B777 Oral Study

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FINAL REVISION Rev 03/00
BILL’s STUDY GUIDE AND ORAL PREP
B - 777
The purpose of this study guide is to ask questions and give answers covering many areas that are typically asked by the FAA on
oral examinations. It is never possible to cover everything, and some of these questions are more in-depth than a normal oral.....
esoteric if you will. However, if this is used as a gauge of knowledge and encouragement to study (rather than being the actual
study material) it will give you a good measure of your systems knowledge.
The guide is laid out by sections generic to most aircraft systems and includes a brief performance and procedures section.
1. GENERAL: Aircraft general …………………………………………………………. 03

Emergency Equipment …………………………………………………………. 10
Fire Detection & Protection ……………………………………………………. 11
General Parameters & Limits ………………………………………………….. 14
Inhibits …………………………………………………………………………. 15
APU System ……………………………………………………………………. 16
Mx Information ………………………………………………………………… 18
2. ELECTRICAL: generators, AC/DC systems, external, standby, and backup power … 19

Mx Information ………………………………………………………………… 24
3. HYDRAULIC: supply and distribution ……………………………………………….. 26

Gear & Brakes …………………………………………………………………. 28
Mx Information ………………………………………………………………… 31
HYD Notes ……………………………………………………………………. 32
4. FUEL: supply, distribution, and fuel jettison ………………………………………….. 33

Fuel Limits ………………………………………………………………….…. 35
Mx Information …………………………………………………………….….. 35
5. AIRCONDITIONING: supply and distribution …………………………………….… 36
6. PRESSURIZATION: controls and systems …………………………………………... 40

Pressurization Limits …………………………………………………………. 41
7. ENGINES: including ignition, fuel, and oil ………………………………………….. 42

Engine Notes …………………………………………………………………. 46
Engine Limits …………………………………………………………………. 47
Mx Information …………………………………………………………….…. 47
8. FLIGHT CONTROLS: normal, secondary, and direct controls ………………….…. 48

Flight Control Movement …………………………………………………..…. 51
High Lift Devices ……………………………………………………………… 52
Flight Control Limits …………………………………………………………. 53
9. INSTRUMENT, NAV, & COMM: indications and tests …………………………… 54

Operating Parameters ………………………………………………………… 60
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10. AUTOFLIGHT: FMS ………………………………………………………………… 61

GPS Notes ..…………………………………………………………………... 67
Single Engine …………………………………………………………………. 68
Autoflight Limits ……………………………………………………………… 68
11. ICE & RAIN: adverse weather equipment & procedures ……………………………… 69
EAI Limits …………………………………………………………………….. 70
12. PERFORMANCE, PROCEDURES, and TECHNIQUES: general procedures …… 71

Russia …………………………………………………………………………. 75
Duty Limits ……………………………………………………………………. 75
13. NOTES OF INTEREST: ……………………………………………………………… 76

Aircraft Designations ………………………………………………….………. 77
First’s ………………………………………………………………….………. 77
Alloys & Composites ………………………………………………….………. 77
Parts Designed by Others ……………………………………………….……… 78
Dates …………………………………………………………………….…….. 79
Events …………………………………………………………………….…… 79
14. ACRONYMS: ……………………………………………………………………….…. 80
DISCLAIMER and request for help: nothing here is magic or new, nor is there a guarantee that it is or will remain accurate.
That is where you come in! If you see something wrong .... please correct it and send me a copy (V-File, EWR). If you would
like to add to it …….... feel free! This is free to any CAL pilot. Copy this if you would like, or E-Mail Bill at
ORALSTUDY@AOL.com for an E-Mail copy of your own in "MSWord - 97" format. Good luck with your training!
Special note for B-777: many numbers (such as HYD pressures) are found only in the B-777 Maintenance Manuals and are
presented here only for comparison with other aircraft, and for those really interested in such things. These are NOT legitimate
Oral questions (which are limited to Flight Manual information ONLY), but maybe a help in understanding just “Why did it do
that?”. Maybe we can answer something other than “I don’t know, but I’ve seen it before!”
- Bill Baddorf, EWR

(B-777ORAL.99)
NOTE: REAL ORAL QUESTIONS ARE HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD AND PRECEDED BY AN ASTERISK. Other
questions are for informational/training purposes only. These other questions are either NOT found in the Flight
Manual, or are more in-depth than a normal Oral. Consider these as extra Bonus Questions.
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B777-200:
Length 209' 1"
Width - wing 199' 11" (4628 sq. ft) Note: Wright Brothers 1st flight was only 120’!!!
Width – fuselage ext 20' 4"
Width – fuselage int 19' 3"
Height 60' 9"
Turning Radius 156'
CAL Configuration 283 Pax (48/235). Note: Certified to 419 Pax.
1. * What are the Immediate Action items in the checklists? (Check current Flight Manual).
• Dual Eng Fail: Fuel Control Switches (both) – CUTOFF, then RUN.
Ram Air Turbine Switch – PUSH.
• Cabin Alt: Oxygen Masks – ON, 100%.
Crew Communications – Establish.
2. *You are walking up to an aircraft for flight. What will you be looking for?
• control surfaces clear & position of those surfaces.
• chocks in place.
• mx personnel &/or stands. (potential injury or FOD threats).
• gear doors are UP.
• mx log (often on the jetway). (what systems should NOT be touched).
3. *Now you are entering a cold cockpit (no power). What actions will you take?
• Cockpit Safety check: Battery switch – ON.
HYD panel – set (switches OFF except eng driven pumps).
Windshield Wipers – OFF.
Landing Gear lever – DOWN.
Alt Flap Arm switch – OFF. (BLANK).
Alt Flaps selector – OFF.
• Establish power: select primary external power, then secondary power if available.
• Start the APU: Packs – AUTO; APU bleed – AUTO; verify APU Gen switch – ON.
4. *On a cold A/C; does the Battery switch have to be ON for an APU start?
• yes: it provides power to APU fuel pump, fuel valve, and inlet door.
5. *How does the MEL work? (i.e. look up a specific item)

• index by FRM codes. (Manual organized by systems, alphabetically).
• red are RVSM issues. (NATS reduced traffic separation altitudes).
• the words “Dispatch Notification Required” are in green.
• the words “MX Control Notification Required” are in cyan.
• magenta are Cat III & autoland items.
• ER = ETOPS operational items.
• (M) = mx steps to be taken for dispatch.
• (O) = ops (pilot’s) steps to be taken for dispatch.
6. When are the pax doors inhibited from operating?

• 80kts: “Flt Lock” prevents handle from moving enough to activate doors (but the ext vent will open).
Note: This is why the evac checklist depowers the plane – to disable Flight Lock.
7. What is unique about the cabin door window?

• incorporates a wide-angled lens to view the outside prior to opening.
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8. How can you get into the cockpit if it is locked?
• FA key. Located in compartment # 117 (small compartment in center aisle between doors L1 & R1).
• depower A/C: the lock fails to the open position.
• force the door open – latch mechanically allows forced entry into the cockpit without permanent damage to the lock.
Note: Forcing the door outward will result in permanent damage.
9. *What type of cabin doors are on the B-777?

• “translating plug type”: first moves inward & upward; then translates outward & forward.
Note: The door vent is to prevent A/C pressurization if not fully closed & locked.
Note: If pressurized: a mechanical lock prevents the door from opening fully until the psid is reduced.
10. *How can you tell if a cabin door is armed?

• yellow tab showing at girt bar windows (also arms the Emer Power Assist).
• lever in ARMED position.
• "A" on Door page indication in the cockpit for ARMED.
11. Where are the Cabin Door Safety Straps located?

• in each door sill, ½ way up the left side. (Pull the metal handle).
12. Can the cabin override the Cockpit Emer Light switch?
• yes: FA @ door 1L (the FSM) switch in ON overrides all cockpit positions (including OFF).
13. If the Seatbelt Sign switch is left in AUTO, when will the seatbelt lights come ON?
• gear down; or flaps deployed; or 10,000’ cabin alt; or pax O2 deployed.
Note: Since this provides a backup to the Checklist; consideration should be given to leaving it in AUTO instead of
OFF during flight.
14. Where/how many ELT does the 777 have?

• 2: in the slides/life rafts @ doors 1L & 4R.
• 1: in the fuselage
• auto activated when the slide is in the water.
Note: Check for red flashing light on the ELT. If not flashing: ensure the lanyard is pulled, touch the contacts at the
base of the antenna with a damp finger, and straighten the antenna.
Note: ELT transmits for approx. 50 hours.
15. *What does the Master Bright knob do?

• push ON/OFF.
• sets the target level (each knob has some control).
• effects all lights that have knobs with white dots above the knob.
16. *What does the Storm light switch do?

• turns dome, floods, & indicator lights full bright regardless of other switch positions.
17. What lights are on the Standby Cockpit lighting system?

• CA/FO/CTR main panel floods, glareshield flood, aisle stand flood, and dome lights.
18. *Where do we carry live animals?

• Bulk Cargo only.
Note: Cargo vent fan provides 300 CFM airflow when cargo temp is selected to HIGH (inhibited in LOW). Run the
fan in HIGH with live animals onboard. (CAL std is HIGH always)
19. Does the MAS system have to be closed out after each flight?
• yes; in order to reset itself prior to the next flight.
Note: Allow the MAS system 10 minutes to fully connect to all seats after T/O prior to trouble-shooting.
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20. What is the WES system?
• Warning Electronic System which controls: M-Warning lights, all aural annunciations, & stick shaker.
Note: It does NOT control the M-Caution system, which is a part of the EICAS.
21. *What is the EICAS system?

• Engine Indication & Crew Alerting System which controls:
- M-Caution, warning alerts, caution alerts, advisory alerts, comm alerts, memo msg's, & status msg's.
22. What messages will NOT cancel with the CANC/RCL button?
• warning level messages, comm, or memo.
23. What are the system alert levels?

• Time critical - aural warnings (windshear, pull up, eng failure: 65kts – just below V1).
• Warning-red msg & M-Warning.
• Caution- amber msg & M-Caution.
• Advisory- amber msg indented 1 space on EICAS.
• Comm- High: disabled (for future use).
Med: aural chime, white text, bullet.
Low: indented white text, bullet,(no chime).
• Memo- white text (no bullet, no chime).
24. What are the 5 types of Aural Alerts?

• siren - continuous master warning alert (push master warning to silence).
• beeper - master caution alerts (4 beeps in 1 sec, then stops automatically).
• fire bell - sounds until crew action taken (push master warning to silence).
• Wailer- associated with autopilot disconnect (optional).
• chime - high/low sounds once for each mid-level comm alert.
• voice - time critical warning alerts.
25. *How may the following Aural Warnings be silenced?

• A/P disconnect - push A/P yoke disconnect button to silence.
• overspeed - can NOT be silenced (fix the situation).
• T/O configuration warning - fix the situation or retard the throttles below T/O thrust.
• cabin altitude - push M-Warning to silence.
26. *What is the EICAS Event RCD button?

• records all parameters for up to 5 suspect conditions into EICAS memory for MX to examine after flight.
Note: Important to use this when a fuel gauge malfunctions.
Note: System may also be checked with “Mx Info Display”, & printed for insertion in Logbook.
27. When will the Stat page show messages during preflight?
• during ADIRU alignment (autopilot, TAC, autothrottles, others).
• recheck the Stat page again after ADIRU alignment is completed to insure the messages are gone.
Note: STAT msg (inflight) can be checked by referring to FRM for description of fault (write it up).
28. *How can the second page (or more) of multi-page Status Messages be read?
• press STAT again to page through.
• pressing STAT after the last page will clear the screen.
29. *What is the AIMS system?

• Airplane Information and Management System, manages 7 computer systems:
• primary, thrust mgmt sys, data comm, central mx, airplane condition, flt data recorder, & flt management computing.
Note: Utilizes the 629 data buses to transfer data between systems.
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30. *What colors are used for "Conditional" Checklist steps/actions?
• "true": green
• "false": cyan (also used for an "overridden" step).
31. What does an amber key of NORMAL or NON-NORMAL mean on the CHKL page of the EICAS?
• there is a partially completed checklist in the system.
32. How may a Checklist be reset in order to start it again?

• select top of CHKL page: RESETS, then Reset All = will reset all checklists. (or Reset Normal or Non-Normal).
• reselecting a specific NORMAL checklist that had been completed or overridden will reset it.
33. *When may a Non-Normal (or any) Checklist be called “Complete”?

• when “Checklist Complete” icon appears at the bottom of the last page.
34. *When does the Sterile Cockpit Light come ON?

• automatically: ON when pk brake is released & OFF at 10,000’ MSL.
35. What does the “LAV” light above the cockpit door tell you? (also: LAV light in Bunk Area).
• all 4 lavs at doors 2 L/R are occupied.
36. What are the only two purely analog instruments in the cockpit?
• brake pressure gauge & whiskey compass (& it’s not even whiskey anymore!).
37. What are the EGPWS modes of operation?

• Mode 1 = excessive baro sink rate (A/C is sinking).
• Mode 2 = excessive RA sink rate (terrain closure rate or rising terrain).
• Mode 3 = descent after T/O.
• Mode 4 = inadvertent proximity to terrain: (gear @ 500’ AGL, flaps @ 245’ AGL).
gear or flaps may be inhibited by pressing their individual button.
• Mode 5 = < 1000RA and off G/S.
may be inhibited by pressing the button.
• Mode 6 = “Bank Angle” when at 35, 40, & 45 degrees.
“100, 50, 30, 20, 10” foot altitude calls.
• Mode 7 = Windshear.
38. *What triggers a Configuration Warning in T/O or LND?

• Predeparture: (inhibited at V1) (Either thrust lever > 60% N1).
door (entry or cargo) open main gear steering unlocked pk brake set
flaps Vs FMS rudder trim > 2 degrees spoilers not forward
stab outside green band 1 or 2 warning lights inop 1 or 2 loud speakers inop
tiller not centered
• In-flight:
gear S/B extended
1 or 2 warning lights inop 1 or 2 loud speakers inop
39. *When is the PWS (Predictive Wind Shear) system activated?

• on the ground with radar selected on the EFIS panel.
• automatically on the ground with T/O thrust set.
• automatically airborne < 2300’ RA (alerts @ < 1200’ RA).
Note: New caution alerts are inhibited between 80 KIAS & 400’ RA.
Note: New warning alerts are inhibited between 100 KIAS & 50’ RA.
40. *Describe the Emergency Lighting system.

• powered by remote batteries.
• interior lts, aisle lts, cross aisle lts, floor proximity lts, exit lts, escape slide lts.
• controlled by FA panel or cockpit:
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OFF - OFF.
ARMED - ON if main DC is lost (good for 15 min).
ON - ON manually (cockpit or FA panel).
41. When does the EICAS "Emer Lights" msg come ON?
• selector OFF, selector ON by pilots (i.e. the switch is out of ARM), selector ON by FA.
42. *Can the Cockpit windows be opened in-flight?

• yes: unpressurized & preferably < 250 KIAS (Vref + 80 max). (> +80: the force to close the window greatly increases).
43. Can you get into the E&E compartment inflight?

• yes: through a trap door in the floor at 1L.
44. What powers the Cargo Doors?

• fwd & aft cargo are elec doors powered by the ground handling bus (manual backup drive).
• bulk cargo is a manual plug type door (counter balanced for ease of operation).
45. *What is the quickest way to contact the FSM (short of the PA)?
• press the CAB (cabin) mic selector 2X in < 1 sec, places a priority call to the FSM station at 1L.
46. What does the SPKR knob on the Observers Audio Control Panel do?
• nothing. (at CAL).
Note: The 2 speakers on the overhead panel are not active either at CAL.
47. What are Oxygen Generators?

• PAX O2 @ 500F chemical generators.
• located in ceiling PSUs.
• deployed automatically @ 13,500 cabin alt (or manual release in cockpit).
• chemical generator starts when lanyard (attached to masks) is pulled out; and cannot be stopped.
Note: Chemical generators last approx. 22 minutes.
Note: There is one extra (for a lap child) mask in the ceiling of each seat grouping & in each lav.
48. What is the location & quantity of the Crew O2 bottle(s)?

• 2 cylinders located in the equipment bay (115 cu ft each).
• check: normally 800+ lbs. on preflight – Stat page (or if lower, see section 1 for chart).
Note: Some B777 (not CAL) only use one bottle & have different O2 charts.
Note: If the O2 quantity chart is used, mx will have to get a temp reading from the bottle (not OAT).
Note: Remember to check the Crew O2 Blow-Out disc on the A/C left during the walkaround.
49. *When is the O2 mask mike activated?

• when the Lt O2 mask door is OPEN (disables hand mike & boom mike).
• hand & boom mikes may be restored by closing the Lt O2 door AND then pushing the test switch.
50. *Describe an O2 test.

• leave it all in the box.
• push test lever: check yellow cross & O2 flowing (you can hear it).
• verify left red lever pushed down to 100% O2.
• test emergency by holding emer knob & pressing test lever. (if desired).
• MX will test mike (transmitting on flt interphone with speaker selected).
51. *When must the crew be using oxygen?

• above a cabin alt of 10,000’.
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52. *At what MSL altitude must one (or both) pilots be on oxygen?
• one pilot must be using O2 when the other pilot gets out of the seat > FL250.
• both pilots must be using O2 when above FL 410 (.......‘guess we’ll never reach FL430).
53. How can you tell if an escape rope is fully deployed before you jump out?
• the end attached to the A/C is green, and should be in view.
Note: Checks the bolts! One AA pilot (B747) trusted the rope & broke his back in the fall (wasn’t attached).
54. *Can Dispatch use headwind to increase the GW for T/O?

• no: only the Capt may authorize this procedure (10kts max).
55. *How much GW may be added for a 5kt-headwind component on Rwy 22R at EWR?
• look at the Runway Analysis (bottom) to determine Lbs/kt of headwind or tailwind. Multiply Lbs X KTS of steady HW
component.
56. *Does a tailwind have to be figured into the GW for T/O?

• yes: always use the full tailwind component (full gust) to calculate the weight reduction needed.
57. What does the Accuload line 10 code: “AT” mean?

• extra IRO (4 pilots), AND an extra FA (#15). (B777 specific code).
58. *What warning horn might you hear during the walk-around & what action should you take?
• intermittent car horn (nose wheel well): APU fire – the APU should automatically shutdown & discharge the fire bottle
(both eng's are OFF). You may wish to back it up.
• continuous Ground Crew call: ADIRU-on-Batt warning horn: turn OFF the ADIRU (post-flight) or resolve the
electrical supply problem.
• continuous Ground Crew call may also be: Equipment Cooling system in the override mode.
59. *During the walkaround, you notice lights ON aft of each cabin door. What has occurred?
• the escape slide illumination lights are ON.
• these only come ON with the EMER LTS switch ON (or ARMED and a loss of main DC power to the A/C).
60. During the walkaround, you notice a lot of heat coming from the tires. Is this normal?
• maybe: the 12 shrouded electric brake fans operate when the brakes get hot, and will blow air across the brakes.
• you will feel more heat coming off the brakes (tires) than other planes because of the fans.
Note: This option was NOT purchased on original CAL B-777’s.
61. *On taxi-out; what should be done if ATC asks you to take a different runway?
• check the runway analysis page first to see if you can depart on the new runway. If OK, then:
• call or data-link for a new Accuload.
62. *What is an indication of a Tail Strike?

• EICAS msg: Tail Strike. (2” blade & 2 proximity sensors on the aft body).
• don’t pressurize, there might be damage to the aft bulkhead.
63. *What is an indication of a good CVR (cockpit voice recorder) test?

• push & hold the test button for 5 seconds (the test takes 1 sec for each of 4 channels).
• the needle should hold steady in the green the whole time.
Note: To erase the CVR: the A/C must be on the ground, A/C power ON, parking brake set, push & hold 10 sec.
64. *How many gear pins should be in the cockpit; and where?
• there are 5 gear pins (2/main & 1 nose). Located in the compt behind the cockpit door.
65. What might be the problem is the T/O & Lnd prerecorded announcement are inop?
• check the “PA NORM/ALT” button at 1L. If in ALT (Green Bar lighted), the announcements are inop.
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66. What is the Crew Alertness Monitoring system?
• if no activation of switches on the MCP, EFIS, DSP, CDU, VHF, or HF within a specific period of time: then the system
will give an advisory alert “Pilot Response”, followed by a Master Caution alert, followed by a Master Warning alert
(just to wake ya’ll up).
Note: CAL has this system…. just wait 30+ minutes. (+ 5 minutes for each progressive step).
Note: Inhibited on initial climbout (<20,000’ & climbing with flaps extended).
67. How can the FA computer be turned ON?

• push the top 2 (1L & 1R) line select buttons simultaneously.
68. Who can the FSM call from the Purser computer station?
• Medlink, ops perf, & SITA. (Medlink may be tied into any phone on-board).
• all pertinent phone numbers are found on the CSCP screen, under Main Menu “Help”. (*999 = Cabin Appearance).
69. Where is the Main Power switch for the PAX Entertainment system?
• just above and to the left of the Purser Station behind a small door.
70. How is the “LAV Call” button reset (light above the lav door)?
• push the lav call light over the door.
71. Can water be shutoff at the Galley?

• yes: there are 2 water shutoffs @ each galley (4 for the aft galley), usually located above the coffee maker.
Note: If this doesn’t stop the flow, there are 2 Isolation & Drain Valves. One located behind a panel above door 2L
(all water forward of 2L), and another located in a panel above door 4L (all water aft of 2L).
Note: If needed, there is an Emergency Power (ELEC) OFF switch located in each galley.
72. How many photo-cell light sensors are in the Cockpit?

• at least 17: 1 – MPC, 6 – LCD, 3 – Stby inst, 1 – mx panel, 2 – stab trim, 1 – rudder trim, 3 – CDU.
73. What can be checked if there is no Hot Water in a specific Lav?

• ON/OFF switch on the water heater located under the sink (release button on each side of the tilt-door).
74. Can water be shutoff at the Lav?

• yes: a shutoff valve is located behind each lav mirror (release button bottom inboard corner).
75. What’s unusual about seats in rows 16 & 32?

• seats rigged to break aft due to bulkheads. Pax must use gray (heavy duty) seat belt extenders (if needed).
76. *What 2 cabin/FSM items should be checked by the FO prior to flight?

• min 200 gal water for flight.
• all 3 lav tanks empty. (experienced inflight return for both).
77. Where is the “Least Risk Bomb Location”?

• door 5R.
78. How many Potable Water tanks are on board?

• 3: pressurized by the PNEU system or a dedicated compressor.
79. Where does sink (lav & galley) drain water go?
• drains out through 1 of 2 drain masts on the bottom of the A/C.
80. How does the toilet system flush?

• uses a vacuum pump on the ground and at low altitude, then uses cabin differential pressure.
81. Can we fly with an Anti-Skid valve inop?

• check the MEL: yes, 1/truck may be inop with the brake deactivated.
©B777 Oral Review Page 10
ORALSTUDY@AOL.com FINAL REVISION Rev 03/00
82. You can not maintain pressurization (or the fat lady is really stuck) because the toilet flush valve has failed OPEN: what can
be done?
• manually close the flush valve with the manual T-handle located just under the base of the toilet shroud.
83. How may the Cabin Call Chimes be disabled?

• select “Disable Chime” on the Cabin Control menu. All call chimes will be automatically enabled when on the ground.
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT:
In the cockpit:
halon fire ext, crash ax, gloves, 4 smoke goggles, 4 life vests, 1 PBE, 2 escape ropes, emergency medical kit.
Note: Also check for 2 extra rolls of printer paper (1-cockpit, 1-FA).
In the cabin:
flashlights every FA seat (14 total)
life vests every FA seat
POBs ???
5 first aid kits 1L, 1R, 2Galley, 3L, 4R
2 megaphones 1L, 4R
3 Halon fire ext 1R, 2R, 4R (Halon 1211)
3 water fire ext 1L, 2R, 4L
PBE with each fire ext (total 5 each: only 1 at door 2R)
life raft/slide each door
2 ELT's in rafts @ 1L & 4R
Evacuation signal system:

cockpit or FA panel: audio signal & lights.
not installed at CAL.
Note: PBE duration is 15-30 minutes.

Note: Halon fire ext duration is only 8 seconds of continuous use.
Note: Water fire ext duration is 30-45 seconds of continuous use.
Note: Emergency flashlight duration is 4-5 hours of continuous use.
- the base can be unscrewed & battery disconnected to conserve power.
Raft Capacity:
1 L/R 65 pax (overload to 81)

Totals: 233 290 (going to be hard for 283 pax + crew of 19).
Note: raft is at overload capacity when within 6” above waterline.

FIRE DETECTION & PROTECTION
1. What bus powers the Fire Detection? Fire Protection?

• the Batt bus powers fire detection (not available w/o battery bus power).
• the Hot Batt bus powers the fire protection (squibs are available).
2. *What must occur for an ENG or APU Fire Warning?

• both loops (or the active loop if one loop is inop) must sense a fire.
Note: Only one loop is required for the APU if it is in the unattended mode.
Note: If both loops are faulted, no fire detection capability exists.
3. *What is the indication of a good manual Fire Test?

• aural fire bell, 9 red lights, & 2 EICAS messages (internal).
• 9 RED cockpit lights: FWD, AFT, APU, 2 M-Warning, 2 Fuel Control Levers, 2 Eng Fire Handles.
• ext APU fire horn & APU Fire light. (intermittent car horn @ P-40 panel).
• EICAS RED msg "Fire Test In Progress", followed by:
• EICAS RED msg "Fire Test Pass" or "Fire Test Fail"
Note: This also tests the Wheel Well Fire system (no indication).
Note: The system auto tests itself and monitors itself for failures.
Note: The test switch must be held, NOT pushed and released.
Note: Holding the Test button for more than 60 seconds will shutdown the APU!
4. *What will happen if one loop (engine, APU, or wheel well) fails?
• system automatically excludes a failed loop & becomes a single loop system.
Note: If both loops fail, the fire detection is lost for that system.
5. What is the indication of an actual Left Engine Fire Warning?

• 2 M-Warning RED lights.
• EICAS RED msg "FIRE ENG L”.
• cockpit aural fire bell.
• L Fuel Control RED light.
• L Eng Fire Switch RED light.
• L Fire Switch lock released.
6. *What occurs when the Eng Fire Switch is PULLED?

• arms both fire bottle squibs.
• closes fuel control & spar valves. (Unlike most older Boeings which only closed the spar valve with the handle).
• closes eng bleed valve.
• trips the GB & GCR (gen field).
• closes the HYD eng-driven pump supply valve.
• depressurizes the HYD eng-driven pump.
• removes power to the thrust rev isol valve.
Note: If the fire doesn’t go out, discharge one bottle. Wait 30 seconds: if the fire is still there, discharge the
other bottle. (If both bottles blown, no protection for remaining engine).
Note: If the fire light goes OUT, test the system before assuming the fire is actually out.
7. *While fighting the fire, what is an indication of the fire going out?
• EICAS msg goes away.
• red lights go out (handle & fuel control).
Note: If the fire light goes OUT, test the system before assuming the fire is actually out.
Note: Since cargo fire sensors are photo-cells, expect the cargo fire light to remain ON for a long time. The cargo
fire light could actually come ON again when a bottle is discharged, since the agent will act like smoke to the
sensors.
8. *What does the ENG BTL 1 DISCH light mean?

• bottle has been discharged (pressure in discharge tube) or bottle has LOW pressure.
9. *When is the Eng Fire Switch (handle) unlocked?
• whenever a fire warning is activated or fuel control is in CUTOFF.
• may be released manually by pressing the override switch & pulling handle.
Note: An overheat does NOT unlock the fire switches.
10. *What is the indication of an APU Fire Warning?

• EICAS RED msg "FIRE APU".
• APU auto shutdown.
• cockpit fire bell.
• 2 M-Warning lights.
• APU Fire Switch RED.
• unlocks APU fire switch.
• ext APU fire horn & APU Fire light. (intermittent car horn @ P-40 panel)
11. *What occurs when the APU Fire Switch is pulled?

• shuts down the APU if the auto-shutdown fails.
• closes APU fuel valve.
• closes APU bleed air valve.
• closes APU inlet door.
• GCR (field) trips.
• arms the squib.
12. *When will the APU auto shutdown for a fire warning?
• both loops must detect a fire when the APU is “attended”.
• only one loop needs to detect a fire in the “unattended” mode (both engines OFF & not being started).
13. *When will the APU auto-discharge its bottle for a Fire Warning?
• when it is "unattended" (on the ground & neither eng running or starting).
14. *Can you fight an APU fire from outside the A/C?
• yes: although in the “unattended” mode the APU will shutdown, arm the fire system, & discharge the bottle all by itself.
• at the P-40 panel (behind the nose strut) the APU Fire Shutdown button will shutdown the APU, arm the squib, &
silence the horn.
• the APU Bottle Discharge button will discharge the bottle.
• other lights & controls: Bottle Armed light, Bottle Discharged light, Main Landing Gear Door lts/switches, service &
flt interphones, cockpit voice jack, flt deck call button, Emer Exit light test, Wheel Well light switch.
15. *How many fire bottles are there for the ENG, APU, and CARGO?
• ENG - 2 bottles (total), which may be used in either engine.
• APU - 1 bottle.
• CARGO - 5 bottles (2 smaller and 3 larger.
Note: A 6th bottle will be added to obtain ETOPS 207 minute certification.
16. *Will the aural fire bell ring for a cargo fire?
• yes
17. *What occurs when you fight a Cargo Fire?

• Note: 3 zones each with fans drawing air across the photo-cell smoke detectors in each. (BULK is part of AFT)
• ARM FWD or AFT (should only be used for FWR OR AFT, not both).
• Arms the bottle squibs & flow valve (metering valve).
• DISCH: 5 bottles (2 smaller bottles discharge immediately; 3 larger are fired at 20 minutes & then metered over time to
maintain FAA required saturation PPM concentration).
• Both lower recirculation fans shut OFF. (Does not effect Upper fans).
• Vent fans shut OFF.
• Cargo heat shuts OFF.
• Packs shift to a lower flow rate.
• ASCPCs move outflow valves to match each other (in case of loss of 1 system due to the heat).
• AFT & BULK: turns OFF bulk cargo circulation fans. Turns OFF lav/galley vent fans.
• FWD: equipment cooling to OVERRIDE.
• DISCH light comes ON: pressure sensed in discharge tubes (NOT bottle pressure).
Note: Setting the LND ALT to 8,000 ft reduces airflow to the fire & reduces O2 as well.
Note: If the plane is on the ground for the start of this, then only one additional large bottle will discharge at the 20
minute point (at the slow rate).
Note: If the plane lands prior to 20 minutes: only one additional bottle will discharge; but it will discharge
immediately upon landing (at the slow, metered rate).
Note: The system may be disarmed by pushing the ARMED switch a second time.
Note: If both AFT & FWD are ARMED at the same time, the system will split the agent (NOT a good idea).
18. What are the 3 conditions for a failure of the Cargo Detection system?
• all 3 zones in a single compartment must fail, OR
• both control channels must fail, OR
• both smoke fans (used to move air across detectors) fail.
Note: Cargo detection system has a total of 4 smoke detectors (2 fwd & 2 aft), and 3 zones per compartment.
It draws air by fans across the smoke detectors.
19. *What causes an Eng Overheat to annunciate (& what does it look like)?
• EICAS msg "OVERHEAT ENG (L/R)".
• dual loop (same loops as the fire system) & if both loops are operational; both loops must overheat.
• M-Caution & beeper.
Note: There is no APU overheat feature of its dual fire loop system.
20. *What causes an aural Fire Bell to actuate?

• engine, APU, cargo, or wheel well fire.
• pressing the M-Warning button silences the bell.
21. *What is the indication & actions required for a Wheel Well Fire?
• cockpit fire bell, M-Warning, EICAS msg.
Note: Lower gear & leave it down (LAND), or if required by conditions, wait for 20 minutes AFTER the
EICAS msg goes away & retract gear.
Note: Dual loop fire detectors in the ceiling of the wheel wells. Will NOT respond to hot brakes alone.
Note: Continuous monitoring and auto testing circuits.
Note: No extinguishing system.
Note: You probably CAN'T get a real wheel well fire msg 4 hours into the flight at altitude. (Use your judgement)
22. What is a "squib"?

• a pyrotechnic device about the size of a felt marker cap which produces a pneumatic charge to blow open one (of
perhaps several) ports on a fire bottle, sending the agent through a specific tube to a specific location.
23. *What is an indication of a Lav Fire?

• EICAS msg "SMOKE LAVATORY".
• Lav Call light flashes over the Lav door.
• aural FA alert in the lav & cabin.
• master call light at FA station.
Note: To self-test, press the button opposite end of the green power indicator light. This activates the aural
& visual alarms, and auto-resets. The center button silences the horn & suppresses all indicators.
24. When will a Lav Fire Extinguisher discharge?

• Automatically into the Lav trash receptical @ 170 degrees C.
Note: The extinguisher bottle is located behind the trash door (releases by red/gray lever at lower interior corner).
25. What is an indication of a previous Lav Fire?
• black indications (originally white dots) on the Heat Strip located in each trash receptical (1,2,3, or 4 dots discolored).
• silver metal color (it's solder) of discharge tips on the extinguishing nozzles (2).
Note: There is a single orange-sized bottle under each Lav sink compartment.
Note: Each dot on the heat strip discolors at a different temp (180F, 200F, 230F, & 250F).
Note: The heat strip can be seen by pushing the trash flap down and looking at the interior wall panel.
26. Any other smoke detectors on board?

• yep: crew rest compartment (EICAS msg).
27. Scenario: you have an active cargo fire inflight & fire trucks are awaiting your return. You plan an emer-evac on the
runway. How is the fire department going to fight the fire?
• can’t get the fwd or aft cargo doors OPEN (Ground Handling Bus only & APU will be shut down).
• bulk cargo door will OPEN (it’s manual).
• we don’t want power left ON the A/C. Power OFF insures that the Pax Entry Door Flight Locks are disabled.
• fire department can punch a hole in the side & fill the compartment with water. (they have a special probe for this).
28. What is the indication of a Cabin Interphone failure?

• msg on the CMS screen. Select alternate (C1 Norm/Alt button at door 1L). The system will then work in the Alternate
mode, allowing up to 6 independent calls at a time.
*GENERAL - PARAMETERS & LIMITS see Section 1 of the current Flight Manual!
Max T/O & Lnd: +8400' MSL

+/- 2% Slope
15 Kts Tailwind
Max Cruise Alt: 43,100'

Turb Speed: 270 below 25,000'
280/.84 at & above 25,000
Max X-wind: 38 kts demonstrated

Max PNEU Diff: relief valve @ 9.1 psid
T/O or Lnd @ .11 psid
Max Ramp Weight 650,000

Max Takeoff Weight 648,000
Max Landing Weight 460,000
Max ZFW 430,000
Doors armed prior to taxi with pax
Vmo/Mmo .87/330 (330KIAS due to all composite tail)
Note: Plan on getting significant mach buffet at .86 & above.

INHIBITS:
To quote Boeing: Alerts are inhibited during part of the takeoff in order not to distract the crew. Alerts are also
inhibited when they are operationally unnecessary or inappropriate.
Alert messages, except for warnings and messages directly relevant to flight operations, are inhibited
during engine start to eliminate nuisance messages.
Alert messages are inhibited individually at other times, such as during the preflight and postflight or
engine shutdown, when they are operationally unnecessary.
1. All associated (HYD, ELEC, PNEU, R/T) EICAS warnings inhibited after intentional engine shutdown with fire switch or
fuel control.
2. Checklist icons for amber EICAS msg's inhibited until after BOTH eng started.
Note: warning msg & checklists will appear anytime.
3. Consolidated messages:
Eng Shutdown intentional shutdown
Hyd Press Sys L+C+R pre/post flt
Fuel Press Eng L+R "
Window Heat "
Doors "
4. Ground engine start until engine reaches idle or start is aborted.
5. Status que inhibited from eng start until 30 min after rotation.
- inhibit cancels if RTO.
6. *Inhibits during T/O: (T/O thrust on either engine)

comm alerts & chimes until 400' RA or 20 sec after liftoff. (cabin alerts exempted).
RTO cancels inhibit.
PAX entry doors from liftoff until 60 sec after landing.
M-Warn & M-Caution inhibited at 80kts until 400' RA or 20 sec after liftoff.
no lights or aural; but red/amber msg will appear.
inhibit cnx during RTO when < 75kts ground speed.
7. Fire inhibits:
V1 to 400' RA or 25 seconds after V1. (red msg will display when fire sensed).
8. *T/O configuration:
inhibited > V1.
IF activated < V1; then deactivated at V1.
EICAS msg displayed until 10 sec after V1.
9. Landing configuration:
inhibited from rotation to 800' RA or 140 sec from gear retraction.
10. *AFTER G/S capture, or gear down, or landing flaps:

Status cue, comm alert, or chimes & msg inhibited from 800' RA to 75kts.
exception: cabin alert.
M-Caution light & aural inhibited from 200' RA to 75kts (ground speed).
exceptions: A/P, no auto Lnd, S/B ext, A/T disc.
msg will display when event occurs.
11. TCAS: inhibited by GPWS or Windshear.

Increase Descent voice inhibited < 1450RA.
Descend voice inhibited < 1000RA when descending & < 1200RA when climbing.
All resolution advisory voice alerts inhibited < 1100RA when climbing & < 900RA when descending.
GENERAL - APU SYSTEM
*Describe the basic APU system.
AlliedSignal 331-500 APU.

ETOPS requires a successful start 99% of the time by the 2nd attempt.
Dual Spool Turbine, constant speed N2.
Variable Speed N1 to supply PNEU demand.
N2 regulated by Fuel Controller to maintain 400 Hz (no CSD).
120 KVA generator.
Start & Operate up to 43,100'.
ELEC pwr avail to max alt, 43,100'.
PNEU pwr avail to approx. 22,000' (PNEU output deteriorates with altitude).
ELEC has priority over PNEU demands.
Dual Starter motors:
ATS - Air Turbine Starter has priority (normal if engines running).
ELEC starter as a backup (used for normal start on receiving check).
Note: APU starter disengages at approx. 50% RPM.
Dedicated APU battery for start & APU control circuits (also backup for RAT deployment circuit).
uses ship's batt for inlet door, fuel valve, & fire detection/protection.
OFF: CLOSES bleed isol valve, initiates normal cooldown/shutdown, & resets fault logic circuits.
ON: OPENS fuel valve & inlet door; activates AC or DC fuel pump; powers APU controller.
START: initiates automatic start sequence.
FAULT light: fault or fire is detected or auto shutdown.
- illuminates briefly during APU controller self-test (during start).
(ELEC) ON/Blank: arms APU GB to CLOSE automatically (should have been labeled “AUTO”).
ON/OFF: GB OPEN due to fault. (NOT external power applied).
Blank/OFF: manually selected OFF (GB OPEN).
1. *What supplies fuel to the APU during start?

• Lt forward AC fuel pump if AC is available (regardless of switch position).
• a dedicated DC fuel pump in the Lt tank if only DC is available (will also gravity feed on the ground).
• Alternately: any Lt fuel pump ON or any pump supplying the Lt fuel manifold with pressure.
Note: Battery switch must be ON for startup on an unpowered A/C.
2. *How can you tell if the APU is ready to supply ELEC power?
• EICAS msg "APU Running".
• NOT by looking at the ON position of the button. (It should have been labeled “AUTO”).
3. *Is there an APU cool down time?

• yes: 105 seconds after the APU automatically closes its bleed valve. (Several malfunctions skip the cooldown).
• EICAS reads: "APU Cooldown".
Note: Cooldown is cancelled & an EICAS msg “APU Shutdown” will appear for auto-shutdowns due to:
Attended: fire, inlet overtemp, overspeed (or loss of protection), controller failure, or speed droop.
Unattended: all above + high EGT, high oil temp, low oil pressure, inlet door failure, no start, and
hung start.
4. *When should the APU NOT be started at your arrival to the A/C?
• when < 40F don’t use the APU except for engine start (< 20 minutes). (looking for a fix).
Note: Ice may form on the inlet door screen, break-off & be ingested (cost a lot of $).
5. *What does APU “attended” vs. “unattended” mean?

• attended = engine(s) running or being started.
6. Why does the APU FAULT light come ON during start?
• momentarily: disagreement between fuel valve & switch position and, the APU is conducting an internal test.
7. *Why would the APU FAULT light come ON with the APU running?
• high EGT, high oil temp, low oil pressure.
Note: If unattended, these will result in an immediate auto-shutdown (w/o cooling time).
8. *What 3 items in the auto-shutdown system will NOT shutoff the APU in-flight?
• high EGT, high oil temp, low oil pressure.
• will result in an EICAS msg to the crew.
9. *When can the APU be used in-flight?

• electric in all flight altitudes (43,100’).
• pneumatic up to 22,000'.
10. *What can start the APU?

• either of two starter motors: ELEC & PNEU.
Note: Because of extreme cold soak this APU has ELEC bearing & gearbox heaters to heat cold oil, as well as a heavy
duty 40-amp battery. The APU also uses a two stage compressor that is easier to start.
Note: (1999) CAL: The 3 APU oil heaters are being removed and returned to Boeing for a $107K credit.
These C/B’s have been collared in the E&E compartment.
11. *When will the APU auto-start in-flight regardless of switch position?
• loss of both XFER busses. (Usually associated with dual engine flameout).
Note: May take up to 2 minutes to startup and power the L & R Main busses.
Note: Don’t confuse this with the RAT deployment criteria. (I do all the time!).
12. *How can you STOP the APU after it has Auto-Started while in the OFF position?
• position the switch to ON, then OFF.
13. How many packs should be used when powered by the APU on the ground?
• both packs: provides better cooling, overall quieter noise level on the ramp, & is equal in fuel to using just one pack.
14. When is the starter & ignition normally shut off?

• automatically at approx. 50% N2.
15. What is the APU burn rate?

• 200pph airborne (ELEC) + 2.5% fuel burn increase for inlet door OPEN.
• 535pph on the ground (PNEU & ELEC).
16. When will the “APU Oil Qty” msg appear?

• when the APU oil quantity is < 3.5 qts.
17. What effect does the Fire Test system have on the APU?
• the APU will shutdown if the Test button is held for more than 60 seconds. (Only takes 5 seconds +/- for a test).
GENERAL – MX INFORMATION
Cabin Services:
3 Potable Water Tanks (interconnected) – each 120 gallons (limited to 109 gal with standpipes).
L, R, C – located behind the bulk cargo end wall.
Sinks, coffee makers, & toilet flush (all potable water).
Water runs in the aisle overhead panels (great place for a leak).
3 Toilet Waste Tanks – Fwd & Mid 100 gal each (holds 83 gal waste each), Aft at 80 gal (holds 63 gal waste).
All tanks located on Lt sidewall of the bulk cargo compartment (NOT interconnected).
2 vacuum blowers operate on the ground & below 16,000’ when any flush switch activated.
- tanks are interconnected for vacuum purposes only.
Uses differential cabin pressure above 16,000’ MSL (vacuum blower barometric switch).
Fwd lavs go to Mid & Aft tanks; Mid lavs go to all 3; Aft lavs go to all 3 tanks.
- each lav goes to only one specific tank.
Toilet Operation:
15 second flush cycle initiated by flush switch.
1 second pause after flush cycle initiated. (IE. total of 2 seconds since flush).
Rinse valve OPEN for .7 sec (8oz of potable water).
2 seconds after flush cycle: flush valve opens for 4 sec.
Note: After 8 seconds (valve OPEN) it considers itself jammed & recycles the system with a dry flush.
Note: Manual flush valve shutoff T-handle is located below the toilet shroud (centered).
Note: Flush control module (computer chip) C/B located to Rt side of toilet bowl (under shroud).
Note: The logic module will NOT flush if the related waste tank is full (= confirmation of a full waste tank).
Lav/Toilet notes (as if the rest of this isn’t enough):

If you get a lav tank full signal; wait. If several 3L lavs are flushed at once, you will get a false signal.
H2O shutoff valve is located behind each mirror (release button located on the inboard lower corner).
Water heater switch & drain valve are located under each sink (release by opening “tilt” panel & pressing both
panel catch levers).
Manual toilet shutoff T-handle centered below toilet bowl shroud.
APU:
Amber Red
RPM none 106.0% (normally 100% N2)
EGT 650degrees 710degrees
Oil Press 55psi 35psi
Oil Temp 135degrees 155degrees
Oil Qty 4.4qt 3.8qt
Generator (is NOT an IDG) rated at 120 KVA.
Fire System:
CBrF3 = Halon
2 cargo bottles (fired immediately) = 52.5 lbs Halon each.
3 cargo bottles (metered) = 72.0 lbs Halon each.
- soon to add a 4th bottle to comply with 207 min ETOPS.
- 1 squib per bottle; 1 pressure sensor per bottle. (directs Fwd/Aft by separate in-line squibs).
- all bottles are located on the Rt wall of fwd cargo (behind curtain).
2 engine bottles = 22 lbs Halon each.
- located Rt wall of fwd cargo also.
- 2 squibs per bottle (L/R engine).
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
*Describe the basis Electrical System:
3 generators: 2 eng, 1 APU. (each rated at 120KVA).

any 2 will handle the entire load.
ELMS will load shed as needed when down to 1 gen.
IDG integrates gen & CSD into single unit.
same oil lubricating system.
-----/Blank: IDG oil press ok.
-----/DRIVE: LOW oil pressure in the IDG.
possibly caused by IDG not up to speed or disconnected.
GCU: gen control unit controls:
IDG. (Integrated Drive Generator).
GCR (field).
GB (Gen Breaker or Gen Relay).
Automatically powers the Main busses.
ON/Blank: powering the main bus.
ON/OFF: ARMED (GB OPEN), but power is not available or gen failed/faulted.
Blank/OFF: manually switched OFF.
opens GB.
also resets (GCR) fault circuitry for another try.
Main busses power heavier loads, utility busses, ground service bus, plus the XFER busses & bus tie (through
BTB).
XFER busses power essential loads such as:
inst & panel lights.
CA & FO radios.
CTR pitot heat & eng probe heat.
Backup gens provide backup power to the XFER busses. (variable speed & frequency) + 2 PMG’s per B/U gen.
frequency controlled by Backup Converter (only one generator at a time).
ON/Blank: ARMED to power the XFER bus(s). Automatically powers 1 or both when:
only one gen (or APU) available.
power to 1 or 2 Main busses lost.
App mode selected for landing. (R-XFER bus)
ON/OFF: ARMED (GB OPEN), but power is not available or gen failed/faulted.
Blank/OFF: manually switched OFF.
opens GB.
also resets (GCR) fault circuitry for another try.
Both gens ON/OFF: (switches IN & engines running) backup converted has failed.
BTB bus tie breaker/relays.
AUTO/Blank: relay CLOSED (complete circuit) or ARMED to CLOSE when:
power fails to main bus.
needed to supply both busses from a single source.
AUTO/ISLN: relay locked OPEN due to fault sensing (auto-opening of BTB).
Blank/ISLN: manually locked OPEN & isolated. (by pushing switch).
Standby Power Switch:
OFF: Stby AC unpowered (static inverter OFF).
- inhibited inflight.
AUTO: Stby AC will switch to Batt power (through Stby inverter) if normal AC is lost.
BAT: powers static inverter & Stby AC from Batt (if AC power is OFF).
or this is a DC Stby self-test if the normal AC power is ON.
Standby AC critical items:
CTR ILS, RA, Lt marker beacon, Lt transponder, Lt VOR, eng ignitors.
Standby DC critical items:
CA & FO inst & displays.
Standby Power busses:
Hot Batt Bus - powered by batt charger.
backup - main ships battery.
Battery Bus - powered by CA Flt Inst bus.
backup - RAT/C1 TRU/CA Flt Inst.
backup - Hot Batt bus.
CA Flight Inst Bus - powered by L-XFER bus through C1 TRU.
backup - Batt bus.
backup - RAT/C1 TRU.
FO Flight Inst Bus - powered by R-XFER bus through C2 TRU.
backup - CA Flt Inst bus.
backup - RAT/C2 TRU.
AC Stby Bus - powered by L-XFER bus.
backup - Batt bus/Standby Inverter.
RAT: ELEC/HYD twin blade, variable pitch, constant speed turbine (controls frequency). 7.5KVA.
deploys automatically in-flight with loss of both XFER busses, or loss of all 3 HYD system pressures,
or loss of both engines & C HYD pressure LOW.
may also be deployed manually (switch) in-flight or on the ground (spring-loaded to deploy).
priority given to HYD pressure for C flight controls.
when deployed, powers C1 & C2 TRUs.
RAT/C1 TRU/CA Flt Inst bus/Batt bus/Stby Inverter/ Stby AC bus.
RAT/C2 TRU/FO Flt Inst.
Note: If electric load-shedding of the RAT is required & if Batt is supplying
power; then just powers FO Flt Inst.
UNLKD: not fully UP & LOCKED.
PRESS: HYD pressure is normal to CTR flight controls.
Note: Normal inflight gen loads average 30-40% for each main generator.
1. *Briefly describe the ship’s power sources.

• 5 main power sources; 2 backup power sources; & 2 standby power sources:
Main: L & R IDG, APU, pri-ext, sec-ext.
Backup: L & R backup generators.
Standby: RAT & main battery.
2. What are the main items on the Hot Batt bus?

• ENG & APU fire ext (fire protection, not alerting).
• ADIRU.
• RAT deployment circuit.
3. What critical items are on the Main Batt bus?

• Stby power system.
• Capt's displays.
• L AIMS.
• fire detection (eng, APU, cargo, wheel well).
• APU D/C pump, fuel valve, & inlet doors.
4. What items are on the Ground Service bus?

• 2 battery chargers (ship & APU).
• toilet flush controls, L-fwd AC fuel pump, cabin lights & outlets.
5. *When you turn the battery switch ON (cold A/C), would you expect to see the battery bus items powered?
• no: there is a power-up logic which is different than power-down.
• only a few lights will be displayed during power-up (brake source & L/R gen OFF lights).
Note: Good reason never to turn the battery switch OFF while in-flight.
6. What items will operate on Standby Power.
• Upper EICAS CAPT PFD & ND (PFD may take up to 3 minutes to display)
• RAT Unlock switch/Light Standby Attitude (May take up to 3 minutes to display)
• L – FMC L – VHF
• L – VOR (audio) C – ILS (audio)
• Flight Interphone PAX Address
• DC Fuel Pump Emergency Lights (separate power)
• FWD/AFT Outflow – MAN
7. *How many generators will it take to handle ALL ELEC demands?

• 2 gens are required to prevent load-shedding during normal inflight demands.
8. What is an IDG?
• a combination of a CSD and AC generator.
9. *What external power sources are available?

• primary external (forward plug in the box), and secondary external.
10. Why are electrical demand so high on the B777?

• the FBW electrical demands, pax entertainment system, & large ovens require more amps than previous aircraft.
Note: The pax entertainment system draws up to 22KVA (some previous Boeing's drew only 14KVA for all
their systems).
11. *What is load-shedding?

• when there is not enough ELEC supply (less than 2 gens), the ELMS will shed non-essential components.
• load shed order is: galley & chillers, L & R utility busses (Pax ent & recirc fans).
Note: One or both Ctr fuel pumps shed when down to one generator. (As well as many other items).
Note: “Load Shed” will appear on the ELEC synoptic page when shedding occurs.
12. *When will the IDG automatically disconnect?

• high oil TEMP (which we can't read).
• IDG DRIVE light comes ON confirming a disconnect.
13. *How do you manually disconnect an IDG?

• push & hold guarded DRIVE (DISC) button for 1 second.
• eng must be running for a successful disconnect.
• can only be reset on the ground by MX (takes about 5 minutes, engine shutdown).
14. What will happen with loss of both IDG generators in-flight? (Backup Generators ok).
• APU should be started and used to power both main busses.
• one backup gen will cover both XFER busses.
Note: Only 1 backup gen may power the Backup Converter (frequency controller) at a time.
15. *What will power a XFER bus with the loss of its respective main bus?
• backup gen through the backup converter (backed up by the other backup gen).
16. *When does the Stby inverter operate in AUTO?

• powers the Stby AC bus when L-XFER is unpowered.
Note: Powered by battery bus or RAT.
17. *How can you tell that the RAT has load shed all ELEC output in favor of HYD pressure? (assuming Batt & RAT
power).
• FO instruments will blank out.
18. *What will happen will loss of all 4 gens in-flight? (i.e. loss of both XFER busses).
• APU will auto-start & eventually cover both main busses.
• Hot Batt bus will temporarily cover batt bus/CA flt inst/& Stby inverter/Stby AC.
• RAT will auto-deploy & then cover C1 & C2 TRU.
Note: RAT may take up to 40 seconds to power the bus. (FO displays may take up to 50 seconds).
19. *How is the FBW (Fly By Wire) system powered?

• each backup gen has 2 permanent magnet generators (PMG) on the drive shaft.
• each supplies power to a FCDC bus (total of 4 PMG's two of which cover the C system).
20. What powers the FCDC busses? (Flight Control DC)

• L FCDC: normally – L1 PMG. R FCDC: normally – R1 PMG.
1st backup - L DC bus. only backup - R DC bus.
2nd backup - hot Batt bus.
• CTR FCDC: normally – L2 & R2 PMGs.

1st backup - CA & FO Inst bus.
2nd backup - hot Batt bus.
Note: dedicated one minute batteries cover interruption during pwr transfer.
21. *How are adequate volts, freqs, & phase indicated before using Ext Power?
• EXT PWR-AVAIL light indicates that the power is available & usable.
22. *On a cold A/C: selecting Primary EXT PWR will do what?
• connects primary ext to both main busses.
Note: Some load shedding will occur.
23. *What systems may Secondary EXT PWR be connected to?

• either L/R Main through the bus-tie relays.
Note: Normally secondary powers the L-Main & primary powers the R-Main bus.
Note: Ext power can never be paralleled with itself or any other source (it doesn't have a CSD to regulate & parallel
freqs).
24. *With both Primary & Secondary Ext Pwr ON, what is powered & what will the panel indications be?
• primary ext will power R Main & R XFER.
• secondary will power L Main & L XFER.
• the R BUS TIE will be in ISLN.
25. *If the APU is now started, what will its gen do (if anything)?
• once coming up to speed; the APU gen will take over the L Main & replace secondary ext (which switches back to
AVAIL).
26. *Can the secondary ext replace the APU on the L Main once the APU has started?
• yes: the bus tie priority is whichever is placed on it last.
27. *What happens when the Lt Engine is started?

• gen breaker closes automatically when volts/freqs ok.
• kicks primary & secondary OFF (if still engaged).
• powers both Main busses.
Note: If the APU is running, the APU will reassume control of the R Main in a few seconds & the L BUS TIE relay
will OPEN.
28. *What is the priority of the BTB (Bus Tie Breaker) in AUTO? (Inflight, no Ext Pwr).
• will OPEN or CLOSE the BTB (relay) to allow the Main bus to be powered in the following order:
1 - associated eng gen. 2 - APU gen.
3 - opposite eng gen.
29. *When/how is the Ground Handling bus powered?
• automatically, through primary ext or APU.
• primary ext has priority.
• only powered on the ground.
Note: Powers cargo doors, cargo lights, & MX access lights.
30. *When/how is the Ground Service bus powered?

• normally powered by the R Main.
• can be powered alone (and leave cockpit unpowered) by either APU or primary ext power.
- use switch at 2L to turn on ground service bus.
Note: Powers cabin lights, outlets, Lt fwd fuel pump (for APU), main batt charger, & APU batt charger.
31. *Where is the Ground Service switch located?

• on the F/A panel by door 2L.
32. What main items are on the Utility Bus?

• fwd galley heater, chiller boost fan, foot & shoulder heaters, door area heaters, lav water heaters, & shaver outlets.
Note: According to Boeing: the recirculation fans & PAX entertainment system are on the main busses.
33. What are the primary uses of DC power?

• PFD, ND, GPS, ADIRU. (also FCDC busses through the PMGs).
34. *What is the source of DC power?

• APU batt: APU start & APU control circuits.
• Main batt: backup for critical items.
• 4 TRU's managed by ELMS:
which are powered from L/R XFER busses.
L XFER: L-TRU  L Main DC
C1-TRU CA Flt Inst
R XFER: C2-TRU FO Flt Inst
R-TRU  R Main DC
• 2ea L & 2ea R PMG's power L, C, R PSAs and their FCDC busses.
35. *What controls do you have over the DC system?

• none; it is all automatic.
Note: With a TRU failure: the L & R Main DC tie together (DC tie relay) & the CA & FO inst buses tie together
(another DC tie relay).
36. *What powers the A/P normally, and during autoland?

• normally: Lt A/P - L Main.
Rt & CTR - R Main.
• autoland: Rt A/P switches to the R-XFER bus which switches its power source to the R-Backup gen.
37. *After flight if the APU is NOT started, what will occur when Primary Ext is selected?
• both GB's open & primary ext powers both Main busses.
38. How long should a popped CB be allowed to cool?

• there is no limit, however: many scenarios involve computers and it is suggested that any CB (popped or pulled) be left
out for several minutes (3+) prior to resetting.
ELEC – MX INFORMATION
Ratings: L & R IDG’s 120 KVA (max)
APU Gen 120 KVA (max)
Pri-Ext 90 KVA
Sec-Ext 90 KVA
Backup Gen’s 20 KVA
RAT 7.5 KVA
Battery (ship’s) 47 Amp-Hour
Panels: Main & backup power sources go to the L,R or Aux power panels.
- these panels directly supply power for 25 amp (or greater) circuits.
- these panels also supply Power Management Panels & Ground Service & Ground Handling panels.
- all circuits of < 25 amps.
2 independent Power Channels:
Left Busses Right Busses
L - Main AC R – Main AC
L – Utility R – Utility
L – XFER R – XFER
L – DC R – DC
Stby AC FO Flt Inst
CA Flt Inst Gnd Service
Battery Bus (#1) APU Battery
Battery Bus #2 Hot Battery bus
L – FCDC – PSA’s R – FCDC – PSA’s
Batteries:
Main (ship’s) battery in the E&E compartment.
APU battery just aft of bulk cargo door.
Battery switch connects the Hot Batt Bus to Battery Bus # 2.
Heat Exchangers:
Eng/IDG fuel/oil heat exchanger.

Eng/B.U. Gen oil/oil heat exchanger.
IDG & B.U.Gen air/oil heat exchanger.
IDG: Drive disconnect switch = 2 piece IDG input shaft moves apart with spring loaded mechanism.
- reset ring resets the disconnect (on gnd, eng shutdown).
- auto disconnect if oil overtemp: thermal plug melts & operates disconnect mechanism
(no reset).
- manual disconnect switch is ARMED with fuel cutoff in RUN.
GCU controls the trim coil to control RPM (frequency) and matches freq’s during no-break power transfers.
PMG & Backup Gen:

1 PMG supplies the field power for the B.U. Gen.
Both PMGs supply power for the PSAs.
Backup gen will auto-trip for high oil temp (>20C).
Stby Power: Powered from either the RAT or Battery if the L XFER bus loses power.
Bus needing Power If RAT Deployed If Battery Only

Bus is Powered By: Bus is Powered By:
CA Flt Inst bus RAT/TR C1 Batt bus

FO Flt Inst bus RAT/TR C2 unpowered
Batt bus CA Flt Inst bus Hot Batt bus
Batt bus #2 CA Flt Inst bus CA Flt Inst bus
Hot Batt bus Batt bus Ship’s Battery
Static Inverter Batt bus Batt bus
AC Stby bus Static Inverter Static Inverter
Note: Static Inverter operates only when: L-XFER bus < 80 volts, Autoland isolation, or DC/Stby self-test.
RAT: 7.5 KVA, 3 phase, AC generator, 115v, powers: TR-C1 & TR-C2 only.
- 2 PMGs, exciter, main gen, 2 heaters (prevents gen icing), GCU, & voltage regulator.
- frequency governed by variable pitch prop (392hz to 410hz).
Deploys automatically when: both X-FER busses are unpowered > 15 seconds (inflight).
- or loss of all 3 HYD system pressures (inflight).
- or loss of both engines and LOW pressure in the C HYD system (inflight).
FAA Emergency Rule – 12/9/99: special checks required for backup generators (2 failed in 1999 causing engine shutdowns).
Looking for low oil pressure or sheared shaft.

Replacing both backup gens requires test flight or domestic flight.
Bars same mechanic from working on both gens.
Note: Engine generators have a 6 – 12 second delay for power-up from the time the engine passes 54% N2.
Note: Following engine start, the BU Gen will power its own Transfer Bus for 20 seconds, then the Main Bus takes over.
HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
*Describe the basic Hydraulic System:
2 EDP (Engine Driven primary Pumps) - L/R.

2 ELEC Demand pumps – L/R.
operate automatically when low pressure sensed at the primary pump.
2 ELEC Primary pumps – C1 & C2.
2 ADP (Air Demand Pumps) – C1 & C2.
1 or 2 operate as needed. (Both operate for T/O, gear retraction, and autoslat operation).
Note: The engine driven & air driven HYD pumps are high load/volume & are identical & interchangeable.
The ELEC pumps are low load/volume & are interchangeable with themselves.
RAT backup for the C system pressure to the C system Flt Controls only.
Left HYD powers: Right HYD powers:

L Reverser R Reverser
partial Flt Cont partial Flt Cont
Rudder Rudder
Normal Brakes & Accumulator
Center HYD powers:
Nose wheel steering
Main gear steering
Alternate/Reserve brakes
Flaps/Slats
Landing Gear
partial Flt Cont
Rudder
Note: Any one system will provide enough Flt Controls for safe flight.
Every Primary Flt Control (aileron, flaperon, elevator) is powered by 2 systems (rudder = 3).
Spoilers are always controlled symmetrically (system losses will NOT cause asymmetric roll).
Note: Alt/Res Brakes is only one system defined by:
ALT: Alternate or backup brakes. (no accumulator).
RES: uses Reserve fluid (below standpipe level) in the C HYD reservoir.
Note: Alternate gear uses a dedicated ELEC/HYD pump and separate trapped fluid to operate.
All Primary Pumps:

ON/Blank: pump is operating & supplying pressure.
ON/FAULT: LO pump pressure or HI pump fluid temp.
Blank/FAULT: manually selected OFF.
All Demand Pumps:

OFF: manually selected OFF.
AUTO: ON when system &/or primary pump output is LOW, or when control logic anticipates a
large demand. (Otherwise, it’s OFF (ELEC) or depressurized (AIR).
ON: the pump runs continuously. (Exception C1 & C2: if both selected ON, only C1 will operate).
FAULT: LO pump pressure, or HI pump fluid temp, or manually selected OFF.
RAT: pushing deploys the RAT.

PRESS: RAT is deployed & C HYD Flt Cont pressure is > 1500psi.
UNLKD: RAT is not is the stowed position.
1. What does RF, LO, & OF mean on the STAT display?

• refill, low, & overfilled. (OF & RF inhibited in flt). (call MX for all 3 conditions).
Note: 1.0 = 100%. Refill is annunciated at 75% (.75), LO at 40%, and OF at 120%.
2. *When does the pressure (psi) turn AMBER for a HYD system?
• when the pressure is LO (below 1200psi).
3. *What Demand Pumps come on in anticipation of high HYD loads when the selector is in AUTO?
• R demand pump ON anytime on the ground & until after T/O (brake sys).
• both C ADP demand pumps are ON from T/O roll to gear retraction. (Also autoslat operation).
• both L & R demand pumps are ON for T/O & landing.
• one C ADP demand pump ON when extending the gear.
4. Where is the pump Fluid Temp (FAULT light) sensed?

• case drain fluid of the pump in the return line of the case (cooling fluid that circulates around each pump).
5. *What will a pump FAULT light come ON for?

• LOW pump output pressure, or HI case drain fluid temp, or pump selected OFF.
6. What will occur with a C HYD leak?

• quantity decreases to 0 (=main standpipe level). Both C1 isol valves close. Isolates C1 primary pump to ALTN/RES
brakes.
• reserve fluid available to alt/res brakes, nose gear actuation, & nose gear steering only.
• L isol valve will OPEN when gear is extending & after landing < 60kts.
7. *Why is the R Demand pump turned ON first & OFF last?

• HYD fluid can transfer into the right system if the C is pressurized 1 st. (Through the brake system shuttle valve).
8. *How can the RAT be stowed?

• can’t be stowed inflt. The twin bladed prop is unfaired when deployed & won’t fit back into the hole until it is manually
aligned, pushed up, & door closed.
9. *What is the pump priority for the C1 & C2 demand pumps?

• in AUTO: C1 will operate first, unless both are needed. (both used for gear retraction).
• if both in ON: only the C1 will operate regardless of demand.
10. *During the Before Start Checklist, you notice the C2 Primary Pump FAULT light is ON. What is wrong?
• nothing: the ELMS loadsheds this pump when Ext-Pwr is removed.
11. Are the reservoirs pressurized?

• yes: they are pressurized by the PNEU system to prevent foaming.
12. *What is the RAT?

• Ram Air Turbine which can supply back-up HYD & ELEC.
• HYD power for C system flight controls. HYD has priority over ELEC.
• ELEC power for TRU’s C1 & C2.
Note: Will load-shed TRU C1 as needed (powering CA Flt INST bus) when batt bus is available. Total
ELEC load shedding will include TRU C2 if required.
13. *When does the RAT deploy (inflight)?

• automatically with loss of all 3 HYD system pressures.
• or automatically with loss of both X-FER busses.
• or automatically with loss of both engines and LOW pressure in the C HYD system.
• or manually by pressing the RAT button (HYD panel).
Note: the RAT WILL deploy on the ground manually (not a good idea).
14. *What is the priority of the RAT power?

• HYD has the priority over ELEC.
15. *How can you tell if the RAT is deployed (air or ground)?
• UNLK light on the RAT button (HYD panel).
• noise & vibration from its operation in-flight (go visit the cabin at door 3R).
16. How is manually turning an Engine driven HYD pump OFF different than what occurs when the Fire Switch is pulled.
• OFF = depressurizes the pump (“feathers” the squash plate), but the pump still is turning and receiving cooling case
drain fluid.
• Fire switch depressurizes the pump (as above) AND closes the pump’s supply valve resulting in NO cooling fluid to the
pump, & it is still turning. The pump will rapidly deteriorate, and restoring the pump at a later time might introduce
metal shavings into the HYD system (not a good thing for an all HYD flight control system).
17. Why might an engine reverser NOT deploy successfully after the loss of its Engine Driven (primary) HYD pump?
• the ELEC demand pump may not have the power (volume) to OPEN the reverser sleeve.
HYDRAULIC - GEAR & BRAKES
*Describe the basic Gear and Brake System:
650,000 lb. 14 wheeler!

Aft pair of wheels are steerable after 13 degrees of tiller movement. (Turns opposite direction to the turn).
shorter turning radius than the DC10.
Mains tilt for retraction & then again after extension.
Ret: allows the gear to fit into the wing root.
Ext: makes for a great touchdown & less shock on the strut. (“un-tilted” also used for some
“on-ground” signals).
Carbon brakes which operate efficiently at high speeds & high temps. (thanks B.F. Goodrich!).
Nose wheel steering: 7 degrees rudder pedals, & 70 degrees on the tiller.
C HYD extends & retracts the gear: (Normal gear/door sequencing).
EXT: HYD pressure unlocks uplocks; then gear free falls w/o assistance; then HYD retracts doors.
RET: HYD pressure retracts the gear & doors. (Mechanical uplocks). (OFF after retraction).
Autobrakes:
RTO: on the ground only. Maximum (full 3000psi) braking.
armed at > 85kts & activated by both throttles returning to idle. Disarms to OFF after T/O.
DISARM: either throttle advanced, or speed brake lever returned to
forward position, or pushing
either brake pedal.
auto disarmed with an ABS malfunction/fault, or loss of inertial data
(ADIRU), or loss of normal HYD Brake pressure, or manually switched to DISARM.
1 & 2: deceleration rate after timed delay on landing.
3 & 4: deceleration rate with no timed delay.
MAX: still a deceleration rate (NOT max braking like RTO).
1 – MAX: applied after main wheel spinup AND throttles in IDLE.
all LND modes release some (or all) pressure when high levels of reverse is used.
Note: If MAX brakes is selected, the system will give Level 4 until < 10 degrees
of pitch (i.e. nose on rwy), then increases to MAX deceleration rate.
Note: The RTO test of the 777 was conducted @ 632,500#, brakes worn to replacement value, >200KIAS. Results: the 777
stopped in 1,400 feet and stood for 5 minutes without a fire.
Note: Six wheel bogie spreads weight with same pavement-loading as DC-10-30.
50% less parts than DC10 (no center gear).
Allows B777 to be stretched to the 777-300 without adding additional gear.
Largest main gear ever developed for commercial airline use.
1. *What is happening when the gear annunciator on the EICAS is a box with slashes?
• the gear is in transit.
2. What releases the Gear Lever Lock pin?
• air/gnd sensing sensors (both main gear).
3. * How does the ALTN GEAR extension work?

• push & hold the switch > 1 second.
• an independent dedicated ELEC/HYD pump uses trapped C fluid to unlock the uplocks.
• gear free falls to down & locked (over-center locks) without gear/door sequencing.
• gear doors remain down (clear the rwy by 12+/- inches).
• operates regardless of gear handle position.
4. *May the gear be retracted after ALTN GEAR extension?

• yes: with normal C HYD pressure, the gear can be retracted & restored to normal operation by placing the gear handle
DOWN & then back to UP.
5. *What items are in the C HYD “Reserve” system?

• ALT/RES brakes, nose gear actuation, & nose wheel steering.
6. *Can the main gear be steered?

• yes: aft axle can be steered up to 8 degrees. (unlocks and progressively turns after 13 degrees of tiller-steering).
• reduces turn radius & scrubbing.
Note: Rudder pedal steering has no effect on the main gear (only turns the nose wheel 7 degrees).
7. *What has occurred (& what should be done) if the EICAS msg Main Gear Steering appears?
• the aft steerable gear have not locked-out for takeoff.
• taxi forward (straight) 5-10 feet to straighten & lockout the main gear steering for T/O.
8. Does the main gear bogie tilt?

• yes: 13 degree nose-up attitude after T/O & for Landing.
• 5 degree nose-up set during gear retraction for storage.
9. *What are the gear limits?

• 270/.82m for all configurations & all modes.
10. *What holds the gear in the UP position?

• mechanical uplocks. Once UP and LOCKED, the gear and doors are depressurized.
11. *What drives the gear to the DOWN and LOCKED position?
• HYD pressure UNLOCKs the uplocks, then the gear gravity falls to the DOWN and LOCKED position. Then doors
close with HYD pressure.
12. How are the tires numbered?

• 1,2 3,4
• 5,6 7,8
• 9,10 11,12
13. What antiskid protection is provided?

• applied in all modes: individual wheels in normal & accumulator-only modes.
• Alt/Res: 1&5, 2&6, 3&7, 4&8, #9-12 are all individually applied.
14. *What cockpit indications of tire pressure are available?

• tire pressures are read on the Gear Synoptic page.
• White = normal. Amber = LO press between paired tires or a pressure that deviates HI or LOW from the average.
Note: “Tire Press” msg means 1 or more press above or below norm, or excessive PSID between tires on the same axle.
15. What does a Brake Temp of 3.6 mean?
• 3.6 on a scale of 0 – 9.9.
• @ 3.0: the hottest brake on each truck will be displayed as solid white.
• @ 5.0 the brake temp display will turn amber.
Note: From 3 – 4.9 index: cool from 30 – 70 minutes.
From 5 - 6.5 index: caution zone (wait 1 hour & recheck).
From > 6.5 index: fuse plug melt zone (roll the trucks).
16. What are the exterior indications of the parking & brake system for the tow driver?
• amber: Parking Brake light (parking brake lever position only, not an indication of pressure).
• red: Brakes SET light (pressure to brakes).
• blue: Brakes OFF light (no pressure to brakes).
17. Can the Parking Brake be set without normal ELEC power?
• the lever will set, but the brake valve will not set (it all appears to be normal)!
Note: WARNING: this is similar to how CAL parked a DC-10 on top of a house in Guam. The brakes won’t set!
18. *When does the CA’s Brake Source light come ON?
• loss of pressure in both R & C HYD systems.
• accumulator may be used to stop or set brakes. (Assuming > 1000 psi on gauge).
19. *What does an accumulator reading of 1,000 mean? (Precharge).

• NO pressure left to stop or set brakes! Must be > amber band to properly set brakes. (the lever will set, but no brakes).
• the accumulator is read on the precharge side, “air side”. When brakes are pumped down, the gauge reads accumulator
air pressure only.
Note: If the accumulator reads < 1,000#, notify mx. (bad precharge).
Note: If the brake pressure “bleeds down” w/o pumps running, notify mx. (leaking check valve).
- mx has a time vs. pressure scale; but if you see it moving…. it’s too much.
20. What does the EICAS BRAKE msg mean?

• mx has deactivated one or more brakes.
21. Will the Nose Gear Landing/Taxi lights remain ON following gear retraction? (switch in ON).
• no: they will automatically go OFF.
22. How are the wheels stopped during Gear Retraction?

• mains: automatic braking through the antiskid system.
• nose: scrubber (brake cleats) at the top of the nose gear compartment.
23. What is the Brake Release System?

• < 45 kts; the antiskid system releases the brakes of 1 pair of wheels on each truck (sequenced to another set after each
brake application).
• reduces brake wear and braking sensitivity at low speeds.
• all brakes are applied with heavy braking, or the parking brake being set.
24. *When is the EICAS Gear Position Indicator in view?

• anytime the gear is not UP and LOCKED (similar to the flap position indicator).
HYDRAULIC MX INFORMATION
Normal system pressure: 3,000psi.

Pump pressure regulated to: 3,000psi +200 / -100.
Brake system precharge: 1,000psi +/- 200
Note: Brake pressure must not decay > 200psi in 5 minutes.
Indicating System:
8 pump pressure transducers (in the pressure lines).
8 pump temp transducers (in the case drain lines).
3 system pressure transducers (down-stream of pumps).
3 reservoir pressure switches (in PNEU lines to the reservoirs).
3 reservoir temp transducers (in the reservoir).
3 reservoir quantity transmitters (in the reservoir).
Sensors send data to HYDIM cards (4 each), which transmit to AIMS.

HYDIM cards also control the fault lights and the RAT lights on the HYD/RAT Panel (through the L/R
ARINC 629 Busses).
Reservoir and System Pressure:

L/R reservoirs are located in each respective engine strut.
C reservoir is on the aft bulkhead of the Rt wheel well.
Abnormals:
Low Pressures:
Reservoir Precharge 21psi EICAS msg (resets at 25psi)
HYD System 1200psi EICAS msg
ACMP 1200psi EICAS msg + FAULT light
ADP & EDP 1800psi “ “ “
Note: Pump LOW pressure does not produce an EICAS msg if the system pressure is also LOW.
Note: EDP LOW pressure msg is inhibited if the engine is below idle.
Overheat:
Pumps 105C EICAS msg + FAULT light (resets at 75C)
Reservoir none MX HYD page shows actual temp.
MX Caution: “Do not operate the HYD pumps after the temp
on EICAS is > 100C (212F), or after pump FAULT light comes ON. If you
continue to operate the pumps, the HYD fluid can become too hot.”
Note: HYD fluid is cooled by the L/R heat exchangers in the respective L/R main fuel tanks.
C HYD cooling is in the R-Main tank too.
Needs 4800 # fuel in the L/R to cool the L/R HYD system; and 7300# fuel in the R-Tank to
cool the C HYD system.
Quantities:
Full = 1.00 (100%)
LO = 0.40 ( 40%) (resets at 0.42)
RF = 0.75 ( 75%) (inhibited inflight)
OF = 1.20 (120%) (inhibited inflight)
Note: 0.00 = top of standpipe (still may have Reserve C fluid).

Note: Quantity gauge located in the Rt wheel well.
Note: Upper and lower sight gauges located in each strut (OB access panel), and on the C-Reservoir.
RAT (HYD):
HYD pump attached to the back of the generator.
HYD NOTES:
Note: 2 ADPs are located in the Lt, aft wing/body fairing.
Note: HYD fluid can move between R & C systems with brakes being set, then released, if both systems are not equally
pressurized.
Note: If C-HYD quantity is LOW > 60 KIAS then:

- Alt/Res brakes are isolated and powered by C1 (using reserve fluid).
- Nose gear actuation and nose gear steering are isolated.
- Slat HYD operation is inhibited if 1 engine is inop.
- Nose gear actuation and steering are reconnected when < 60 KIAS; or C-HYD PRESS LOW; or gear handle
DOWN and both engines running and both ADPs operative.
Note: Heavy braking with accumulator only could rapidly deplete the accumulator (antiskid could cycle 5-7 times/sec on icy
surfaces with heavy braking). The accumulator is only good for 3-5 brake applications.
Note: Boeing says that the six wheel design provides better wet weather braking performance of the aft wheels.
Aft wheels pass through the dried-out path of the first 2 wheel sets.
Note: At normal landing weights, each degree of ABS setting (1 - 4), reduces landing roll approx. 1000’ (see chart
in Sec 5).
Note: Main & Nose Gear retract within 16 seconds (-200) and 18 seconds (-300).
Note: After gear retraction, C-HYD quantity will increase slightly.
Note: Alternate gear will extend within 30 seconds.
Note: Alt flap extension: Slats – 58 seconds; Flaps – 161 seconds.
Note (-300): Tail Skid does not extend during alt gear extension.
FUEL SYSTEM
*Describe the basic Fuel System:
3 Tanks: Lt 64K, CTR 174.9K, and Rt 64K.

Total Cap: 302,900#.
2 Surge Tanks just OB of mains (drain back into mains). (vent pressure relief).
4 Boost Pumps (2/main tank), 2 Override/Jettison Pumps (Ctr), 2 Jettison Pumps (main tanks).
ON/Blank: ON & producing pressure.
ON/PRESS: selected ON but LO pressure.
Blank/Blank: L FWD only: APU commanded ON & producing pressure, but switch is OUT.
CTR pumps only: OFF & no pressure (lights inhibited in OFF).
Blank/PRESS: switch OFF & no pressure. (main tank pumps only).
2 Crossfeed Valves: x-feed fuel to engines (NOT to tanks).
------/Blank: selected OPEN & valve OPEN.
------/VALVE: selected OPEN & valve not in position.
Blank/Blank: selected CLOSED & valve CLOSED.
Blank/VALVE: selected CLOSED & valve not in position.
Automatic DC pump for APU start in the L-FWD tank. (If AC is not available. Also a backup to L-eng during
dual engine failure).
Fuel Jettison System: controls manifold & nozzles.
ARM/Blank: ARMs system & nozzles if in-flight.
- displays expanded fuel information on upper center panel.
ARM/FAULT: fault in the jettison system or system inop.
NOZZLE ON/Blank: ON & OPEN. Either switch turns ON both main jettison
pumps & OPENS both CTR jettison isolation valves & OPENs the respective nozzle.
ON/VALVE: selected ON & valve not in position.
Blank/Blank: OFF/CLOSED.
Blank/VALVE: selected OFF & valve not in position.
Fueling System: 2 single point receptacles on each wing. Fuel control panel on the left wing only.
1. *What is the minimum fuel temp allowed inflight?

• +3 degrees above the freezing point of the fuel.
2. *What action might be taken if close to the min fuel temp? (not usually a problem on the B777).
• descent to lower/warmer altitude.
• increase mach # (SR-71 here we come).
3. What fuel temp limit would normally be seen on the CDU during preflight/initialization of the FMS?
• selected by CAL to be -37 degrees because Jet A is –40 (+ 3 degrees = -37). (most conservative of all fuel).
4. What happens to jet fuel as it approaches its freezing point?

• turns into jello… & becomes un-pumpable.
5. What type of fuel probes are used?

• ultrasonic sensors in the tanks to measure volume & mass.
Note: A/C have experienced false tank readings due to harmonic vibrations from the engines.
Note: FAA requires MX pages copied to logbook &/or data linked as supporting doc for a fuel indication problem.
6. *What is done when the “Fuel Low Center” EICAS message is displayed?
• turn OFF the center tank pumps.
• the scavenge system will pump the remaining fuel into the main tanks when one main is below approx. 29,000#.
- assuming the main tank pumps are ON. (rate is approx. 50ppm).
Note: C fuel level > 2,400 or < 2,400 will determine if EICAS “Fuel Low” or “Fuel Pump Center” is displayed.
7. *Does the B777 have "Standpipes" for fuel jettison?
• yes: at least 11,500# will be remaining in each wing tank following fuel jettison. C tank pumps to dry.
8. *What fuel pumps may be OFF with no visual indication?

• C tank pumps: PRESS light is inhibited when switched OFF manually. (also APU DC pump).
Note: If C-Fuel < approx. 3,000#; consider leaving C-Pumps OFF until after T/O to prevent uncovering pumps on
rotation. (There will be an EICAS “Fuel Pump Center” msg to remind you).
9. *Can fuel be dumped on the ground?

• no: the jettison nozzles will NOT OPEN regardless of switch position. (& I’ve got this bridge in New York.….).
10. *What parameters must be met for the Nozzle switch to function properly in the ON position?
• A/C must be in-flight & the ARM button must be pushed.
11. If you opt to use MLW for stopping the Fuel Jettison: will the system compute distance/fuel to destination airport?
• no: MLW is an airborne weight, right now, regardless of distance to landing.
12. *How may the Fuel-to-Remain be adjusted?

• manually pull out the Fuel to Remain knob & adjust. Leave the knob OUT (IN resets the # to max LND weight again).
Note: Fuel to Remain display replaces the fuel temp display when jettison is ARMED.
13. *Where can remaining jettison time be read?

• on the fuel synoptic page only.
14. *What is the normal Jettison rate?

• variable, but approx. 5400ppm with C-Pumps ON, and 3100ppm with just Main pumps ON.
15. *What does the Fuel Jettison system do when reaching Fuel-to-Remain?
• terminates the dump & turns OFF the main tank jettison pumps. (Nozzles must be manually switched CLOSED).
• CLOSES the C fuel tank jettison valves.
• fuel to remain # flashes on the expanded fuel display.
16. Why might the Jettison STOP 3-6,000# short of commanded Fuel-To-Remain point?
• fuel quantity probes are read each minute. The indication system is buffered, not instantaneous. It might take up to 3
minutes to obtain a proper fuel reading at the end of jettison.
17. What does the EICAS msg “Fuel Auto Jettison” mean?
• auto jettison is inop.
• fuel will jettison to standpipes unless monitored.
18. *What tank normally burns first and how is that accomplished?
• C tank is burned first for CG reasons (C fuel creates forward CG).
• this is accomplished by the C override/jettison pumps (which produce approx. twice the pressure of a boost pump).
Note: During dump with a heavy A/C & forward CG, the C tank is automatically dumped first & main tanks
later (computed dump time is adjusted & displayed).
19. What does the CDU msg “Insufficient Fuel” mean?

• predicted fuel at destination entered into the CDU is less than reserve fuel entered in during preflight. (check loaded
winds).
20. When does the EICAS msg Fuel Imbalance come ON & what action should be taken?
• comes ON at varying amounts of fuel imbalance in main tanks, depending upon GW (2,000# +/- a wide value).
• one crossfeed should be OPEN & the boost pumps on the LOW side should be turned OFF until balanced.
Note: The synoptic will display an arrow pointing toward the low side.
Note: The fuel imbalance arrow will flash if the balancing is setup in the wrong direction.
Note: X-Feed deals in engine burn only, there is no transfer of fuel between tanks.
Note: Boeing flew the B 777 with an empty tank on one side and claims it’s no big deal.
21. How might you differentiate between a real fuel leak & a bad fuel gauge indication?
• use the Checklist! (CDU “Fuel Disagree” or “Insufficient Fuel”, or EICAS “Fuel Imbalance” msg).
• abnormally decreasing quantity might indicate a leak.
• excessive engine fuel flow might indicate a leak. (Visually check for leak).
• check calibrated balance vs indicated balance.
• a non-changing fuel imbalance, or an instant quantity loss might indicate a false reading.
Note: Each tank has 20 different probes which report to a central sensing system. Check mx Fuel page for
probe readings that are not consistent (should always be decreasing fuel height from probe 1 to 20.
Note: Software changes are being made to exclude probes which are suspected of being in error.
Note: A real extreme imbalance might be seen in the need for aileron trim.
22. *Will the L – DC Fuel Pump ever operate inflight?

• yes: automatically for a quick L-Eng relight with loss of both eng’s and AC power.
Note: The CDU Progress, Position Report, and RTE Data all use calculated fuel instead of actual totalizer readings. This
calculated fuel is the fuel normally used in all tracking efforts (Flight Plan, NAV Log, and automatic reports to ATC and
Dispatch). With a bad fuel flow transmitter…. these #’s could be seriously in error. Always compare the totalizer to the
calculated/reported data!
*FUEL LIMITS:
Use of JP-4 or Jet B is prohibited (requires special mx procedures when used & for several flights after use).
Max fuel temp is + 49C.
Main tanks must be scheduled full to load center fuel.
exception: C tank up to 3,000# if:
C fuel # + ZFW within max ZFW limit.
CG within limits.
Min temp 3 degrees above fuel freeze point (listed below)
Jet A -40
JP - 5 -46
Jet A-1 -50
JP - 8 -50
FUEL MX INFORMATION
L = 20 quantity probes All probes measure height (from bottom of tank) & Viscosity (density).
R = 20 quantity probes
C = 20 quantity probes (10 on L-side, 10 on R-side)
• Fuel Temp probe is in the L-tank, near the strut.

• Each tank has a water sensor probe (reported on the MX computer).
• The MX Fuel Qty page will display Pitch & Roll for use with the manual refueling manual.
• A Lateral & Longitudinal Inclinometer and Plumb Bob scale is located in the nose wheel well.
AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM
*Describe the basic Air Conditioning system:
L/R Packs, each with flow control valves, heat exchanger, & ACM.
both pack output temps set to the zone requesting the coolest temp.
Note: Packs may take as long as 60 seconds to obtain full flow, or to shut down.
4 Recirculation Fans: 2 upper (fwd & aft), & 2 lower (L & R). Zones A-F (not the cockpit).
with recirc fans: packs operate at a lower volume setting (saving up to 4% fuel).
L/R Trim Air system.
normally the zone requesting the coolest air will have its trim air valve CLOSED.
L Trim Air: cockpit & zones A, C, & E.
R Trim Air: zones B, D, F.
Pack Flow Control Valves: 2/pack.
Flight deck Temp Controllers (65-85 degrees): only control for cockpit. Cabin Temp sets baseline.
Master & individual Flt Attendant panels have zoned A-F temp controllers (+/- 10 degrees of master but never
in excess of 65-85 degrees).
Air supplied by:
Engine bleed (2).
APU bleed (1).
Ext GSU air (3 ports place air into X-Body duct).
Ext preconditioned air (2 ports place air into Air Conditioning Manifold).
(Pack) AUTO/Blank: flow control valve set for automatic operation OPEN or CLOSED.
AUTO/OFF: pack supply valve CLOSED due to:
engine start.
pack or compressor outlet temp HI, both flow valves failed closed, or no PNEU air to pack.
Blank/OFF: valve CLOSED manually.
(Trim) ON/Blank: trim air valve automatic operation OPEN or CLOSED (modulating).
ON/FAULT: valve failed closed.
valve closed due to zone supply duct overheat.
Blank/FAULT: manually selected OFF.
(Recirc) ON/-----: auto operation of fans.
ON/OFF: fault or cargo fire.
Blank/OFF: manually selected OFF.
(L,C,R) Bleed
AUTO/Blank: automatic operation.
AUTO/CLOSED: valve CLOSED due to a duct leak, bleed loss, or valve failed CLOSED.
OFF/CLOSED: manually selected CLOSED.
(APU) Bleed
AUTO/Blank: automatic operation.
AUTO/OFF: valve CLOSED due to a duct leak, APU fire, or valve failed CLOSED.
Blank/OFF: manually selected CLOSED.
(ENG) Bleed
ON/Blank: valve will OPEN when eng bleed air available (ELEC actuated, PNEU operated).
ON/OFF: valve CLOSED due to a protective bleed shutdown (over temp, over pressure, or
ground cart supplying air), duct leak, fire switch, or no air.
Blank/OFF: manually selected CLOSED.
AC Reset: resets pack flow control & trim air valves closed for:
overheat, control failure, or valve failure.
attempts to reset recirc fan failure.
resets fault protection circuits.
Cockpit Temp:
AUTO: sets cockpit temp auto control in 65-85 degree range.
MAN: cockpit manually controls L trim air valve position.
Cabin Temp:
AUTO (only): sets baseline for cabin temp controllers.
Equip Cooling:
AUTO/Blank: fan blows cool air from cabin (cabin floor vents, through a filter & fan), into E&E,
behind inst panel, & into FWD cargo compartment for heating.
AUTO/OVRD: fans OFF, override valve OPENS. (fault, smoke, or low flow
sensed, or fwd cargo fire).
Blank/OVRD: manually selected to OVRD.
Note: Fans and filters located behind fwd cargo Lt wall.
Note: CAL B777s do not have gasper fans or master switch. The gasper vents get air flow from the A/C manifold.
1. *What temp is the 12 o'clock position of the cockpit's two temp controllers?
• 75 degrees.
2. What pack temp is produced if a cockpit temp selector/controller fails?

• packs fail-safe to 75 degrees.
3. Will the cabin temp change automatically in-flight (without changing the controls)?
• yes; the system is designed to slowly increase the temp 4 degrees during cruise due to cold-soaking of the fuselage at
high altitudes.
• the "target temp" will be automatically adjusted; and will be slowly returned to the original setting during descent.
4. *Where do Recirculation fans draw their air from?

• upper: cabin air.
• lower: cabin exhaust (prior to outflow valves) air combined with fresh pack air.
5. *Where do the Recirculation fans place their air?

• upper: into the zone air ducts.
• lower: into the conditioned air manifolds.
Note: Turning 1 recirculation fan OFF increases pack air flow volume 50%. (2 = 100%). (Also increases fuel flow).
6. What temperature is maintained with loss of all Trim Air?

• pack output is driven to maintain the average of all zone demands (average target temp of all zones).
• the master cockpit control may also help control output temp.
Note: With loss of power, the Trim Air Valves drive to a preset position of 0.20 +/- 0.02.
7. *How does the equipment cooling system work in OVERRIDE?

• 2 supply fans - OFF (only one was in use), FWD cargo heat – OFF (valve CLOSED), & smoke/override valve (venturi)
OPENS.
• differential pressure sucks air from cockpit ceiling, down behind the inst panel, through the E&E compartment and out
the smoke/override valve. (left side fuselage forward of the wing).
8. How does the equipment cooling system know that the flow is insufficient?
• temp probes sense flow. (Overheat and trigger OVERRIDE when air flow is insufficient).
Note: May take up to 5 minutes from the time the fans stop operating, for the horn to sound (ground only).
9. *Does the equipment cooling air always flow into the FWD cargo compt (assume AUTO selected)?
• 100% airborne (in normal ops).
• modulated on the ground to prevent overheating the FWD cargo. (balance is vented overboard through fwd outflow).
10. *What provides AFT or Bulk cargo heat?
• bleed air (Lt duct).
• supply valve OPENs when switch is selected LOW or HIGH.
• LOW: temp valve modulates 40F - 50F.
• HIGH: temp valve modulates 65F - 75F.
• bulk cargo also has a circulation fan installed which operates only in HIGH.
Note: Each system contains an overheat shutoff function which cannot be reset in-flight.
11. What are the Foot & Shoulder heat controls?

• foot: ELEC plate below each rudder pedal floor board (in-flight only).
• shoulder: ELEC heat element inside cockpit side window (L/R 2) air duct (in-flight only).
12. *What does the EICAS "Standby Cooling" msg mean?

• a pack’s ACM has failed and has reverted to standby cooling.
• bleed air is precooled by the heat exchanger only, then routed to the air-conditioning manifold.
• only operates when OAT can sufficiently cool the bleed air (i.e. inop in lower/hotter altitudes).
Note: System can only cool the bleed air to within 100 degrees +/- of OAT.
Note: If both packs are in standby: one will continue to operate at the lower altitudes as well.
13. *During the walkaround you hear a continuous "Ground Crew Call" horn in the nose wheel well. What could cause
this?
• either someone is really calling (selecting ground call on CDU).
• or the equipment cooling system has LOW flow or HIGH temp air supply. (IE. operating in OVERRIDE).
• or the ADIRU is on Batt power.
14. *Besides LOW flow or HIGH temp: what else could put the equipment cooling system into OVRD?
• smoke sensed by the E&E smoke sensor or fwd cargo fire ARMED, or OVRD manually selected.
15. What will the Packs do during engine start?

• automatically shutoff and remain OFF for 2 minutes or until the second engine has obtained minimum idle.
16. *If a pack trips OFF, can it be reset?

• maybe: allow it to cool (5 min), press the RESET button, then cycle the pack switch.
- if it blew the internal fuse plugs it will not reset.
- if a valve failed or temperature sensor failed it may not reset.
17. *If the equip cooling system automatically trips into OVRD, can it be reset?
• yes: switch to OVRD & allow it to cool then try AUTO again.
18. *What are the uses of engine bleed air?

- Cargo heat - ADPs (air demand HYD pumps)
- Packs - pressurizes the 3 HYD reservoirs
- Trim air - pressurizes the Potable water system
- EAI - WAI
- Eng X-Start - APU ATS Starter
- TAT probe aspiration (PNEU anti-ice)
19. What might be the possible problems if there is a frequency vibration in the airframe, directly related to engine RPM?
• possibly a # of bad turbine blades, but more likely a bad ACM.
Note: ID the engine, then try turning OFF the pack. If the vibration stops; it’s the ACM.
20. When will the Pressurization System be automatically displayed in compressed form on the EICAS?
• landing alt knob pulled.
• outflow valve switched to manual.
• cabin alt > normal (amber).
• EICAS “Cabin Alt” msg displayed.
• cabin differential press (psid) > normal (amber).
• cabin differential press excessive (red).
• duct press < normal (amber).
• air synoptic is displayed on any MFD.
21. *When will the Packs automatically limit their input/output?

• during high bleed demands such as gear retraction on T/O (ADP’s using air).
• to minimize air flow during a cargo fire.
• to save fuel when the recirculation fans are ON.
Note: The packs also reduce flow variably (4 schedules) depending on system and pressurization requirements.
Note: During T/O, the packs operate to schedule-4 for 2 minutes, then to schedule-2 for 8 minutes. (Except
during ADP operation of the flaps).
Note: At 26,000’ +/- 1,000’ the Upper Flow Control valve closes and the Lower valve opens for Ozone Control.
PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM
*Describe the basic Pressurization System:
2 ASCPCs (Air Supply & Cabin Pressure Controller).

Lt ASCPC = master, Rt = backup. (auto switching).
ASCPCs & the Remote Pressure Controller send data to AIMS.
If both ASCPCs fail, the AIMS uses data from the Remote Pressure Controller.
2 over Pressure Relief valves on the left fuselage. Each valve has 2 internal valves set at different psi and one
hinged cover plate (Taco valve).
4 Negative Pressure Relief valves: 2 ea Rt & Lt fuselage.
2 Outflow Valves: FWD/AFT.
AUTO/Blank: controlled by ASCPCs.
Blank/MAN: ARMS manual switches.
OPEN (sw): moves outflow valve towards OPEN.
CLOSE (sw): moves outflow valve towards CLOSED.
both spring-loaded to center.
1 Remote Pressure Sensor/Controller.
LDG ALT: PUSH: auto operation referencing FMC landing airport.
PULL: manually set dest field elev. (also used during smoke removal to increase cabin alt).
1. Why are the 2 positive pressure relief valves called "Taco Valves”?
• there are two flaps on each valve, hinged in the center; & when they open they resemble a taco (both valves are on A/C
left).
Note: During the walkaround, check each taco valve to insure that it is flush. If the A/C has been over-pressurized on
a previous flight: the valve will be held slightly out of flush by a small red nipple.
2. *Which outflow valve does most of the work?

• the AFT handles 80% of the outflow air (better cabin clean-air circulation & smoke removal).
3. What might cause a negative pressure relief situation & what is the indication?
• descending too fast for the cabin pressure controllers. (they are limited to 300 +/- 100 FPM cabin pressurization).
• no cockpit indication (the FA above those panels might hear a rushing noise).
4. When do the outflow valves start to close (pressurize) on a flight?

• during the T/O roll to prevent a pressure "bump" at liftoff.
5. What is the normal rate of climb for the Cabin Pressurization?

• 500 +/- 100 fpm UP; 300 +/- 100 fpm DOWN.
Note: Cabin altitude will not change with A/C altitude variations of < 500’.
6. *What will the cabin pressure be at touchdown?

• 190' below field elevation = 0.11psid (structural, keeps the door seals quite, & prevents negative pressure relief).
• ASCPC opens the outflow valves slowly on touchdown, then more rapidly.
7. *What is the highest cabin alt target used during cruise?

• 8,000' - 43,100 MSL @ 9.1 psid.
8. *What will the cabin alt do during climb if the CDU is initially set at:
• T/O @ 200' / LND @ 8,500'? climbs to 8,000' until descent.
• T/O @ 8,100' / LND @ 200'? descends to target cruise alt.
9. *Where can you read PSID (differential pressure)?

• on the compacted PNEU EICAS display only. (also MX pages).
Note: Select Air Synoptic to bring up the compressed display on the upper screen.
10. What LND ALT will be referenced by the ASCPC when 30 minutes into a flight from LAX to EWR?
• 126' - LAX field elevation since the flight is < 400nm from T/O field AND is < than 1/2 way to EWR (whichever is
greater).
11. Now you are enroute from LAX to EWR and need to abort into DEN. How will the controller know what to pressurize to
during the descent?
• pull-out & manually set DEN field elev. (not a great option).
• or - when CDU ALTN is selected or CDU ARR airport is changed, the FMS tells the ASCPC that we are aborting into
DEN & the landing altitude is set automatically.
12. What will the cabin do with a single Pack failure?

• cabin will maintain between 8.4 – 8.7 psi.
13. What will the cabin do with both Packs Failed?

• leak rate is approx. +100fpm with both outflow valves CLOSED (isn’t a new A/C fun?).
14. When will the EICAS "Cabin Alt" msg appear?

• cabin alt > 10,000’ +/- 1000’.
15. When will the pax O2 masks drop from the ceiling?
• 13,500 +/- 300’ cabin alt.
• may be manually deployed from cockpit by activating the PASS OXYGEN switch.
Note: Cabin fluorescent direct ceiling, indirect ceiling, and sidewall wash lights will also come ON full.
Note: No Smoke & Fasten Seatbelts signs will come ON. (Lav “Return to Seat” lights will NOT come ON).
Note: All video and audio entertainment systems will be inoperative.
16. What will the No Smoke & Fasten Seat Belt signs do if PAX O2 is deployed?
• both automatically turn ON, except for the lav “Return to Seat” sign (use the O2 in the lav ceiling).
17. At what cabin altitude will the Outflow Valves automatically go to full CLOSED?
• 14,500’.
18. *How does the manual LND ALT selector work?

• pull out to engage manual LND ALT.
• 2 detents in each direction (DECR/INCR): 100fpm & 500fpm.
• EICAS condensed PNEU display: LND ALT depicted in feet.
• set 190’ below field elevation during descent to keep A/C pressurized at 0.11psid on landing.
Note: Pushing back IN on the knob will cancel the manual operation.
Note: Auto and Manual landing altitude is referenced to the baro correction on the CA altimeter.
19. *How is cabin smoke prevented from entering the cockpit?

• cockpit door is kept closed.
• no recirculation air is ever supplied to the cockpit (100% fresh).
• cockpit is slightly overpressurized compared to the cabin (all air flows OUT).
20. * What occurs with a duct leak?

• system automatically takes 1, 2, or 3 steps to isolate the leaking duct.
Note: Each step may take up to 3 minutes to complete as it waits to let the sensors cool.
Note: There is a dual loop Duct Leak/Overheat Detection System (DLODS) located in the wings (L/E), engine struts,
and center accessory compartment.
*PRESSURIZATION LIMITS:
Max differential 9.1psid

Max differential for T/O or Landing 0.11psid
ENGINES
*Describe the Engines and their Gauges:
GE90-90B engines, rated at 94,000# thrust (as of 8/99). (increased in 1999 from 92.5k for longer TBO’s).
Notes: Originally rated at 84,900# & expected to "grow" to over 115,000# (same engine), with later models.
Blades are a wide-chord design to improve efficiency.
10 stage dual dome compressor.
Composite fan blades with titanium leading edges for impact strength.
Aluminum spacers at blade root.
Utilizes Mobile 254 oil.
3" thick Kevlar containment band
High by-pass ratio (8.4:1).
ELEC controlled, HYD actuated fan-air reversers. (Does NOT reverse the turbine section).
Controlled by the dual channel EEC Mode:
NORM:
receives input from the crew through thrust levers. (previously called throttles).
AIMS calculates ref thrust (max limit).
EEC meters fuel to allow N1 to match commanded N1 thrust lever position.
max RATED thrust available in any phase (max throttle).
provides N1 & N2 RPM overspeed protection.
controls Min-Idle & Approach-Idle as needed (flaps in LND range or EAI ON).
ALTN:
manually - "hard", or automatically - "soft" selected. (ATS remains engaged).
N1 & N2 overspeed protection remains in effect.
thrust reference remains in effect.
there is NO thrust limit protection. (retard the thrust levers before selecting “hard”).
SOFT - N1 goes blank. Set both engines to HARD (manual) ALTN.
START:
initiates engine start cycle.
returns to NORM at starter valve CUTOFF.
2 Igniters per engine. (Controlled by EEC).
auto-start selects & alternates igniters (uses both for Abnormals).
NORM:
auto ignition for both igniters as needed. (Fuel Control must be in RUN).
CON:
both igniters operate continuously (if Fuel Control is in RUN).
AUTOSTART: ON:
controls Fuel & Ignition, & monitors start/restart.
shuts OFF Ignition after successful start.
monitors N1, EGT, N2, FF, & duct pressure (NOT oil TEMP/PRESS).
arms auto relight system
Airborne Vibration Monitors
monitors both N1 & N2, displays the higher of these two vibration levels.
or, if it can't tell if it's N1 or N2; BB (broad band) is displayed.
Bleed Air used for: (see list under pressurization).
ASCPC (Air Supply & Cabin Pressure Controller):
modulates PRSOV's (bleed valves) to control PNEU duct temp.
(ENG) ON/Blank: bleed valve OPEN (automatic function).
(ENG) ON/OFF: auto closed due to:
protective bleed shutdown or duct leak.
valve failed CLOSED.
engine is not running.
Eng Fire switch PULLED.
(ENG) Blank/OFF: bleed valve selected CLOSED manually.
(APU) AUTO/Blank: controlled automatically.
(APU) AUTO/OFF: auto closed due to:
duct leak.
valve failed CLOSED.
APU fire switch PULLED.
(APU) Blank/OFF: manually selected CLOSED.
(ISLN) AUTO/Blank: controlled automatically.
(ISLN) AUTO/OFF: auto closed due to:
duct leak or bleed loss.
valve fails CLOSED.
(ISLN) Blank/OFF: manually selected closed.
1. *What are the primary engine instruments?

• N1 & EGT.
2. *What is the minimum oil quantity before and after start?

• min 23 before start (max reading is 24 quarts).
• min 18 after start (defined as before brake release). (may see less than 15-17 after start on a cold day).
Note: This is an ETOPS requirement.
3. *What happens to Pack & Start valves during an engine start?

• engine start valve OPENs when the switch is positioned to START.
• both pack valves automatically CLOSE to maximize air to starter.
Note: If the second engine is not started within a short time, the pack valves OPEN again.
Note: Once the engine supplies bleed air to the manifold, the associated ISOL valve CLOSES.
4. When should you take action for NO Oil Pressure during start?
• cutoff fuel control if NO oil pressure after initial EGT rise (light-off).
Note: During extreme cold wx ops: cutoff fuel if NO oil pressure when eng stabilizes at idle thrust.
5. *What does cutting off the Fuel Control do?

• closes both the spar fuel valve & the eng fuel control valve, deactivates the ignition, closes the eng bleed valve, &
releases the fire switch lockout.
6. *Can the EEC initiate a second or third start?

• yes: if a hot-start, hung start, compressor stall, or no-start occurred the EEC will motor the engine for 6-30 seconds and
try again using both ignitors.
• a third attempt will also be tried then, if failed, the EEC aborts the start, motors for 30 seconds & shuts OFF the starter.
Note: No restart attempt for: LO air pressure to starter, starter shaft failure, or starter duty time exceeded.
7. *When would you move the Fuel Control to RUN during a manual start?
• at max motoring (min 22% N2).
8. *What is the purpose of "motoring " the eng after an Aborted Start?
• clear the fuel out of the combustion chamber (otherwise you get a BIG boom!).
• cool the engine evenly after a hot start (fuel was all burned up).
Note: EEC automatically motors 6-30 seconds if aborted during Auto-Start.
Note: If manual start: motor for 30 seconds.
9. Why are the spirals painted on some large high bypass engines?
• to frighten birds away from the engine inlet.
10. *What is the indication of an engine failure on T/O? (IAS < V1).
• aural ENGINE FAIL, PFD "Eng Fail" annunciated, & M-Warning lights. (either engine not producing commanded
thrust).
11. What is the indication of low Oil Quantity?
• white background & "Lo" beside gauge.
• measures quantity of the reservoir.
12. Where is the Oil Temp & Pressure measured?

• downstream of the fuel/oil heat exchanger & prior to the engine fuel controller.
13. How & where is the Fuel Flow measured?

• by the fuel flow transmitter downstream of the engine fuel valve.
14. What is the max Reduced Thrust allowed?

• never less than associated climb power (don't need to push power up to achieve climb thrust).
• max 25% from a certified rating (FAR).
15. When would you use derated T-O1 or T-O2?

• never at CAL. This requires Vmcg calcs which limit you to that specific derated thrust in case of an engine failure or
windshear or anything else while on the runway.
Note: Assumed temp/reduced thrust always allows use of full thrust to recover from a failed engine if desired.
16. *When does the Ignition come ON automatically? (selector in NORM).

• during manual start when fuel control raised to RUN.
• during in-flight auto-start attempts (both ignitors).
• with all flap settings. (IE. out of UP).
• with EAI.
• during an RTO.
17. What is the power source for the Igniters?

• main AC, backed up by Stby AC.
18. Why is it important on the Engine Auto-Start OFF checklist, to return the Auto-Start switch to AUTO after starting both
engines?
• arms the quick inflight relight features of the ignition system.
19. *What is the Auto-Relight function?

• flameout protection: activates both ign when the EEC senses a rapid decrease in N2 or less than idle N2 RPM.
20. *When should CON-Ignition be selected?

• heavy rain, severe turbulence, and volcanic ash encounters.
21. What is the indication of MCT being exceeded by the engine?

• digital readout, box, & dial turns AMBER.
Note: On T/O or G/A, the amber warning is inhibited for 5 minutes.
22. *What is the indication if the EGT, N1, or N2 red line is exceeded?
• digital readout, box, & dial turns RED. (if N2 exceeded: brings up secondary engine indications to EICAS).
Note: Remains RED until the CANC/RCL button pushed (even then, it is retained in memory).
23. If the EICAS lower display is blank, what will occur if a secondary engine indication is exceeded?
• the secondary indications will appear automatically on the lower unit.
• if the display has failed or is in use for another display (such as NAV), the secondary will appear in compacted form on
the upper EICAS display.
Note: Secondary indications cannot be cleared/replaced until exceedance is reduced.
24. *How many start attempts will the Auto-Start system make in-flight?
• continuous attempts until started or fuel control moved to CUTOFF.
25. When are Secondary Engine Indications automatically displayed?
• power up.
• fuel control CUTOFF inflight.
• fire switch PULLED inflight.
• secondary parameter exceeded.
• N2 RPM < idle inflight.
26. *What are the immediate action items for Dual Engine Flameout? (Check current flt manual!)
• Fuel Control Switches (Both)........CUTOFF, then RUN.
• Ram Air Turbine Switch...............PUSH
27. When can full Reverse Thrust be achieved?

• after interlock release (full reverser sleeve deployment) by moving the reverse levers full UP.
• EEC will monitor & control max reverse. (as well as reverse sequence).
Note: Thrust reversers are inhibited by the EEC inflight or with that specific engine shut down.
28. *What occurs to the automated flight systems when reverse is selected?
• disengages the ATS.
• deploys the auto speed brakes (even if not armed).
• A/P remains engaged if in Autoland (continuing rudder steering to maintain LOC).
29. If a reverser fails to stow, what should your action be?

• do NOT cycle the reverser.
• do NOT add a little thrust (it's a HYD reverser, not PNEU).
• you may bend (twist) the cowl tracks if any attempt is made to fix it.
• shut off the engine & have mx fix. (Consider a tow-in).
30. In AUTO, what is the normal sequence for the ASCPC ISOL valves?
• ground air attached all valves OPEN
• APU ON & ENGs OFF all valves OPEN
• starting Lt Eng L & C OPEN, R CLOSED
• starting Rt Eng R & C OPEN, L CLOSED
• crossbleed start all valves OPEN
• one eng out (in-flight) all valves OPEN
• in-flight (normal) L & R OPEN, C CLOSED (powers associated ADPs)
31. What main air systems are run off the left body duct?
• L WAI, L Pack, L Trim Air, C1 Air HYD Demand Pump, Aft & Bulk Cargo Heat.
• (Rt body duct = R WAI, R Pack, R Trim Air, C2 ADP).
32. *What bleed leak protection is provided?

• both struts, both wings (from strut, inboard), body duct (aft to APU & X-body with isol valves) have bleed leak
overtemp/overpressure detectors.
- operates automatically: detects & isolates sections of ducts using the supply bleed valves and the bleed air
isolation valves.
- may take up to 3 minutes per attempt to isolate the system (logic system waiting to see cooling take place).
33. Why not use the ATS (both ARMED) after loss/shutdown of an engine?
• good idea Bill – it will keep the throttles together & minimize the chance of grabbing the wrong thrust lever.
• since the fuel control lever is CUTOFF, moving the thrust lever does nothing to the system. Having the ATS move it for
you will prevent many accidental ATS “HOLD” occurrences & possible loss of airspeed.
Note: There is no Boeing prohibition against this. CAL agreed to keep it OFF to train pilots in ATS inop approaches.
However, in a real situation, its use could be a big help and a safer condition.
34. What engine instruments are active prior to engine start?

• N1, N2, oil quantity, vibration monitors.
• balance of primary or secondary instruments become active with N2 rotation (approx. 5%+).
35. *When will an engine bleed valve close automatically?
• fire switch pulled, start lever OFF, duct leak, duct overheat, or duct over pressure.
36. When is Approach Idle automatically selected?

• EAI ON, flaps in landing range (25-30), 1 ADP is inop & flaps are deployed, or if an opposite eng bleed valve is closed
(for example, single engine).
37. *When is TAC inhibited?

• while reverse thrust is active or < 70 kts on the ground.
39. What is “Shingling”?

• as large cord fan blades heat up and cool, and are subjected to large centrifugal forces, they “grow” (extend) over time.
• shingling is the rubbing of fan blades against the composite cowling ring.
Note: Abnormal wear marks between the fan blades and the cowling ring are caused by shingling and should be
checked and reported on preflight walkaround.
Note: On the B777 GE engines, the fan blades are LRUs (individual Line Replacement Units).
ENGINE NOTES:
Note: Engine harmonic vibrations have been known to effect fuel gauges (1999). At one point, the GE90 experienced high
acoustic vibration levels caused by cracks in the high pressure turbine mid-seal. A damper has been installed to muffle
the vibration.
Note: Loss of oil due to foaming occurred with new factory engines (1997). Caused by an engine oil and solvent intermix
(solvent coating on new/rebuilt engine parts). Problem has been cured by multiple (3) oil changes for new engines and
promises by the manufacturer to use less coating.
Note: Boeing has elected on their newer A/C (since 747) to NOT have "Flight Idle" in all phases of flight. This decision was
forced on them by high performance wings which could NOT meet FAA timed descent criteria for a rapid
decompression. Hence, the lower cruise idle, and increase to “approach idle” only in the following environments:
EAI ON. Opposite engine bleed OFF.
Flap lever not UP & one ADP OFF. Flap lever in the landing position.
Note: “Min Idle” will be set on touchdown.
Note: Boeing defines "max-motoring" as < 1% increase in N2 over a 5 second period. The faster the max-motoring, the
cooler the start EGT (and therefore turbine blade wear).
Note: Some engine readings are blanked until the N2 rotates > approx. 5%.
Note: ETOPS requires mx notification if “running average” (last 15 days) of oil consumption exceeds .25 qt/hr. ETOPS
may be restricted if running average exceeds .84 qt/hr (part of mx – ETOPS preflight).
Note: Oil quantity displayed is reservoir quantity, not system quantity.
Note: 69 sensors continuously readout engine parameters for each engine. (EPCS system).
Note: Igniters are both on the Lt side of each engine (9:30 & 8:00 positions).
Note: N1 speed sensor is at 8:30 position on the aft side of fan frame hub.
Note: Boeing’s thrust #’s don’t equal the engine’s data plate thrust.
- data plate = test stand static thrust at sea level.
- BET (Boeing Equivalent Thrust) = 165 kts at sea level (a computed #).
- IE. GE90BG08 = 94,000 T/O thrust. BET = 90,600 T/O thrust.
Note: 22 wide-cord fan blades, carbon fiber & resin with a titanium leading edge. Individual blades can be replaced on the
line.
Note: "Dual Dome" in the compressor section = two major zones for combustion.
- at low power, only one dome is lit (reduces CO & hydrocarbon emissions by 35% & smoke by 50%).
- at high power, both domes are in use.
*ENGINE LIMITS:
Backing with reverse thrust prohibited. Reverse thrust in-flight prohibited.
ENGINE MX INFORMATION (as of 8-14-99)
Minimum Idle 60.0% N2

Eng Weight 18,700# approx.
Fan Case Diameter 150.6”
Fan Diameter 123.0”
Eng Length 285.8”
By Pass Ratio 8.4:1
Core Thrust 20% approx.
Fan Thrust 80% approx.
LP Compressors 3 stages
HP Compressors 10 stages
Variable Stators 1st 4 HP Compressor stages
HP Turbines 2 stages
LP Turbines 6 stages
Limits: AMBER RED

RPM – N1 ----- 109.0%
RPM – N2 none 117.0%
EGT 985C 1030C (these EGT’s change/engine rating increase)
Start EGT 825C none
Oil Press 27psi 10psi
Oil Temp 124C 135C
Low Oil Quantity: 4.0 qts
Note: At 100% N2 the N2 RPM is 9346RPM.
Auto Start Sequence:

- EEC starts a timer at 2000RPM N2 (21.4% N2).
- At 15 seconds: ignition turned ON.
- At 18 seconds: fuel is turned ON.
- Ignition is stopped at 56% N2.
- Ignition selector moves from START to NORM position just before idle speed.
- System self-tests itself at each engine start.
Auto-Relight monitors N2 & PS3 (probe).

- rapid N2 decrease, or below idle = both igniters.
- PS3 < 175psi = both igniters.
- rejected takeoff = both igniters.
Inflight Start Envelope: (GE)

< 200kias = 15,000’ ceiling.
< 270kias = 25,000’ ceiling.
> 270kias = 33,000’ ceiling.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
*Describe the Primary, Secondary, and Direct Flight Controls:
Fly by wire: (electrically signaled hydraulically actuated flight control surfaces)

Big advantage through weight savings in cables, linkages, pulleys, brackets, bell-cranks, etc.
Computers can protect airframe from excess stress, overspeed, over yawing, over bank, & stall.
Yoke input sent to 4 ACEs then to the 3 PFCs, back to the 4 ACEs, and finally to the PCUs
controlling the flight control actuators.
Each PFC channel checks its own command against the other two. If all agree, a signal is sent to the
four ACE's.
If one PFC (computer) channel does not agree, it is overruled by the majority.
ACEs convert a voltage (analog signal) to digital signals that the PFC (computer) can read; and then
back again into analog (voltage) to drive the PCUs.
PFCs receive outside input from the ADMs (airspeed), the ADIRU (inertial data), AOA (angle of
attack), and flap position.
PFCS modes of operation:
Normal: everything available.
Secondary: PFC auto switches when airspeed &/or inertial input data is lost.
no: autopilots, auto speedbrakes, TAC, gust suppression, turn compensation, wheel-to-rudder
crosstie, or protection features (stall, overspeed, bank angle), rudder trim reset switch inop.
degraded: yaw damp (degraded or totally lost), rudder ratio, elev feel, aileron lockout.
Direct: PFC auto switches when PFCs are lost, or DISC manually.
all of the above lost, plus: manual rudder trim switch & yaw damper.
yoke signals to ACEs which sends signals directly to PCUs.
Final mode without PFCS: Manual: available with full ELEC power failure, but requires HYD power.
stab moved by cables from ALT TRIM to 2 PCUs in the tail (HYD system C & R).
spoilers # 4 & 11 moved by cables from Yoke to PCUs (HYD system L).
Note: Designed to control A/C only while working to reestablish normal (or partial) ELEC power.
Elevator Feel: is controlled by PFCS & is dependant upon the PFCS mode of operation.
PFCS in Normal: feel is variable based upon airspeed.
PFCS in Secondary or Direct: 2 fixed levels of feel (flaps up – more pressure; flaps down – less).
Auto Speedbrakes: always armed for T/O mode, manually armed for LND mode of operation.
Reverse Thrust (either): deploys speedbrakes regardless of speedbrake handle position.
ARMED (handle): deploys with both throttles at idle & main gear level (not tilted).
Auto Retracts: when either throttle is moved toward the T/O position.
Stall Warning & Protective features:
Stick Shaker: both yokes, no aural warning, activates at top of lower red band (airspeed indicator).
Stall Protection: primary trim inhibited below top of amber band (min maneuver speed)
if ARMED, ATS engages prior to stick shaker.
yoke requires continually increasing manual back pressure by pilot.
EICAS M-Caution & Airspeed LOW msg.
Over Speed Protection: primary trim inhibited > Vmo/Mmo.
yoke requires continually increasing manual forward pressure by pilot.
EICAS M-Warning & Overspeed msg.
Note: Forward force is reduced as bank angle increases.
Bank Angle Protection: manual & A/P flight: creates forces to roll wings
to < 30 degrees.
bank pointer of PFD changes to amber when > 35 degrees.
Redundancy: each elevator, aileron, & flaperon control surface is powered by 2
independent HYD systems through independent PCUs (actuators). The stabilizer is powered
by C & R HYD. The rudder is powered by all 3 systems.
TAC: Thrust Asymmetry Compensation: counteracts asymmetric loss of thrust.
Armed anytime > 70kts. A/P or hand flown. (Inhibited in Rev Thrust).
High rate rudder trim (trim indicator & pedals move). Takes most of the yaw out.
Wheel-to-Rudder Crosstie: provides up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection (not trim) opposite a displaced yoke.
Operative continuously when < 210kts. Controls initial effect of power loss with control wheel only.
1. *How many modes of flight controls are there & is there any back-up to fly by wire?
• 3 control systems: Primary, Secondary, and Direct.
• yes – manually: the ALTN cable driven HYD stab trim system to control pitch, & one pair of cable driven HYD spoilers
for roll. (Only designed to maintain level flight while power is restored).
2. *What ELEC power is available for the PFCS?

• 4 PMGs supply DC power to the systems.
• backup power is L/R DC busses, CA/FO Instrument Busses, & Hot Battery bus.
3. How would you know if one ACE is inop?

• flight control synoptic: ACE turns amber with an X through it.
4. *When & how do the flight controls switch to secondary?

• automatically switches to secondary when airspeed &/or inertial input data is lost to the PFCs.
Note: The A/Ps disconnect.
5. *How can you tell if the system has switched to secondary?

• master caution & EICAS msg “Flight Control Mode”.
Note: The A/P's dropping OFF might be a clue.
Note: The FCTL synoptic page will annunciate secondary.
6. *How can you put the PFCS into the secondary mode?
• you can’t. It’s all automatic.
7. *What is the function of the guarded PFC DISC switch & light?
• AUTO: operates in the highest mode available.
• DISC (switch): disconnects the PFCs from the flt control system & puts the system in the Direct mode.
• DISC (light): PFCs have been disconnected (auto or manually) from the flt control system.
8. *What does the Thrust Asymmetry Compensation (TAC) do?

• automatically applies up to 10+ degrees of rudder trim when sensed loss of engine (10% power differential).
Note: TAC is inhibited < 1500 RA if on LOC & on G/S. Trim remains where it is and the A/P controls the rudder
(nose alignment function of the A/P). TAC also inhibited in rev thrust or < 70 KIAS.
9. *At what speed should flaps be extended?

• when approaching speed set for existing conditions. (protects flaps & flap tracks from being overstressed).
• do not use the flaps as a speed brake.
Note: An emergency AD was issued (1999) for cracks in flaps. Suspected overstressing of flaps at higher speeds.
10. *What is your indication of an impending stall?

• stick shaker only, no aural warning.
• gradually increasing back pressure required on the yoke.
Note: A/C should not stall with A/P & ATS engaged.
Note: The high aspect wing makes secondary stalls likely during a rapid recovery.
11. *Is the stall, overspeed, & bank angle protection available when (BOTH) hand flown & A/P flown?
• yes: as long as in Normal mode of PFCS.
12. *What will the A/P Disengage Bar also disable?

• envelope protection features.
13. *What does the EICAS msg “Stab Green Band” tell you?
• the nose gear oleo pressure switch disagrees with the FMC trim preflight setting.
Note: Check the FMC CG & GW entries. If ok: reverify Accuload.
Do NOT takeoff.
14. How many Stab Trim “Green Bands” are there?
• 3: nose down, mid, and nose up.
Note: The ND and NU bands if displayed will always include the mid band as well.
Note: The green band is not illuminated inflight.
15. *How will the A/P react if it is engaged & the stab trim is activated?
• primary trim switches (yoke) are inhibited when A/P is engaged.
• alt trim (handles) will reposition the stab, but A/P will not disengage. (not recommended!).
16. *Is there any situation when the Alt Trim Handles will NOT work?
• they manually drive cables to 2 PCUs (actuators), & will override A/P & primary trim switches.
• will NOT work if both stab switches are in CUTOUT. (1/2 rate if one switch cutout). (Closes HYD supply to PCU).
• will NOT work without HYD system C or R powered.
17. *Are all the spoilers available for speedbrakes inflight?

• spoilers 5 & 10 are locked out during cruise (depending upon alt & airspeed). (Better air pressure flow over the wing).
• spoilers 4 & 11 plus 5 & 10 are locked out in Secondary & Direct PFCS modes.
18. *How many yaw dampers are installed?

• none: the PFCs control yaw damp.
• in Secondary mode, yaw damp is available only if ADIRU inertial is available.
• in Direct mode – NO yaw damp.
19. *What will the Rudder Trim switches do?

• 2 speed ELEC rudder trim repositioning the rudder pedals & rudder.
• cancel switch cancels rudder trim only; at a high rate (mislabeled, doesn’t effect aileron trim).
20. *What is the cockpit indication of aileron trim in use?

• yoke moves in the direction of trim. Check aileron trim scale.
21. *What is the Bank Angle Protection system?

• increases control wheel aileron pressure > 35 degrees of bank.
• rolls bank to 30 degrees of bank if control wheel is released.
• PFD bank angle indicator changes to solid amber > 35 degrees.
• EGPWS will give aural “Bank Angle” alert at 35, 40, and 45 degrees of bank.
22. *What is the Overspeed Protection system?

• limits trim and increases pressure on the yoke as the A/C approaches Vmo/Mmo.
• if ATS is engaged: retards the throttles.
23. *Is there a Rudder Ratio system?

• no: it is controlled by the PFCs & is a factor of speed (variable).
• in Secondary & Direct modes it is limited to 2 fixed ratios: flaps UP – less rudder movement; flaps DOWN – more.
24. *What is the Gust Suppression system?

• dampens force of side gusts on the vertical tail in-flight (uses vertical tail static ports behind leading edge of vertical
stabilizer).
• ACE – PFC – ACE – PCU inputs to move rudder to counter gusts. (Inop in Secondary & Direct).
25. *What is the Turn Compensation system?

• NORMAL mode of the PFCs automatically compensates with rudder for turns up to 30 degrees of bank, & partially
between 30 – 60 degrees.
26. *When may speedbrakes be used?

• will deploy with any flap position, however a Speedbrake warning will be present with LND flaps (LIMIT).
• not to be used < 1,000 AGL. (CAL limit).
Note: A Speedbrake Warning will occur if deployed < 800’ AGL (GPWS).
27. What are the different Configuration Warnings on the ground or in the air? (EICAS msg & M-Warning)
• Config Doors: door (entry or cargo) not closed & locked (flight lock) & T/O thrust set on either engine on the ground.
• Config Flaps: flaps not in CDU T/O position (wing, not gauge) “ “
• Config Gear Steering: main gear steering unlocked “ “
• Config Parking Brake: parking brake set “ “
• Config Rudder: rudder trim not centered (> 2 units of trim) “ “
• Config Spoilers: speedbrake lever is not DOWN “ “
• Config Stabilizer: not in the green band “ “
• Config Steering: tiller not centered “ “
• Config Gear: gear not DOWN & locked & either thrust lever is closed < 800’RA
• (GND/AIR) Stabilizer: uncommanded stab movement or stab inoperative.
• (AIR) Speedbrake: extended with LND flaps or: extended when < 800’ RA, or: extended with throttles not at idle.
28. *Are the OB Ailerons always available? IB Flaperons?

• the OB ailerons lock out in high speed flight, while the IB’s are always available.
Note: Both ailerons & flaperons work up & down (down maybe limited to zero by droop) when drooped &
not-drooped.
Note: It is normal for the OB Ailerons to be drooped slightly with flaps UP.
29. What control surfaces does the Aileron Trim switch effect?
• all 3 roll flight controls: ailerons. flaperons, & spoilers.
Note: Aileron trim inhibited with A/P engaged.
FLIGHT CONTROL MOVEMENT:
Horizontal stab moves 4 degrees up; 11 degrees down.

Elevators move 3 degrees up; 25 degrees down.
Inboard & outboard flaps are operated by a ball-screw drive.
Inboard flaps are double slotted flaps.
Outboard flaps are single slotted flaps.
Single rudder, but 2 sections. Lower hinged panel (small) deflects 2X the full rudder’s movement. (Not a trim tab).
Note: Primary Stab Trim repositions the stab on the ground, but only changes the computer’s trim reference speed in flight
(that system moves the stab as needed). ALT Trim always moves the stabilizer itself.
Note: Flaperon (inboard): high-speed aileron is converted to slotted flap for landing. Full flap (full down position) is 36
degrees for this flaperon (set with flaps 25 & 30 degrees). Cove-lip door seals the "slot" when it is used as an aileron.
There is no “down” aileron effect on the Flaperons with landing flaps set.
Note: Aileron (outboard): low-speed aileron also “droops” for additional lift when flaps are extended. There is only one
position “mid” when flaps are set to 5 – 20 degrees. Droop is fully retracted when landing flaps (25-30) are set. Acts
just like a flaperon except it is not slotted.
Note: Mx control/shutoff switches (Flt Control HYD Valve Power) allow mx to check flt control actuators by each HYD
system independently (flt controls are powered by at least 2 systems) and these switches must NOT be used in-flight.
The C system switches are inhibited inflight and cannot be closed.
Note: The IB flaperons activate first when roll is demanded, followed by the OB ailerons (low speed) and spoilers.
*HIGH LIFT DEVICES:
Flaps & Slats operate together (single handle) in 3 modes of operation:

Primary: powered by C HYD system only.
Secondary: automatically selected; & powered by ELEC drive motors. (Much slower).
Alternate: manually selected (locks out flap handle) & powered by the same ELEC motors.
FSEU: Flap/Slat Electronics Units:
Controls flaps/slats in Primary & Secondary.
Primary Mode:
Flaps 1: slats (no flaps) extend to mid-range (sealed) & Kruger flaps move to the sealed
position.
Flaps 5 – 20: flaps extend to desired setting (also moves flaperons & outboard ailerons).
normal flap positions for T/O.
Flaps 25 – 30: slats move to slotted/fully extended position first, then flaps move (also
moves flaperons). (Aileron droop retracts).
Inhibits flaps/slats when:
airspeed excessive (above approx. 265 KIAS) or > 20,000 MSL (PRIMARY only).
Load Relief: flap 15 – 30 range only: retracts/re-extends flaps as
necessary for protection.
retraction limited to 5 degrees flaps.
Autoslat System: stall protection for flaps 1 – 20 only. (NOT clean).
slats will move to full down position (slotted) approaching stall.
no cockpit indication.
Secondary Mode: auto selected if Primary mode fails to move flaps/slats. (EICAS msg).
expanded flap/slat indication on EICAS.
IF: Slats UP when engaged: Flaps 1 – 30: Slats move to fully extended.
IF: Slats midrange when engaged: Slats extend normally until retracted UP.
Load Relief: Slats only: retract to mid-range > 239kts.
Secondary remains engaged until flaps/slats fully retracted or HYD power restored.
Alternate Mode: (failure of FSEU) manually selected with the ALTN FLAPS ARM switch.
Overrides all other modes & flap handle. (Inhibits Flap Handle).
Max extension is Flaps 20 & Slats mid-range.
No auto sequencing; but slat retraction is inhibited until flaps are fully UP.
No Flap/Slat protective features.
No Auto-Slats.
Note: L/R Main AC powers the Secondary and Alternate Flap/Slat systems.
Note: Kruger flaps are IB of each strut and are either OUT or STOWED. Each seals the gap
between the IB slats and
the engine strut. Deployed at flaps 1.
1. *When is the After Start checklist called complete?

• after SELECTING flap position (not waiting for it to move).
Note: The flap/slat configuration will be checked for T/O configuration (flaps & slats vs FMS setting) by the
configuration warning system when a throttle is advanced.
2. *Will the Flaps/Slats deploy if the handle is moved at FL390?

• no: inhibited > 20,000’ or > 265 KIAS.
3. *Would the ALT Flap selector work and deploy the Flaps/Slats at FL390?
• yes: no protective features.
4. Is the ALT FLAP: RET/EXT switch momentary or continuous?
• continuous: watch where the flaps/slats are going!
Note: 20 degrees is max extension to allow for G/A without having to go “heads down” to control the flaps.
Note: Autothrottles may disconnect when alt flaps are DISARMED and turned OFF.
5. *What is NOT available during ALTN FLAP operation?

• slat loss or asymmetric flap protection, uncommanded movement protection, auto slat, & flat/slat load relief.
6. *In what mode will slats automatically go to full down when flaps handle is set to 1 degree?
• Secondary mode either leaves slats at mid-range if there already (for flaps 1 – 20); or it will automatically extend the
slats to full down with the first handle movement out of the UP position.
Note: Slats remain fully extended until flaps are fully retracted.
1. What does an EICAS Slat Drive or Flap Drive msg mean?

• uncommanded movement of the flaps (or slats).
• partial or asymmetric flap deployment (or slat). (Or retraction).
• HYD and ELEC drive motor failure. (ELEC drive motor effects ALTN as well).
2. *Will Secondary Flap/Slat move the system on the ground?

• maybe: it is inhibited on the ground < 40 KIAS; or with C-HYD press LOW and both engines OFF; or with 1 (or
more) engine OFF and primary external power available (or in use).
*FLIGHT CONTROL LIMITATIONS:
Speed Brakes not < 1,000 AGL not with flaps 25 or 30
Flaps/Slats extension prohibited while holding in icing
Flap Placard Speeds placarded just below the gear handle
Note: BAC limits for stable cruise conditions are:
< ¼ units of aileron trim.

< ½ units of rudder trim.
< 1/16 inch of slip indication.
INSTRUMENT, COMMUNICATIONS, & NAVIGATION
1. *What is displayed at the top of the compass rose for each ND mode?
• APP: heading up. VOR: heading up.
• MAP: track up. PLN: True North up.
2. In what modes can WX or TCAS be displayed?

• expanded (normal): MAP, VOR, APP, or centered MAP modes only.
3. *How many Graphic Generators are installed & how do they work?
• 4: channels 1-4.
• normally 3 channels, each driving 2 displays (total of 6 displays), + 1 back-up.
• any 1 channel can supply all 6 displays in a degraded level.
4. What does "Sgl Source Display" mean?

• only 1 graphic generator is functional.
• left ND data is primary, right is copied from left.
• only MFD is the lower center.
5. Which displays are MFD's?

• L - IB, R - IB, Lower Center only.
6. What are the nominal displays at power-up?

• OB's = PFD. IB's = ND. (MFD or ND selected).
• Upper = EICAS. Lower = secondary engine display.
7. What occurs with a failure of the CA PFD LCD?

• PFD automatically switches to the L – Inboard display.
8. What occurs with a failure of the Upper EICAS?

• EICAS automatically appears of the lower display.
9. What occurs with a failure of the L–CDU?

• all L–CDU functions transfer automatically to the center CDU.
10. *When is the DPS (Display Select Panel) inhibited for a specific panel?
• if the IB LCD is selected (switch position) to NAV or PFD, that panel will not be effected by the DPS.
• display is limited to eng, fuel, or air in EICAS.
11. If ND is only displayed on the Lower Center, which side is controlling?

• left side EFIS panel.
• Note: if all 3 display ND, then the left controls the Lt & Lower.
12. What are the data sources for the PFD?

• ADIRS, FMS, AFDS.
13. *What does the green arrow on the speed indicator mean?
• 10 second predicted airspeed (acceleration or deceleration).
14. *What is the indication of an overspeed?

• Master Warning, siren, red "Overspeed" EICAS message.
• exceeded Vmo/Mmo.
15. *When can the ADIRU NOT be turned OFF regardless of switch position?
• previously aligned , and in the air or > 30 KIAS.
16. *Can the ADIRU be aligned inflight?
• no
17. *What does the “Nav ADIRU Inertial” msg mean?

• ADIRU has been lost; system is on SAARU; set heading manually.
18. What are the Standby Instruments and what powers them?
• Stby ADI: C - FCDC bus & SAARU pitch & bank inputs.
• Stby Airspeed: L - FCDC bus & 2 dedicated ADM's.
• Stby Alt: L - FCDC bus & dedicated Stby ADM.
• Stby Compass: regular old-fashioned liquid filled compass.
19. Describe the initial preflight indications of the PFD? (Started after ADIRU alignment complete (normally 8 minutes)).
Airspeed 30KIAS
Mach blank
Speeds "no Vspd" (until T/O ref spd entered in CDU)
Lnd Alt flag displayed until origin airport entered
Baro arm 200’ (if selected)
Spd Sel 200 KIAS
Alt Sel 10,000’
Radio Alt -2' or –4’ (strut extension)
Radio Alt arm 100' (if selected)
Hdg Sel 360H
FMA blank, TO/GA, TO/GA (with F/D switches ON)
AFDS Flt Dir (with F/D switches ON)
Alt Baro 29.92
F/D 8 degrees NU, wings level
20. *When can mach be selected with the IAS/MACH button?

• > .40 mach.
21. What is the highest mach that can be selected on the FMS?
• .857: you can select up to .990, but the FMC will change it to read a target of .857.
22. *When are the V1 & Vr airspeed bugs removed?

• at liftoff.
23. *When is the V2 airspeed bug removed?

• after initiating flap retraction.
24. *When are flap maneuvering speeds displayed?

• below 20,000' .
• during climb: current flap setting & next higher one will appear.
• during descent: clean min man, then: when the flap handle is positioned to the next flap setting, a new maneuver speed
will be displayed.
25. *What does the red max speed line indicate?

• Vmo/Mmo & gear or flap placard speeds.
Note: At high alt & high GW, the max maneuvering speed is shown with a amber line (high speed mach buffet).
26. What does the amber line above the red stick shaker line mean?
• min maneuvering speed for 30 degrees of bank (with a 50% overshoot).
27. Can you get VNAV Path in Speed Intervention?

• not if you are > 25nm from destination airport and outside the 1 st fix on the approach.
28. *What is the PLI & when is it displayed?
• pitch limit indicator is the pitch at which a stick shaker occurs.
• displayed continually with flaps extended.
• displayed w/o flaps if approaching a stick shaker.
29. *How many ILS receivers are there & what does "Single Source ILS" mean?
• 2 of 3 ILS receivers have failed.
30. What is the ND ILS priority if a single receiver fails?

• left side: Lt, Ctr, Rt. right side: Rt, Ctr, Lt.
Note: VOR: no switching can occur.
31. When is the ILS "Parked"?

• parked at power-up until 200nm from TOD or, 1/2 way to dest. (whichever occurs first).
32. *When will ILS Auto Tuning take effect?

• < 50nm from TOD.
• or, < 150nm from rwy.
• or, FMC changes to Desc mode.
33. *What is the max intercept criteria for the LOC to capture?
• within 120 degrees of the inbound course.
34. *Can the G/S capture before the LOC and cause an unsafe condition?
• no: it can only capture after the LOC has captured and the heading is within 80 degrees of the LOC.
35. *When does the LOC or GS solid symbol appear?

• when approaching LOC or GS movement (> 2 dots).
36. When does a LOC or GS alert occur?

• < 500' RA & an excessive deviation.
• < 1000' RA and LOC not captured.
• scale turns amber & pointer flashes.
37. When are both the auto & manual ILS tuning inhibited?
• after LOC or GS capture with A/P engaged (any alt).
• w/o A/P: < 500' RA.
• on gnd: LOC alive, hdg W/I 45 degrees of course, ground spd > 40kts.
38. *On approach you are told to switch to a parallel runway: how might you enable the ILS tuning in the above
situation?
• push either TO/GA (autopilot OFF), or disconnect A/P & F/D switches.
• or, deselect APP mode > 1,500' RA.
39. What will the A/P revert to if APP is disengaged once the LOC &/or GS have been captured?
• engages into ATT HOLD if > 5 degrees of bank. (holds the bank)
• HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD if < 5 degrees of bank. (depending upon switch position).
• V/S or FPA for pitch. (depending upon switch position).
40. What is the indication if the ILS's are on different freqs?

• amber ILS freq with dash lines on the PFD.
Note: ILS frequencies are from 108.1 - 111.95 utilizing only odd 1/10 digits.
41. *What will heading select do when the LOC is captured?

• automatically moves heading bug to the LOC course heading.
42. *How is the DDA (Derived Decision Alt) chosen for a non-precision approach?
• add 50’ to published MDA.
• if a DA is published, use it.
Note: The DDA should coincide with the VASI.
43. *What is the preferred method to fly a non-precision approach Vpath?

• VNAV, then FPA, then V/S (in priority).
44. *How can the Way Points be loaded for a published RNAV/GPS NP approach?
• must use the approaches stored in the data base only…. can not build your own.
45. *How can the crew check the data base RNP when it is defined on an RNAV approach?
• check the CDU: POS, page 2 of 3, listed at the bottom left.
46. What action should be taken if the PDI is not in view at the FAF of a non-precision approach?
• execute a G/A, climbing to MA Alt and flying through to the MAP, then fly the published procedure.
• resolve the equipment (or programming) failure or plan a fixed rate descent for the next approach.
47. What are the following symbols?
VOR tuning: A auto tuning

M manual tuning (may be manually tuned at ANY time)
P procedure
R route
ADF ANT antenna for audio use

BFO beat frequency oscillator (digital, can’t manually fine tune it)
48. *When is ground speed displayed?

• continuously: large display < 30kt on taxi. (> 30 KIAS, switches to smaller display).
• also TAS displayed > 100kts.
• also wind displayed > 100kts IF wind > 5kts.
49. When is a range displayed on the ND?

• full time in MAP mode.
• in expanded VOR or APP mode only when WX or TCAS is displayed.
50. *What modes can be "centered"?

• VOR, APP, or MAP. (inop in PLAN mode).
51. What does POS (EFIS) display?

• GPS, ADIRU, & Radio independently calculated present positions on the ND.
52. *How does the Minimums select knob work?

• slow: 1' increment.
• fast: 10' increment.
• both positions: accelerates when held.
53. How may the Radio Min or Baro Min be disabled from showing on the PFD?
• radio: set -1'.
• baro: set -101'.
• normally, just press mins again & the display will blank.
54. How/when may the Minimums Alert be reset?

• push the RST button after landing.
• or after GA and climbing > 75' above minimums.
55. *What is the indication of a non-computed or invalid PFD data block?
• indicator blanks or displays dashes.
• or replaced by unboxed flag.
Note: No EICAS alert message.
56. How many data source failure (boxed) flags appear on the PFD?
• 11: DME, SPD, FPV, ATT, F/D, G/S, LOC, ALT, VERT, RA, HDG.
57. What are the 6 ND data source failure flags? (amber boxes)
• HDG, DME, ADF, LOC, VOR, G/S.
58. Which pilot's EFIS is providing baro corrections to the AIMS? (in each situation).
• F/Ds & A/Ps OFF Lt/Rt respectively
• one F/D ON that side's EFIS
• both F/D ON LT side
• both A/P ON which ever AP pushed first
59. *What are the two positions of the Baro select knob?
• slow: .01" or 1hPa.
• fast: .10" or 10hPa.
• both positions accelerate when held.
60. What is a hectopascal?

• hPa: 1 Hpa = 1 millibar of pressure.
• used outside the USA for altimeter settings.
Note: "Hecto" is Greek contraction for "100". Pascal comes from Blaise Pascal a mathematician born 1623
in France. Developed "Pascal's Law of Pressure" in 1647.
61. What is the indication when a change in transition baro setting is forgotten?
• amber alert & box around baro sel.
62. Which Baro setting does CAL use: QFE or QNH?

• always: QNH. (exception is Russia…… with LOTS of associated problems).
Note: QFE selected on the CDU (APP REF page) sets field elevation to zero, and the alt tape background turns green
(when < trans alt).
63. When will the VSI indicator show a digital vert spd?
• when the VSI exceeds 400FPM.
64. When will a magenta bug be displayed on the VSI?

• in VS only.
• this is the target bug.
65. *When is the Radio Alt displayed?

• when < 2,500' RA.
66. What do the following indications on the HSI/ND mean?

• 1 dot VOR 5 degrees off course
• 2 dots VOR 10 degrees off course
• 1 dot ILS 1.25 degrees off course
• 2 dots ILS 2.5 degrees off course
67. *What is the indication of a F/A calling?

• EICAS msg “Cabin Calling”, and Cabin CALL light ON, at the Comm panel.
68. What does the “Cabin Alert” EICAS msg mean?
• a priority call from the cabin (“Pilot Alert” button).
Note: If more than 1 call comes in, all are connected via a party line. This will override & disconnect all other calls.
69. *How can the Comm Panel be used to make a priority call to the ISM?
• push “CABIN” mic button 2X in 1 sec.
70. How is the PA volume adjusted?

• automatically via the ambient noise sensors in each cabin. Adjusted for engine noise or decompression.
71. *Can you use both HF Radios as the same time?

• monitor: yes.
• transmit: no: there is an interlock which prevents transmission on both HF radios at the same time. (same antenna).
72. How and where is HF sensitivity controlled?

• L/R HF sensitivity controls are hardwired to the L/R comm panels respectively. They do not cross-control.
Note: For best HF reception: use lower freqs when the sun is low, and higher freqs when the sun is high.
73. What is the max range displayed on the TCAS?

• +/- 2700'; 40nm ahead, 20nm behind.
• Above/Below: increases that scan to 8700'.
Note: Multiple target displays may be limited beyond 14nm.
74. What are the different TCAS symbols & warnings?

• Other Traffic: hollow white diamond; > 6nm & > 1200’ separation.
• Proximate Traffic: solid white diamond; < 6nm & < 1200’ separation.
• TA (traffic advisory): yellow circle; prediction that traffic will conflict within 35-45 seconds.
voice alert (Traffic), amber TRAFFIC displayed on ND.
• RA (resolution advisory): red square; prediction that traffic will conflict within 20-30 seconds.
voice alert, vertical guidance on PFD & VSI, red TRAFFIC displayed on ND.
75. Where does the ACARS get its OUT Time?

• all cabin doors closed & armed. (Will change if a door is reopened).
• will not indicate or transmit until brakes are released.
76. Where does the ACARS get its IN Time?

• last time the brakes were SET prior to door OPEN.
• will not indicate or transmit until door is OPEN.
Note: It will record IN-time when parking brake SET for a tow-in as well. Call and correct as needed.
77. What Category is the B777-200?

• Cat C, except during circling app: then Cat D or 1000' & 3sm whichever is greater.
78. *Can the ground crew listen to the cockpit w/o you knowing it?
• yes; they can plug into "cockpit voice" jack on the APU P-40 panel and monitor the cockpit area mic.
• possible use in security issues. (hijack).
79. *What is the indication of a SELCAL?

• 2 chimes & "call" annunciated on the comm panel mic @ desired radio.
80. How can the voice recorder be erased?

• A/C on gnd, AC power normal, & pk brake set.
• push & hold erase button.
81. *What will occur with a stuck mic?
• ON Gnd: VHF > 35 sec = radio disabled until mic released (both eng OFF).
• Air & Gnd: VHF or HF > 30 sec = "Radio Transmit" EICAS msg.
82. *What is your most accurate clock on board?

• GPS: uses the Atomic Clock to calibrate itself in nanoseconds. (Look at MX page, bottom right).
83. Can the GMT time be manually adjusted?

• no: the GMT is set by AIMS & the GPS internal clock.
• you can only set local time, day, & month.
84. Where does the Data Base get it’s center-line fix designations? (IE. IAH:CL26I)
• 26 = rwy 26. A = 1nm, B = 2nm…. I = 9nm.
• CL26I = centerline fix from rwy 26 at 9nm.
85. You’ve got the flight number loaded wrong. How can it be adjusted inflight?
• it can only be changed using the ATC LOGIN page.
*OPERATING PARAMETERS:
Verify all uploaded ATC clearances with the originating ATC facility.
AUTO FLIGHT/FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
*Describe the basic Auto Flight Systems:
2 F/D, 2 A/T, 3 A/P.
2-AIMS systems (L & R) are the heartbeat or the "brain" of Auto Flight.
Note: Contains more than 2.6 million lines of software code. (400,000 lines on the B747-400)
Note: Nose section is shielded to protect the electronics from EMP, lightning, microwave, &
radio/radar transmitters.
Note: Combining these functions into one box cuts weight by 20% and power consumption by 30%.
Databuses (2 ARINC 629) are bi-directional highways shipping up to 2 million bites per second.
Note: Multiplex systems don’t monitor each switch 100% of the time
(hold the switch momentarily).
ADIRS inertial consists of six primary glass laser-beam gyros.
Measures time changes (caused by motion) for light to complete a triangular course of mirrors &
hollowed-out cavities set in a vacuum.
Skewed six axis positioning (instead of previously built right angled pattern).
Backed-up by IFOGS (Interferometric Fiber-Optic Gyros): bi-directional fiber-optic light ring gyros.
Requires 6 - 15 minutes for a complete alignment. (Stationary – no A/C movement allowed).
To start/restart complete alignment: ADIRU switch OFF for 30 seconds & back ON. (Must be done
once every 24 hours).
ADIRU: Supplies primary flight data, inertial reference, and air data. Fault tolerant and fully redundant.
SAARU: Backup for ADIRU. No nav function if the GPS is not available. No flap speeds, no HDG
display (manually input HDG & update). No F/D pitch & roll commands.
Note: The ADIRU is the equivalent of 4 INS’s in quadruple mix. Loss of one INS is not
even displayed to the cockpit. (Will appear in MAT only).
1. What three Data Bases does the FMC access?

• Nav, Perf, & Airline Selected (customized) data bases.
2. What might you supply dispatch for a data uplink during Preflt? What can they supply?
• you; OAT, Rwy, GW if any changes occur to the UPLOADED data.
• they supply; RTE 1, call sign, Perf Init, T/O Ref, Winds Aloft, Accuload, and after T/O: descent winds.
3. *What does the DSPY (display) light on the CDU mean?

• page one of the route is not selected; you might be modifying data into a non-active waypoint.
4. *Can you delete just an altitude restriction on a spd/alt waypoint restriction?

• no; both will be deleted. Reenter one if desired.
5. *When is VNAV/LNAV normally selected & when does it become active?

• normally during MCP preflight.
• LNAV activates at 50' AGL on T/O or within 2.5nm when intercepting a course.
• VNAV activates at 400' AGL.
6. *If LNAV is NOT selected for T/O, when can it be selected in-flight?
• > 400'.
Note: If not preselected: LNAV can NOT be selected prior to 400' above airport 100kt ref altitude.
7. *When will the LNAV engage if not already on-course?

• when within 2.5nm.
Note: “Not On Intercept Heading” msg will appear if a heading change is required.
8. If the F/D switches are OFF: how can you engage the F/D after T/O?
• pushing TO/GA > 80KIAS will put both F/Ds ON. (switches remain OFF).
9. What will occur if the F/D & LNAV/VNAV is ON for T/O & the TO/GA button is pushed?
• pushing TO/GA > 80KIAS will disarm LNAV/VNAV, and set MAX T/O Thrust.
10. *What altitude should be loaded on PERF INIT page during preflight?
• the initial cruise altitude. This will put the FMS into Cruise mode at initial leveloff instead of remaining in Climb until
the final altitude is reached.
11. *What will occur if the TO/GA is pushed twice < 80KIAS on T/O?
• cancels T/O thrust derate & sets max T/O thrust.
12. *What will the F/D command on T/O?

• target pitch: V2+15 or speed @ rotation + 15 (whichever is greater).
• IF target speed is exceeded > 5 sec; a new target is established up to V2 + 25 max).
• HDG to maintain track @ rotation.
13. *If both F/D are OFF, what will the A/P engage into?
• attitude hold (ATT), and V/S or FPA.
14. How does the FMS calculate acceleration heights on initial T/O?
• reads rwy elev at 100kts as a base altitude.
• this effects: LNAV (@50'), VNAV (@400'), climb power point, and flap acceleration point.
15. *During climb, if CLB DIR is selected; what happens to any intermediate climb restrictions on the SID?
• all intermediate altitudes will be deleted & the FMS will climb to the altitude set on the MCP.
16. When will the "Baro Set Disagree" message appear?

• PFD baros disagree >1 minute, and: >or equal .03", >or equal 1hPa.
17. When is "Step Climb" active?

• > 500nm from dest.
• > 200nm from TOD.
Note: Set step climb to "0" if you don't intend to climb during the flight. Otherwise, the computed fuel burn to
destination will be inaccurate (since IT assumes you will always climb on schedule). (Important in the NATS).
18. How is Optimum Alt calculated?

• the altitude for min total cost, without accounting for differences in wind speeds at different altitudes.
19. What is the fuel penalty for being off Opt Alt?
* 2,000 high 2% * 4,000 low 3%
* opt alt 0% * 6,000 low 5%
* 2,000 low 1% * 8,000 low 7%
(What about > 2,000’ above optimum? …. not a good place to be)
20. How is Max Alt determined?

• the less of: MCL thrust alt & MCR alt with a 1% buffer.
• or maneuver margin limit alt: 0.2-0.3 margin (read 1.2g - 1.3g) which equates to 34-39 degrees of bank in level flight.
21. *What does pushing the MCP ALT SEL button do?
• modifies the CDU & activates it in one step.
• deletes intermediate altitude restrictions one push at a time.
22. *How does the Altitude Alert system work?
• at 900' a box appears around the selected alt window & the box around the current alt becomes bold.
• a magenta box appears around the ARMED alt and moves up/down the tape with it.
• at 200' both boxes return to normal.
• at 200' deviation: M-Caution, caution beeper, "Altitude Alert" annunciated, PFD alt box turns to amber.
Note: Inhibited with GS capture, or with landing flaps and all gear down.
23. *When is the "End of Offset" message displayed?

• W/I 2 minutes of end of route, or W/I 2 minutes of a STAR or APP.
24. *What will selecting a VIS APP (in the APP page of the CDU) give you for guidance?
• 8nm intercept point on the extended runway centerline.
• 3 degree glideslope.
25. What are the 8 FMC updating modes? (automatically chooses the best)
- GPS (best) - LOC
- DME/DME (next best) - LOC/VOR/DME
- LOC/DME/DME - VOR/DME
- LOC/GPS - Inertial
Note: DME updating is limited by software to < 200nm.
26. When will the VNAV Path Dev Scale be displayed?

• > 420' from path.
• removed when: valid descent path doesn't exist.
or: passing E/D point.
or: G/S engaged.
or: Flare engaged.
27. When is Flt Dir displayed at the top of the PFD?

• only when F/D is ON & A/P is OFF.
28. *What is FPV used for?

• flight path vector.
• climb or descent (mostly descending on approach) where a specific flight angle (path) is desired.
• such as: 3 degree slope desired for a PAR or LOC approach.
29. *What happens when HDG HOLD is pushed during a turn?

• the aircraft will roll wings level & then maintains THAT current HDG. (IE. Doesn’t return to “when pushed”).
30. *What happens when ALT HOLD is selected during a climb/descent?

• aircraft will smoothly level-off & return to the ALT it was at when selected.
31. *What does the Air Data/Att switch do?

• manually switches that side to the SAARU (used only if the auto switching fails).
• selects single channel, unchecked air data for that side.
Note: Normally the multichannel ADIRU fault checks the data against the SAARU and then send it to both
indicators. The SAARU will replace the ADIRU if an error is detected.
32. What ND/CDU information is not available with dual FMC failure?
- no holding patterns - no conditional waypoints
- ETAs becomes TTG - no vert deviation display
- no FMC update status - new waypoints must be entered as lat/long (but it remembers current w.p.)
33. *What is lost with ADIRU failure?
• no LNAV or VNAV.
• inertial position & updates (GPS may operate).
• HDG SEL & HDG HOLD are operative.
• HDG input must be manually updated from Stby compass.
34. *What is the indication of ADURU internal failures?

• lots of redundancy; you may not know until the MAT is checked by MX.
35. *What is the indication of a total ADIRU failure?

• EICAS message.
36. *What is the indication of a SAARU failure?

• EICAS message; also Stby ADI fails.
37. *Why is the ADIRU turned OFF on the Parking Checklist?

• Honeywell recommends turning it OFF at least once each 24 hours.
• While shutting down it downloads diagnostic info to the MX MAT.
38. *Will the manual Bank Angle Limiter set to 10 degrees affect bank in LNAV?
• no: it is inhibited in LNAV.
• manual settings work only in HDG & TRK SEL.
Note: AUTO selection computes bank from 15 - 25 degrees, based upon current airspeed.
Slower speeds = greater bank angles (needed for traffic pattern).
Note: Auto initially limits bank to 15 degrees with 1 engine inop, then gradually increases bank to 25
degrees max at V2+20.
39. *How is Flight Level Change initiated & how does it work?
• entered by pressing the FLCH switch on the MCP.
• maintains current speed commanded & initiates climb or descent to the altitude displayed on the MCP.
• this function gives speed priority over rate of climb/descent and doesn’t always use idle or CLB power..
40. *What is Speed Intervention & how does it work?

• may be selected only in VNAV. Push the MPC speed knob.
• current IAS or MACH will appear. Select desired speed.
• system remains in VNAV & overrides the VNAV speed.
• push again to cancel: IAS window blanks.
• WILL NOT automatically slow to 250 < 10,000!
41. *How is Vertical Speed set up & what will it do?

• check VS/FPA button set to VS.
• push VS/FPA switch: the current VS will appear.
• rotate the dial for desired VS.
• this function gives VS priority over IAS.
42. *Can the aircraft be stalled or overspeed during VS/FPA?

• (assuming ATS & A/P are ON) no: the FMS will not allow the aircraft to exceed these limits (although it will allow the
aircraft to enter the clucker & min-man zones).
43. What position will be used when selecting a Present Position Holding Pattern?
• the A/C position when the Hold is EXECUTED (not when it is typed in).
Note: The FMS will insert a discontinuity between the Hold point and the next Waypoint.
44. *Will VS &/or FLCH automatically slow the plane at 10,000'?

• no: this must be input manually.
45. *Will the green range arc (climb/descent) always be accurate?
• no: it does not account for intermediate level-offs or need for speed changes. (IE. slowing at 10,000’).
• it calculates altitude-to-go compared to current VS only.
46. What speed does the FMS plan during holding?

• clean min man for current weight and altitude (unless otherwise programmed).
47. When will the FMS accelerate to CRZ speed when cleared to depart holding?
• after passing over the holding fix IF Exit Hold is selected (preferred).
• immediately IF P/P direct to the fix (or another fix) is selected (this may violate holding airspace in certain instances).
48. *What is Vmo/Mmo?

• .87/330. (330kias until > FL300).
49. How is the Cost Index calculated?

• min time vs. min fuel costs.
• calculates econ climb, cruise, descent speeds (in "ECON" only).
50. Will the initial economy speed displayed at level-off change in-flight?
• yes: ECON speed is effected by cost index, GW, ALT, & actual winds.
• the econ speed will decrease in level flight, over time. (due to GW decrease).
51. What is the difference between MRC & LRC?

• MRC (or Max Range Cruise) is the best L/D (lift vs. drag) speed for the temp, altitude, weight, and airframe. This
would be the speed @ 00 Cost Index.
• LRC is 99% of MRC. This adds approx. 10 - 25 kts to MRC & is approx. .84M.
• LRC is preferred to MRC because of speed stability. LRC Cost Index is approx. 140+/-.
52. What difference does flying fast make?

• a change from .84M to .855M will cost 4-5% in fuel. Assuming a 200,000# burn; this would equate to an extra 8-
10,000# burned in-flight. This would give you an additional 10KIAS or approx. 15kts true ground speed & would
shorten a 14 hour flight by approx. 180nm (after climb/descent taken out). In hours; maybe 20 minutes.
53. What is the VNAV speed limit?

• Vmo/Mmo minus 5kts. (all ATS speed limits are “limit – 5kts”).
54. *What does Descend Now do?

• starts a 1250 FPM descent until intersecting the planned path.
• can only be selected if within 50nm of TOD point.
• if > 50nm: CRZ DES is initiated & will NOT capture the planned FMS descent path.
55. What speed is displayed during an "ECON" speed descent?

• the last ECON cruise mach is held.
• later; the cost index ECON IAS is held.
56. *What does the AUTO position of the ALT selection knob do?
• increases alt in 100 foot increments.
• rate sensitive to how fast it is turned.
• IF baro minimums are set: the alt can be fine tuned to the next higher 10' (not 100').
57. *During Auto Land what test occurs at 1500' RA?

• self test of autoland system.
• isolates all 3 autopilots (separate electrical source).
• Land 3 (2), Rollout, and Flare annunciated.
58. *What mode is the Auto Land system in when it indicates "Land 3"?
• fail passive mode.
• it will switch to Land 2 if one of the A/P's fail.
• Note: Land 2 is a "Fail Active" mode since auto land will be inop if the second A/P fails.
59. *What happens during Auto Land?

• at 500' (with a x-wind > 10kts), takes part of the crab out (wing low method).
• at 200' takes all the crab out.
• at 50' starts a flare (approx. 2 degrees increase in pitch).
• at 25' throttles ease back to idle.
• at 2' rollout engages.
• rudder (& there-by nose wheel steering) used to maintain runway - LOC centerline.
Note: The rudder movements can be felt through the pedals. (disconnect A/P when you want to steer).
60. *What does pushing the A/T disconnect button do? (on Thrust Levers).
• disengages both A/T servos, but leaves them ARMED for over-speed and stall protection.
• engaging FLCH, VNAV, or TO/GA engages A/T into the appropriate mode.
• pushing the A/T switch on the MCP will engage/reengage the ATS (except on the ground).
61. *How is the ATS normally disconnected during a landing with ATS ON?
• disconnected automatically when rev-thrust is initiated.
62. *What does HOLD in the ATS/FMA window mean?

• A/T servos are temporarily inhibited; manual adjustments may be made.
63. *What speed protection does the ATS give?

• Vmo/Mmo, Flap/Slat limits, and Gear limits.
• Stall protection on the low speed side.
64. When will the ATS not engage?

• > 65 KIAS (Boeing says 50 KIAS) until 400’ RA.
65. *When will the ATS “wake up” if ARMED, but not ENGAGED?
• when approaching a stick-shaker (at approx. ½ the amber airspeed band).
66. *What will the A/P do if ENGAGED and a stick-shaker occurs?

• starts a descent to maintain airspeed slightly above stick-shaker.
• FMA draws a line through pitch mode.
• F/D pitch bar biases out of view.
67. *When is TO/GA armed?

• inflight: when G/S is captured or flaps are extended (no annunciation).
• on ground: when F/D switches are placed ON.
68. *During a G/A: what will the throttles do if the TO/GA lever is pushed?
• thrust set for a 2000 fpm rate of climb.
Note: Pushing the TO/GA a second time results in full G/A thrust.
69. What will the F/D do during a G/A with TO/GA pushed?
• F/D displayed regardless of F/D switch position (even in OFF).
• pitch to the greater of MCP selected SPD or current actual speed.
• roll to wings level.
• other roll & pitch modes available after 400'.
Note: If target speed is exceeded > 5sec: current speed becomes new target.
70. *What do RNP & ANP mean?
• RNP: Required Navigational Performance.
• ANP: Actual " " .
Note: RPN 5: (BRNAV) utilized in Europe. (max 5nm track error 90% of time).
Note: RPN 10: utilized in North Pacific. (max 10nm track error 90% of time).
Note: ADIRU operation without GPS update may not meet RPN-5 standards.
71. *What Date Bases should you have on board?

• current & next 28 day cycle.
72. If you lose a GPS unit what should you do?

• notify ATC.
• 2 Nav units required for RPN-5 navigation.
73. What does the CLB/CON switch do? (ATS)

• selects a thrust limit of MCL with 2 engines, or MCT with 1 engine inop; but does not move the throttles unless the
limit is currently exceeded (IE. @ T/O thrust).
• has no effect in normal cruise.
Note: Inhibited < 400’RA.
74. What does the RNP msg mean?

• exceeded Nav tolerances of: 12nm oceanic, 4nm domestic, 1nm terminal area, .3nm approach.
75. *What does the green A/P ENGAGED light indicate?

• all operating A/Ps are engaged.
76. When will the heading system automatically switch from HDG to TRUE?
• 82 degrees N/S, or in the vicinity of the magnetic poles.
Note: N. Pole: >70N & between 80W - 130W.
S. Pole: >60S & between 120E - 160E.
77. When should GRID headings be used?

• 70N/S (computed from True heading & Longitude).
78. How do you set up for a Back Course Localizer?

• raw data. There is no back course selector on the MCP.
• the A/P & F/D cannot track the back course.
GPS NOTES:
24 DOD satellites in 11,000nm orbit (21 + 3 spares).

3 satellites + Baro Alt = min system.
RAIM requires 5 satellites min. (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring).
Fault Detect & Exclusion System requires 6 satellites min.
There are 6-9 satellites W/I line of sight anywhere on earth.
DGPS or Differential GPS:

Utilizes ground station to update GPS for approach. Accuracy down to 1 meter.
Typical accuracy of the GPS:

SA ON: 100 meters.
SA OFF: 30 meters.
Note: The ADIRU takes longer to align in the high northern latitudes due to the rotation of the earth. (normal = 8 minutes;
may take as long as 15 minutes).
SINGLE ENGINE:
1. How is driftdown calculated (for dispatch).

• clear all obstacles during descent by 2000', & 1000' once leveled-off.
2. *What are the different EO speeds?

• EO SPD: Min Man: max speed for obstacle clearance (L/D max).
• LRC SPD: EO LRC.
• CO SPD: 329KIAS
Note: Max EO alt will depend upon selected speed.
3. *What is the Engine Out Speed ("company" or "CO")?

• 329KIAS established to maintain 180 min ETOPS criteria. (& qualify some distant enroute alternates).
• this is a "Dispatch" limit (maybe not a flight limit).
• using this speed will result in a 8,000+/- loss in alt capability.
*AUTO FLIGHT LIMITS:
AUTOPILOT:
Takeoff no engagement < 1000'

NP APP not < 50' below MDA
ILS not < 200' AGL (w/o Land 2, or Land 3 annunciated)
Auto Land System Capabilities:

Headwind 25kts
Tailwind 15kts
Crosswind 25kts
ILS G/S 3.25 max
ILS G/S 2.50 min
Flaps 20 or 30 (not 25)
AFDS must annunciate Land 2 or 3
no EICAS "Slats Drive" message
Do NOT use Autoland for an overweight landing.
WIND LIMITS:
ILS < 2400 RVR Crosswind 10kts

CAT II & III Headwind 20kts
Tailwind 10kts
Crosswind 10kts (because it’s less than 2400 RVR)
ADIRU do not align > 78 degrees, 14.75 minutes N/S
QFE use of VNAV prohibited with QFE

QFE alt ref must be selected in FMC for PFD
ICE & RAIN
*Describe the basic Ice and Rain Systems:
EAI OFF: OFF.

AUTO: OPEN or CLOSED depending on sensor demands for EAI.
ON: EAI valves open & respective bleed air sent to respective cowl (engine running).
WAI OFF: OFF.
AUTO: Open or Closed depending on sensor demands for WAI.
ON: WAI valves OPEN in-flight. (no asymmetric WAI protection).
Ice Detectors: 2 side mounted probes (L & R). Sense icing, then de-ice themselves = 1 cycle.
Window heat: electric for all cockpit windows.
ramp-up schedule reduces thermal shock to panes.
all windows receive ELEC De-Fog heat. (ext/int panes for 1L/R; int only for others).
1L/1R windows receive ELEC Anti-Ice heat. (exterior panes only).
ON/Blank: normal heat by window heat controller.
ON/INOP: overheat or fault.
Blank/INOP: manually selected OFF.
there is a backup power source for 1L/1R anti-ice only.
TAT Probe aspiration: PNEU bleed air to anti-ice the TAT probe.
Note: no rain repellant, the windows are covered with a special "Hydrophobic" coating.
1. *When will the EAI and WAI valves be OPEN if the selector is in AUTO?
• EAI - after two ice/heat cycles of the ice detector probe. (ice detected on either side).
• WAI - after several " " " " " " ".
Note: Both will return valves to CLOSED after several minutes of no detected icing.
Note: Neither the EAI nor the WAI will operate in AUTO while on the ground.
2. *When might you want EAI on the ground?

• < 10C on TAT and visible moisture (rain, snow, vis < 1 mile in fog).
• must be selected ON manually after engine start, & returned to AUTO when airborne.
Note: In mod-severe icing, a periodic run-up to 55% N1 for 30 sec (each 30 min) is recommended. T/O should be
preceded by such a run-up. CAUTION JET BLAST!
3. *Is there an EAI protection system?

• yes: dual loop EAI leak detection closes the associated EAI valve. (other engine continues to operate).
4. *When will WAI come ON with the selector in AUTO?

• AUTO & MAN inhibited until 5 min after T/O if TAT > 10C.
• AUTO inhibited with T/O thrust (up to 10 min) or until CLB thrust selected.
• WAI will come ON in AUTO after several cycles of the ice detection probe.
5. How can the windshield wiper be stowed?

• OFF position also stows the wiper to the bottom plate. (White plate that wiper rests on).
• on the walkaround - insure that the wiper hasn't flopped over the stowed stopping plate (it won't work if needed).
Note: Check the wipers during the walkaround to insure that they haven’t flipped over the white stop tab. If
they have, they will not function.
Note: Wipers have 3 speeds: INT (every 7 seconds), LOW (160/min), HIGH (250/min).
6. *If a duct leak occurs in one WAI side (or if one valve fails to OPEN) what will happen?
• AUTO: both WAI valves will close to prevent an asymmetrical icing condition.
Note: WAI leaks are detected by the bleed duct leak & overheat protection system.
7. How does the hot-high pressure WAI air escape the Slat Cavity?
• small holes drilled in the center OB slats will exhaust the air. (Holes seen on the walkaround).
8. How hot is the WAI air?

• hot enough to melt the slats right off the wing if there is no air flowing over them (i.e. on the ground).
9. *How may a window overheat be reset?

• switch to OFF: allow to cool, then switch back ON again. (resets fault circuitry too).
10. What does the EICAS "Window Flt Deck L/R" msg mean?
• you have forgotten to close a #2 side window.
11. *When will the AOA and Probe heat come ON?
• at engine start. (ELEC).
Note: The probe heat is LOW on the ground to prevent overheating with no airflow.
12. *When will the TAT heat come ON?

• airborne only. (PNEU). (Prevents false high readings on the ground w/o airflow).
*ICE & RAIN LIMITS:
EAI must be in AUTO or ON when the TAT is 10C or less & icing cond exist (except when temp < -40C SAT).
PERFORMANCE, PROCEDURES, and TECHNIQUES (not in question format)
1. *ZFW must always be corrected for actual pax count. If the count is within group limits, continue & just adjust the ZFW
(before flight or enroute). If the count exceeds the group limits, get a new accuload prior to departure. (180#/pax summer,
185# winter). Note: If ZFW is changed on taxi-out, the FMS will dump all the T/O V-speeds. (Change it later).
2. *Flight attendants (FSM/ISM) confirms ready for T/O by pressing 6* on any interphone, which rings the cockpit chime &
"Cabin Ready" message appears. (Brief them on this procedure if they are new).
3. F/A required next to each overwing exit for taxi, T/O, & Lnd.
All doors & slides Armed for taxi.
All Emer Lts Armed for flight ops.
4. V1 must be recalculated for clearway or stopway, slippery/contaminated rwy, improved climb (this will take a new V1, Vr,
V2).
5. Derated thrust (T/O 1 & T/O 2) may NOT be used at CAL. (Doesn’t allow for pushing up the throttles with the loss of an
engine).
6. The max assumed temp reduction is 25% (FAA) with an option to push the power up if needed.
7. *Assumed temp may not be used with rwy contaminates (water, ice, slush, snow), or EAI ON. Wet is OK if reduced braking
for wet conditions is accounted for.
8. B777 is a “/G” for filing purposes domestically (= GPS).
9. *Use COA9 (flight # w/o 000s preceding it), for flight #’s when loading the CDU. This effects ATC data link.
10. ETOPS (Extended Range Twin-Engine Operations) History:

1936 FAA: all A/C require an airfield W/I 100nm intervals.
1953 FAA: 2-3 engine A/C must be W/I 60 minutes (single engine) from a landing field.
1953 ICAO: established a 90 minute similar rule.
1964 FAA: removed the restriction on 3 engine A/C.
1985 FAA AC 120-42: extended the time to 120 minutes.
1988 FAA: modified time up to 180 minutes. (must meet specific qualifications).
1995 FAA: a more rapid approval process was established.
1999 FAA asking for input for a 207 minute ETOPS
2000 FAA approves 207 minute ETOPS, by carrier and equipment. 3/21/00
FAR 121.161 requires twin engine A/C to be W/I 60 minutes from an adequate airport.
Advisory Circular 120-42A allows air carriers to extend the limit to 180 minutes. The criteria for ETOPS is examined
with regard to each A/C type & each operator. Some of the considerations include:
Engine reliability exceeding 0.02/1000
Systems operations with single engine.
Three or more elec systems required.
Airframe & EAI must be adequate for extended exposure.
Cargo fire systems must exceed ETOPS + 15 minutes.
Environmental & pressurization must be adequate.
Engine rotor burst patterns ensure that fuel is not compromised.
MMEL more restrictive than normal.
Critical fuel reserve calculated at 10,000 feet.
Suitable alternate/diversion airports with facilities, capabilities, & WX forecasting.
ETOPS A/C checks performed only by ETOPS certified mechanics.
Please read the excellent report in IACP Jan/Feb 1999 by Capt Mike Haynes.
11. Lav trash temp strip locations adopted for Lav D (behind door 2R), just open the under-basin door (1999).
Note: Other locations are inside the trash bin; IB wall; open trash lid to observe.
12. Oceanic Nav Log is not required, nor is 30W ETA estimate.
13. *Flight crew bunks will not support crew bags in an emergency. Store them elsewhere.
14. PAX may NOT charge laptop computers onboard due to a remote chance of fire. Take the batteries out of the computer if it
is to be plugged into A/C power. Computers may NOT be used in Lav (plugged into outlet).
15. Best rate of climb: Flaps Up man spd + 60kts..
16. Best angle of climb: clean min man or .80m (at altitude). Provided by the FMC.
17. Initial driftdown speed: 280 KIAS (max wt), then check the FMS.
18. Minimum altitude at the bottom of driftdown: 13-15,000’ single engine.
19. *WAT Limit = Weight, Altitude, Temperature for 2nd segment climb.
20. All penalty corrections are always made to Max Perf runway weight, not to Structural or Actual.
21. *Max T/O weight notes:

S = Structural E = Enroute
R = Runway W = WAT
L = Landing
22. An altimeter < 29.70 requires a P&P adjustment. (done by Accuload).
23. *Accuload line 10: “AT” code = both an extra F/A & IRO for > 12 hour flight.
24. Max breakaway thrust: 35% N1.
25. Close in turn after T/O: normally not < 400'AGL; ASAP @ 50'AGL if required.
26. Capt should physically check the Accuload & fuel slip (or Comm Initialization report).
27. Primary antiskid Inop = no revenue flight, ferry flight only.
28. Capt add fuel authority: 7K domestic, 7K international. (ever changing).
29. Average burn rates: 15K/hr
30. Desired fuel over destination: 25-30K, min 20K at alternate.
31. Min fuel approx.: 12-13,000 (lots of different opinions here).
32. Emergency fuel approx.: 10,000 " " " " "
33. *T/O alternate when below Cat I mins: 1 hr still air with one eng inop, equals 430nm.
34. *Min F/A crew = 9. (Normally 14 + 1 extra for Japan).
35. No evasive maneuvers for TCAS "advisory" only unless traffic is in sight.
36. Pilot must respond to TCAS "RA" unless traffic is in sight & it is unsafe to do so.
37. Fly NATS & OTS with the TCAS in ABOVE or BELOW (depending on alt): track other A/C for Nav backup &
verification.
38. Taxi speeds:

Straight 30kts
90 degree 8-10kts
45 degree not determined yet (DC-10 was 15kts)
High Speed turn-off not determined yet (DC-10 was 20kts)
39. Simulator Stalls:

Clean: F/D-OFF, ATS–Disengaged, A/P–OFF; Vref30+80, Throttles-idle; ATS wakes up & recover.
Flaps 20 & 25 degrees bank: ATS-OFF, Throttles-idle, Trim stopped @ min man:
recover @ 1st indication: max throttle (firewall), wings level, no flap changes, hold alt.
40. Simulator Steep Turns: 250kts, 45 degrees bank; ATS-OFF, F/D-OFF, A/P Disengage Bar – OFF;
2+1/2 NU, approx. 64% N1; option: FPV on Horizon.
41. Simulator PC: +/- 100' alt

+/- 5kts
+/- 5 degrees heading
42. Holding speeds:
FAA: < 6000' 200kias

6000 - 14000 230kias
> 14000 265kias
ICAO: < 14000 230kias

14000 - 20000 240kias
20000 - 34000 265kias
> 34000 .83m
FRENCH: < 14000 220kias

14000 - 24000 240kias
24000 - 34000 265kias
> 34000 .83m
- lesson learned: ask/tell ATC what speed you ARE going to hold!
43. Holding Patterns: (just in case you don't let the box do it for you)
- reduce speed W/I 3 minutes prior to fix.
- 1 min timing < 14,000.
- 1 + 1/2 min timing > 14000.
- tear drop = 30 - 45 degrees for 45 seconds.
- ask ATC for the speed you want to hold at.
44. U.K. RVR must be above minimums before descending < 1000' AGL (NOT at the FAF). Approach Ban.
45. Target altitude for flaps/speed for the approach:

30nm 10,000’ 250 KIAS
15nm 5,000’ flaps 5, speed
10nm 3,000’ flaps 20, speed
6nm 2,000’ flaps 30, target
3nm 1,000’ target
46. How is "On Course" defined for decent on an approach?
- VOR: with in one dot (and remaining within).
- LOC: " " " " "
- ADF: " " 5 degrees "
- RNAV/GPS: A/C symbol must touch the active course line using the 10nm scale.
47. *NDB courses are NOT “monitored” for the ident. If the NDB fails: pointer & ID symbol both disappear.
48. *Plotting is required anytime a position using ground-based equipment can not be established at least once per hour.
49. CAL policy is to fly NDBs with the A/P ON.
50. *ATS compensates for all gusts = no adding ½ steady state & full gusts.. Revert to old procedure additives if ATS is
OFF/inop. ( ½ HWC + all gust )
51. Consider having an escape route planned for Greenland (12K+) and Alaska (26K+). (depressurization or eng loss).
52. Setting a new altitude (clearance) on the MCP is not enough. Check the FMA to insure that the A/C has started its
climb/descent or even leveled off. Suggest using a DC-10 technique of calling 2 steps: “set & checked” … MCP is “set”
and FMA is “checked”.
53. RVSM = Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (1,000’ separation on some NAT tracks):
requires upgraded altimeter & pitot static group combinations.
reduced tolerance for manufacturer error.
each A/C physically measured (hull wrinkles & curvatures).
- that’s why CAL’s B747s were removed from Europe.
- B777 comes RVSM certified from the factory.
both Gander & Stromble have altimeter checking capacity for A/C on the NATS.
since many military & civilian A/C don’t meet this; the outside tracks may have a 2,000’ separation.
54. MEL Repair Intervals:

Cat A: time interval specified in “Remarks”.
Cat B: W/I 3 calendar days (not including 1st day).
Cat C: W/I 10 ………………………….
Cat D: W/I 120 …………………………
55. *Visible moisture defined in MEL as “any form of water that can be seen in natural light (clouds, fog, rain, sleet, hail, or
snow). How much fog? < 1 mile.
56. MEL: a flight has departed the gate when blocked OUT.
57. FDE test (GPS Fault Detection & Exclusion test): = 6 hr validity of flight track for GPS signals & GPS satellite
verification. Not required to be performed for B777 since it has INS plus GPS capability plus a self monitoring of RNP vs
ANP. An EICAS msg will appear if ANP exceeds RNP.
58. Laptop power ports = 1.5vt. The cord can be bought (we don’t have any) from PPR Tech ($80-100) for specific
manufacturer’s specs.
59. INFO ONLY: the coordinates of Mt McKinley are: N63-05.0 W151-13.6
60. NRT: note that the 250kts restriction applies AT 10,000’….. not below.
61. Figure 3.6PPH at idle for taxi.
62. United starts both engines simultaneously…… RR & Pratt both use less air to start than GE. Simultaneous starts on the GE
would reduce the TBO of the engines.
RUSSIA
1. GPWS is inop in Russia. It uses QNH & only knows MSL (Russia uses QFE). There can be up to 500’ error at Magadam
Airfield. (Boeing prohibits its use until modified in 2000 +/-).
2. GPS is not as accurate in Russia. Russia uses a local meridian for longitude, not the prime meridian. This can effect LNAV
navigation 2,000’ +/- (which can be a LOT on an approach).
3. JEPP approaches were originally written for Alaska Air MD-80s which did not have QFE capability. This has resulted in
lots of confusion for others:
- STARS = MSL not QFE in feet (even below the transition alt). You must convert & report in meters.
- Approaches = Ft/QFE, but you must report in meters.
4. Pressurization must be reset for landing at QFE – 0 feet.
5. Russian pilots use millimeters, not millibars. If the controller makes a mistake & gives us millimeters, the landing (&
approach) altitude will be WAY OFF!
6. VNAV is prohibited in Russia once QFE is set.
7. We need more training on this….. and/or a lot of time spent briefing the approach! (while on fire??).
DUTY LIMITS: ALL: 1 in 7 (may be taken overseas at pilots choice)
2 Man 32 hrs/ 7 days

8 hrs/ 24 hrs
100 hrs/ month
3 Man 12 hrs/ 24 hrs

20 hrs/ 48 hrs
24 hrs/ 72 hrs
120 hrs/ 30 days
300 hrs/ 90 days
4 Man Double Time Out when returning to home base.

350 hrs/ 90 days
yep…. I know, I should have said Persons.
Note: DH time doesn’t count for any of these restrictions.
Note: Russia has promised to convert to QNH in the year 2000……. we’ll see.
NOTES OF INTEREST
B777-200: (designated -224 for CAL IGW A/C)
Length 209' 1"

Width 199' 11" wing (4628 sq. ft)
Width 20' 4" fuselage ext.
Width 19' 3" fuselage int.
Height 60' 9" at tail.
Height of cabin floor: 21'
Height of flight deck floor @ touchdown: 30'
B777 Fuselage: perfectly circular, not a "double-bubble" (like all previous Boeings).
B777 Wing:
Gull-wing is to increase the housing area for the large main gear.
Sharply angled to provide increased ground clearance for the engines.
Swept back over 31 degrees.
Super-critical airfoil generating lift across the entire surface.
"Aft-loaded" wing due to substantial lift generated at the trailing edge.
Inverse/Aft Camber causes scooped-out appearance of the underside of the trailing edge.
High efficiency of this wing means there is no need for winglets.
Optional "Folding Wing":

Outer 22 feet designed to fold vertically for gate clearance.
Reduces total wing span to 155 feet.
Can only be activated < 50 KIAS.
Design anticipated for next "Large Airplane" design.
Note: No B777 has fuel tanks in the outer 22 feet, for this reason.
Note: Fuel dump nozzles are inboard for this reason.
Note: No operator has opted for this option yet.
GE90-90B engines:
Largest dimensions of three options (GE, Pratt, Rolls) @ 10.25' fan diameter.
Original combined T/O thrust was set at 150,000# and will increase to over 230,000# with the stretched 777 (same
engine).
High by-pass ratio of 8.4:1 (5/1 was normal for large fans).
Utilizes 2 million cubic feet of air-per-minute at T/O thrust.
Produces pressure ratio of more than 40 to 1.
Blades are a wide-chord design to improve efficiency.
10 stage dual dome compressor derived from a joint NASA/GE "Energy Efficient Engine" project (labeled E3).
Fan rotates up to 2,485 RPM (105,000# thrust)
Core engine rotates up to 10,000 RPM
Strut designed to separate from the wing without damaging the wing box.
Note: GE’s (& America’s) first turbojet was the I-9 engine: 5,560 newtons (1,250 # of static thrust).
Flown on the Bell XP-59A first on 10-1-42. The -90B is 100x more powerful.
B777-200 has an interior pressurized volume of 46,000 cubic feet of air.
Blade shaped tail cone: designed to eliminate induced drag caused by round cones (B757 & 767: generate stagnant air).
Boeing invested 4 billion dollars to develop the B-777.

Suppliers invested an additional 2 billion dollars.
The entertainment system alone contains over 250,000 lines of software code.
Each pax seat has the computer capability of a 386-laptop computer.
CATIA: Computer-Aided Three-dimensional Interactive Applications: a three-dimensional design system.

Designs the parts that fit together, the first time.
The left wing was only .001 inches out of alignment when completed.
Checks how the parts interface with each other.
3D plans ducts, wires, access ports.
No conventional engineering airframe mockup was created (first time).
CATIA-man (or Robocop) was designed to see if a man could get into every part of the aircraft. (“virtual crawl
through”).
CATIA’s 2200 work stations talked with eight IBM 3090-600J mainframes during design and assembly.
AIRCRAFT DESIGNATIONS:
Originally known as the B767-X

B777-200 A market: replacement for DC-10/L-1011 (506-535,000#).
B777-200 B market: international market (580-590,000#).
B777-300 Stretch: longest airliner ever built (same wing & engines).
B777-100 Short: ultra-long range routes " " " "
B777-200 seats 305-320 pax, range up to 5850nm.

B777-200 IGW (Increased GW) range up to 8860nm.
B777-300 stretch seats 368-386 pax, range up to 6720nm.
B777-100 may fly up to 10,000nm.
FIRSTS:
First aircraft to fly: tail # N7771

First jet aircraft certified with radial-ply tires as standard (nose wheels on the B777).
First aircraft totally designed by CATIA.
First US "fly-by-wire" aircraft.
First commercial aircraft to use fiber optic cables (between MX access terminal & side displays in the cockpit).
First application in aircraft of IFOGS fiber-optic gyros (backup).
First use of light weight condensing-cycle technology in airconditioning.
First engines to hit and exceed 8 to 1 by-pass ratio.
First engines to use "Dual Dome" technology. (Dual annular combustion).
Longest FAA Certification: 4,900 flights & 7,000 hours to achieve 180 minute ETOPS from day one (note: B757 only
took 1,380 hrs but didn’t have 180 min ETOPS out of the gate).
Record 3 hour, 48 minute maiden flight.
B777-300 242.3' wings, 11' longer than 747. Longest commercial airplane. (5' shorter than C-5, & -? shorter than
Antonov-225).
ALLOYS & COMPOSITES USED: saved over 5,800 lbs. in weight
Fuselage skin Alcoa aluminum alloy 2XXX

Fuselage stringers Alloy 7150
Wing skin Alcoa 7055T77 aluminum alloy
Transverse support beams Carbon-fiber & resins
2 of 3 tail spars Carbon-fiber reinforced plastic
Rudder Carbon-fiber-epoxy panels
GE fan blades Composite fitted with titanium LE
Note: composites make up 9% of the 777 (3X that of any previous Boeing).
PARTS DESIGNED BY OTHERS:
IBM/Dassault CATIA design system
Mitsubishi, Kawasaki, Fuji Fuselage panels, doors, wing center

formed the Japan Aircraft Co section, fairings, & ribs
Alenia of Italy Outboard Wing Flaps & Radome
Embraer of Brazil Wingtip & Flap support
Technologies of Australia Composite Rudder
Hawker de Havilland Elevators
Short Bros of N. Ireland Nose Gear doors

& Singapore Aerospace
Northrop Grumman, Rockwell, Structural parts

& Kaman Aerospace
Menasco Main Gear
Honeywell AIMS system
Collins Avionics Autopilot, Flight Director, & TCAS
GEC-Marconi Avionics Primary Flight Control Computers
Lear Astronics & Teijin Seiki ACE - Actuator Control Electronics
E-Systems Cable driven Spoiler pair
Smith Industries Load shedding systems & fuel qty probes
Sundstrand IDG’s
AlliedSignal Air driven HYD pumps, RAT, environmental controls, & GPWS
Hamilton Standard Air Conditioning system, EAI, & WAI
Hamilton Standard & Ozone Converter

AlliedSignal
Snecma High-pressure Compressor section
B.F. Goodrich Carbon Disc Brake pads
Matsushita Avionics Systems MAS Entertainment System

DATES:
Oct 29, 1990 BAC launched 777-200 program.

Nov 24, 1992 GE first ran the core GE90 engine.
Mar '93 GE ran the first full GE90 engine. (including fan section).
Apr 3, 1993 GE90 engine reached record 105,400# of thrust.

Late 1993 GE flying the GE on ex-Pan Am 747-100 in Mojave, CA.
Apr 9, 1994 Rollout of first aircraft.
June 12, 1994 11:45am maiden flight, 3+48, FL190, left engine planned shutdown/relight.
June 1994 - early 1996 FAA Certification.
Nov 1994 RTO demonstration.

Jan 1995 wing tested to 154% of max structural deflection went to 26 feet before failing.
Feb 2, 1995 First GE powered 777-200 flight.
Apr 19, 1995 FAA Certification.

May 15, 1995 First delivery (to United).
1999 Operation within AMU (Area of Magnetic Unreliability) approved.
Oct 31, 1999 United implements “First Suite”: lay-flat beds.
EVENTS:
Emer evac (4 of 8 doors in 90 seconds) conducted to certify the B777 at 420 pax; only 419 go out (1 baulked) so the
B777 was certified at 419 max pax.
UAL tailstrike on T/O in 1998: overrotated, extensive damage.
Towers have notified B777’s of “puffs of smoke” as the main gear has been retracted. Might have been black carbon
dust from the brake system (normal by-product of carbon brakes).
12-13-99 Quantas reports an inflight deployment of door slide raft, jamming customers into seats. This is the same
system used on the B777. Raft was deflated by the crew.
1999: two Asian carriers experience engine shutdowns due to failure of backup gen.
BAC halts delivery of B777 (11/22/99) for faulty cockpit roof insulation. (FAA flammability regulations).
ACRONYMS ATZ Aerodrome Traffic Zone
A At or Above B At or Below
A Autotuning B/D Bottom of Descent
A/P Auto Pilot BAC Boeing Aircraft Company
A/T Auto Throttles BATT Battery
ABS Absolute (altitude) BET Boeing Equivalent Thrust
ABS Auto Brake System BFO Beat Frequency Oscillator Mode
ABV Above (altitude) BITE Built-In Test Equipment
ACARS A/C Comm. Addressing & Reporting Sys. BLW Below (altitude)
ACCEL HT Acceleration Height BPCU Bus Power Control Unit
ACE Actuator Control Electronics BOTA Brest Oceanic Transition Area
ACIPS Airfoil/Cowl Ice Protection System BRG/DIS Bearing / Distance
ACM Air Cycle Machine BTB Bus Tie Breaker
ACMP AC Motor Pumps BTL Bottle
ACT Active BTMS Brake Temp Monitoring Sys
ACT Actuated BU Backup
ADC Air Data Computer BUGEN Backup Generator
ADF Automatic Direction Finder
ADI Attitude Indicator C Centigrade
ADM Air Data Module CALC Calculated
ADP Air Driven Pump (HYD) CANC Cancel
ADIRS Air Data & Inertial Reference System CACP Cabin Area Control Panel
ADIRU Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit CCB Converter Circuit Breaker
ADS Automatic Dependent Surveillance CCC Core Compartment Cooling (Eng)
AFDC Automatic Flight Director Computer CCD Cursor Control Device
AFDS Automatic Flight Director System CD Center Display
AFE Above Field Elevation CDU Control Display Unit
AFSC Automatic Flight Control System CEET Critical ETOPS Entry Point
AFM Aircraft Flight Manual CEXP Critical ETOPS Exit Point
AGB Accessory Gearbox CFIT Controlled Flt Into Terrain
AGL Above Ground Level CFM Cubic Feet per Minute
AH Alert Height CG Center of Gravity
AIL Aileron CHG Battery Charger
AIMS A/C Information and Management CHIS C HYD Isolation System
System CHKL Checklist
ALT Altitude CHR Chronograph Time
ALTN Alternate Airport CI Cabin Interphone
ALTN NAV Alternate Navigation CI Cost Index
AMI Airline Modifiable Information CLB Climb
AMU Area of Magnetic Unreliability CLB DIR Climb Direct
ANT Antenna Mode CLR Clear
AOA Angle Of Attack CMCF Central Maintenance Computer Function
AOA Area Of Operations CMF Central Maintenance Function
APB Auxiliary Power Breaker CMS Cabin Management System
APP Approach CMU Control Management Unit
APP Approach Mode CNS Comm/ Nav/Surveillance
APU Aux Power Unit CO DATA Company Data
ARINC Aeronautical Radio, Incorporated COA____ Flight # for ATC Data Link Services
ARP Airport Reference Point COMM Communication
ASA Airport Surveillance Approach CON Continuous
ASA Autoland Status Annunciator CONV Converter
ASCPC Air Supply and Cabin Pressure Controller CPA Closest Point of Approach (TCAS)
ASIC Application Specific Integrated Circuit CPDLC Controller To Pilot Datalink Comm
AT At (an altitude) CPRSR Compressor
ATA Actual Time of Arrival CPU Central Processing Unit
ATC Air Traffic Control CRS Course
ATM Air Traffic Management CRT Cathode Ray Tube
ATS Air Turbine System CRZ Cruise
ATS Autothrottle System CRZ ALT Cruise Altitude
ATT Attitude CRZ CGCruise Center of Gravity
CRZ CLB Cruise Climb EFIS Electronic Flight Instrument System
CSCP Cabin System Control Panel EGPWS Enhanced GPWS
CSD Constant Speed Drive EGT Exhaust Gas Temperature
CSS Cabin Service System EHSI Enhanced HSI
CTC Cabin Temperature Controller EICAS Engine Indicating and Crew
CTR Center Alerting System
CTRL Control EIS Electronic Instrument System
CVR Cockpit Voice Recorder ELCU Electrical Load Control Unit
CZ Controlled Zone ELEC Electronic System
ELEV Elevation
D Downhill ELMS Electrical Load Management System
D-TO Assumed Temp Thrust Take Off ELT Emergency Locator Transmitter
D-TO1 Fixed Derate Assumed Temp (not used) EMI Electro-Magnetic Interference
DA Minimum Decision Altitude EMP Electro-Magnetic Pulse
DALOP Data Link Operational Problem ENG OUT Engine Out
DCMF Data Communication EGPWS Enhanced Ground Prox Warning System
Management Function EO Engine Out
DDA Derived Decision Altitude EP External Power
DDG Dispatch Deviation Guide EPAS Emergency Power Assist System
DDP Dispatch Deviation Procedure EPCS Eng Parameter ---- System
DECR Range Decrease EPR Engine Pressure Ratio
DEL Delete ER ETOPS Operational Item (MEL)
DEP/ARR Departure/Arrival ER Extended Range
DES Descent ESED Electro-Static Discharge Sensitive
DES DIR Descend Direct ET Elapsed Time
DESC Descent Mode ETA Estimated Time of Arrival
DEST Destination ETD Estimated Time of Departure
DEV Deviation ETOPS Extended Range Twin-Engine OPS
DH Decision Height ETOPS (alt) Engines Turn Or People Swim
DISC Disconnect ETP Equal Time Point
DISCH Discharge EXCD Engine Exceedance
DIST Distance EXEC Execute
DLGF Data Load Gateway Function
DLODS Duct Leak/Overheat Detection System F Fahrenheit
DLOP Data Link Operational Problem F/D Flight Director
DME Distance Measuring Equipment FAF Final Approach Fix
DMS Debris Monitoring System FAMV Fan Air Modulating Valve
DSP Display Select Panel FANS Future Air Navigation Sys
DSPY Display FBW Fly-By-Wire
DTG Distance-To-Go FCDC Flight Control DC Bus
DTK Desired Track FCTL Flight Control
DU Display Unit FCU Flush Control Unit
FCM Flush Control Module
E/D End-of-Descent FDE Fault Detection & Exclusion
E/O Engine Out FIM Fault Isolation Manual
E/O ACCEL HT Engine Out Acceleration Height FIR Flight Information Region
EAC Estimated Approach Clearance Time FIX INFO Fix Information
EAI Engine Anti-Ice FL Flight Level
EBU Engine Build Up FLCH Flight Level Change
ECL Electronic Checklists FLCH SPD Flight Level Change Speed
ECON Economy FLS Flight Levels
ECON CLIMB Economy Climb FLT DIR Flight Director
ECON DES Economy Descent FMA Flight Mode Annunciator
ECON SPD Economy Speed FMC Flight Management Computer
ECS Environmental Control System FMC COMM Flight Management Computer
EDIU Engine Data Interface Unit Communications
EDP Engine Driven Pump FMCF Flight Management Computer Function
EEC Electronic Engine Control FMCS Flight Management Computer System
EET Estimated Enroute Time FMS Flight Management System
EEU ELMS Electronic Unit FNC Fiber Nickel Cadium
EFC Expected Further Clearance Time FOD Foreign Object Damage
FOD Fuel Over Destination ILS Instrument Landing System
FPA Flight Path Angle INBD CRS/DIR Inbound Course and Turn Direction
FPM Feet Per Minute INCR Range Increase
FPV Flight Path Vector INIT Initialization
FQIS Fuel Quantity Indicating System INIT REF Initialization/Reference
FREQ Frequency INTC CRS Intercept Course
FRM Fault Reporting Manual INTLK Interlock
FRMG Fuel Remaining ISLN Isolated
F/SEU Flap/Slat Electronics Unit ISOL Isolated
G/S Glide Slope JAA Joint Aviation Authority

GA Go-Around Jepp Jeppesen
GB Generator Breaker
GCB Generator Circuit Breaker KIAS Knots Indicated Air Speed
GCR Generator Control Relay (Field) KTS Knots
GCS Ground Clutter Suppression KVA Kilo-Volt Amps
GCU Generator Control Unit
GE General Electric L/D Lift over Drag max
GEN Generator LCD Liquid Crystal Display
GH Ground Handling (Bus) LCM Logic Control Module
GHR Ground Handling Relay LKD Locked
GND Ground LLAR Lower Lobe Attendant Rest module
GP General Purpose (radio relay) LNAV Lateral Navigation
GPS Global Positioning Satellite LO Low
GPWC Ground Proximity Warning Computer LOC Localizer Mode/Localizer
GPWS Ground Proximity Warning System LPC Low Pressure Compressor
GR WT Gross Weight LPT Low Pressure Turbine
GS Glide Slope LRC Long-Range Cruise
GS Groundspeed LRM Line Replacement Module
GSSR Ground Service Select Relay LRN Long-Range Navigation
GSTR Ground Service Transfer Relay LRRA Low Range Radio Altimeter
GSU Ground Support Unit LRU Line Replacement Unit
GW Gross Weight LSCF Left System Card File
LSCU Logic & Speed Control Unit (ADP)
H Heading LSK Line Select Key
H Headwind
HCAT Human Centered Automation Training M Manual Tuning
HDG Heading MAG Magnetic
HDG SEL Heading Select MAG VAR Magnetic Variation
HDLG Handling MAP Missed Approach Point
HLCS High Lift Control System MAP Missed Approach Procedure
Hpa Hecto-Pascell MAS Matsushita Avionics System
HPC High Pressure Compressor MASPS Min A/C Sys Performance Specs
HPSOV High Pressure Shutoff Valve MAT Maintenance Access Terminal
HPT High Pressure Turbine MCL Max Climb Thrust
HSI Horizontal Situation Ind. MCP Mode Control Panel
HYD Hydraulics MCT Maximum Continuous Thrust
HYIM HYD Interface Module MDA Minimum Descent Altitude
MEL Minimum Equipment List
I/O Input/Output MFD Multi-Function Display
IAF Initial Approach Fix MIC Microphone
IAS Indicated Airspeed MIN CRZ Minimum Cruise Time
IB In-Board MKR Marker
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization MLG Main Landing Gear
IDENT Identification MLS Microwave Landing System
IDG Integrated Drive Generator MLW Max Landing Weight
IDS Integrated Display System MMEL Master MEL (MX)
IFOGS Interferometric Fiber-Optic Gyroscope Mmo Maximum Mach Airspeed for Aircraft
IFSD Inflight Shut-Down MNPS Min Nav Performance Standards
IGV Inlet Guide Vane MNVR Maneuver
IGW Increased Gross Weight MOD Modification
MPS Meters Per Second POR Point Of Regulation
MRC Max-Range Cruise POS Position
MSG Message POS INIT Position Initialization
MSOV Modulating & Shutoff Valve POS REF Position Reference
MSL Mean Sea Level PPM Parts Per Million
MX Maintenance PPOS Present Position
PPP Post Position Plot
NAR N. American Route PRED Predicted
NATS North Atlantic Track System PREV PAGE Previous Page
NATSPG N. Atlantic Sys Planning Group PRI Primary
NAV Navigation PROG Progress
NAVAID Navigational Aid PRSOV Pressure Reg & Shutoff Valve
NAV RAD Navigational Radio PSA Power Supply Assembly
NCA Northern Control Area PSEU Proximity Sensor Electronics Unit
ND Navigational Display PSI Pounds per Square Inch
ND Nose Down PSU Passenger Service Unit
NM Nautical Miles PSU Power Supply Unit
NOPAC N. Pacific PTS Points
NP Non-Precision approach PTT Push To Talk
NU Nose Up PWR Power
PWS Predictive Wind Shear
OAT Outside Air Temperature
OB Out-Bound QAD Quick Attach/Detach
OBS Observer QFE Altimeter ref to field elev
OCA Oceanic Control Area QNH Altimeter ref to baro
OF Over Filled QRH Quick Reference Handbook
OFST Offset QUAD/RADIAL Quadrant and Radial
OGV Outlet Guide Vane
ONER Oceanic Nav Error Report R Range
OPAS Overhead Panel ARINC 629 System R Route
OPC ??? FMS initial setup - slope?? RA Radio Altimeter/Radio Altitude
OPNL ??? satcom??? RAD Random Access Device
OPNS ???satcom??? RALT Route Alternate
OPT Optimum RAT Ram Air Turbine
OTS Organized Track Sys RCCB Remote Controlled C/B
RCL Recall
P Procedure REF Reference
P-30 External Power Panel REF NAV DATAReference Navigation Data
P-40 APU Ground Control Panel REL Relative (altitude)
PAR Precision Approach Radar RF Radio Frequency
PBD Place Bearing Distance RF Refill
PBE Personal Breathing Equipment RLF Relief
PCU Power Control Unit RLG Ring Laser Gyro
PDI Path Deviation Indicator RLY Relay
PDS Primary Display System RNAV Random Navigation
PERF Performance RSCF Right System Card File
PERF INIT Performance Initialization RST Reset
PF Pilot Flying RSV Reserve
PFC Primary Flight Computer RSVR Reservoir
PFC Primary Flight Controls RTA Required Time of Arrival
PFCS Primary Fight Control System RTD Resistance Temperature Detector
PFD Primary Flight Display RTE Route
PLI Pitch Limit Indicator RVR Runway Visual Range
PLN Plan RVSM Reduced Vertical Separation Mins
PM Pilot Monitoring RVV Runway Visual Value
PMA Permanent Magnet Alternator RWY Runway
PMAT P-40 Panel
PMG Permanent Magnet Generator S/C Step Climb
PNEU Pneumatic System SAARU Secondary Attitude Air Data
PNL Panel Reference Unit
POB Passenger Oxygen Bottle SAT Static Air Temperature
SATCOM Satellite Communication System TMCF Thrust Management Computer Function
SCA Southern Control Area TMI Track Message Identifier
SCM Signal Conditioning Module TMS Thrust Management System
SEC Secondary TO1 Fixed Derate T/O Thrust (not used)
SEL Selected TO2 Additional Derated Fixed Rate (not used)
SEL SPD Selected Speed TOD Top-of-Descent
SEPC Secondary External Power Contactor TO/GA Take-off/Go-Around
SGL Single TOGW Takeoff Gross Weight
SID Standard Instrument Departure TOT Total
SLP Speed Limit Point (Europe Jepps) TRANS Transition
SLS Satellite Landing System TRANS ALT Transition Altitude
SM Statute Mile TRANS LVL Transition Level
SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance & TRF Turbine Rear Frame
Control System TRK Track
SOV Shut Off Valve TRU Transformer Rectifier Unit
SP Space Key TRU True
SPD Speed TTG Time-To-Go
SPD RESTR Speed Restriction
SPD TRANS Speed Transition U Uphill
SPD/TGT ALT Speed Target Altitude UB Utility Bus
SPKR Speaker UIR Upper Flight Information
SPLY Supply
SRN Short Range Nav V Voice
STAR Standard Terminal Arrival Route V/S Vertical Speed
STAT Status Page VASI Visual Slope Indicator
STBY Standby VDR VHF Data Radio
STCM Stab Trim Control Module VDLM VHF Data Link Mode II
STRG Steering VERT Vertical Speed
SVC Service VIGV Variable Inlet Guide Vanes
SW Switch VIS APP Visual Approach
VLV Value
T Tailwind Vmcg Minimum Control Speed - Ground
T Track Vmo Maximum Indicated Speed for Aircraft
T True VNAV Vertical Navigation
T/C Top-of-Climb VNAV PATH Vertical Navigation Path
T/D Top-of-Descent VOR VHF Omnidirectional Range
T/O Take-Off VS Vertical Speed
TAC Thrust Asymmetry Compensation VSI Vertical Speed Indicator
TAI Thermal Anti Ice Vspd V-Speed
TAS True Air Speed VTK Vertical Track
TASOV Trim Air Shutoff Valve
TAT Total Air Temperature WAH When Able Higher
TBB Transfer Bus Breaker WAI Wing Anti-Ice
TBN To Be Notified WATRS W. Atlantic Route Sys
TBO Time Between Overhaul WBS Weight and Balance System
TCAS Traffic Conflict Avoidance System WES Warning Electronic System
TCF Turbine Center Frame WEU Warning Electronic Unit
TCV Temperature Control Valve WOW Weight On Wheels
TDZE Touchdown Zone Elevation WP Way Point
TERR Terrain WPI Waypoint
TFC Traffic WPR Waypoint Position Reporting
TFR Transfer WT Weight
TGA Turbine Gearbox Assembly WWV ??World Wide Time Verification
THR Thrust WX Weather
THR HOLD Thrust Hold
THR RED Thrust Reduction X-BLD Cross Bleed Start
THR RED Thrust Reduction X-FER Transfer (bus)
THR REF Thrust Reference XDCR Transducer
THRST LIM Thrust Limit XFR Transfer
TIZ Traffic Information Zone XTK Crosstrack
TK Track
ZFW Zero Fuel Weight
B – 777 ORAL STUDY GUIDE

Rev 03/00 (Final)
Contact Bill Baddorf
OralStudy@AOL.com

B777 Oral Study

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Page 1

FINAL REVISION Rev 03/00

BILL’s STUDY GUIDE AND ORAL PREP

1. GENERAL: Aircraft general …………………………………………………………. 03

2. ELECTRICAL: generators, AC/DC systems, external, standby, and backup power … 19

3. HYDRAULIC: supply and distribution ……………………………………………….. 26

4. FUEL: supply, distribution, and fuel jettison ………………………………………….. 33

5. AIRCONDITIONING: supply and distribution …………………………………….… 36

6. PRESSURIZATION: controls and systems …………………………………………... 40

7. ENGINES: including ignition, fuel, and oil ………………………………………….. 42

8. FLIGHT CONTROLS: normal, secondary, and direct controls ………………….…. 48

9. INSTRUMENT, NAV, & COMM: indications and tests …………………………… 54

10. AUTOFLIGHT: FMS ………………………………………………………………… 61

12. PERFORMANCE, PROCEDURES, and TECHNIQUES: general procedures …… 71

13. NOTES OF INTEREST: ……………………………………………………………… 76

14. ACRONYMS: ……………………………………………………………………….…. 80

- Bill Baddorf, EWR

5. *How does the MEL work? (i.e. look up a specific item)

6. When are the pax doors inhibited from operating?

7. What is unique about the cabin door window?

9. *What type of cabin doors are on the B-777?

10. *How can you tell if a cabin door is armed?

11. Where are the Cabin Door Safety Straps located?

14. Where/how many ELT does the 777 have?

15. *What does the Master Bright knob do?

16. *What does the Storm light switch do?

17. What lights are on the Standby Cockpit lighting system?

18. *Where do we carry live animals?

21. *What is the EICAS system?

23. What are the system alert levels?

24. What are the 5 types of Aural Alerts?

25. *How may the following Aural Warnings be silenced?

26. *What is the EICAS Event RCD button?

29. *What is the AIMS system?

32. How may a Checklist be reset in order to start it again?

33. *When may a Non-Normal (or any) Checklist be called “Complete”?

34. *When does the Sterile Cockpit Light come ON?

37. What are the EGPWS modes of operation?

38. *What triggers a Configuration Warning in T/O or LND?

39. *When is the PWS (Predictive Wind Shear) system activated?

40. *Describe the Emergency Lighting system.

42. *Can the Cockpit windows be opened in-flight?

43. Can you get into the E&E compartment inflight?

44. What powers the Cargo Doors?

47. What are Oxygen Generators?

48. What is the location & quantity of the Crew O2 bottle(s)?

49. *When is the O2 mask mike activated?

50. *Describe an O2 test.

51. *When must the crew be using oxygen?

54. *Can Dispatch use headwind to increase the GW for T/O?

56. *Does a tailwind have to be figured into the GW for T/O?

57. What does the Accuload line 10 code: “AT” mean?

62. *What is an indication of a Tail Strike?

63. *What is an indication of a good CVR (cockpit voice recorder) test?

67. How can the FA computer be turned ON?

71. Can water be shutoff at the Galley?

72. How many photo-cell light sensors are in the Cockpit?

73. What can be checked if there is no Hot Water in a specific Lav?

74. Can water be shutoff at the Lav?

75. What’s unusual about seats in rows 16 & 32?

76. *What 2 cabin/FSM items should be checked by the FO prior to flight?

77. Where is the “Least Risk Bomb Location”?

78. How many Potable Water tanks are on board?

80. How does the toilet system flush?