: D C. electric heater
A. insulator D. thermoelectricity
B. break-point 19. The flat 9-V battery, has how many cells in ANSWER: D
C. coupler series?
D. separator A. 3 26. The source of mechanical power to turn the
ANSWER: D rotors of alternators, large and small, A.C. and
B. 4 D.C.
13. How long will a battery need to operate a 240
C. 6 A. prime contactor
Watts equipment, whose capacity is 100Ah and D. 9 B. primer
24 volts rating? ANSWER: C
C. prime mover
A. 5 hrs 20. Output of automotive battery with six lead-acid D. prime user
B. 10 hrs cells in series ANSWER: C
C. 1 hr A. 6V
D. 0.10 hr 27. Electrical machines refer to machines that
B. 12V convert ________
ANSWER: B
C. 24V A. mechanical to electrical energy
14. A battery is rated 20 A-hr and is delivering a D. 48V B. electrical to mechanical energy
current of 2A. How long does it last? ANSWER: B
C. electrical energy of one form to
A. 1 hr 21. Substance, which generates a voltage when electrical energy of another form
B. 5 hrs exposed to light. D. all of the above
C. 8 hrs A. generating substance ANSWER: D
D. 10 hrs B. photovoltaic material
ANSWER: D 28. Electrical machines that convert mechanical
C. thermoelectric generator energy to electrical energy.
15. A primary cell with carbon and zinc as its D. hydroelectric generator A. generators
positive and negative electrodes respectively, ANSWER: B
B. motors
and an electrolyte of either a gel or paste. This is
commonly known as dry cell. 22. A cell whose voltage is generated as a function C. cycloconverters
A. Leclanche cell of light D. frequency converters
A. photovoltaic cell ANSWER: A
B. Edison cell
C. storage cell B. thermoelectric cell 29. Electrical machine that converts ac voltage to dc
D. solar cell C. photodiode voltage, or vice versa.
ANSWER: A D. LED A. generator
 B.motor C.diode A.series generator
C.rotary converter D.alternator B.separately excited shunt generator
D.frequency converter ANSWER: B C.self-excited shunt generator
ANSWER: C D.compound generator
36. Generally, in dc generators
ANSWER: C
30. Electrical machine that changes ac voltage at A. The armature winding is rotated with
one frequency to another ac voltage at another respect to a stationary magnetic field 40. What is true about field poles in electric
frequency. produced by electromagnets or machines?
A. generator permanent magnets.
A. there are always even number of them
B. motor B. The electromagnets or permanent (exist by pair)
magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated
C. rotary converter with respect to the stationary armature
B. there are always an odd number of
D. frequency converter them
winding.
ANSWER: D
C. Current is sent into the armature C. there are an even or an odd number of
them
winding; or the armature winding is
31. It consist of a single coil rotated in a magnetic D. none of the above
usually placed in a stationary laminated
field and produces an A.C. voltage. ANSWER: A
iron core and the rotating element may
A. field winding or may not be a set of magnet poles, it
B. armature depends on the type of motor. 41. In a compound generator, which field winding
usually, has a lower resistance?
C. commutator D. The armature winding is supplied with
D. elementary generator current; or the armature is placed A. series field winding
ANSWER: D inside a set of radially supported B. shunt field winding
magnetic poles. C. armature winding
32. Generation of voltage in a generator can only ANSWER: A D. excitation winding
happen when? ANSWER: A
A. there is a rotary conductor 37. In electrical machines, what type of voltage is
generated at the armature winding? 42. Which winding in a dc-compound generator that
B. there is a magnetic field in a conductor
A. dc is relatively made of fine wires?
C. there is a relative motion between
conducting wires and magnetic lines of
B. pulsating dc A. armature winding
force C. ac B. excitation winding
D. there is a relative motion between a D. ac or dc depending on the type of C. shunt field winding
conductor and electric field machine D. series field winding
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C ANSWER: C

33. Two essential parts in rotating generators 38. Generally in ac generators 43. What important characteristic you should
A. electro/permanent magnets and A. The armature winding is rotated by a consider in choosing a dc-generator?
armature winding stationary magnetic field produced by A. voltage capacity
B. electromagnets or permanent magnets electromagnets or permanent magnets.
B. current capacity
and commutator B. Current is sent into the armature
winding; or the armature winding is C. voltage vs. load
C. commutator and armature winding D. power rating
usually placed in a stationary laminated
D. brushes and commutator iron core and the rotating element may ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A or may not be a set of magnet poles, it
depends on the type of motor. 44. What is the purpose of laminating the field poles
34. In electrical machines, what do you call the set and armature of a dc machine?
of conductors wound on laminated cores of good
C. The electromagnets or permanent
magnetic permeability? magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated A. to reduce eddy current
with respect to the stationary armature B. to avoid contaminants
A. armature core winding.
B. armature winding C. to provide isolation
D. The armature winding is supplied with D. to beautify the machine
C. rotary winding current; or the armature is placed ANSWER: A
D. rotary core inside a set of radially supported
ANSWER: B magnetic poles. 45. An alternator with a lagging power factor of 0.8
ANSWER: C will have a ________ voltage regulation at unity
35. In dc generator, what converts the alternating power factor.
emf to DC? 39. A dc generator whose excitation is produced by a
winding connected to its own positive and
A. 0%
A. armature B. less than
negative terminals.
B. commutator C. greater than
 D. 100% 52. Calculate the voltage regulation of a generator D. it protects overloading
ANSWER: C having a no-load voltage of 220 V and a full load ANSWER: C
voltage of 180 V.
46. With alternators connected in parallel, the A. 18% 59. What term applies to the use of two or more
frequency of the system can be changed by B. 22% generators to supply a common load?
A. increasing the field excitation C. 28% A. on-line operation
B. decreasing the field excitation D. 32% B. series operation
C. changing the rpm of the prime movers ANSWER: B C. cascaded operation
D. synchronizing the prime movers D. parallel operation
ANSWER: C 53. Usually used to drive low-speed alternators ANSWER: D
A. diesel engines
47. With alternators connected in parallel, the B. jet propulsion engines 60. In paralleling ac generators, ________ is very
voltage of the system can be changed by important.
C. steam turbines
A. changing the field excitation D. hydraulic turbines A. voltage level
B. increasing the speed of the prime ANSWER: D B. current level
movers C. phase angle
C. changing the rpm of the prime movers 54. Is usually used to drive high-speed alternators D. internal resistance
D. synchronizing the prime movers A. diesel engines ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A B. pneumatic engines
61. Description used for generators trying to self-
48. If an ac generator is to be driven from prime
C. steam turbines adjust its parameters before paralleling with on
mover having variable speed, such as aircraft D. hydraulic turbines line generators.
engine, a ________ must be used. ANSWER: C
A. synchronizing
A. constant speed drive (CSD) 55. Which statement is true regarding alternators? B. sequencing
B. regulator A. high-speed alternators are smaller than C. jogging
C. conditioner low-speed D. alighning
D. peak limited B. low-speed alternators are smaller than ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A high-speed
62. In changing power from one generator to
49. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the
C. high-power alternators are smaller than another, what do you call the operational
low-power
armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm generator. sequence wherein the incoming generator is
A. 100 D. high-voltage alternators are smaller connected first before removing the existing
than low-voltage generator?
B. 1000 ANSWER: A
C. 10 A. No Break Power Transfer (NBPT)
D. 0.1 56. For what reason, why carbon brushes are widely B. UPS
ANSWER: D used dc machines? C. LIFO
A. it is abundant D. Standby Power transfer
50. What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac B. it is cheap ANSWER: A
generator in order to have a frequency of 50Hz?
C. it has a high voltage drop 63. What do you mean by break power transfer?
A. 100 rpm D. it lubricates and polishes the contacts
B. 500 rpm ANSWER: D
A. The incoming generator will be
connected first to the bus bar before
C. 1000 rpm disconnecting the existing generator.
D. 1500 rpm 57. Alternators have less chance to hunt if driven by
ANSWER: C A. steam turbines B. The present on-line generator will be
disconnected first before connecting the
B. hydroturbines incoming generator.
51. What is the voltage regulation when the full load
voltage is the same as no-load voltage assuming
C. diesel turbines C. The incoming generator will only be
a perfect voltage source? D. nuclear reactor connected to the bus bar when the bus
ANSWER: A bar breaks.
A. 100%
B. 1% D. The present on-line generator will be
58. In alternators, what is the purpose of damper disconnected first and then reconnected
C. 10% windings? together with the incoming generator.
D. 0% A. it prevents over speeding ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D B. it maintain constant speed
C. it prevents hunting 64. How alternators rated?
A. in Watts
 in kW
B. ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
in kVar
C. 71. Synchronous type of ac-motor, 75. Dc motor that has the most stable speed.
in kVA
D.
ANSWER: C
A. uses a dc-generator to supply dc- A. differentially compounded
excitation to the rotating field B. compound
65. In electrical power distribution, what do you call B. uses pulsating dc C. shunt
the first distribution line from the main C. uses alternator D. series
generating station? D. has an ac or dc depending on the type ANSWER: C
A. main transmission lines of machine
B. primary distribution lines ANSWER: A 76. In dc motors, when does severe arcing happens?
C. sub transmission lines A. during starting
72. Generally in dc motors
D. secondary distribution lines B. during rated speed
ANSWER: A
A. the armature winding is rotated by a C. during speed fluctuation
stationary magnetic field produced by
electromagnets or permanent magnets. D. during shutdown
66. The lines which carry the energy from the ANSWER: A
transformer to a customer’s services are called B. current is sent into the armature
________. winding; or the armature winding is
77. What is the primary reason why carbon brushes
usually placed in a stationary laminated
A. main transmission lines iron core and the rotating element may
are preferred over copper brushes in dc motors?
B. primary distribution lines or may not be a set of magnet poles, it A. they have low loss
C. sub transmission lines depends on the type of motor. B. they are more strong
D. secondary distribution lines C. the electromagnets or permanent C. they produce less arcing
ANSWER: D magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated D. all of the above
with respect to the stationary armature ANSWER: C
67. In electrical power Generating/distribution winding.
Company, which do you think is their highest D. the armature winding is supplied with 78. In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes
expenses? current; or the armature is placed to the supplied voltage.
A. generation of power inside a set of radially supported A. residual emf
B. distribution of power to the consumers magnetic poles. B. induced emf
C. power transmission ANSWER: D
C. coercive emf
D. substations 73. In ac motors, generally D. counter emf or back emf
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
A. current is sent into the armature
68. In electrical power distributions, what insulator is winding; or the armature winding is
usually placed in a stationary laminated 79. To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors,
generally used? a resistance should be added to limit the current
iron core and the rotating element may
A. rubber or may not be a set of magnet poles, it in the ________
B. wood depends on the type of motor. A. series field winding
C. plastic B. the armature winding is supplied with B. shunt field winding
D. porcelain current; or the armature is placed C. armature winding
ANSWER: D inside a set of radially supported D. all of these
magnetic poles. ANSWER: C
69. Electrical machines refer to machines that C. the armature winding is rotated by a
convert ________ stationary magnetic field produced by 80. Which dc motors whose speed is greatly affected
A. mechanical to electrical energy electromagnets or permanent magnets. by a change in load? It will even run-away if the
B. electrical to mechanical energy D. the electromagnets or permanent load is removed.
C. electrical energy of one form to magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated A. series
electrical energy of another form with respect to the stationary armature B. shunt
winding.
D. all of the above ANSWER: A
C. cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: D D. differentially compounded
74. Among the dc motors, which produces the ANSWER: A
70. Electrical machines that convert electrical energy
highest torque?
to mechanical energy. 81. Motors whose speed can be easily controlled.
A. generators A. series
B. shunt A. dc motors
B. motors B. ac motors
C. rotary converters C. compound
D. differentially compounded C. ac & dc motors
D. frequency converters
 D. ac or dc motors by changing the effective number of
B. 95. One advantage of a cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: A conductors in series motor is that it does not run widely at light
loads, this feature is due to
C. by varying the armature resistance
82. When a dc motor has no load, what will happen
D. by varying the field strength A. shunt winding
to the back emf? B. brake winding
ANSWER: D
A. reduces C. series winding
B. increases 89. The running speed of a dc series motor is greatly D. clutch winding
C. becomes maximum affected by what factor? ANSWER: A
D. becomes zero A. field excitation
ANSWER: C B. load 96. In applications where an almost constant speed
is required, a _______ motor is a good choice.
C. armature resistance
83. When can we get a maximum mechanical power
D. supply voltage A. dc shunt
from a dc motor? B. dc series
ANSWER: B
A. Eb = 0 C. cumulatively compounded
B. Eb = ½V 90. In choosing a motor for a particular application, D. differentially compounded
C. Eb = 1V what characteristic you should consider? ANSWER: A
D. Eb = 2V A. speed-torque
ANSWER: B B. speed-armature current 97. In applications where a high torque is needed
during starting a _______ motor is preferred.
C. speed efficiency
84. The torque of a dc motor is
D. speed power A. dc shunt
A. directly proportional to the field ANSWER: A B. dc series
strength C. differentially compounded
B. inversely proportional to the field 91. What will happen to the dc shunt motor if the D. cumulatively compounded
strength load torque greatly increases? ANSWER: B
C. directly proportional to the armature A. the speed will decrease
current B. there will be a great increase in current 98. In applications where sudden heavy loads
D. A and C are correct happen for short duration, a _______ motor is
C. the speed almost remains constant the best choice.
ANSWER: D
D. B and C are correct A. dc shunt
ANSWER: D
85. One causes why the shaft torque is less than the B. dc series
developed armature torque of a dc motor.
92. What will happen to a dc series motor when its C. cumulatively compounded
A. eddy current load is removed? D. differentially compounded
B. field loss A. the motor will stop ANSWER: C
C. brushes loss B. the motor speed remains the same
D. friction loss 99. In motors of the same rating, which has the
C. the torque remains the same least starting torque?
ANSWER: D
D. the motor will overspeed A. dc shunt
ANSWER: D
86. For heavy-duty dc motor, how does the effect of B. dc series
armature reaction be corrected?
93. A motor whose speed increases as the load is C. differentially compounded
A. using interpoles & brush shifting increased. D. cumulatively compounded
B. using interpoles A. series dc ANSWER: A
C. using compensatory winding B. dc shunt
D. B & C are correct 100. Factor(s) that affect friction and winding loses
C. cumulatively compounded in dc motors.
ANSWER: D
D. differentially compounded A. speed
ANSWER: D
87. Considered as a variable speed motor B. armature current
A. compounded 94. Factor(s) that affect iron losses in a dc motor. C. interpoles
B. differentially compounded A. flux D. armature resistance
C. shunt B. speed ANSWER: A
D. series C. armature resistance and flux
ANSWER: D 101. In dc motors, power loss is contributed greatly
D. A and B are correct by
ANSWER: D
88. What is the most common method used in A. flux loss
varying the speed of a dc motor? B. core loss
A. by varying the supply voltage C. copper loss
 D. mechanical friction C.decrease as the supply voltage is
ANSWER: C increased 115. How do you reverse the rotation of a dc shunt
motor?
D. B and C are correct
102. Dirt on the commutator may produce ANSWER: B A. By reversing the direction of the field
A. isolation current, leaving the armature current
109. When armature current is increased in a dc the same.
B. excessive sparking
C. power loss motor, its armature reaction will B. By reversing the direction of the
A. also increase armature current, leaving the field
D. lower torque current the same.
ANSWER: B B. decrease
C. increase exponentially C. By reversing both field and armature
current
103. Motor vibrations are usually caused by D. decrease exponentially
A. loose coupling ANSWER: A
D. Either A or B
ANSWER: D
B. dirt on the commutator
110. Why does in dc motor, brushes are positioned
C. much brush tension such that they will be with the direction of the
116. In motor speed control, what is responsible for
D. worn bearings SCR firing?
rotation?
ANSWER: D A. trigger circuit
A. to reduce sparking
B. to last long B. threshold circuit
104. When a motor is overloaded, it will usually
C. to have less loss C. reference circuit
A. slow down D. holding circuit
B. speed up D. all of the above ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
C. vibrate
D. overheat 117. A circuit that converts ac-voltage to dc-voltage
111. Motors are used to convert electrical energy to
ANSWER: D mechanical energy. What type of motor that is A. rectifier
best suited for heavy-load application? B. inverter
105. Which motor that produces the highest
increase in torque considering the same
A. dc series motors C. dc-converter
increase in current? B. dc compound motors D. ac-converter
C. single phase motors ANSWER: A
A. dc shunt
B. dc series D. polyphase motors 118. Conversion from dc-voltage to another dc-
ANSWER: D
C. differentially compounded voltage requires a
D. cumulatively compounded 112. DC shunt motor speed can be controlled A. inverter
ANSWER: B electronically by using a _______ in series B. cycloconverter
with the armature winding. C. dc-converter
106. When an armature opens in dc motor, it may
cause
A. thyrector D. ac-converter
A. intermittent sparking B. potentiometer ANSWER: C

B. an increase in speed C. rheostat

119. A converter that changes ac-voltage to
C. the motor to slow down D. thyristor another ac-voltage level.
ANSWER: D
D. the motor to stop rotating A. inverter
ANSWER: A 113. Which thyristor is commonly used is motor B. cycloconverter
speed control? C. dc-converter
107. Why do motors take large current during
starting?
A. triac D. ac-converter
A. the armature resistance is still low B. diac ANSWER: D

B. the field produced is still weak C. SCR

120. What converter must be used if one wished to
C. it has to break the momentum D. SUS change dc-voltage into ac-voltage?
ANSWER: C
D. there’s still a low back emf A. inverter
ANSWER: D 114. In controlling motor speed, the SCRs controls B. cycloconverter
the C. dc-converter
108. In dc motors, the speed will
A. number of pulses D. ac-converter
A. increase with an increase in field
B. phase angle ANSWER: A
strength
B. decrease with an increase in field
C. firing angle
121. A converter that changes ac-voltage frequency
strength D. any of these from one to another.
ANSWER: C
 A.inverter 128. When the transformer secondary winding is C.exactly twice that of secondary
short-circuited, its primary inductance will
B.cycloconverter D.almost equal as that of secondary
C.dc-converter
A. become zero ANSWER: D
D.ac-converter
B. decrease
C. increase 135. At very low frequencies, transformers woks
ANSWER: B
poorly because
D. not be affected
122. In electronic converters, what signal is mostly ANSWER: C A. its magnetizing current will be very high
used to trigger the active device? B. its core permeability will be greatly
A. sine-wave 129. Cooling system for transformers with ratings increased
less than 5kVA C. its core permeability will be greatly
B. square-wave
C. triangular-wave A. forced-air cooling reduced

D. sawtooth-wave B. oil-cooling D. its impedance will increase

C. natural air cooling ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
D. water cooling 136. What will happen if a power transformer is to
123. A transformer consist of the following: ANSWER: C
be operated at a very high frequency?
A. An inductance and resistance A. it will have a very high core loss
130. For transformers, zero efficiency happens
B. A parallel resonant circuit when it has B. its impedance will decrease
C. A capacitor and an inductor A. no-load C. its core permeability will be greatly
D. Two coils wound on a common core B. 1/2 of full-load increased
ANSWER: D
C. 2/3 of full-load D. its core permeability will be greatly
reduced
124. Transformer is considered by many as an D. full-load ANSWER: A
efficient device due to the fact that ANSWER: A
A. it uses an inductive coupling 137. How are the primary and secondary coupled in
131. For transformers, maximum efficiency
B. it is magnetically coupled happens when
autotransformers?
C. it is a static device A. copper loss is zero A. electrically
D. it is electrically coupled B. copper loss is equal to constant loss B. magnetically
ANSWER: C C. electrically and magnetically
C. the primary and secondary windings are
125. With transformer, what is measured when equal D. capacitively
ANSWER: C
performing open-circuit test? D. the leakage reactances of both windings
A. turns ratio are equal
138. In a single-phase transformer, the core flux is
ANSWER: B
B. copper loss A. constant
C. leakage reactance 132. In constructing transformers, the primary and B. pulsating
D. turns impedance secondary windings should have C. alternating
ANSWER: B A. good electrical coupling D. alternating and sometimes stable
126. Open-circuit test with transformers is always
B. loose magnetic coupling ANSWER: C
done on what winding? C. tight magnetic coupling
139. What do you think will happen to a
A. low-voltage D. best inductive coupling transformer when its primary is connected to a
ANSWER: C
B. high-voltage DC supply?
C. primary 133. What are the two parameters in transformers A. It will become more efficient
D. secondary that are the same in both primary and B. It will become less efficient
ANSWER: A secondary? C. It will have good regulation
A. power and voltage D. It might burn out
127. Short-circuit test with transformers is always
done on what winding?
B. power and current ANSWER: D

A. low-voltage C. power and impedance

140. Generally, in what application you consider the
B. high-voltage D. voltage per turn and ampere-turns use of core-type transformers?
ANSWER: D
C. primary A. low voltage and low current
D. secondary 134. In transformers, the amount of copper used in B. low voltage and high current
ANSWER: A the primary is C. high voltage and low current
A. less than that of the secondary D. high voltage and high current
B. greater than that of secondary ANSWER: C
 apparent power
C. B.hysteresis loss
141. In ________ transformers, when its primary is
virtual power
D. C.eddy loss
energized the secondary should never be
ANSWER: C D.keeper
open-circuited.
ANSWER: B
A. power 148. In transformers, the voltage per turn at the
B. voltage primary is ________ the secondary. 155. The ratio of the amount of magnetic flux
C. current A. less than that of linking a secondary coil compared to the flux
D. matching B. greater than that of generated by the primary coil:
ANSWER: C C. a factor of A. coupling factor
D. the same as B. mutual coupling
142. Considered as an ideal transformer
ANSWER: D C. coefficient of coupling
A. the one with no losses and leakage D. hysteresis factor
reactance 149. In transformer windings, the more number of ANSWER: C
B. the one with 100% regulation turns
C. the one with zero efficiency A. the higher is the voltage 156. Mutual inductance between two coils can be
D. the one with equal primary and B. the lower is the voltage decreased by
secondary C. the lower is the impedance A. moving the coils apart
ANSWER: A B. inserting an iron core
D. the higher is the current
143. What is the effect of air gaps at the
ANSWER: A C. moving the coils close
transformer core? D. reducing the reluctance
150. What is true about core-type transformers? ANSWER: A
A. Its reluctance is decreased A. It has a shorter magnetic path
B. It increases eddy current B. It has a longer magnetic path 157. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-
C. It decreases hysteresis loss C. It has a very long magnetic path wave rectifier.
D. It increases magnetizing current D. It has an infinite magnetic path A. Each diode can cool-off during half of
ANSWER: D each input cycle
ANSWER: A
B. The ripple frequency is lower
144. ________ currents are wasteful currents
which flows in cores of transformers and
151. Practically how many percent is copper loss to C. The tube will conduct during both
the total loss in transformers? halves of the input cycle
produces heat.
A. Residual A. 15% D. Output voltage is lower with more ripple
B. 50% ANSWER: C
B. Eddy
C. Sneak C. 85% 158. One of the following items below is not one of
D. Magnetizing D. 100% the main components of an alternating current
ANSWER: C power supply.
ANSWER: B
152. What is the purpose of laminating the core of
A. Power transformer
145. What will happen to the eddy current loss in B. Voltage regulator
a transformer?
transformers when the load is increased?
A. to decrease eddy current loss C. Rectifier
A. will also increase D. Filter
B. will decrease B. to increase eddy current loss
ANSWER: C
C. will become infinite C. to decrease copper loss
D. nothing will happen D. to decrease hysteresis loss 159. Most electronic devices/circuits require dc-
ANSWER: A voltage to operate. A battery is a good power
ANSWER: D
source, however, its operating time is limited.
153. Large transformers have approximately an The use of battery also proves to be
146. Leakage flux in transformers will cause
efficiency of expensive. A more practical alternative is to
A. copper loss to increase A. 25% use the household main supply, and since this
B. copper loss to decrease B. 45% is an ac-voltage, it must be converted to a dc-
C. eddy current to decrease C. 75% voltage. The circuit that converts this ac-
D. voltage drop in the windings voltage to a dc-voltage is called
ANSWER: D
D. 95%
ANSWER: D
A. rectifier
B. clamper
147. The increase in temperature in a transformer
154. The loss in a transformer due to the changing C. filter
is mainly due to
field is called D. regulator
A. true power A. leakage ANSWER: A
B. reactive power
160. A rectifier that uses either the positive or ripple frequency and percent ripple
C. reduction of load current
B.
negative portion only of the main ac-supply
all are correct
D. increase in input frequency
C.
A. half-wave ANSWER: D all of the above
D.
B. full-wave ANSWER: D
C. full-wave bridge 167. Find direct current voltage from a full-wave
rectifier with 120 V peak rectified voltage. 174. Making the filter capacitor large in a power
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A A. 60 V supply results to
B. 7.639 V A. an increase of the ripple voltage
161. For a half-wave rectifier, the average output C. 76.39 V B. an increase of the dc-voltage
voltage is _______ of the maximum ac-
voltage.
D. 6.0 V C. a decrease of the ripple frequency
ANSWER: C D. A and B above
A. 31.8% ANSWER: B
B. 45% 168. The dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier.
C. 63.6% A. 0.318 Vmax 175. Find the ripple factor (kr) of a sinusoidal signal
D. 90% B. 0.45 Vmax with peak ripple of 4 volts on an average of
ANSWER: A 30.
C. 0.636 Vmax
D. 0.90 Vmax A. 0.094
162. Percent ripple of a half-wave rectifier. B. 0.013
ANSWER: C
A. 24% C. 0.130
B. 48% 169. Relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage D. 0.94
C. 63.6% to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave ANSWER: A
rectifier.
D. 121%
ANSWER: D A. VDC = 0.318 Vrms 176. Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage of a
B. VDC = 0.45 Vrms 20 V full-wave power supply with a filter
163. Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a capacitor C = 220 µF when delivering a load
C. VDC = 0.636 Vrms current of 50 mA.
half-wave rectifier with a 12Vrms input.
D. VDC = 0.90 Vrms A. 2.0 Vpp
A. 2.7 V ANSWER: D
B. 3.8 V B. 3.79 Vpp
C. 4.5 V 170. Determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge C. 5.67 Vpp
rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24 Vrms. D. 7.9 Vpp
D. 5.4 V
ANSWER: D A. 7.63 V ANSWER: A
B. 10.8 V
164. To double the capability of the half-wave 177. In capacitor-filtered power supply, what will
C. 15.3 V happen to the ripple voltage if the load is
rectifier, a _______ must be used.
D. 21.6 V disconnected?
A. full-wave rectifier ANSWER: D
B. full-wave bridge A. increases
C. dual-supply 171. Ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier. B. becomes infinite
D. A or B is correct A. 0.318 C. becomes unpredictable
ANSWER: D B. 0.48 D. drops to zero
ANSWER: D
C. 0.9
165. Fullwave rectifier defers from fullwave bridge
in what aspect?
D. 1.21 178. For a power supply with a peak-to-peak ripple
ANSWER: B voltage of 5 Vpp, determine its rms ripple.
A. fullwave uses two diodes, while four for
fullwave bridge 172. To improve the dc output voltage of a power
A. 1.44 Vrms
B. diode’s PIV in fullwave is twice that of supply, a _______ B. 1.77 Vrms
fullwave bridge A. shunt resistor may be installed C. 2.88 Vrms
C. fullwave generates less heat than B. limiting resistor may be installed D. 3.54 Vrms
fullwave bridge ANSWER: B
C. feedback element may be installed
D. all of the above D. filter capacitor may be installed
ANSWER: D 179. A 20-Vdc power supply was found to have a
ANSWER: D ripple voltage of 2 Vrms when supplying 1.5
166. Common to both full-wave and full-wave amps load. Calculate its percent ripple.
173. Factor(s) that can reduce the ripple voltage of
bridge rectifiers
a power supply.
A. 7.5 %
A. dc-voltage A. filter capacitance B. 10.0 %
B. ripple factor C. 12.5 %
 D. 15.0 % 186. The element/device used as a comparator in 78XX series
A.
ANSWER: B most voltage regulators.
79XX series
B.
A. zener diode 723 IC regulator
C.
180. Which power supply filter gives the smallest B. BJT
ripple voltage? 317 regulator
D.
C. IGBT ANSWER: A
A. capacitor filter D. op-amp
B. RC-filter ANSWER: D 193. What is the regulated output voltage of a 7924
C. LC-filter regulator?
D. multi-section LC-filter 187. Sampling circuit used in most voltage A. + 4 V
ANSWER: D regulators.
B. - 4 V
A. voltage divider network C. + 24 V
181. Ripple voltage in power supplies causes B. bleeder network
unwanted effects on the load it is supplying, D. - 24 V
i.e. a hum in audio amplifiers. To minimize this
C. crowbar ANSWER: D
effect several filtering techniques are used, D. bootstrap circuit
however, ripple still exists. What is a better ANSWER: A 194. A three-terminal variable positive voltage
alternative to reduce further the ripples? regulator
188. Most voltage regulators used _______ as their A. 317
A. truncation control element.
B. clipping B. 337
A. BJT C. 723
C. clamping B. SBS
D. regulation D. 741
ANSWER: D
C. UJT ANSWER: A
D. JFET
182. A voltage regulator connected in parallel with ANSWER: A 195. What three-terminal IC regulator that has a
the load. variable negative voltage output?
189. The most efficient voltage regulator and is A. 317
A. series regulator therefore used in high-current high-voltage
B. parallel regulator applications.
B. 337
C. shunt regulator A. series regulators C. 723
D. switching regulator B. shunt regulators D. 741
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
C. hybrid regulators
183. Which regulator is the most efficient? D. switching regulators 196. In a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage
ANSWER: D regulator (317), what is the band-gap voltage
A. series between the output terminal and adjustment
B. shunt 190. A 12 VDC power supply is regulated using terminal?
C. switching 7805 IC and is used in TTL circuits that require A. 1.25 V
D. modulating a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout
voltage of the system.
B. 2.5 V
ANSWER: B
A. 4 V C. 3.25 V
184. Voltage reference element in most voltage B. 5 V D. 4.125 V
regulators ANSWER: A
C. 6 V
A. diac D. 7 V 197. Typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal
B. thyrector ANSWER: D voltage regulators
C. zener diode A. 0.1 %
D. transistor 191. A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V
regulated power supply. Calculate the power
B. 0.8 %
ANSWER: C
dissipated by the regulator if it has an input C. 1.2 %
185. In voltage regulators, what do you call the voltage of 16 V. D. 2.0 %
element/device that controls the amount of A. 6 Watts ANSWER: A
current/voltage/power? B. 10 Watts 198. The three-terminal voltage regulators, such as
A. sampling circuit C. 12 Watts the 78XX series has a typical current rating of
B. comparator D. 16 Watts 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say
C. limiter ANSWER: A 30 amperes, how will you make modifications
D. control element from this regulator in order to provide the
ANSWER: D 192. Three-terminal fixed positive voltage required current?
regulators commonly used in industry. A. by cascading them
 by the use of a crowbar circuit
B. efficient regulation. What are the desirable
characteristics of the control element to be 2. The art or process of determining the existence
by connecting them in parallel
C. used if excellent regulator is desired? or knowing the magnitude of something, directly
by the use of external pass transistor
D. or indirectly in terms of a recognized standard.
ANSWER: D
A. very small off-state leakage current and
high on-state current ratings A. Measurement
B. Testing
199. What is the simplest way of protecting power B. large forward and reverse blocking C. Recording
supplies from reverse-polarity/reverse-current voltage and very small on-sate voltage
D. Evaluating
flow? C. short turn-on and turn-off times so that ANSWER: A
A. by a forward-biased diode it can be used in high-speed switching
regulators 3. A procedure or sequence of operations for
B. by a reverse-biased diode
C. by a crowbar circuit D. all of the above determining whether a component or equipment
ANSWER: D is functioning or working normally.
D. by a snubber circuit A. Measurement
ANSWER: B 205. Active devices used in switching regulators B. Test
may experience large over-currents during C. Recording
200. A crowbar circuit is used conduction (turn-on-state) and large over- D. Evaluating
A. to monitor the output current of a voltages during turn-off. These excessive ANSWER: B
power supply and automatically shuts currents and voltages may cause distraction or
down the system when an overload damage of the active devices. How do we 4. In measurement, what do you call the degree of
occur. protect them? exactness compared to the expected value of the
B. to monitor the temperature of a power A. by the use of a crowbar circuit variable being measured?
supply and switches the cooling fan B. by providing a buck-boost circuit A. precision
when a threshold temperature is B. accuracy
reached.
C. by shunting a thyrector C. sharpness
C. as voltage reference in regulated power D. by installing a snubber circuit D. correctness
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
supplies.
D. as an over-voltage protection in power 206. One of the major concerns in power 5. A measure of consistency or repeatability of
supplies. electronics is to clean-up or shape-up the measurements is called
ANSWER: D utility-supply voltage (the wall-outlet 220 V/60 A. precision
Hz) from disturbances such as, overvolt, B. accuracy
201. Technique(s) in using low-power, low-voltage undervolt, voltage spikes, and harmonic C. sharpness
transistors in high voltage regulators. distortions. What circuit is used for this? D. correctness
A. ground return regulation A. power conditioners ANSWER: A
B. by lifting the regulator above ground B. UPS
C. connecting them in series 6. Precision is also known as
C. power inverters A. correctness
D. all of the above D. line scanning B. accuracy
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A C. sharpness
D. reproducibility
202. Which of the regulators dissipates less power 207. A power supply that continuously provides ANSWER: D
and therefore generates less heat? protection against undervoltage, overvoltage
A. series and even power outages. 7. In measurements, the sum of a set of numbers
B. shunt A. standby power supply divided by the total number of pieces of data in
C. switching B. uninterruptible power supply the given set is called
A. geometric mean
D. UPS C. power conditioners B. algebraic mean
ANSWER: C D. regulated power supply C. arithmetic mean
ANSWER: B D. effective value
203. In switching regulators, what are the
ANSWER: C
semiconductor devices that can be used as TEST6.
controllable power switches?
8. The deviation of a reading from the expected
A. BJTs and MDs 1. What is the degree of exactness of measurement value
B. MOSFETs and IGBT when compared to the expected value of the A. accuracy
C. GTOs and thyristors variable being measured? B. precision
D. all of the above A. Accuracy C. error
ANSWER: D B. Error D. difference
C. Deviation ANSWER: C
204. In voltage regulators, the control element D. Precision
plays a major part in providing proper and ANSWER: A
9. Errors due to frictions of the meter movement, 16. A device or mechanism used to determine the 23. What ammeter is mostly used in measuring
incorrect spring tension, improper calibration or value of a quantity under observation. high-frequency currents?
faulty instruments: A. measuring kit A. electrostatic
A. Observational errors B. evaluator B. moving-coil
B. Environmental errors C. instrument C. dynamometer
C. Instrument errors D. sensor D. thermocouple
D. Gross errors ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
17. What is the basic unit for measuring current 24. Measurement of high dc-voltages is usually done
10. When an instrument is subjected to harsh flow? by using
environments such as high temperature, strong A. coulomb A. Electrostatic
magnetic, electrostatic or electromagnetic field, B. ampere B. moving-coil
it may have detrimental effects and cause errors C. atomic weight C. dynamometer
known as D. volt D. thermocouple
A. Observational errors ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
B. Environmental errors
C. Instrument errors 18. An instrument used to detect and measure the 25. Measuring instrument that can be used only to
D. Gross errors presence of electrical current is generally called measure voltages.
ANSWER: B A. D’Arsonval meter A. electrostatic
B. electrodynamometer B. thermocouple
11. Errors introduced by the observer or user. C. galvanometer C. dynamometer
A. Observational errors D. potentiometer D. permanent-magnet moving-coil
B. Environmental errors ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
C. Instrument errors
D. Gross errors 19. What is the common type of meter movement? 26. This instrument measures temperatures by
ANSWER: A A. Fixed coil electric means, especially temperatures beyond
B. Farad the range of mercury thermometers.
12. Errors in analog meter reading due to your C. D’Arsonval A. pyrometer
physical position with respect to the meter scale. D. Digital B. electrostatic instrument
A. parallax error ANSWER: C C. moving-magnet instrument
B. angular error D. permanent-magnet moving-coil
C. linear error 20. A permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument. instrument
D. deviation A. induction instrument ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A B. D’Arsonval meter movement
C. moving-iron instrument 27. This instrument refers to that one, which
13. What do you call the difference between any D. moving-magnet instrument measures the intensity of the radiation, received
number within the set of numbers and the ANSWER: B from any portion of the sky.
arithmetic mean of that set of numbers? A. megaohmmeter
A. parallax error 21. An instrument which depends on current in one B. pyranometer
B. angular error or more foxed-coils acting on one or more pieces C. Megger
C. linear error of soft iron, at least one of which is movable. D. galvanometer
D. deviation A. moving-magnet instrument ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D B. moving-iron instrument
C. D’Arsonval meter movement 28. What is the normal indication on a megger
14. An instrument or device having recognized D. induction instrument (megohmmeter) when checking insulation?
permanent or stable value that is used as a ANSWER: B A. one
reference. B. infinity
A. standard instrument/device 22. What is that device, which depends on the action C. middle of scale
B. reference instrument/device of a movable permanent magnet, in aligning D. zero
C. fixed instrument/device itself in the resultant field, produced either by a ANSWER: B
D. ideal instrument/device fixed permanent magnet and adjacent coil or
ANSWER: A coils carrying current, or by two or more current- 29. Resistance measuring instrument particularly
carrying coils whose axes are displaced by a used in determining the insulation resistance.
15. The smallest change in a measured variable to fixed angle? A. megaohmmeter
which an instrument will respond. A. D’Arsonval meter movement B. Megger
A. quantize value B. induction instrument C. galvanometer
B. resolution C. moving-magnet instrument D. A or B are correct
C. minimum D. moving-iron instrument ANSWER: D
D. step size ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 30. An electrodynamic meter used to measure power
A. hook-on type voltmeter
 B. wattmeter A. insertion 46. For the greatest accuracy, what should be the
C. watt-hour meter B. loading input impedance of a VOM be?
D. multi-meter C. battery aging A. 1,000 ohms/V
ANSWER: B D. conversion B. 50,000 ohms/V
ANSWER: A C. as large as possible
31. A device used to mechanically measure the D. as small as possible
output power of a motor. 39. Which type of meter requires its own power ANSWER: C
A. dynamometer source?
B. Megger A. A voltmeter 47. Voltage measurement in a high impedance
C. concentric-vane instrument B. An ammeter circuit requires a voltmeter with
D. radial-vane instrument C. An ohmmeter A. low input impedance
ANSWER: A D. A wattmeter B. high input impedance
ANSWER: C C. high voltage probe
32. An indicating instrument whose movable coils D. low voltage probe
rotate between two stationary coils, usually used 40. Error in ohmmeter reading is due to ANSWER: B
as wattmeter. A. insertion
A. induction-type meter B. loading 48. A meter has a full-scale current of 50μA, what is
B. radial-vane instrument C. battery aging its sensitivity?
C. electrodynamometer D. meter friction A. 20kΩ/V
D. concentric-vane instrument ANSWER: C B. 20V/Ω
ANSWER: C C. 50kΩ/V
41. Decreasing the value of the shunt resistor of an D. 50μA/V
33. Dynamometers are mostly used as ammeter, its current measuring capability ANSWER: A
A. voltmeter A. increases
B. ammeter B. decreases 49. If a meter with a full-scale current of 100μA is
C. ohmmeter C. remains constant used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave
D. wattmeter D. none of the above rectification, its ac sensitivity is
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A A. 10,000 Ω/V
B. 4,500 Ω/V
34. What damping method is generally used in 42. Increasing the value of the series resistor of a C. 9,000 Ω/V
dynamometers? voltmeter, its voltage measuring capability D. 100 Ω/V
A. spring A. increases ANSWER: B
B. fluid friction B. decreases
C. eddy-current damping C. remains constant 50. In order to make an accurate measurement as
D. air friction D. none of the above possible, the internal resistance of a voltmeter
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A must be
A. as high as possible
35. Which dynamometer instrument has a uniform 43. A device that is used to measure current without B. as low as possible
scale? opening the circuit C. proportional to the voltage range
A. voltmeter A. megger test D. proportional to the current range
B. ammeter B. clamp probe ANSWER: A
C. ohmmeter C. ammeter
D. wattmeter D. multi-meter 51. An ammeter has a full-scale deflection current of
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B 100mA. If the same ammeter is used to measure
a full-scale current of 1.0 ampere, what is the
36. For a dynamometer to be able to measure high 44. Which of the ammeter below that has no value of the shunt resistor in ohms if the voltage
current, a ________ should be used. insertion error? across the meter is 9.0 volts?
A. shunt resistor A. D’Arsonval meter A. 9.0
B. multiplier B. clamp-meter B. 10
C. CVDT C. micrometer C. 900
D. current transformer D. meter with current transformer D. 100
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B ANSWER: B

37. Error in voltmeter reading is due to 45. To prevent damage of the multirange ammeter 52. What is the purpose of the rheostat in
A. insertion during selection, a/an _______ should be used. ohmmeter?
B. loading A. direct shunt A. balancing resistance
C. battery aging B. selected shunt B. counter resistance of measured circuit
D. conversion C. Ayrton shunt C. coil resistance
ANSWER: B D. shunt fuse D. compensate aging battery of the meter
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
38. Error in ammeter reading id due to
53. The zero-adjust control in an analog type A. air friction ANSWER: C
ohmmeter is used to B. electrostatic damping
A. compensate for the differing internal C. fluid friction 68. In a moving coil ammeter, a _________ is
battery voltage D. eddy current damping connected in series with the soil to compensate
B. make sure the pointer is moving ANSWER: D for temperature variations.
correctly A. limiting resistor
C. align the infinity resistance position 61. Induction type instruments are mostly used as B. shunt resistor
D. align the zero-voltage position A. voltmeter C. multiplier
ANSWER: A B. ammeter D. swamping resistor
C. wattmeter ANSWER: D
54. The scale of a hot wire instrument is a/an D. watt-hour meter
__________ function. ANSWER: D 69. Where can we use the dynamometer?
A. linear A. dc only
B. squared 62. In indicating instruments, what will happen to B. ac only
C. log the controlling torque if the deflection becomes C. dc and ac
D. exponential greater? D. peak measurement
ANSWER: B A. increases ANSWER: C
B. decreases
55. Moving iron instrument have a scale function C. remains unchanged 70. What is the meter that depends for its operation
that is D. drops to zero on the forces of attraction and repulsion between
A. log ANSWER: A electrically charged bodies?
B. exponential A. induction instrument
C. linear 63. The force(s) that is(are) acting on the pointer of B. electrostatic instrument
D. squared an indicating instrument as it rest on its final C. moving-magnet instrument
ANSWER: D deflected position. (Note: damping torque is 0). D. D’Arsonval meter movement
A. controlling torque ANSWER: B
56. To increase the measuring capability of a B. deflecting torque
moving-iron ac ammeter, a _______ should be C. damping torque 71. What do you call of an instrument that depends
used. D. A & B above for its operation on the reaction between
A. shunt ANSWER: D magnetic flux set up by currents in fixed
B. multiplier windings and other currents set up by
C. swamping resistors 64. What is(are) the force(s) acting on the pointer of electromagnetic induction in movable conducting
D. different number of turns of operating an indicating instrument when it is in motion? parts?
coil A. controlling and deflecting torques A. induction instrument
ANSWER: D B. damping and deflecting torques B. electrostatic instrument
C. controlling and damping torques C. moving-magnet instrument
57. Which electrical instruments below is the most D. controlling, damping, deflecting torques D. D’Arsonval meter movement
sensitive? ASNWER: D ANSWER: A
A. moving-iron
B. dynamometer 65. Material that is mostly used as a pointer in 72. A meter for its operation, it depends on a
C. thermocouple indicating instruments. movable iron vane which aligns itself in the
D. PMMC A. soft iron resultant field of a permanent magnet and an
ANSWER: D B. aluminum adjacent current carrying coil.
C. silver A. induction instrument
58. Basically, a PMMC instrument can be used only D. stainless B. electrostatic instrument
in ANSWER: B C. moving-magnet instrument
A. ac measurements D. permanent-magnet moving coil-
B. dc measurements 66. A Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter uses what instrument
C. rms measurements method of damping? ANSWER: D
D. all of the above A. fluid friction
ANSWER: B B. spring action 73. What is the measuring instrument that uses the
C. mechanical friction force of repulsion between fixed and movable
59. Controlling torque in PMMC. D. eddy-current damping magnetized iron vanes, or the force between a
A. spring action ANSWER: A coil and a pivoted vane-shaped piece of soft iron
B. magnetic action to move the indicating pointer?
C. electromagnetic action 67. Shunts in meters should have a _________ A. pyrometer
D. tension cable temperature coefficient of resistance. B. vane-type instrument
ANSWER: A A. positive C. electrostatic instrument
B. negative D. moving-magnet instrument
60. What damping method is used in induction type C. very small ANSWER: B
ammeters? D. very large
74. It’s an electrostatic voltmeter in which an B. slide-wire bridge B. Schering bridge
assembly of figure – 8 – shaped metal plates C. resistance bridge C. slide-wire bridge
rotates between the plates of a stationary D. Wheatstone bridge D. Wein inductance bridge
assembly when a voltage is applied between the ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
assemblies. The length of the arc of rotation is
proportional to the electrostatic attraction and 81. Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the 87. Bridge used to measure both inductive and
thus, to the applied voltage. inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of capacitive impedances at higher frequencies.
A. varmeter resistance, frequency and a standard A. Hay bridge
B. variometer capacitance. B. Schering bridge
C. potentiometer A. Hay bridge C. Wein bridge
D. Kelvin voltmeter B. Maxwell bridge D. radio-frequency bridge
ANSWER: D C. slide-wire bridge ANSWER: D
D. Wheatstone bridge 88. A bridge wherein all legs are electrically identical
75. What is that instrument used for measuring the ANSWER: A A. balance bridge
strength and direction of magnetic fields? 82. This is a special bridge for measuring very low B. balance circuit
A. varmeter resistance (0.1Ω or less). The arrangement of C. balance line
B. potentiometer the bridge reduces the effects of contact D. all of the above
C. magnetometer resistance, which causes significant error when ANSWER: A
D. Kelvin voltmeter such low resistances are connected to
ANSWER: C conventional resistances bridges. 89. Comparison between dc and ac measuring
A. Hay bridge instruments
76. What do you call of that instrument used for B. Maxwell bridge A. generally, ac instruments are less
measuring reactive power in vars? C. Wheatstone bridge sensitive than dc instruments
A. varmeter D. Kelvin double bridge B. errors such as induced emfs, frequency
B. pyrometer ANSWER: D variations, and harmonic-current
C. reactive volt-ampere meter components are only present in ac
D. A or C is correct 83. A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which instruments
ANSWER: D the unknown capacitance is compared with a C. in ac instruments, higher value of
standard capacitance. This bridge is frequently current is needed than in dc
77. What is this instrument or circuit that has four or employed in testing electrolytic capacitors, to instruments to produce the same
more arms, by means of which one or more of which a dc polarizing voltage is applied during deflection
the electrical constants of an unknown the measurement. What is this bridge? D. all of these are correct
component may be measured? A. Hay bridge ANSWER: D
A. bridge B. Maxwell bridge
B. Hazeltine circuit C. Schering bridge 90. What is an electronic instrument capable of
C. Loftin – White circuit D. Wheatstone bridge showing on screen and maybe on print, relative
D. D’Arsonval meter movement ANSWER: C spacing of transmitter carriers, their sidebands
ANSWER: A and harmonics?
84. What do you call of that frequency-sensitive A. Counters
78. A four-arm bridge. Al arms of which are bridge in which two adjacent arms are B. Spectrum analyzer
predominantly resistive; used for measuring resistances and the other two arms are RC C. Triggered oscilloscope
resistance. combinations? D. Multimeter
A. bridge A. Hay bridge ANSWER: B
B. resistance bridge B. Wein bridge
C. Wheatstone bridge C. Maxwell bridge 91. An instrument capable of displaying
D. B or C is correct D. Schering bridge simultaneously the amplitude of signals having
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B different frequencies.
A. oscilloscope
79. This is the method of using a Wheatstone bridge 85. When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are B. spectrum analyzer
to determine the distance from the test point to replaced by inductors, the bridge becomes C. VTVM
a fault in a telephone or telegraph line or cable. A. Wein-bridge filter D. Logic analyzer
A. Mesh B. variometer ANSWER: B
B. Varley loop C. Schering bridge
C. Batten system D. Wein inductance bridge 92. Spectrum analyzer is
D. Cordonnier system ANSWER: D A. a real-time analyzer
ANSWER: B B. a non-real time analyzer
86. A simplified version of the Wheatstone bridge C. the same as a wave analyzer in all
80. This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for wherein, two of the ratio arms are replaced by a aspects
measuring inductance against a standard 100 cm long Manganin of uniform cross-sections D. an instrument not dependent on
capacitance. and provided with a slider. frequency
A. Maxwell bridge A. Hay bridge ANSWER: A
 100. The two most common audio oscillators are B. inclinometer
93. Indications of spectrum analyzer is presented by A. Wein bridge and Colpitts C. dip meter
means of B. Wein bridge and phase-shift D. Grid-dip meter
A. a moving meter C. Colpitts and Hartley ANSWER: D
B. an iron vane D. Hartley and phase-shift
C. a CRT ANSWER: B 108. In meter movement, how do you prevent the
D. a LED meter from oscillation and overswing?
ANSWER: C 101. What are the two most popular RF oscillators A. by shorting
A. Wein bridge and Colpitts B. by coupling
94. An electronic measuring device that provide B. Wein bridge and phase-shift C. by swamping
instantaneous visual indication of voltage C. Colpitts and Hartley D. by damping
excursions. D. Hartley and phase-shift ANSWER: D
A. voltmeter ANSWER: C
B. power meter 109. When the meter is insufficiently damped, it is
C. oscilloscope 102. A device or instrument able to generate noise considered as
D. power line meter with accurate voltage for test purposes. A. underdamped
ANSWER: C A. signal generator B. overdamped
B. synthesizer C. critically damped
95. An instrument that is capable of displaying C. frequency generator D. negatively damped
waveforms by means of fluorescence in a CRT. D. noise generator ANSWER: A
A. oscilloscope ANSWER: D
B. wave analyzer 110. A meter when _______ damped will become
C. spectrum analyzer 103. When do you need a noise generator? insensitive to small signals.
D. distortion analyzer A. When starting an oscillators A. underdamped
ANSWER: A B. When evaluating noise performance of B. overdamped
an oscillator C. critically damped
96. Types of oscilloscopes that are able retain the C. When evaluating noise characteristics of D. negatively damped
display for a longer period for analysis. The an amplifier ANSWER: B
display is retained by the use of flood gun. D. When performing modulation analysis
A. sampling oscilloscope ANSWER: C TEST7.
B. digital storage oscilloscope 1. One type of circuit control device which may be
C. storage oscilloscope 104. In RF or microwave system, what instrument is manual, automatic or multi-contact
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope used to measure the incidental and reflected A. fuse
ANSWER: C signals. B. breaker
A. oscilloscope C. switch
97. What do call an oscilloscope that uses sampling B. reflectometer D. relay
technique in processing signals having C. incident-wave meter ANSWER: B
frequencies beyond its normal capabilities? D. spectrum analyzer
A. sampling oscilloscope ANSWER: B 2. What are the primary methods of controlling
B. digital storage oscilloscope electrical power?
C. storage oscilloscope 105. A type of photometer used to measure A. by using manual switches and rheostats
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope reflection. B. by using variable reactance and
ANSWER: A A. photodiode transformers
B. reflectometer C. by using electronic switches, such as
98. Generally, oscilloscope uses what type of C. incident-wave meter diodes, transistors thyratrons, and
deflection? D. LED thyristors
A. magnetic deflection ANSWER: B D. all of the above
B. electromagnetic deflection ANSWER: D
C. static deflection 106. A tunable RF instrument, which, by means of a
D. electrostatic deflection sharp dip of an indicating meter, indicates 3. Common method(s) of controlling electrical
ANSWER: D resonance with an external circuit under test. power with reactance
A. reflectometer A. switching a tapped inductor
99. A device or instrument, which delivers signals of B. inclinometer B. using a saturable reactor
pre3cise frequency and amplitude, usually over a C. dip meter C. by a matching transformer
wide range. D. Grid-dip meter D. A and B above
A. synthesizer ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
B. frequency generators
C. signal generators 107. A type of dip meter employing a vacuum tube 4. A reactive device used in controlling electrical
D. modulators oscillator, whose indicating dc microammeter is power by using two windings on a common iron
ANSWER: C in the grid circuit. core. The control winding is supplied with small
A. reflectometer
 dc-current which causes the reactance of large 11. Using electronic devices as switches, what B. triac
ac-winding to change accordingly. is(are) the general methods of controlling C. SCS
A. tapped inductor electrical power? D. PUT
B. saturable reactor A. phase control ANSWER: A
C. auto transformer B. zero-voltage switching
D. LVDT C. static switching 19. Find the two stable operating conditions of an
ANSWER: B D. all of the above SCR.
ANSWER: D A. Conducting and non-conducting
5. A saturable reactor with regenerative feedback. B. Oscillating and quiescent
A. tapped inductor 12. Which power control switching method that C. NPN conduction and PNP conduction
B. auto transformer greatly generates RFI or EMI and is therefore D. Forward conducting and reverse
C. LVDT limited to low-frequency applications? conducting
D. magnetic amplifier A. phase control ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D B. zero-voltage switching
C. inverter control 20. How do you stop conduction during which SCR is
6. Thyratrons in industrial electronics refers to D. static switching also conducting?
____________. ANSWER: A A. remove voltage gate
A. a gas-filled diode B. increase cathode voltage
B. a vacuum tube 13. One of the electronic semiconductor devices C. interrupt anode current
C. gas-filled triode known as diac, function as D. reduce gate current
D. an electron triode A. four terminal multi-directional switch ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C B. two terminal bi-directional switch
C. two terminal unidirectional switch 21. How do we turn “ON” or trigger an SCR?
7. An electronic switch that has the highest single- D. three terminal bi-directional switch A. by making the gate (G) positive with
device current capacity and can withstand ANSWER: B respect to its cathode (K)
overloads better. B. by making the gate (G) positive with
A. Thyristors 14. Which of the trigger diodes has the highest respect to its anode (A)
B. ignitrons holding voltage? C. by making the cathode more positive
C. SCR A. bidirectional-trigger diac with respect to the anode
D. triac B. bidirectional-diode-thyristor diac D. A and C above
ANSWER: B C. Shockley diode ANSWER: A
D. thyrector
8. A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the ANSWER: A 22. What is true about SCRs after they are being
highest single-device current rating switched “ON”?
A. thyristor 15. General term of electronic devices used to A. The anode (A) to cathode (K) continues
B. triac control or trigger large-power switching devices. to conduct even if the gate triggering
C. SCR A. thyristor voltage is removed.
D. Quadric B. thyrector B. The gate (G) must be provided with the
ANSWER: C C. break-over devices required holding current to continue its
D. triggering devices conduction.
9. The purpose of installing thyrectors across the ANSWER: C C. A small holding voltage at the gate is
incoming power lines to the speed control required for a continuous conduction.
system is to ___________ 16. A break-over device that is basically a diode. D. B and C above
A. cause the motor to caution A. thyristor ANSWER: A
B. protect drive circuits from high voltage B. thyrector
transient surges C. thyratron 23. The voltage across the anode (A) and cathode
C. increase the counter emf D. triggering diode (K) terminals of an SCR when conducting.
D. allow the field winding current to ANSWER: D A. holding voltage
continue flowing B. breakdown voltage
ANSWER: B 17. A four-element solid state device that combi9nes C. breakback voltage
the characteristics of both diodes and D. trigger voltage
10. Semiconductor devices equivalent to thyratrons transistors ANSWER: A
are generally called A. varactor
A. thyrector B. zener diode 24. The minimum amount of current needed for an
B. thyristor C. tunnel diode SCR to conduct continuously.
C. diac D. SCR A. holding current
D. ignitron ANSWER: D B. triggering current
ANSWER: B C. threshold current
18. The most popular thyristor used in electrical D. average sustaining current
power controllers ANSWER: A
A. SCR
25. What is(are) the condition(s) in triggering SCR?
A. The gate voltage must be equal to or
greater than the triggering voltage.
B. The gate current must be equal to or
greater than the triggering current.
C. The anode (A) must be positive with
respect to the cathode.
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D C. by cascading them
26. The voltage decreased across the anode (A) and
cathode (K) of an SCR from non-conducting
state to conducting state.
A. holding voltage
B. forward breakdown voltage
C. triggering voltage
D. breakback voltage
ANSWER: D voltages?
27. An SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling
switch in a circuit powered by 50Vdc. When the
SCR fires ON, its anode (A) to cathode (K)
voltage was observed to be 2 V. Calculate the
breakback voltage of the SCR.
A. 25 Vdc
B. 32 Vdc
C. 41 Vdc
D. 48 Vdc
ANSWER: D shunted across each SCR.
28. The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR before
it conducts.
A. minimum-gate trigger voltage
B. maximum-gate trigger voltage
C. minimum-gate peak-inverse voltage
D. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage
ANSWER: A D. all of the above
29. What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs and
triacs?
A. maximum-gate power dissipation
B. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage
C. maximum-gate trigger current and
voltage
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D 36. When a high current is needed, SCRs are
30. How can we extend the rating of SCRs?
A. by external cooling
B. by external circuitry
C. by connecting them in series/parallel
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D same time. How can we do this?
31. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling
are examples of external cooling in SCRs and
other devices. Which of these is the only
recommended to be used for the largest power
dissipating device?
A. metal heat sinks
B. forced air
C. water cooling device, what do we call the period of the cycle
D. A and B above before the device switches to conduction?
ANSWER: C A. trigger time
B. trigger delay time
32. How can we increase the forward-voltage C. firing frequency
blocking capability of SCRs? D. firing delay angle
A. by connecting them in series ANSWER: D
B. by connecting them in parallel
38. How many times per second does an SCR is
D. by connecting back to back in parallel turned ON and OFF when it is operated in a full-
ANSWER: A wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz?
A. 30 times
33. In connecting two SCRs in series, during “OFF” B. 60 times (HV)
state, the voltage source must be properly C. 90 times
shared between them, but due to devices’ D. 120 times (FW)
differences, there might be unequal voltages ANSWER: D
across each SCR. How do we equalize these
39. A three terminal device that behaves roughly like
A. by installing a snubber circuit SCR, except that it can conduct current in either
B. by adding a gate-to-cathode resistor direction when at ON.
C. by shunting a capacitor across the A. thyristor
anode (A) and cathode (K) of each SCR B. SUS
D. by using a blocking-equalizing resistor C. SBS
ANSWER: D D. GTO
ANSWER: C
34. What is true regarding blocking-equalizing
resistors in SCRs connected in series? 40. What is the difference between a triac and a
A. Blocking-equalizing resistors are silicon bilateral switch (SBS)?
A. An SBS is usually used as breakover
B. The value of these resistors is about device, while a triac is a load controlling
10% of the value of the blocking device.
resistance of the SCR it is shunted with. B. An SBS is for low voltage applications,
C. These resistors increases the leakage while a triac is generally for high
current towards the load. voltage applications.
D. All of the above C. An SBS has better and stable
ANSWER: D symmetrical-firing voltage than a triac.
35. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON- ANSWER: D
OFF switching action of SCRs in series.
A. snubber circuit 41. A triac can be triggered ON by the application of
B. crow-bar a
C. clipper A. positive voltage at the gate with respect
D. clamper to MT1
ANSWER: A B. negative voltage at the gate with
respect to MT1
C. positive or negative gate voltage with
connected in parallel. The problem with respect to MT2
paralleled SCRs is, when they are not perfectly D. all of the above are correct
matched, one will conduct first before the other ANSWER: D
and carries the full-load current that is for sure
greater than its maximum rating. To avoid this 42. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
situation, both SCRs should be turned ON at the A. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
B. Gate, source and sink
A. by using high triggering gate voltage C. Base, emitter and collector
B. by using a gate-triggering transformer D. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
C. by using reactors ANSWER: A
D. all of the above are possible
ANSWER: D 43. What are the three terminals of a triac?
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate
37. In controlling electrical power using phase (G)
control method with SCR/triac being the active
 B.mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2 ANSWER: D 54. Why does thyristors with high breakback voltage
(MT2), and gate (G) desirable?
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G) 49. What will happen to the forward breakdown or A. it dissipates less power
D. both A and B are acceptable breakover voltage of SCRs and triacs if the gate B. it generates less heat
ANSWER: D current is increased? C. it is more efficient
A. will decrease D. all of the above
44. A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as s B. will also increase ANSWER: D
small power triac, and has three terminals C. will not change
namely, D. will either increase or decrease, it 55. Portion in the welding process interval during
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate depends on their current coefficient which the welding current is flowing is called
(G) ANSWER: A ____________.
B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2 A. cool sub-interval
(MT2), and gate (G) 50. A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three B. released interval
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G) terminal breakover-type switching device. Its C. squeeze interval
D. both A and B are acceptable three terminals are called base 1, base 2, and D. heat sub-interval
ANSWER: D emitter. Though this is a transistor and has base ANSWER: D
and emitter terminals, this operates very
45. A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except different from a BJT and is not used as a linear 56. In automatic welding system, basically there are
that it has low voltage and current ratings. It is amplifier. Its applications are for how many intervals?
very temperature stable, and is therefore A. timers and oscillators A. 2
suitable to be used as triggering device. B. signal generators B. 5
A. UJT C. triggering control for SCRs and triacs C. 10
B. GTO D. all of the above D. 15
C. SBS ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
D. SUS
ANSWER: D 51. A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1 = 6 KΩ 57. In automatic welding what do you call the first
and RB2 = 3 KΩ, what is its interbase resistance? interval wherein the material to be welded are
46. Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have A. 2 KΩ held together?
a breakover voltage of 8 V, however, this value B. 3 KΩ A. squeeze interval
can be altered by normally connecting a zener C. 6 KΩ B. weld interval
diode. How is the diode installed? D. 9 KΩ C. hold interval
A. across the gate (G) and cathode (K) ANSWER: D D. standby interval
terminals, with the diode’s anode at ANSWER: A
the gate 52. For a unijunction transistor (UJT) to witch ON
B. anode to anode, cathode to cathode A. the base 1 voltage should be greater 58. After the squeeze interval, what comes next in
C. diode’s cathode to SUS’s anode and than the peak voltage an automatic welding system?
diode’s anode to SUS’s cathode B. the base 2 voltage should be greater A. squeeze interval
D. diode’s cathode to SUS’s gate and than the peak voltage B. weld interval
diode’s anode to SUS’s cathode C. the emitter voltage should be greater C. hold interval
ANSWER: D than the peak voltage D. standby interval
D. the voltage between the emitter and ANSWER: B
47. A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward base 1 should be greater than the peak
breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener diode is voltage when emitter being more 59. During the welding or weld interval, when a
connected between its gate and cathode positive welding current is flowing the system is said to
terminals with the diode’s cathode at SUS’s gate. ANSWER: D be at
If the zener voltage is 3.9 V, what is the new A. weld interval
forward breakover voltage of the device? 53. Semiconductor devices with inherent ON-OFF B. cool subinterval
A. 0.49 V behavior and has no linear operating regions are C. heat subinterval
B. 2.05 V called thryistors. Examples are SCRs, triacs, D. hold interval
C. 4.50 V SUSs, SBSs, Shockley diodes, diacs, PUTs, and ANSWER: C
D. 11.9 V SCSs. In selecting thyristors for a particular
ANSWER: C application, which of the statement below is 60. The portion of the weld interval during which the
generally desirable? current is absent
48. Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely A. thyristors with high current and voltage A. cool subinterval
resembles that of SCR’s and SUS’s, except that ratings B. heat subinterval
its forward breakover voltage (+VBO) is not B. thyristors with high holding C. hold interval
alterable, for the device has no gate terminal. current/voltage D. standby interval
A. diac C. faster thyristors ANSWER: A
B. thyrector D. thyristors with high breakback-voltage
C. UJT ANSWER: D
D. Shockley diode
61. After the welding interval, it goes to _________ 68. What do you call a circuit or system that is self-
interval wherein the electrode pressure is correcting? 76. A good closed-loop control system has the
maintained on the metal surfaces. A. open-loop following characteristics
A. cool subinterval B. closed-loop A. with very small offset signal or voltage
B. heat subinterval C. system without feed back B. quick response
C. hold interval D. servo C. highly stable
D. standby interval ANSWER: B D. all are correct
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
69. Open-loop in control system means:
62. Next to hold interval is __________ interval in A. it has no feedback 77. In control system, the manner in which the
automatic welding system. B. it is not self-correcting controller reacts to an error is termed as
A. squeeze C. it is not self-regulating A. mode of operation
B. cool D. all are correct B. type of operation
C. standby ANSWER: D C. mode of control
D. release D. reaction style
ANSWER: D 70. In control system, closed-loop means: ANSWER: C
A. it has feedback
63. After the release interval in automatic welding, B. it is self-correcting 78. What are the general basic modes of control in
the system will go to C. it is self-regulating control system?
A. cool interval D. all are correct A. On-Off
B. squeeze interval ANSWER: D B. Proportional
C. standby interval C. Proportional plus integral
D. hold interval 71. When a closed-loop system is used to maintain D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: C physical position it is referred as ANSWER: D
A. gyro system
64. Refers to the system that has no feedback and is B. feedback system 79. Mode of control wherein the controller has only
not self correcting C. servo system two operating states. This mode is also known as
A. Close-loop system D. differential system bang-bang control.
B. Coal slurry system ANSWER: C A. On-Off
C. Feed forward control system B. Proportional
D. Open-loop system 72. In closed-loop system, what do you call the C. Proportional plus integral
ANSWER: D difference in the measured value and the set D. Proportional plus derivative
value or desired value? ANSWER: A
65. The system is ____________ if a position servo A. error
system does not respond to small changes in the B. differential voltage 80. ____________ is a mode of control wherein the
input. C. potential difference controller has a continuous range of possible
A. under stabilized D. threshold position, not just two as in bang-bang control.
B. underdamped ANSWER: A A. On-Off
C. stabilized B. Proportional
D. overdamped 73. Error signal in closed-system is also known as C. Proportional plus integral
ANSWER: D A. difference signal D. Proportional plus derivative
B. deviation ANSWER: B
66. What is the purpose of using a differential C. system deviation
synchro instead of a regular synchro? D. all are correct 81. Proportional mode of control wherein the
A. Handles more signals only ANSWER: D controller is not only considering the magnitude
B. Performs addition and subtraction of the error signal but as well as the time that is
function only 74. In a closed-loop control system, when the error has persisted.
C. Differential synchros can handle more signal is zero the system is at A. On-Off
signals and also performs addition and A. null B. Proportional
subtraction function B. saturation C. Proportional plus integral *
D. Handles two signals only C. cut-off D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: C D. halt ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A
67. Industrial circuit or system that is not self- 82. Proportional mode of control wherein the
correcting 75. The small error signal or system deviation where controller is not only considering the magnitude
A. open-loop the system cannot correct anymore of the error signal but as well as its rate of
B. closed-loop A. threshold change.
C. system with feed back B. holding A. Proportional
D. non-servo C. offset B. Proportional plus integral
ANSWER: A D. bias C. Proportional plus derivative *
ANSWER; C D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative
 ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
98. Advantages of electric actuators:
83. What is (are) being considered in Proportional 90. The technology for automations A. Lower initial cost than either hydraulic
plus Integral plus Derivative (PID) mode of A. avionics or pneumatic
control? B. cryogenics B. Much lower operating cost than
A. error signal magnitude C. cryotronics hydraulic
B. error signal period of occurrence D. robotics C. Accurate positioning and good velocity
C. error signal rate of change ANSWER: D control
D. all are considered * D. All of these are correct
ANSWER: D 91. What is(are) the common mechanical ANSWER: D
configurations for industrial robots?
84. If On-Off mode of control is the simplest, what is A. articulated-arm or jointed-arm 99. Advantages of pneumatic actuators:
its opposite or the most complex? B. spherical configuration A. lower initial and operating cost than
A. Proportional C. cylindrical configuration hydraulic actuators
B. Proportional plus integral D. all of these B. Clean, no oil leaks
C. Proportional plus derivative ANSWER: D C. Quick response
D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative D. All are correct
* 92. The number of axis a robot is free to move is ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D called
A. freedom axis 100. Advantages of hydraulic actuators
85. The __________ are two of the most common B. degrees of freedom A. Great holding strength when stopped
mechanical configuration of industrial robots. C. movement degrees B. Accurate positioning and good velocity
A. Spherical and pneumatic D. mechanical axis control
B. Articulated arm and cylindrical * ANSWER: B C. Intrinsically safe in flammable
C. Spherical and hydraulic environment such as painting
D. Jointed-arm and electric 93. Actuators used in industrial robots D. All of these are correct
ANSWER: B A. electric motors ANSWER: D
B. fluid motors
86. One advantage of hydraulic actuator in industrial C. fluid cylinders 101. Disadvantages of pneumatic actuators:
robots include _____________. D. all of these are correct A. Weak force capability
A. great force capability handling heavy ANSWER: D B. Not so much holding strength when
loads * stopped as compared to hydraulic
B. lower operating cost than the other type 94. Which of the actuators that has the greatest system
C. low initial cost than the other type force capability? C. Accurate positioning and velocity
D. clean-no oil leaks A. electric control is impossible
ANSWER: A B. hydraulic fluid D. All of these are correct
C. pneumatic ANSWER: D
87. ____________ includes tow of the actuator type D. magnetic
used in industrial robots. ANSWER: B 102. Disadvantages of electric actuators in industrial
A. Pneumatic and Jointed-arm robots:
B. Hydraulic and Pneumatic 95. Actuator that requires the highest initial cost: A. Less force capability as compared to
C. Electric and Spherical A. electric hydraulic system
D. Hydraulic and Cylindrical B. hydraulic B. Very little holding strength when
ANSWER: B C. pneumatic stopped which causes a heavy load to
D. magnetic sag
88. A system in which the precise movement of a ANSWER: B C. Usually requires mechanical brakes
large load is controlled by a relatively weak D. All are correct
signal. 96. Robot actuator that has the highest operating ANSWER: D
A. hydraulic cost:
B. electro A. electric 103. A robot software or program that produces only
C. synchro B. hydraulic two-position motion for a given robot axis.
D. servo C. pneumatic A. positive-stop
ANSWER: D D. magnetic B. point-to-point
ANSWER: B C. continuous-path
89. A programmable, multifunction manipulator D. hard interrupt
designed to move materials, parts, tools or 97. The most messy robot actuator: ANSWER: A
specific devices. A. electric
A. Industrial robot B. hydraulic 104. A robot program that has the ability to move a
B. Android C. pneumatic robot to any position within the range but
C. Actuator D. magnetic without specific path.
D. End effector ANSWER: B A. positive-stop program
 B. point-to-point program B. 3,575 tubes
C. continuous path program TEST8. C. 13,575 tubes
D. compound program 1. An English mathematician who invented the slide D. 18,000 tubes
ANSWER: B rule in 1622. ANSWER: D
A. Blaise Pascal
105. A robot program that has the ability to move a B. Clifford Berry 9. ENIAC could perform _________ additions or up
robot to any position within the range with C. Charges Babage to _________ multiplications per second.
specific path. D. William Oughtred A. 1,000 / 100
A. positive-stop program ANSWER: D B. 1,500 / 150
B. point-to-point program C. 3,000 / 300
C. continuous path program 2. Built a computer in 1946 at the Institute of D. 5,000 / 500
D. compound program Advance Study (IAS), Princeton, USA, that uses ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C binary numbers and stores information.
A. Vannevar Bush 10. Whirlwind I, develop at Massachusetts Institute
106. When a robot moves on several axis at the same B. John Van Neumann of Technology is capable of _________
time, it is to have C. John Atannasoff operations per second.
A. intrinsic motion D. Clifford Berry A. 1,000
B. extrinsic motion ANSWER: B B. 5,000
C. compound motion C. 10,000
D. universal motion 3. An electronic device design to accept data D. 20,000
ANSWER: C performs prescribed computational and logical ANSWER: D
operations at high speed and output the results
107. In robotics, SCARA means: of this operation. 11. Refers to the increased use of data conversion
A. Selective Compliant Articulated Robot A. Compiler circuits as a result of increased application.
Arm B. Simulator A. Op Amps
B. Selective Compliant Assembly Robot C. Computer B. Linear circuit
Arm D. Digital machine C. Computers
C. Selective Computer-Actuated Robot ANSWER: C D. Digital equipment
Arm ANSWER: C
D. A and B are correct 4. First commercial computer introduce in 1953
ANSWER: D that uses valves. 12. What is a group of circuits that provides timing
A. IBM-1400 and signals to all operations in the computer?
108. SCARA Robots has how many axis of motion? B. UNIVAC A. Output unit
A. 2 C. IBM-701 B. Memory unit
B. 4 D. ENIAC C. Control unit
C. 6 ANSWER: B D. Input unit
D. 8 ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 5. The first electronic computer and was completed
in 1946. 13. Refers to the part of computer that performs
109. SCARA Robots are designed for what A. ENIAC mathematical operations.
applications? B. UNIVAC A. CPU
A. Machining C. EDVAC B. Flip-flop
B. Welding D. Whirlwind I C. Assembly language
C. Assembling ANSWER: A D. ALU
D. Handling heavy loads ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 6. ENIAC was developed at
A. University of Pennsylvania 14. What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic
110. Why is SCARA Robot attractive in industry? B. Massachusetts Institute of Technology operations process?
A. because it is relatively cheaper C. Cambridge University A. Binary coded decimal
B. because it can carry very heavy loads D. Bell Laboratories B. Hexadecimal numbers
C. because it has unlimited movement ANSWER: A C. Octal numbers
D. all of the above D. Binary numbers
ANSWER: A 7. Who constructed ENIAC and UNIVAC? ANSWER: D
A. William Oughtred
B. Presper Eckert and John W. Mauchly 15. What is the smallest part of a computer
C. John von Neumann language?
D. William Oughtred and Jon von Neumann A. binary
ANSWER: B B. byte
C. bit
8. ENIAC consist of how many vacuum tubes? D. word
A. 1,500 tubes ANSWER: C
 D. 1011 D. A6.4
16. A digital word consisting of only four bits is ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
called a
A. dibit 23. Which of the following is not used in hexadecimal 31. The most practical way of converting
B. quad digital symbols? hexadecimal numbers to binary is to give each
C. pixel A. A number its _________ equivalent bits.
D. nibble B. C A. Two
ANSWER: D C. H B. Three
D. F C. Four
17. Electronics methodology in solving application ANSWER: C D. Five
problems using circuits, in which there are only ANSWER: C
two possible voltage levels. 24. What is the equivalent of decimal 7 in octal?
A. digital electronics A. 21 32. The binary equivalent of the hexadecimal
B. switching techniques B. 49 number ECE.5
C. state diagramming C. 7 A. 1110 1100 1110.0101
D. bistable electronics D. 14 B. 1110 1100 1110.101
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C C. 1101 1100 1101.101
D. 1101 1100 1101.0101
18. In digital electronics, there are mainly two 25. The decimal 36020 is equivalent to hexadecimal ANSWER: A
possible voltage levels and these make _____ ___________.
number system to be useful in its analysis. A. 8CB4 33. Convert (1111 1111 1111 1111)2 to decimal
A. binary B. 88BC number.
B. octal C. 8BC8 A. 32 767
C. hexadecimal D. 884C B. 32 768
D. all of the above ANSWER: A C. 65 535
ANSWER: A D. 65 536
26. What is the equivalent of decimal 14 in binary? ANSWER: C
19. 1 and 0 in binary number system are used to A. 1110
represent the two different voltage levels or logic B. 1011 34. Find the sum of binary number 1010 and 0011.
levels in digital circuits. However, in most C. 1101 A. 1021
applications, a long string of 1’s and 0’s occur, D. 1111 B. 1101
and makes the data presentation “nasty”. To ANSWER: A C. 1011
condense this long string of 1’s and 0’s, the D. 1111
___________ number system is (are) also used. 27. The code 1011 in BCD is ANSWER: B
A. octal A. 24
B. decimal B. Letter A 35. Get the sum of (110.1101)2 and (11.01)2.
C. hexadecimal C. 11 A. 1010.0101
D. all of the above D. Invalid B. 1010.0001
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D C. 1101.0101
D. 0111.1010
20. How many symbols are used in octal digital 28. Conversion from binary to octal number system ANSWER: B
number system? needs a grouping of bits by
A. 16 A. Two 36. What is the difference between the given binary
B. 4 B. Three numbers, 110.1101 and 11.01?
C. 8 C. Four A. 110.0000
D. 2 D. Five B. 111.1010
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B C. 11.1010
D. 11.1001
21. How many symbols does hexadecimal digital 29. Convert the given binary number 1010011.01 to ANSWER: D
number system used? octal system.
A. 16 A. 511.1 37. Find the radix-minus one complement of
B. 4 B. 511.2 (110.1101)2.
C. 8 C. 123.1 A. 111.0010
D. 32 D. 123.2 B. 010.0011
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D C. 1.001
D. 001.0010
22. What is the equivalent of decimal number 11 in 30. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary ANSWER: D
binary? number 1010011.01?
A. 1101 A. 53.4 38. Give the true complements of (1101.1100)2.
B. 1110 B. 53.1 A. 0010.0011
C. 1111 C. A6.1 B. 10.0011
 C. 10.01 ANSWER: C 53. To cause a three-state buffer to output 0-1
D. 0010.0100 levels, the following must be true:
ANSWER: D 46. What is the logic circuit having two or more A. The output enable must be false
inputs but only output, with high output of any B. The output enable must be true
39. Mathematics used in expressing, analyzing, and or all inputs are high, with low output only if all C. The information must have been stored
designing of digital electronic circuits. inputs are low? in the buffer
A. Boolean algebra A. AND gate D. The signal OE must be at logic 1
B. Numerical methods B. OR gate ANSWER: D
C. Statistical approach C. NOR gate
D. Logical mathematics D. NAND gate 54. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B the logic node being probe
A. Has rapidly changing logic activity
40. Method(s) used in simplifying Boolean algebra. 47. A logic gate whose output is HIGH when a single B. Is struck
A. Karnaugh map HIGH at its input is present. C. Is at an illegal logic level
B. Map-entered variable technique A. OR gate D. Has an unstable logic activity
C. Quine-McCluskey tabular method B. NOR gate ANSWER: A
D. All of the above C. AND gate
ANSWER: D D. NAND gate 55. ______________ is a single bit comparator.
ANSWER: A A. Wired OR
41. Karnaugh map is the most commonly used B. Exclusive OR
method in simplifying Boolean expression or 48. An output of logic zero can be generated by what C. NOR gate
logical functions. In this method only 1’s and 0’s logic gate(s) if all inputs are zero? D. Exclusive NOR
are entered into the table, while ________ A. OR gate ANSWER: D
includes variables into the table. B. AND gate
A. Boolean algebra C. NOR gate 56. _____________ refers to the class of logic
B. Map-entered variable technique D. NAND gate circuit containing flip-flops.
C. Superposition method ANSWER: A A. Combinational
D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method B. Sequential
ANSWER: B 49. Logic gate that generates an output of logic zero C. Linear
if and only if all inputs are zero. D. Feedback
42. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean A. OR gate ANSWER: B
expression when the system deals with more B. AND gate
than six variables. C. NOR gate 57. What is the counter that follows the binary
A. Boolean algebra D. NAND gate sequence?
B. Karnaugh map ANSWER: A A. Binary counter
C. Map-entered variable technique B. Simplex counter
D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method 50. A solid state device which only gives a “1” output C. Shift counter
ANSWER: D if all inputs are also “1” is called D. Decimal counter
A. an AND gate ANSWER: A
43. What level is used to represent logic 1 in a B. a NAND gate
negative logic circuit? C. a NOR gate 58. What logic circuit is analogous to a single pole
A. negative transition level D. an OR gate mechanical selector switch?
B. low level ANSWER: A A. Decoder
C. positive transition level B. Encoder
D. high level 51. Only when all inputs are logic one that this gate C. Multiplexer
ANSWER: B can delver an output of logic one. D. Exclusive OR
A. NOR gate ANSWER: C
44. What level is used to represent logic “0” in a B. AND gate
negative logic circuit? C. NAND gate 59. An encoder is an MSI (medium-scale-integrated)
A. high level D. XOR gate circuit that
B. low level ANSWER: B A. Provides an output code that
C. negative transition level corresponds to which of a set of input
D. positive transition level 52. A solid state logical device which only gives a “1” line is true
ANSWER: A output if all inputs are “0” is called a _________ B. Provides a storage of a certain number
gate. of binary bits
45. _________ is a gate which has two or more low A. NOT C. Selects a given output based on binary
inputs signals to get a low output. B. NOR input code
A. AND C. NAND D. Provides for delivering one of two or
B. Inverter D. OR more inputs to an output
C. OR ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
D. NAND
60. _____________ is called the time sharing of one C. Multiplexed cable ANSWER: D
line with multiplex signals. D. Cable ribbon
A. Simultaneous transmission ANSWER: A 75. Only when all inputs are LOW thus, this logic
B. Bi-directional gate produces an output of HIGH.
C. Relay 68. What is the process used to describe analog-to- A. NOR gate
D. Multiplexing digital conversion? B. NAND gate
ANSWER: D A. Binarize C. AND gate
B. Linearize D. NOR and NAND
61. Data selector is also called C. Digitize ANSWER: A
A. Encoder D. Analogize
B. Decoder ANSWER: C 76. A logic gate whose output is logic zero every
C. Multiplexer time one of its inputs goes to logic one.
D. Demultiplexer 69. What is the process of converting multiple A. NOR gate
ANSWER: C analog input signals sequentially to digital B. NAND gate
output? C. XOR gate
62. _____________ refers to a function of a decade A. Time division multiplexing D. A and C
counter digital IC. B. Analog to digital conversion ANSWER: A
A. Provides one output pulse for every 10 C. Space division multiplexing
inputs pulses D. Pulse code modulation 77. Gate with HIGH output level every time one of
B. Adding two decimal numbers ANSWER: A its inputs goes LOW.
C. Producing 10 output pulses for every 1 A. NOR gate
pulse 70. What do you call a circuit that changes pure B. NAND gate
D. Decoding a decimal number for display binary code into ASCII? C. XNOR gate
on seven-segment A. Decoder D. B and C
ANSWER: A B. Encoder ANSWER: B
C. Demultiplexer
63. ___________ refers to BCD counter: D. Code converter 78. What logic gate that gives an output of logic one
A. Decade counter ANSWER: D if there is an odd number of 1’s at the input?
B. Shift register A. NOR gate
C. Frequency divider 71. The output pulses of the logic pulser _________. B. NAND gate
D. Binary counter A. Can damage logic circuits C. XOR gate
ANSWER: A B. Are too many for the logic probe to D. XNOR gate
respond to ANSWER: C
64. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus C. Can only force high nodes to low
loading factor is likely to be D. Can be used to overdrive logic nodes 79. Logic gate that gives a HIGH output when the
A. Resistive high or low input has an even number of 1’s.
B. Current ANSWER: D A. NOR
C. Capacitive B. NAND
D. Static charge 72. Circuits used to implement Boolean expression C. XOR
ANSWER: C or equations. D. XNOR
A. Logic gates/circuits ANSWER: D
65. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, B. Digital circuits
this is termed as ___________. C. Binary circuits 80. A circuit that converts the input logic level to its
A. Logic levels D. All of the above complement.
B. Noise margin ANSWER: D A. Inverter
C. Power consumption B. NOR gate with all inputs tied
D. Propagation delay 73. Logic gate whose output is HIGH when one or all C. NAND gate with all inputs tied
ANSWER: B of its inputs is LOW. D. All of the above
A. OR gate ANSWER: D
66. Speed of a logic circuit is normally expressed as B. NOR gate
_________. C. AND gate 81. If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an
A. Logic levels D. NAND gate ___________ should be used.
B. Speed immunity ANSWER: D A. Inverter
C. Propagation delay B. Amplifier
D. Power consumption 74. What logic gate that generates an output of logic C. Buffer
ANSWER: C zero (LOW) only when all its inputs are logic one D. Isolator
(HIGH)? ANSWER: C
67. What is a multi-wire connection between digital A. OR gate
circuits? B. NOR gate 82. A buffer multiplies the number of gates a certain
A. Bus C. AND gate output can drive, and this can also be used as
B. Wire wrap D. NAND gate a/an
 A. Voltage follower 90. Logic devices are broadly divided or categorized
B. Current amplifier into two families, bipolar and MOS. What are the 97. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25
C. Isolator examples of bipolar? V, and are generally used in industry where
D. All of the above are correct A. RTL and DTL machinery causes electrical noise and large
ANSWER: D B. IIL and ECL power line transients to occur.
C. TTL and HLDTL A. HLDTL
83. Is considered as a controlled inverter. D. All of the above B. 74HXX
A. XOR ANSWER: D C. NMOS
B. NOR D. CMOS
C. NAND 91. CMOS, NMOS, and PMOS belong to MOS family, ANSWER: A
D. AND what is (are) the significance of these devices?
ANSWER: A A. They have lower power dissipation than 98. A variation of transistor-transistor-logic (TTL)
bipolar devices wherein transistor’s base and collector junctions
84. A logic gate that can be wired to function like B. They are generally slower than bipolar are clamped with a Schottky diode.
any other gate. devices A. ECL
A. International gate C. They are most sensitive to electrostatic B. STTL
B. Flexible gate D. All of the above C. I2L
C. Variable gate ANSWER: D D. CML
D. Universal gate ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 92. Refers to the ability of logic circuit it withstand
noise superimposed on its input signal. 99. In a transistor-transistor logic (TTL), if the base
85. Known as universal gates. A. LOW noise immunity collector junction of a transistor is clamped with
A. OR and AND B. HIGH noise immunity a Schottky diode it becomes Schottky TTL. What
B. AND and NAND C. Noise immunity is the significance of having this diode?
C. OR and NOR D. Noise figure A. It increases the switching speed
D. NOR and NAND ANSWER: C B. It decreases the power dissipation
ANSWER: D C. It increases the noise margin
93. The number of logic gates of the same family D. It increases the fan-out
86. How many NAND-gates are needed to have an that can be connected to the input of a particular ANSWER: A
AND function? gate without degrading the circuit performance.
A. 2 A. Fan-in 100. Which of the bipolar logic circuits is the fastest?
B. 3 B. Fan-out A. TTL
C. 4 C. Input-drive B. STTL
D. 5 D. Input noise immunity C. SCTL
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A D. ECL
ANSWER: D
87. The number of NAND-gates needed to form an 94. Refers to the number of logic gate of the same
OT-gate. family that can be driven by a single output of a 101. Other name of emitter-coupled logic (ECL).
A. 2 particular logic gate. A. CML
B. 3 A. Output drive B. CSL
C. 4 B. Output noise margin C. NSL
D. 5 C. Fan-in D. All of the above
ANSWER: B D. Fan-out ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D
88. OR function can be achieved by suing how many 102. Of all bipolar logic families, TTL is widely used.
NOR gates? 95. A bipolar logic family that uses resistors as its What do you think is (are) the reason(s) why?
A. 2 input circuit. A. Its speed is just enough for most
B. 3 A. RTL applications
C. 4 B. DTL B. Its power consumption/dissipation is
D. 5 C. ECL manageable
ANSWER: A D. TTL C. It has a good noise immunity
ANSWER: A D. All of the above
89. Which of the following is the probable output if ANSWER: D
all inputs of a TTL gate are binary 1? 96. Logic family that uses diodes and transistors as
A. Determinable its circuit elements. This logic family is more 103. Of the MOS logic family, which is the fastest?
B. Binary 0 resistant to noise than RTL. A. PMOS
C. Binary 1 A. DTL B. NMOS
D. Indeterminate B. TTL C. CMOS
ANSWER: B C. ECL D. VMOS
D. I2L or IIL ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A
104. PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to D. Complementary C. They are larger
A. 5.5 V ANSWER: D D. They travel faster
B. 12 V ANSWER: B
C. 15 V 111. In TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a
D. 24 V high-input impedance at both logic states (HIGH 118. A ______________ is a solid state memory
ANSWER: D and LOW state)? device, which depends on the magnetic
A. MET polarization of domains, usually in a garnet type
105. CMOS are normally supplied a voltage up to B. Input with kicker transistor material.
what value? C. Diode cluster input A. Magnetic disk
A. 5.5 V D. Substrate PNP input B. Magnetic core
B. 12 V ANSWER: D C. Magnetic bubble
C. 15 V D. Magnetic drum
D. 24 V 112. What is the purpose of the internal clamping ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C diodes at the input of a logic circuit?
A. To minimize negative ringing effects 119. ______________ are non-semiconductor
106. PMOS and CMOS have normally different supply B. To minimize positive ringing effects devices still used in digital memories.
requirements. However, both can be operated C. To regulate the input signal A. Gates
from the same power supply provided it should D. To protect reverse-polarity connection B. Flip-flops
be up to the CMOS limitation (15 V). CMOS ANSWER: A C. Relay
output can drive directly PMOS inputs, but not D. Magnetic cores
PMOS’s output to CMOS’s input. How do you 113. In TTL ICs with more than one gate available, ANSWER: D
interface PMOS to CMOS? sometimes not all gates are used. How ill you
A. By providing a pull-down resistor at the handle these unused gates? 120. The density of data recorded on magnetic tape is
interconnection (PMOS output to CMOS A. Force the output to go LOW measured in
input) B. Force the output to go HIGH A. Bit stuffing rate
B. By providing a pull-up resistor at the C. Provide pull-down resistors to all inputs B. Bit error rate
interface D. Provide all inputs with pull-up resistors C. Bits per inch
C. By inserting a series limiting resistor ANSWER: B D. Bits per second
between PMOS output and CMOS input ANSWER: C
D. By interfacing through an open-collector 114. How ill you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/
transistor configuration logic IC? 121. A memory circuit that has 9 address inputs has
ANSWER: A A. Leave them floating how many storage locations?
B. Pull them down A. 1024
107. NMOS can be interfaced to CMOS by providing a C. Pull them up B. 256
A. Pull-up resistor D. Pull them down or up, depending on C. 512
B. Pull-down resistor circuit function D. Not determined by sets of input
C. Limiting resistor ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
D. Coupling capacitor
ANSWER: A 115. What is the memory element used in clocked 122. Clock periods are measured from ___________.
sequential logic circuit? A. The high level to the low level
108. A digital IC whose output transistor has no A. Gates B. The low level to the high level
internal pull-up resistor. B. Flip-flop C. Similar points on the clock waveform
A. Open-collector configuration C. Static-RAM D. The clock pulse at 50% of its low or
B. Open-emitter configuration D. Read-only memory high levels
C. Totem-pole output ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
D. Tri-sate output
ANSWER: A 116. A static memory will store information 123. Determine which item is not a storage device.
A. As long as power is applied to the A. Card readers
109. In digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, memory B. CD-ROM
what output configuration is used if they are B. Even when power is not applied to the C. Diskettes
intended for “busing”? memory D. Magnetic tape
A. Totem-pole C. As long as power is applied and the ANSWER: A
B. Tri-state output memory is refreshed periodically
C. Complementary D. When power is applied at regular 124. What is the function of flip-flop as logic element?
D. Open-collector intervals A. Stores binary data
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B B. Generates clock signal
C. Relay data
110. The output configuration of most CMOS ICs. 117. What is the reason why more cells can be stored D. Makes decision
A. Totem-pole in a given area with dynamic cells? ANSWER: A
B. Open-source A. They consume less power
C. Darlington B. They are similar 125. _____________ is not a type of flip-flop.
 A. RS D. Oscillator
B. Latch ANSWER: B 140. An interval required to address and read out
C. D memory word.
D. Register 133. The typical number of bits per dynamic memory A. Propagation delay
ANSWER: D location is B. Pulse duration
A. 1 C. Setting time
126. What is the higher voltage level in digital gates B. 8 D. Access time
and flip-flop circuits? C. 2 ANSWER: D
A. Yes or One D. 16
B. One or Zero ANSWER: A 141. ___________ refers to a circuit that stores
C. Zero or No pulses and produces an output pulse when
D. Yes or No 134. ______________ is an output applied to Read specified numbers of pulses are stored.
ANSWER: A Only Memory (ROM). A. Counter
A. Multiplexer B. Register
127. _____________ is a byte data stored in a B. Address C. Flip-flop
memory location. C. Input code D. Buffer
A. 8 bits D. Data ANSWER: A
B. Character ANSWER: B
C. 4 bits 142. A dynamic memory will store information
D. Memory word 135. ____________ is a kind of memory where only A. As long as power is applied to the
ANSWER: D manufacture can store program and has s group memory
of memory locations each permanently storing a B. As long as power is applied and the
128. _____________ is called retrieving data from word. memory is refreshed periodically
memory. A. ROM C. Even when power is not applied to the
A. Accessing B. SOS memory memory
B. Getting C. RAM D. When power is applied at regular
C. Encoding D. Hard memory interval
D. Reading ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A
136. In shift registers made up of several flip-flops, 143. Several gates combined to form the basic
129. ____________ can erase EPROMS. the clock signal indicates ________. memory element.
A. Applying a 21-volt pulse A. A bit of information stored in flip-flop A. Multivibrator
B. Applying ultraviolet rays B. Information of time B. Register
C. Turning off the power C. What time is it C. ROM
D. Blowing fuse D. When to shift a bit of data from input of D. Flip-flop
ANSWER: B the flip-flop to the output ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D
130. ___________ is a segment register which 144. An RS flip-flop constructed from NOR-gates
normalcy access variables in the program. 137. What do you call the duration within it takes to would have an undefined output when the inputs
A. Extra read the content of a memory location after it R/S combinations are
B. Stack has been addressed? A. LOW / LOW
C. Data A. Execution time B. LOW / HIGH
D. Code B. Data rate C. HIGH / LOW
ANSWER: B C. Cycle time D. HIGH / HIGH
D. Access time ANSWER: D
131. ____________ is a storage device used to ANSWER: D
accommodate a difference in rate of flow of data 145. When a flip-flop is constructed from two NAND-
or time of occurrence of events when 138. A static memory generally contains gates, its output will be undefined if the R/S
transmitting from one device to another. A. Row and column decoders inputs are
A. Accumulator B. No decoders A. LOW / LOW
B. Buffer C. Row decoders B. LOW / HIGH
C. Modem D. Column decoders C. HIGH / LOW
D. Register ANSWER: A D. HIGH / HIGH
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
139. ___________ is called a memory device which
132. _____________ is a device that stay on once holds fixed set of data in a circuit. 146. A flip-flop whose output is always the same as
triggered and store one or two conditions as a A. RAM its input. This is sometimes used as delay
digital circuit. B. Register element.
A. Gate C. Logic A. RS flip-flop
B. Latch D. ROM B. D flip-flop
C. Integrator ANSWER: D C. T flip-flop
 D. JK flip-flop 154. One of the following can program PROMs. B. 200 ms
ANSWER: B A. Biasing bipolar transistor C. 50 microsec.
B. Blowing fuse D. 22 microsec.
147. Flip-flop that changes state every time the input C. Effusing input ANSWER: A
is triggered. D. Charging a gate
A. RS flip-flop ANSWER: B 162. Semiconductor-based, volatile data storage
B. Master slave flip-flop device that can be written and read randomly.
C. T flip-flop 155. Type of memory wherein the data are A. RAM
D. JK flip-flop permanently stored. Usually the storing of data B. PROM
ANSWER: C is done during manufacturing of the component. C. EPROM
A. ROM D. EEPROM
148. Flip-flop arrangement, such that the first B. PROM ANSWER: A
receives its input on the positive edge of a clock C. EPROM
pulse, and the other receives its input from the D. EEPROM 163. Random access memory that needs recharging
output of the first during the negative edge of ANSWER: A of capacitors.
the same pulse. A. SRAM
A. Clocked RS flip-flop 156. A semiconductor memory device in which data B. DRAM
B. Clocked JK flip-flop can be stored after fabrications. C. Dynamic storage
C. Cascaded flip-flop A. PROM D. A and B
D. Master/slave flip-flop B. EPROM ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D C. EEPROM
D. All of the above 164. Dynamic RAM (DRAM) uses capacitor as its data
149. Combination of flip-flop, arranged so that they ANSWER: D storage element, while static RAM (SRAM) uses
can be triggered at the same time. what?
A. Clocked flip-flop 157. A type of ROM that allows data to be written into A. Inductor
B. Delayed flip-flop the device by a programmer. After it has been B. Magnet
C. Sequential flip-flop programmed it cannot be reprogrammed again. C. Register
D. Asynchronous flip-flop A. PROM D. Flip-flop
ANSWER: A B. EPROM ANSWER: D
C. EEPROM
150. A flip-flop without an undefined output state D. A and B above 165. Type of memory that is formed by a series of
condition whatever the input combination is ANSWER: A magnetic bubbles at the substrate.
A. JK flip-flop A. Magnetic disk
B. T flip-flop 158. What memory device that can be programmed, B. Bubble sort
C. D flip-flop and reprogrammed after the old programs are C. Bubble chart
D. All of the above erased usually by an ultraviolet light? D. Bubble memory
ANSWER: D A. EEPROM ANSWER: D
B. EPROM
151. Group of flip-flops used to store more bits. C. RPROM 166. Non-semiconductor digital memory device.
A. Register D. B and C A. Magnetic core
B. ROM ANSWER: D B. Magnetic domain
C. PROM C. Saturable core
D. All of the above 159. A variation of PROM, wherein its stored data can D. Ferromagnetic domain
ANSWER: A be erased by electrical signal instead of ANSWER: A
ultraviolet light.
152. Sequential access digital memory uses what A. EEPROM 167. A hardware used to program a PROM.
storage circuit? B. Dynamic ROM A. Microcomputer
A. Parallel register C. RAM B. Data loader
B. Shift register D. EEPROM and dynamic RAM C. Encoder
C. Dynamic RAM ANSWER: A D. PROM programmer
D. EEPROM ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 160. A nonvolatile memory
A. ROM 168. Computer hardware device constructed to
153. Memory whose contents are lost when, electrical B. PROM and RPROM perform shifting of its contained data.
power is removed. C. EPROM and EEPROM A. Parallel register
A. Nonvolatile D. All are correct B. Serial to parallel register
B. Temporary ANSWER: D C. Shift register
C. Dynamic D. ALU
D. Volatile 161. What is the time interval to undertake a refresh ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D operation in a typical dynamic RAM?
A. 2 ms
169. Register wherein data can be serially inputted, B. Decoder ANSWER: A
while the output can be retrieved in parallel C. Coder
manner. D. Shift register 182. Diagram showing procedures that are followed,
A. Serial to parallel register ANSWER: A and actions taken is called
B. Parallel storage A. Functional block diagram
C. Parallel to serial register 175. A device/circuit used to separate two or more B. Circuit diagram
D. Serial register signals from one line. C. Flow chart
ANSWER: A A. Decoder D. Schematic diagram
B. Demodulation ANSWER: C
170. Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose C. Demodifier
internal connections of logic arrays can be D. Demultiplexer 183. What is the medium of communication with a
programmed by passing high current through ANSWER: D computer where programs are written in
fusible links. mnemonics?
A. PLA 176. An electronic counter in which bistable units are A. Assembly language
B. PAL cascaded to form a loop. B. High level language
C. APL A. Ring counter C. Machine language
D. A and B B. Twisted ring counter D. Low-level language
ANSWER: D C. UP/DOWN counter ANSWER: C
D. Bistable counter
171. What is the difference between a read only ANSWER: A 184. A _________ a program which converts
memory (ROM) and a programmable logic array instruction written in a source language into
(PLA)? 177. What is formed when the complemented output machine code, which can be read and acted
A. All input combinations of a ROM of the last stage of a shift register is fed back to upon by the computer.
produce an output, while in a PLA, some the input of the first stage? A. Source code
input combinations do not affect the A. Ring counter B. Assembler
output. B. Twisted ring counter C. Application software
B. Only the OR-functions in a ROM are C. Decade counter D. Compiler
programmable, whereas in a PLA, both D. UP/DOWN counter ANSWER: B
OR and AND-functions are ANSWER: B
programmable. 185. A detailed step by step set of direction telling a
C. In ROM, all the possible states must be 178. A digital circuit that produces logic 1 output computer exactly how to proceed to solve a
programmed, while not all for a PLA. pulse for every 10 input pulses. specific problem or process as specific task.
D. All of the above A. Decade scaler A. Sequence
ANSWER: D B. Divider B. Flow chart
C. Chopper C. Computer program
172. The difference between a programmable logic D. Multiplexer D. Process
array (PLA) and a programmable array logic ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
(PAL) is that,
A. With PLA, only OR-gates are 179. Binary codes are converted into ASCII by what 186. What is a program that translated English-like
programmable, whereas both OR and circuit? word of high-level language into the machine
AND gates are programmable in PAL A. Decoder language of a computer?
B. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are B. Demultiplexer A. Compiler
programmable, while in PAL only OR- C. Degenerator B. Assembler
gate is programmable D. Code converter C. Monitor program
C. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are ANSWER: D D. Interpreter
programmable, while in PAL, only AND- ANSWER: A
gate is programmable 180. The technical term used when signals are
D. Only AND-gate is programmable with converted from analog-to-digital. 187. ___________ is a software that converts a high
PLA, whereas both OR and AND-gates A. Digitize level language program into machine or
are programmable for PAL B. Quantize assembly language program.
ANSWER: C C. Coded A. ALU
D. All of the above B. Cross-assembler
173. A circuit used for selecting a single output from ANSWER: A C. Compiler
multiple inputs. D. CPU
A. Universal logic module (ULM) 181. ________________ is a sequence of instructions ANSWER: C
B. Demultiplexer that tells the computer machine on how
C. Tri-state available data shall be processed. 188. The purpose of the fetch cycle in a computer is
D. Logic array A. Program to ____________.
ANSWER: A B. RAM A. Obtain instruction
174. Another name for universal logic module (ULM) C. Command B. Obtain input data
A. Multiplexer D. Flowchart C. Obtain memory data
 D. Implement a specific operation ANSWER: A B. Negative infinite
ANSWER: A C. Overflow
196. A 7-bit alphanumeric code that is widely used D. Underflow
189. _____________ refers to a program that A. Gray code ANSWER: D
translates and then immediately executes B. ASCII
statements in a high level language. C. BCD 204. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an
A. Interpreter D. ARINC arithmetic operation is more than the capacity of
B. Synchronous ANSWER: B the output register.
C. Interface A. Error
D. Operating system 197. The op-code of a computer instruction B. Infinite
ANSWER: A A. Mnemonic C. Overflow
B. Bionic D. Underflow
190. A _____________ is an instruction in a source C. Operand ANSWER: C
language that is to be replaced by a defined D. Program
sequence of instructions in the same source ANSWER: A 205. Machine instructions represented by mnemonics
language. is considered as
A. Statement 198. An instruction that causes the program to go A. Machine language
B. Source code another task. B. Personal language
C. Mnemonic A. FLIP C. Assembly language
D. Macro-instruction B. SUB D. Coded language
ANSWER: D C. JUMP ANSWER: C
D. MOVE
191. A very high-dense and probably the most ANSWER: C 206. The first generation language of instruction, and
versatile integrated circuit used in digital is considered as the most primitive instruction
electronics. It is known to function as the central 199. An instruction that can move data from memory that can be given to a computer.
processing unit of most computer applications. to the accumulator. A. Machine language
A. Microcomputer A. FETCH B. Assembly language
B. Micro-integrated B. MOVE C. COBOL
C. Macro-integrated C. ACC D. 4GL
D. Microprocessor D. LOAD ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
207. COBOL, FORTRAN, and ALGOL are examples of
192. The smallest computer in terms of physical size 200. An instruction tat moves data from accumulator A. Machine language
A. Microcomputer to the memory B. Assembly language
B. Minicomputer A. FETCH C. High-level language
C. Mainframe B. MOVE D. 4GL
D. Host computer C. STORE ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A D. LOAD
ANSWER: C 208. An advanced programming language, more
193. A logic/digital circuit that generates an output advanced than high-level language.
code for every input signal. 201. Part of the instruction cycle where the instruction A. Machine language
A. Enhancer is moved from memory to the instruction B. Assembly language
B. Compressor register. C. High-level language
C. Encoder A. ACC D. 4GL or 4th generation language
D. Decoder B. FETCH ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C C. MOVE
D. CLI 209. Translator from high-level program to machine
194. What code that gives each digit of a decimal ANSWER: B instructions
number with a corresponding binary equivalent? A. Assembler
A. Binary code 202. An instruction, which means “clear the interrupt B. Converter
B. Gray code mask”. C. Encoder
C. ASCII A. ACC D. Compiler
D. Binary coded decimal B. DEL ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D C. CANCEL
D. CLI 210. Translates source program to object program
195. Which of the code below is considered as ANSWER: D A. Assembler
minimum-change code? B. Converter
A. Gray code 203. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an C. Encoder
B. ASCII arithmetic operation is more negative than the D. Compiler
C. BCD capacity of the output register. ANSWER: D
D. ARINC A. Error
211. Assemble language to machine language 218. A network facility used to connect individual C. Cascading
translator similar network segments forming a larger D. Bonding
A. Assembler extended network is called _________. ANSWER: B
B. Converter A. Routers
C. Compiler B. Relays 226. A network classification that is usually built and
D. Transponder C. Repeaters owned by a single company or governmental
ANSWER: A D. Bridges organization.
ANSWER: C A. Private data network
212. A program in a programming language, as B. Public data network
written by the programmer. 219. What is the circuit that detects bit error in binary C. Switched network
A. Source program characters? D. Node
B. Object program A. Decoder ANSWER: A
C. Machine program B. Parity detector
D. Original program C. Server 227. A network that is built and owned by a common
ANSWER: A D. Comparator carrier.
ANSWER: B A. Public data network
213. A source program can run in computer only after B. Private data network
translation into a machine code by a compiler. 220. A device that enables users to transmit computer C. Leased line network
This machine code is referred as the data and fax messages along telephone lines D. Node
A. Source program A. Converter ANSWER: A
B. Object program B. Facsimile
C. Interpreter C. Demodulator 228. Network configuration that let computers share
D. Mnemonic D. Modem their resources.
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D A. Peer-to-peer network
B. Hierarchical network
214. A program that can read a source program in 221. What do you call the devices that allow C. Permanent virtual circuit
high-level language, translates, and executes computers to communicate with other computers D. Local Area Network
the statement in one operation. through telephone lines or radio frequency? ANSWER: A
A. Mnemonic A. Modems
B. Object program B. Disk 229. A computer network configuration that makes
C. Interpreter C. Mouse the host computer manages a network of
D. Assembler D. Super computers dependent terminals.
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A A. Hierarchical network
B. Peer-to-peer network
215. A sequence of instructions or statements 222. What network facility used to interconnect C. Local Area Network
designed to tell the computer how to carry out a distinct networks physically? D. Wide Area Network
particular processing task. A. Relays ANSWER: A
A. Software B. Routers
B. Hardware C. Repeaters 230. A network switching that creates a dedicated
C. Assembler D. Bridges temporary connection between computers in a
D. Program ANSWER: D network.
ANSWER: D A. Circuit switching
223. Files in E-mail communication are send thru B. Message switching
216. The instructions and data in a computer system ____________. C. Packet switching
is referred to as A. Disk D. Virtual switching
A. Software B. Mailbox ANSWER: A
B. Hardware C. Wires
C. Program D. Attachment 231. The component that provides control or
D. CPU ANSWER: D supporting services for other computers,
ANSWER: A terminals, or devices in a network.
224. The first recipient in E-mail communication. A. Host
217. Refers to digital interface in which data A. Host B. Communications controller
characteristics are individually synchronized and B. Mail box C. Cluster controller
may be sent at a time. C. Computer D. Interface equipment
A. Half-duplex D. Disk ANSWER: A
B. Asynchronous ANSWER: A
C. Synchronous 232. It is a type of computer networking technology
D. Simplex 225. The interconnections of computers, terminals, that is used to connect computers that are
ANSWER: B and other equipment. located within the same room, building, or
A. Cluster complex.
B. Network A. Internet
 B. Intranet C. Disked ANSWER: D
C. Local area network D. Wired
D. Wide area network ANSWER: A 247. It is term that is used to describe the form or the
ANSWER: C shape of a network.
240. A ___________ network requires that message A. Network model
233. It is a fast computer with a large amount of travel around the ring to nthe desired B. Network layer
secondary storage, to which all of the other destination. C. Network topology
computers in a network have access for data A. Star D. Network protocol
storage and retrieval. B. Bus ANSWER: C
A. Mainframe C. Tree
B. Maincomputer D. Ring 248. __________ is the process of asking each
C. File server ANSWER: D remote terminal, one at a time, if it has data to
D. Workstation send.
ANSWER: C 241. Networks that transmit data across town using A. Polling
electromagnetic signals are called B. Selection
234. It is also known as cooperative processing that ____________. C. Contention
involve using two or more networked computers A. LANs D. Option
to perform an application task. B. WANs ANSWER: A
A. Client computing C. MANs
B. Server computing D. All of the above 249. __________ network topology has more than
C. Distributed processing ANSWER: C one level of host computer.
D. Client/server computing A. Star
ANSWER: D 242. The process of choosing a terminal on a network B. Bus
235. A type of server that allows multiple users to to receive data is called _______. C. Hierarchical
take advantage of a single printing device. A. Polling D. Ring
A. Printer server B. Selection ANSWER: C
B. Client server C. Contention
C. Network server D. Option 250. It describes its System Services Control Point
D. File server ANSWER: B (SSCP), Logical Units (LU), and Physical Units
ANSWER: A (PU) as network addressable units.
243. A microcomputer attached to a network requires A. Internetworking
236. This topology is the most efficient centralized a __________. B. Digital network architecture
network for a small company A. Dongle C. Open system interconnection
A. Bus B. Network interface card D. Systems network architecture
B. Ring C. RS-232 ANSWER: D
C. Tree D. Software
D. Star ANSWER: B 251. Networks that include telecommunications are
ANSWER: D called __________.
244. To ___________ is to send a file to a remote A. LANs
237. It is the other term that is used to refer to a computer B. WANs
central device into which each node of a star A. Upload C. MANs
network is directly connected. B. Download D. All of the above
A. Hub C. Call ANSWER: B
B. Central pointer D. Transmit
C. Router ANSWER: A 252. A multi-network IBM token ring network is also a
D. Repeater __________ network.
ANSWER: A 245. To ___________ is to receive a file from a A. Star
remote computer. B. Bus
238. It is simply the term that is used to refer to an A. Upload C. Tree
I/O device that relies entirely on the host B. Download D. Mesh
computer for processing. C. Call ANSWER: A
A. Keyboard D. Transmit
B. Terminal ANSWER: B 253. Network topology, where stations are connected
C. Monitor to a concentric ring through a ring interface unit
D. Mouse 246. It is term that is used to describe the (RIU).
ANSWER: B conventions of how network components A. Bus
communicate with each other. B. Mesh
239. Workstations in a star network that can operate A. Network model C. Token Ring
without storage devices. B. Network layer D. Tree
A. Diskless C. Network topology ANSWER: C
B. Wireless D. Network protocol
254. A _________ will decide which route the
message or messages should follow through the
network.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
ANSWER: A

255. Used in connecting networks at different sites.

A. Router
B. bridge
C. repeater
D. gateway
ANSWER: B

256. Similar to a bridge, which connects networks at

different sites, it connects networks with
different protocols.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Gateway
D. Repeater
ANSWER: C

257. Used to extend the length of a network or to

expand the network.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Gateway
D. Repeater
ANSWER: D