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Paper-1 Set A Key
Regn No: ____ _____________

Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit
Date: 23.05.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150
General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place
Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50
(i) Answer all 50 questions

(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions
1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves
a) 0.1 b) 2 c) 0.4 d) 4
2. The average operating Station Heat Rate (SHR) of a Thermal Power Plants is 3000
kCal/kWh; corresponding to this the station thermal efficiency in percentage is
a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%

3. Which of the following may not be a suitable energy security option for India ?
a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation

c) increasing Renewable Energy use d) increasing oil fired thermal power stations
4. The Sector which is not a Designated consumer as per the latest Gazette is
a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings

5. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manger is
mandatory for
a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies
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Paper-1 Set A Key
c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees

6. Which of the following could be a better index of Building Energy Performance?
a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof

b) ratio of air-conditioned to total carpet area
c) kWh per unit area of the building per year(kWh /Sq. meter/year)
d) ratio of Captive generation to grid power consumed
7. Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 1 bucket (20 lit) of hot water from 30-
500C
a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh

8. Which of the following energy storage methods has the highest energy densities (kWh per
kg)?
a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery

9. The rate of energy transfer is measured in
a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above

10. A three phase induction motor is drawing 15 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.80 and the motor efficiency is 90%, then the power drawn by the
motor is
a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW

11. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
12. Water flow in pipes is measured by
a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer

13. The generally accepted energy performance parameter for thermal power plants would be
a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
14. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic

15. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing
a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs

c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
16. In general Specific Energy Consumption of a process plant for a given product mix and
raw material mix
a) increases with increasing capacity utilization

b) decreases with increasing capacity utilization
c) remain almost constant irrespective of capacity utilization
d) has no relation with capacity utilization
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17. Which of the following will not motivate employees to conserve energy?
a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives

18. Which of the following best defines the role of an energy manager ?
a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant

b) intermediate player between top management, energy and cost centers of the plant
c) in charge of the captive power plant and mediator between plant and Electricity boards
d) mediator between production manager and project manager
19. Ten barrels of crude oil is equivalent to
a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters

20. If feed of 100 tonnes with 40% moisture, is dried to 20% moisture, the amount of water
vapour evaporated would be
a) 20 b) 28 c) 30 d) 40
21. The force field analysis in energy action planning considers
a) positive forces only b) negative forces only

c) both negative and positive forces d) no forces
22. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 20%. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is
14 and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler
chimney in kg/ hour would be
a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660

23. Which of the following is false?
a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J

c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kCal = 1 kWh
24. The contract in which the ESCO provides financing and is paid an agreed fraction of
actual savings as they are achieved is called
a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms

c) shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
25. Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV + (1 – i)n c) NPV (1 + i)n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n

26. The cost of installation of a variable speed drive in a plant is Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings are Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of
a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions

c) capital investment d) best financing source
28. For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which of these
analysis would be the best option
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a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR

29. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate
a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation

30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 10%
interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no
money is withdrawn?
a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000

31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called
a) performance contract
b) traditional contract
c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the
plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?
a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above

33. In Project Management the critical path in the network is
a) the quickest path b) the shortest path

c) the path from start to finish d) the path where no activities have slack
34. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects is called
a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT

35. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,
a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above

36. The calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/ kg. Find out the coal equivalent to replace 1 kg of
oil (Coal GCV = 16000 KJ/kg) assuming same efficiency
a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above

37. In a heat exchanger, inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water are 28 OC & 33 OC. The
cooling water circulation is 200 litres /hr. The process fluid enters the heat exchangers at
60 OC and leaves at 45 OC. Find out the flow rate of the process fluid?
(Cp of process fluid =0.95)
a) 70 b) 631 c) 63 d) 570
38. Which of these is not a duty of an energy manager
a) Report to BEE
b) Provide support to accredited energy auditing firm
c) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
d) Sign an energy policy
39. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates
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a) poor process control b) many forced outages

c) poor process monitoring d) none of the above
40. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then
a) nothing can be said

b) energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is increasing
d) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
41. Due to high oil prices, a firm goes for substitution of oil and with biomass in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely
a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency

c) higher energy consumption d) less smoke in the stack
42. Which of the following Financial Analysis Techniques fails to consider the time value of
money
a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

c) Net Present Value (NPV) d) none of the above
43. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of
25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available
and project technical life is the same?
a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense

44. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
company is to produced 80,000 Tons of product
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000

45. Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance
a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning

c) Loss of Biodiversity d) Suspended particulate Matter
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of annex-I countries as per Kyoto protocol
is
a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022

47. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Nitrous Oxide gas is
a) 1 b) 21 c) 270 d) 100
48. The national inventory of greenhouse gases in India indicates that about __ % of the total
CO2 emissions come from energy sector
a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible

49. Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between
a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground

c) 50 to 100 km above the ground d) 100 to 200 km above the ground
50. In CDM terminology CER means
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a) Carbon Emission Reduction b) Clean Environment Rating

c) Certified Emission Reduction d) Carbon Emission Rating
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions
(ii) Each question carries Five marks
S-1 What is a Sankey diagram and what are its uses ? Explain with an example.
ANS The Sankey diagram is a very useful tool to proportionally represent an entire input
and output energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boilers, fired heaters,
furnaces etc. after carrying out an energy balance calculation, This diagram represents
visually various outputs and losses so that energy managers can focus on finding
improvements in prioritized manner.
Example:
S-2 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the
following data. The discount rate is 15%.
Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)

0 1,00,000
1 50,000 75,000
2 75,000
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3 75,000
ANS NPV = -100,000 + (75000-50000)/(1+0.15) + 75000/(1+0.15)2 + 75000/(1+0.15)3
= -100,000 + 21,739 + 56,710 + 49, 313

= Rs. 27,762
S-3 In a compressed air Dryer, electrical heater is used for regeneration of silica gel.
The present Electrical energy consumption is 100 kWh/day. The management
intends to replace the electrical heater by steam coil.
a) How much steam is need per day?
b) Calculate cost savings/year. Cost of power is Rs.4/kWh and cost of steam is
Rs. 500/ton (Assuming only latent heat of steam used. Latent heat of steam is
540 kCal/kg. Efficiency of steam heating is 70%, operating days = 300)
ANS Latent heat of steam = 540 kCal/kg

a) Amount of steam required = 100 * 860/(540*0.7)
= 227.5 kg/day
b) Cost of power = 100 * 4 = Rs.400/day

Cost of steam = 0.2275 * 500
= Rs. 113.75/day
Annual cost savings = (400 – 113.75) * 300
= 286.25*300
= Rs. 85,875/-
S-4 Renovation and Modernization (R&M) of a 210 MW coal fired thermal power plant
was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 28% to 32%. The specific
coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 8000 hours of operation per
year, and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate
a) the coal savings per year and
b) the expected avoidance of CO2 into the atmosphere in Tons/year if the
emission factor is 1.53 kg CO2/kg coal
ANS Specific coal consumption of conventional power plant = 0.7 kg/kWh

Specific coal consumption of power plant after R&M= 0.7 x (0.28/0.32)
= 0.6125 kg/kWh
Coal savings per annum = (0.7-0.6125) x 210 x 1000 x 8000
= 1,47,000 Tonnes per annum
CO2 avoidance = 1,47,000 x 1.53
= 224910 tonnes per annum
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S-5 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system
and consumers?
ANS i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
during off-peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak
hours are built in.
ii. Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours
(say during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak
hours. Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and
normal period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off
peak hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
v. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in
turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
procurement charges by reduced demand
S-6 An energy meter connected to a 3 phase, 18.75 kW pump shows 108 units
consumption for six hours of operation. The load on the motor was steady. The
consumer doubted the energy meter reading and electrical parameter such as
current, voltage and power factor were measured. The measured values were
430 V line volts, 25 amps line current and 0.80 Power Factor. Find out if the
energy meter reading is correct.
ANS Energy consumption = √ 3 x 0.430 (kV) x 25(A) x 0.80(PF) x 6(hours)

= 89. 37 kWh
The consumption shown by energy meter is very high; higher by 21%
S-7 What are the three flexible mechanisms available under Kyoto protocol for
achieving GHG reduction targets. Explain briefly the mechanism applicable to
India.
ANS 1. Joint implementation

2. Emissions trading
3. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
CDM is applicable to India. It is a mechanism by which the developed countries

finance/fund projects intended to reduce GHG emissions in return for emission reduction
credits. This will help them to achieve the emission reduction targets. Alternatively the
emission reductions achieved by developing countries can also be purchased,
S-8 What is meant by the following terms ?

a) Normalising of data
b) Benchmarking
ANS a) Normalising of data
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The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the energy
efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include weather or certain
operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of removing the impact of various
factors on energy use so that energy performance of facilities and operations can be
compared.
a) Benchmarking
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a relative
understanding of where our performance ranks.
…….……. End of Section – II ………..….
Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60
(i) Answer all Five questions

(ii) Each question carries Ten marks
L-1 An agency is implementing energy efficiency measures in municipal water pumping

under ESCO route. The investment is Rs. 5 crores. Present annual electricity bill is
Rs. 4 Crores. The expected savings are 20%. (Cost of electricity = Rs. 4/ kWh,
Annual maintenance cost -10% of investment) The expected CDM revenues would
be Rs. 50 Lakhs/ year. Calculate IRR for this project over a 10 year period, after
including the CDM benefit.
ANS year outflow inflow Net flow

Rs.
Lakhs Savings CDM
0 -500 0 0 -500
1 -50 80 50 80
2 -50 80 50 80
3 -50 80 50 80
4 -50 80 50 80
5 -50 80 50 80
6 -50 80 50 80
7 -50 80 50 80
8 -50 80 50 80
9 -50 80 50 80
10 -50 80 50 80
IRR 10%
L-2 Energy saving measures was implemented in a process plant prior to Jan-2008.
Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for 6 months period of 2008.
The company produced consistently 3000 T/month in each of the six months.
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Refer the graph given in table below.

The predicted Specific energy consumption for 3000 MT production is 260 kWh/MT.
It may be noted that retrofits were not functioning during March & May 2008.
Actual Specific Energy Consumption Profile
300
290 290
Consumption,kWh/MT
280 280
Specific Energy
270
260
250
240
240 239
236 235
230
220
210
200
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
Month
ANS
Actual - Predicted Difference=

2008- SEC, SEC- Actual-
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Predicted CUSUM
Jan 240 260 - 20 -20
Feb 236 260 - 24 -44
Mar 280 260 + 20 -24
Apr 235 260 - 25 -49
May 290 260 + 30 -19
Jun 239 260 - 21 -40
= 40 kWh/MT x 3000 MT
Energy Savings for six months = 1.20 lakh kWh
L-3 Production rate from a paper machine is 340 tonnes per day (TPD). Inlet and outlet
dryness to paper machine is 50% and 95% respectively. Evaporated moisture
temperature is 80 °C. To evaporate moisture, the steam is supplied at 3.5 kg /cm 2.
Latent heat of steam at 3.5 kg /cm2 is 513 kCal/kg. Assume 24 hours/day operation.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated.
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ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation (per hour).

Note: Consider enthalpy of evaporated moisture as 632 kCal/kg.
ANS Production rate from a paper machine = 340 TPD
= 14.16 TPH (tonnes per hour)
Inlet dryness to paper machine = 50%

Outlet dryness from paper machine = 95%
i) Estimation of moisture to be evaporated:

Paper weight in final product = 14.16 x 0.95
= 13.45 TPH
Weight of moisture after dryer = 0.708 TPH
Paper weight before dryer on dry basis = 13.45 TPH
Weight of moisture before dryer = ((13.45 x 100)/50) – 13.45 = 13.45 TPH
Evaporated moisture quantity : 13.45 - 0.708 = 12.742 TPH
ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation

Evaporated moisture temperature = 80 °C
Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 632 kCal/kg
Heat available in moisture (sensible & latent) = 632 x 12742
= 8052944 kCal /h
For evaporation minimum equivalent heat available should be supplied from

steam
Latent Heat available in supply steam (at 3.5 kg/cm2 (g)) = 513 kCal/kg
Quantity of steam required = 8052944/ 513

= 15697.75 Kg/hr
= 15.698 MT/hour
L-4 a) Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below.
b) Find out:
i. Critical Path
ii. expected project duration
Task Predecessors
Tasks
(Dependencies) Time (Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
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C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
ANS
• The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J
• The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)
L-5 a) Draw an energy balance for the DG set with following data.
A Diesel Generator trial gives Set 3.5 kWh per Liter of diesel. The cooling water
loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of fuel input are 28% and 32%
respectively. Assume calorific value of diesel as 10200 kCal/kg. The Specific
gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as percentage of input
energy.
b) Explain the following terms in heat transfer with examples.
i) Conduction ii) Convection
ANS a) Power Output = 3.5 kWh x 860 kCal/kWh = 3010 kCal/litre

Power Output as % of fuel input = (3010/(0.85x10200)x100 ~ 34.7%
Losses as % of fuel input:
Cooling Water Loss = 32%
Exhaust Flue Gas Loss = 28%
Therefore, unaccounted Loss = 100-(34.7+32+28) = 5.3%
b)
i) Conduction
The conduction of heat takes place, when two bodies are in contact with one
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another. If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the
molecules in the hotter body will vibrate the molecules at the point of contact in the
cooler body and consequently result in increase in temperature.
ii) Convection The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid
such as a gas or liquid from the hot to the cold portion. There are two types of
convection: natural and forced. In case of natural convection, the fluid in contact
with or adjacent to a high temperature body is heated by conduction. As it is
heated, it expands, becomes less dense and consequently rises. This begins a fluid
motion process in which a circulating current of fluid moves past the heated body,
continuously transferring heat away from it. In the case of forced convection, the
movement of the fluid is forced by a fan, pump or other external means. A
centralized hot air heating system is a good example of forced convection.
L-6 a) Explain the functioning of an ESCO in performance contracting.

b) Name two macro and micro factors considered in the sensitivity analysis of
major energy saving projects.
Ans a)
ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and
project management services, and financing.
In performance contracting, an end-user (such as an industry, institution, or utility),
seeking to improve its energy efficiency, contracts with ESCO for energy efficiency
services and financing. An agreed portion of the savings is shared with the ESCO.
The ESCO gets back the invested money plus profit over a period of time
b)
Micro factors
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• Operating expenses (various expenses items)

• Capital structure
• Costs of debt, equity
• Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
• Changing the project duration
Macro factors Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation
of the industry of which the firm operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among
others:
• Changes in interest rates
• Changes in the tax rates
• Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
• Changes in depreciation rates
• Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
• General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
• Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
• Energy Price change
• Technology changes
…….……. End of Section – III ………..….
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Paper-1 Set B Key
Regn No: ____ _____________

Name: ___________________
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

FOR

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions
1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves
a) 0.1 b) 2 c) 0.4 d) 4
2. The average operating Station Heat Rate (SHR) of a Thermal Power Plants is 3000
kCal/kWh; corresponding to this the station thermal efficiency in percentage is
a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%

3. Which of the following may not be a suitable energy security option for India ?
a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation

c) increasing Renewable Energy use d) increasing oil fired thermal power stations
4. The Sector which is not a Designated consumer as per the latest Gazette is
a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings

5. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manger is
mandatory for
a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies

c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees
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Paper-1 Set B Key
6. Which of the following could be a better index of Building Energy Performance?
a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof

b) ratio of air-conditioned to total carpet area
c) kWh per unit area of the building per year(kWh /Sq. meter/year)
d) ratio of Captive generation to grid power consumed
7. Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 1 bucket (20 lit) of hot water from 30-
500C
a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh

8. Which of the following energy storage methods has the highest energy densities (kWh per
kg)?
a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery

a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above

factor of the motor is 0.80 and the motor efficiency is 90%, then the power drawn by the
motor is
a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW

11. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer

13. The generally accepted energy performance parameter for thermal power plants would be

14. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is


16. In general Specific Energy Consumption of a process plant for a given product mix and
raw material mix
a) increases with increasing capacity utilization

b) decreases with increasing capacity utilization
c) remain almost constant irrespective of capacity utilization
d) has no relation with capacity utilization
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17. Which of the following will not motivate employees to conserve energy?
a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives

18. Which of the following best defines the role of an energy manager ?
a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant

b) intermediate player between top management, energy and cost centers of the plant
c) in charge of the captive power plant and mediator between plant and Electricity boards
d) mediator between production manager and project manager
19. Ten barrels of crude oil is equivalent to
a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters

20. If feed of 100 tonnes with 40% moisture, is dried to 20% moisture, the amount of water
vapour evaporated would be
a) 20 b) 28 c) 30 d) 40
21. The force field analysis in energy action planning considers
a) positive forces only b) negative forces only

c) both negative and positive forces d) no forces
22. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 20%. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is
14 and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler
chimney in kg/ hour would be
a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660


c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kCal = 1 kWh
24. The contract in which the ESCO provides financing and is paid an agreed fraction of
actual savings as they are achieved is called
a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms

c) shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
25. Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV + (1 – i)n c) NPV (1 + i)n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n

26. The cost of installation of a variable speed drive in a plant is Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings are Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%


a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR

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29. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate

30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 10%
interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no
money is withdrawn?
a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000

31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called
a) performance contract
b) traditional contract
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the
plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?


34. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy

a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above

36. The calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/ kg. Find out the coal equivalent to replace 1 kg of
oil (Coal GCV = 16000 KJ/kg) assuming same efficiency
a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above

37. In a heat exchanger, inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water are 28 OC & 33 OC. The
cooling water circulation is 200 litres /hr. The process fluid enters the heat exchangers at
60 OC and leaves at 45 OC. Find out the flow rate of the process fluid?
(Cp of process fluid =0.95)
a) 70 b) 631 c) 63 d) 570
38. Which of these is not a duty of an energy manager
a) Report to BEE
b) Provide support to accredited energy auditing firm
c) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
d) Sign an energy policy

4
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Paper-1 Set B Key
a) nothing can be said

b) energy consumption is reduced
41. Due to high oil prices, a firm goes for substitution of oil and with biomass in a boiler. The

42. Which of the following Financial Analysis Techniques fails to consider the time value of
money
a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

c) Net Present Value (NPV) d) none of the above
43. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of
25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available
and project technical life is the same?

44. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
company is to produced 80,000 Tons of product
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000

a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning

c) Loss of Biodiversity d) Suspended particulate Matter
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of annex-I countries as per Kyoto protocol
is

47. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Nitrous Oxide gas is
a) 1 b) 21 c) 270 d) 100
48. The national inventory of greenhouse gases in India indicates that about __ % of the total
CO2 emissions come from energy sector
a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible

49. Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between

50. In CDM terminology CER means
a) Carbon Emission Reduction b) Clean Environment Rating

c) Certified Emission Reduction d) Carbon Emission Rating
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
5
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Paper-1 Set B Key

S-1 Renovation and Modernization (R&M) of a 210 MW coal fired thermal power plant
was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 27% to 31%. The specific
coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 8000 hours of operation per
year, and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate
ANS Specific coal consumption of conventional power plant = 0.7 kg/kWh

Specific coal consumption of power plant after R&M= 0.7 x (0.27/0.31)
= 0.6097 kg/kWh
Coal savings per annum = (0.7-0.6097) x 210 x 1000 x 8000
= 1,51,704 Tonnes per annum
CO2 avoidance = 1,51,704 x 1.53
= 232107 tonnes per annum
S-2 An energy meter connected to a 3 phase, 18.75 kWh pump shows 108 units
consumption for six hours of operation. The load on the motor was steady. The
consumer doubted the energy meter reading and electrical parameter such as
current, voltage and power factor were measured. The measured values were
430 V line volts, 30.2 amps line current and 0.80 Power Factor. Find out if the
energy meter reading is correct.
ANS Energy consumption = √ 3 x 0.430 (kV) x 30.2(A) x 0.80(PF) x 6(hours)
= 108 kWh
The consumption shown by energy meter is correct
S-3 What is meant by the following terms ?

b) Benchmarking
ANS a) Normalising of data
compared.
6
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Paper-1 Set B Key
a) Benchmarking
S-4 What are the three flexible mechanisms available under Kyoto protocol for
achieving GHG reduction targets. Explain briefly the mechanism applicable to
India.
ANS 1. Joint implementation

2. Emissions trading
3. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
CDM is applicable to India. It is a mechanism by which the developed countries

finance/fund projects intended to reduce GHG emissions in return for emission reduction
credits. This will help them to achieve the emission reduction targets. Alternatively the
emission reductions achieved by developing countries can also be purchased,
S-5 What is a Sankey diagram and what are its uses ? Explain with an example.
ANS The Sankey diagram is a very useful tool to proportionally represent an entire input
and output energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boilers, fired heaters,
furnaces etc. after carrying out an energy balance calculation, This diagram represents
visually various outputs and losses so that energy managers can focus on finding
improvements in prioritized manner.
Example:
7
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Paper-1 Set B Key
S-6 In a compressed air Dryer, electrical heater is used for regeneration of silica gel.
The present Electrical energy consumption is 100 kWh/day. The
management intends to replace the electrical heater by steam coil. a)
How much steam is need per day? b) Calculate cost savings/year. Cost
of power is Rs.4/kwh and cost of steam is Rs. 600/ton (Assuming only
latent heat of steam used. Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.
Efficiency of steam heating is 70%, operating days = 300)
ANS Latent heat of steam = 540 kcal/kg

a) Amount of steam required = 100 * 860/(540*0.7)
= 227.5 kg/day
b) Cost of power = 100 * 4 = Rs.400/day

Cost of steam = 0.2275 * 600
= Rs. 136.5/day
Annual cost savings = (400 – 136.5) * 300
= Rs. 79050/-
S-7 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system
and consumers?
ANS i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
hours are built in.
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours
(say during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak
hours. Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and
normal period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off
peak hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
S-8 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 15%.
0 1,20,000
1 50,000 75,000
2 75,000
3 75,000
ANS NPV = -120,000 +(75000-50000)/(1+0.15) + 75000/(1+0.15)2 + 75000/(1+0.15)3
= -120,000 + 21,739 + 56,710 + 49, 313

= Rs. 7762
.……. End of Section – II ………..….

8
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Paper-1 Set B Key

L-1 a) Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below.
b) Find out:
i. Critical Path
Task Predecessors
Tasks
(Dependencies) Time (Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
ANS
• The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J
• The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)
9
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Paper-1 Set B Key
L-2 a) Explain the functioning of an ESCO in performance contracting.

b) Name two macro and micro factors considered in the sensitivity analysis of
major energy saving projects.
Ans a)
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and
project management services, and financing.
In performance contracting, an end-user (such as an industry, institution, or utility),
seeking to improve its energy efficiency, contracts with ESCO for energy efficiency
services and financing. An agreed portion of the savings is shared with the ESCO.
The ESCO gets back the invested money plus profit over a period of time
b)
Micro factors

• Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
Macro factors Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation
of the industry of which the firm operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among
others:
• Changes in interest rates
• Changes in the tax rates
10
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Paper-1 Set B Key
• Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation

• Changes in depreciation rates
• Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
• General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
• Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
• Energy Price change
• Technology changes
L-3 Energy saving measures was implemented in a process plant prior to Jan-2008.
Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for 6 months period of 2008.
The company produced consistently 2000 T/month in each of the six months.
Refer the graph given in table below.
The predicted Specific energy consumption for 2000 MT production is 260 kWh/MT.
It may be noted that retrofits were not functioning during March & May 2008.
Actual Specific Energy Consumption Profile
300
290 290
Consumption,kWh/MT
280 280
Specific Energy
270
260
250
240
240 239
236 235
230
220
210
200
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
Month
ANS
Actual - Predicted Difference=

2008- SEC, SEC- Actual-
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Predicted CUSUM
Jan 240 260 - 20 -20
Feb 236 260 - 24 -44
Mar 280 260 + 20 -24
11
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Paper-1 Set B Key
Apr 235 260 - 25 -49

May 290 260 + 30 -19
Jun 239 260 - 21 -40
= 40 kWh/MT x 2000 MT
Energy Savings for six months = 80000 kWh
L-4 a) Draw an energy balance for the DG set with following data.
A Diesel Generator trial gives Set 3.2 kWh per Liter of diesel. The cooling water
loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of fuel input are 31% and 35%
respectively. Assume calorific value of diesel as 10200 kCal/kg. The Specific
gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as percentage of input
energy.
b) Explain the following terms in heat transfer with examples.
i) Conduction ii) Convection
ANS a) Power Output = 3.2 kWh x 860 kCal/kWh = 2752 kCal

Power Output as % of fuel input = (2752/(0.85x10200)x100 ~ 31.74%
Losses as % of fuel input:
Cooling Water Loss = 31%
Exhaust Flue Gas Loss = 35%
Therefore, unaccounted Loss = 100-(31.74+31+35) = 2.26%
b)
i) Conduction
The conduction of heat takes place, when two bodies are in contact with one
another. If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the
molecules in the hotter body will vibrate the molecules at the point of contact in the
cooler body and consequently result in increase in temperature.
ii) Convection The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid
such as a gas or liquid from the hot to the cold portion. There are two types of
convection: natural and forced. In case of natural convection, the fluid in contact
with or adjacent to a high temperature body is heated by conduction. As it is
heated, it expands, becomes less dense and consequently rises. This begins a fluid
motion process in which a circulating current of fluid moves past the heated body,
continuously transferring heat away from it. In the case of forced convection, the
movement of the fluid is forced by a fan, pump or other external means. A
centralized hot air heating system is a good example of forced convection.
12
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Paper-1 Set B Key
L-5 Production rate from a paper machine is 340 tonnes per day (TPD). Inlet and outlet
dryness to paper machine is 40% and 95% respectively. Evaporated moisture
temperature is 80 °C. To evaporate moisture, the steam is supplied at 3 kg /cm 2.
Latent heat of steam at 3 kg /cm2 is 517 kCal/kg. Assume 24 hours/day operation.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation (per hour)
Note: Consider enthalpy of evaporated moisture as 632 kcal/kg

ANS Production rate from a paper machine = 340 TPD
= 14.16 TPH (tonnes per hour)
Inlet dryness to paper machine = 40%

Outlet dryness from paper machine = 95%
i) Estimation of moisture to be evaporated:

Paper weight in final product = 14.16 x 0.95
= 13.45 TPH
Weight of moisture after dryer = 0.708 TPH
Paper weight before dryer on dry basis = 13.45 TPH
Weight of moisture before dryer = ((13.45 x 100)/40) – 13.45 = 20.175 TPH
Evaporated moisture quantity : 20.175 - 0.708 = 19.467 TPH
ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation

Evaporated moisture temperature = 80 °C
Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 632 kCal/kg
Heat available in moisture (sensible & latent) = 632 x 19467
= 12303144 kCal /h
For evaporation minimum equivalent heat available should be supplied from

steam
Latent Heat available in supply steam (at 3 kg/cm2) = 517 kCal/kg
Quantity of steam required = 12303144/ 517

= 23797 kg
= 23.8 MT/hour
13
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Paper-1 Set B Key
L-6 An agency is implementing Energy efficiency measures in municipal water pumping under
ESCO route. The investment is Rs. 6 crores. Present annual bill is Rs. 4 Crores. The
expected savings are 20%. ( Cost of power = Rs.4/kwh, Annual maintenance cost -10% of
investment) The expected CDM revenues would be Rs. 50 Lakhs/year. Calculate IRR for
this project after including the CDM benefit
ANS year outflow inflow Net flow

Rs.
Lakhs Savings CDM
0 -600 0 -600
1 -60 80 50 70
2 -60 80 50 70
3 -60 80 50 70
4 -60 80 50 70
5 -60 80 50 70
6 -60 80 50 70
7 -60 80 50 70
8 -60 80 50 70
9 -60 80 50 70
10 -60 80 50 70
IRR 3%
14
_____________________
Paper 1 – Set A Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________
7th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – Nov. 2008

FOR

_________________________ 1
_________________________ 2
_________________________ 3
_________________________ 4
_________________________ 5
_________________________ 6

S-1 What do you understand by energy management and energy efficiency ?
Ans ENERGY MANAGEMENT:
The fundamental goal of energy management is to produce goods and provide

services with the least cost and least environmental effect.
One definition of energy management is:
“The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize

costs) and enhance competitive positions”
The objective of Energy Management is to achieve and maintain optimum

energy procurement and utilisation, throughout the organization and:
• To minimise energy costs / waste without affecting production & quality
• To minimise environmental effects.
ENERGY EFFICIENCY
Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product,

process or area of production or consumption is reduced without affecting
output, consumption or comfort levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will
contribute to energy conservation and is therefore an integral part of energy
conservation promotional policies.
S-2 In a industry’s electrical system what is meant by load factor ?
The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1400 kW. What is the load factor for that
day
It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of
energy consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy
demand if maximum load is maintained through out that time period
Load factor = 24,000/ (1400 x 24)
= 71.4 %
S-3 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to industrial consumers
by an electric supply company.
• Maximum demand charges
_________________________ 7
• Energy charges
• Power factor penalty or bonus
• Electricity duty charges
• Time of the day (ToD) tariffs
• Meter rentals
• Lighting and fan power consumption
• Penalty for exceeding the contract demand
• Surcharges
S-4 Investment for an energy proposal is Rs.20 lakhs. Annual savings for the first
two years is Rs. 4 lakhs each and subsequent two years Rs. 6 lakhs each and
fifth year is Rs. 7 lakhs. Considering cost of capital as 10%, what is the net
present value of the proposal? Is it worth investing in this project ?
0 1 2 3 4 5
NPV = -20/(1.10) + 4/(1.10) +4/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 7(/(1.10)
-20 + 3.64 + 3.31 + 4.51 + 4.1 + 4.35
= -20 + 19.91 = -0.09 lakhs
= Rs. 9000 (-)
It is not worth investing in the project
S-5 A thermal power plant uses 0.7 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity. If
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions. The Thermal power
plant has saved 500000 kWh in a year in auxiliary power consumption by
adopting energy conservation measures. Find out the amount of CERs (ton of
CO2/year) they would gain if the project comes under CDM
C + O2 -------------------Æ CO2
12 32 44
1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide
CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.7 x 0.52 x 44/12

= 1.33 kg of CO2/kwh
• Amount of Carbon emissions reduced by Unit = 500000 x 1.33

= 665 ton of CO2/year
_________________________ 8
= 665 CERs
S-6 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 5 KL/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kg/oC.and the density of
furnace.oil is 0.95.
a) How much steam per hour is needed if steam at 4 kg/cm2 with Latent heat
of 510 kcal/ kg is used.
b) if steam cost is Rs.3.50/kg and electrical energy cost is Rs.4/kWh, which type
of heating would be more economical in this particular case
Total heat required = m Cp ∆T

= (5 x1000x 0.95) * 0.22 * (90-30)
= 62,700 kcal/hr
Total heat of steam = 653 kcal/kg
a) Amount of steam required = 62700/510
= 123 kg/hr
Steam cost = 123 x Rs.3.50
= Rs.430.5/hr
b) Amount of electricity required = 62700/860

= 72.9 kWh
= 72.9 x Rs. 4
= Rs.291.6/ hr
Electric heating will be more economical
S-7
In a textile stenter the input is 1000 kg of wet cloth per hour. The cloth contains
65% moisture at inlet and 5 % moisture remains in the output cloth. Find out the
quantity of moisture removed per hour.
1000 kg of wet cloth contains
1000 x 0.65 = 650 kg of moisture

And 1000 x (1-0.65) = 350 kg of bone dry cloth
As the final cloth contains 5% moisture, the moisture in the product is 350/.95 =
368.42 kg
The moisture removed is 1000 – 368.42 = 631.58 kg/hr
S-8
Define Sustainable development and give two examples of how it can be
practiced in day to day life ?
Sustainable development is defined as 'development that meets the

needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs'.
_________________________ 9
Any relevant answer related to Saving energy and Reducing wastes
-------- End of Section – II ---------
Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 50
(i) Answer all Six questions

L An autoclave contains 2000 cans of pea soup. It is heated to an overall

temperature of 100oC. If the cans are to be cooled to 40oC before leaving the
-
autoclave, how much cooling water is required if it enters at 15oC and leaves at
1 35oC ?
The specific heat of pea soup and the can metal are respectively 4.1 kJ/kgoC and
0.50 kJ/kgoC. The weight of each can is 50 g and it contains 0.50 kg of pea soup.
Assume that the heat content of the autoclave walls above 40oC is 1.6 x 104 kJ
and that there is no heat loss through the walls.
Heat Entering:
Heat in cans = weight of cans x specific heat x temperature above datum
3
= 2000 x 0.05 x 0.50 x (100-40) kJ = 3.0 x 10 kJ
Heat in can contents = weight pea soup x specific heat x temperature above datum
5
= 2000 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (100 - 40) = 2.46 x 10 kJ
Heat in water = weight of water x specific heat x temperature above datum

= w x 4.186 x (15-40)
= -104.6 w kJ.
Heat Leaving:
Heat in cans = 2000 x 0.05 x 0.50 x (40-40) (cans leave at datum temperature) = 0
Heat in can contents = 2000 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (40-40) = 0
Heat in water = w x 4.186 x (35-40) = -20.9 w
o
HEAT-ENERGY BALANCE OF COOLING PROCESS; 40 C AS DATUM LINE
Heat Entering (kJ) Heat Leaving (kJ)

Heat in cans 3000 Heat in cans 0
Heat in can contents 246000 Heat in can contents 0
Heat in autoclave wall 16000 Heat in autoclave wall 0
Heat in water -104.6 w Heat in water -20.9 W
_________________________ 10
Total heat entering 265000 -104.6 w Total heat leaving -20.9 W

Total heat entering = Total heat leaving
265000 – 104.6 w = -20.9 w
w = 3166 kg
Amount of cooling water required = 3166 kg.
L The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) draw a PERT chart
-
b) find out the duration of the project
2 c) identify the critical path.
Activity Immediate Time

Predecessors (days)
A - 2
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 9
H G 8
b) The Duration of the Project = 31 days
c) The Critical Path = 1-2-3-4-7-8-9
L a) For complete combustion of 1 kg of a typical coal 12 kg of air is required. Calorific

- value of coal is 4200 kCal/kg with ash content of 25%. What is the quantity (in kg/hr)
flue gas generated by burning 100 kg coal/ hr?
3
b) The furnace oil consumption in a boiler generating steam is 160 kg/hr and the total
losses in the boiler is 22%. Calculate the amount of steam generated per hour by
considering 610 kCal is required to generate 1 kg steam. Consider GCV of furnace
oil as 10000 kCal/kg.
a) Flue gas generated by burning the coal in the presence of air is:
Flue gas quantity (per kg of coal) : combustion air + quantity of fuel- ash
: 12 + 1 - 0.25
: 12.75 kg
_________________________ 11
Quantity of flue gas by burning 5 kg of coal : 100x 12.75 = 1275 kg.
b) FO consumption rate = 160 kg/hr

GCV of FO = 10000 Kcal/kg
Total Input energy = 160 x 10000
= 1600000 Kcal/hr
Total Loss @ 22% = 1600000 x 0.22
= 352000 Kcal/hr
Total energy available to generate steam = 1600000 x 0.78
= 12488000 Kcal/hr
Total steam generated = 12488000
------------
610
= 20472 kg/hr
L The following are the cash flows for retrofitting of a cooling tower project.
-
YEAR 0 1 2 3 4
4 Cash flow -12,30,000 3,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000
Calculate the IRR for the project
Answer
-12,30,000 = 3,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000

(1.08)1 1.082 1.083 1.084
IRR = 8. %
L Write short notes on

a) Designated consumers
-
b) Standards and labeling
5 c) Energy conservation building codes
d) Role of certified energy manager
The main provisions of the EC Act on designated consumers are:

• The government would notify energy intensive industries and other
establishments as designated consumers;
• Schedule to the Act provides list of designated consumers which covered
basically energy intensive industries, Railways, Port Trust, Transport
Sector, Power Stations, Transmission & Distribution Companies and
Commercial buildings or establishments;
• The designated consumer to get an energy audit conducted by an
accredited energy auditor;
_________________________ 12
• Energy managers with prescribed qualification are required to be

appointed or designated by the designated consumers;
• Designated consumers would comply with norms and standards of energy
consumption as prescribed by the central government.
Standards and Labeling (S & L) has been identified as a key activity for
energy efficiency improvement. The S & L program, when in place would
ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliance would be made
available to the consumers.
The main provision of EC act on Standards and Labeling are:

• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for
notified equipment and appliances.
• Prohibit manufacture, sale and import of such equipment, which does not
conform to the standards.
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment appliances
to enable consumers to make informed choices
• Disseminate information on the benefits to consumers
c) Energy conservation building codes

The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes
are:
• The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building
Codes (ECBC);
• These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other
compelling factors by the respective states for commercial buildings
erected after the rules relating to energy conservation building codes have
been notified. In addition, these buildings should have a connected load of
500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA and above and are intended to be
used for commercial purposes;
• Energy audit of specific designated commercial building consumers
would also be prescribed.
L A process industry is consuming the following energy per day

-
3000 kg of furnace oil for thermic fluid heater
6 5000 kg of coal and 3000 kg of rice husk for boiler
15,000 kWh of Purchased electricity from grid
10,000 kWh of self generated electricity through DG sets
Calorific values of fuels:
Furnace oil : 10,000 kCal/kg

Coal : 5000 Kcal/kg
Rice husk : 3000 Kcal/kg
HSD : 10,500 kCal/kg
Specific fuel consumption of DG sets: 3.5 kWh/kg of HSD
_________________________ 13
Calculate input energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil

Equivalent for the industry.
Diesel consumption = 10,000/3.5 = 2857 kg of Diesel per day
(3000 x 10000) + (5000 x 5000) + (3000 x 3200) + (15,000 x 860) + (2857 x

10,500)
MTOE = (3 x 107) + (2.5 x 107) + (0.9 x 107) + (1.29 x 107) + (3 x 107)

107
= 10.69 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per day
-------- End of Section - III ---------
_________________________ 14
Paper 1 – Set B Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________
7th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – Nov. 2008

FOR

_________________________ 1
_________________________ 2
_________________________ 3
_________________________ 4
_________________________ 5
_________________________ 6

S-1 Investment for an energy proposal is Rs.18 lakhs. Annual savings for the first
two years is Rs. 4 lakhs each and subsequent two years Rs. 6 lakhs each and
fifth year is Rs. 7 lakhs. Considering cost of capital as 10%, what is the net
present value of the proposal? Is it worth investing in this project ?
0 1 2 3 4 5
NPV = -18/(1.10) + 4/(1.10) +4/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 7(/(1.10)
-18 + 3.64 + 3.31 + 4.51 + 4.1 + 4.35
= -18 + 19.91 = +1.91 lakhs
It is worth investing in the project
S-2 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 5 KL/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kCal/ kg/oC and the density of
furnace.oil is 0.95.
a) How much steam per hour is needed if steam at 4 kg/cm2 with Latent heat of
510 kCal/ kg and sensible heat of. 143 kCal/ kg is used.
b) if steam cost is Rs.3.50/ kg and electrical energy is Rs.5/kWh, which type of
heating would be more economical in this particular case
Total heat required = m Cp ∆T

= (5 x1000x 0.95) * 0.22 * (90-30)
= 62,700 kcal/hr
Total heat of steam = 653 kcal/kg
a) Amount of steam required = 62700/653

= 96 kg/hr
Steam cost = 96 x Rs.3.50
= Rs.336
b) Amount of electricity required = 62700/860

= 72.9 kWh
= 72.9 x Rs. 5
= Rs.364.5
Steam heating will be more economical
S-3 Define Sustainable development and give two examples of how it can be
practiced in day to day life ?
_________________________ 7
Sustainable development is often defined as 'development that meets the

needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs'.
Any relevant answer related to Saving energy and Reducing wastes
S-4 In a textile stenter the input is 2000 kg of wet cloth per hour. The cloth contains
65% moisture at inlet and 5 % moisture remains in the output cloth. Find out the
quantity of moisture removed per hour.
1000 kg of wet cloth contains
2000 x 0.65 = 1300 kg of moisture

And 2000 x (1-0.65) = 700 kg of bone dry cloth
As the final cloth contains 10% moisture, the moisture in the product is 700/0.9
= 777 kg
The moisture removed is 1300 – 777 = 523 kg/hr
S-5 What do you understand by energy management and energy efficiency ?
ENERGY MANAGEMENT:
The fundamental goal of energy management is to produce goods and provide

services with the least cost and least environmental effect.
One definition of energy management is:
“The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize

costs) and enhance competitive positions”
The objective of Energy Management is to achieve and maintain optimum

energy procurement and utilisation, throughout the organization and:
• To minimise energy costs / waste without affecting production & quality
• To minimise environmental effects.
ENERGY EFFICIENCY
Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product,

process or area of production or consumption is reduced without affecting
output, consumption or comfort levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will
contribute to energy conservation and is therefore an integral part of energy
conservation promotional policies.
S-6 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to industrial consumers
by an electric supply company.
_________________________ 8

• Energy charges
• Time of the day (ToD) tariffs
• Meter rentals
• Surcharges
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions. The Thermal power
plant has saved 500000 kWh in a year in auxiliary power consumption by
adopting energy conservation measures. Find out the amount of CERs (ton of
CO2/year) they would gain if the project comes under CDM
C + O2 -------------------Æ CO2
12 32 44
CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.65x 0.52 x 44/12

• Amount of Carbon emissions reduced by Unit = 500000 x 1.24

= 620 ton of CO2/year
= 620 CERs
S-8 In a industry’s electrical system what is meant by load factor ?
The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1600 kW. What is the load factor for that
day
It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of
energy consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy
demand if maximum load is maintained throughout that time period
Load factor = 24,000/ (1600 x 24)
= 62.5 %
-------- End of Section – II ---------
_________________________ 9

L-1 The following are the cash flows for retrofitting of a cooling tower project.
YEAR 0 1 2 3 4
Cash flow -12,30,000 3,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000
Calculate the IRR for the project
Answer
-12,30,000 = 3,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000

(1.08)1 1.082 1.083 1.084
IRR = 8. %
L-2 A process industry is consuming the following energy per day
3000 kg of furnace oil for thermic fluid heater

5000 kg of coal and 3000 kg of rice husk for boiler
15,000 kWh of Purchased electricity from grid
10,000 kWh of self generated electricity through DG sets
Calorific values of fuels:
Furnace oil : 10,000 kCal/kg

Coal : 5000 Kcal/kg
Rice husk : 3000 Kcal/kg
HSD : 10,500 kCal/kg
Specific fuel consumption of DG sets: 3 kWh/kg of HSD
Calculate input energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent

for the industry.
Diesel consumption = 10,000/3 = 3333.3 kg of Diesel per day
(3000 x 10000) + (5000 x 5000) + (3000 x 3200) + (15,000 x 860) + (3333.3 x

10,500)
_________________________ 10
MTOE = (3 x 107) + (2.5 x 107) + (0.9 x 107) + (1.29 x 107) + (3.5 x 107)
107
= 11.19 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per day
L-3 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:
a) draw a PERT chart

b) find out the duration of the project
c) identify the critical path.

Predecessors (days)
A - 2
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 9
H G 8
b) The Duration of the Project = 31 days
c) The Critical Path = 1-2-3-4-7-8-9
L-4 Write short notes on
d) Role of certified energy manager
The main provisions of the EC Act on designated consumers are:
a. The government would notify energy intensive industries and other
establishments as designated consumers;
• Schedule to the Act provides list of designated consumers which covered
basically energy intensive industries, Railways, Port Trust, Transport
Sector, Power Stations, Transmission & Distribution Companies and
Commercial buildings or establishments;
• The designated consumer to get an energy audit conducted by an
accredited energy auditor;
• Energy managers with prescribed qualification are required to be
_________________________ 11
appointed or designated by the designated consumers;

• Designated consumers would comply with norms and standards of
energy consumption as prescribed by the central government.

Standards and Labeling (S & L) has been identified as a key activity for
energy efficiency improvement. The S & L program, when in place would
ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliance would be made
available to the consumers.
The main provision of EC act on Standards and Labeling are:

• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for
notified equipment and appliances.
• Prohibit manufacture, sale and import of such equipment, which does
not conform to the standards.
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment
appliances to enable consumers to make informed choices
• Disseminate information on the benefits to consumers

The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes
are:
• The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building
Codes (ECBC);
• These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other
compelling factors by the respective states for commercial buildings
erected after the rules relating to energy conservation building codes
have been notified. In addition, these buildings should have a connected
load of 500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA and above and are
intended to be used for commercial purposes;
• Energy audit of specific designated commercial building consumers
would also be prescribed.
L-5 a) For complete combustion of 1 kg of a typical coal 10 kg of air is required.

Calorific value of coal is 4200 kCal/kg with ash content of 25%. What is
the quantity (in kg/hr) flue gas generated by burning 100 kg coal/ hr?
b) The furnace oil consumption in a boiler generating steam is 160 kg/hr

and the total losses in the boiler is 22%. Calculate the amount of steam
generated per hour by considering 600 kCal is required to generate 1 kg
steam. Consider GCV of furnace oil as 10000 kCal/kg.
a) Flue gas generated by burning the coal in the presence of air is:
Flue gas quantity (per kg of coal) : combustion air + quantity of fuel- ash
: 10 + 1 - 0.25
: 10.75 kg
Quantity of flue gas by burning 5 kg of coal : 100x 10.75 = 1075 kg.
_________________________ 12
b) FO consumption rate = 160 kg/hr

GCV of FO = 10000 Kcal/kg
Total Input energy = 160 x 10000
= 1600000 Kcal/hr
Total Loss @ 22% = 1600000 x 0.22
= 352000 Kcal/hr
Total energy available to generate steam = 1600000 x 0.78
= 12488000 Kcal/hr
Total steam generated = 12488000
------------
600
= 20813 kg/hr
L-6 An autoclave contains 1500 cans of pea soup. It is heated to an overall

temperature of 100oC. If the cans are to be cooled to 40oC before leaving the
autoclave, how much cooling water is required if it enters at 15oC and leaves at
35oC ?
The specific heat of pea soup and the can metal are respectively 4.1 kJ/kgoC
and 0.50 kJ/kgoC. The weight of each can is 75 g and it contains 0.50 kg of pea
soup. Assume that the heat content of the autoclave walls above 40oC is 1.6 x
104 kJ and that there is no heat loss through the walls.
Heat Entering:
Heat in cans = weight of cans x specific heat x temperature above datum
3
= 1500 x 0.075 x 0.50 x (100-40) kJ = 3.375 x 10 kJ
Heat in can contents = weight pea soup x specific heat x temperature above
datum
5
= 1500 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (100 - 40) = 1.845 x 10 kJ
Heat in water = weight of water x specific heat x temperature above datum

= w x 4.186 x (15-40)
= -104.6 w kJ.
Heat Leaving:
Heat in cans = 1500 x 0.075 x 0.50 x (40-40) (cans leave at datum temperature) =
0
Heat in can contents = 1500 x 0.50 x 4.1 x (40-40) = 0
Heat in water = w x 4.186 x (35-40) = -20.9 w
o
HEAT-ENERGY BALANCE OF COOLING PROCESS; 40 C AS DATUM LINE
Heat Entering (kJ) Heat Leaving (kJ)
Heat in cans 3375 Heat in cans 0
Heat in can contents 184500 Heat in can contents 0
_________________________ 13
Heat in autoclave wall 16000 Heat in autoclave wall 0

Heat in water -104.6 w Heat in water -20.9 W
Total heat entering 203875 -104.6 w Total heat leaving -20.9 W
Total heat entering = Total heat leaving
203875 – 104.6 w = -20.9 w
w = 2436 kg
Amount of cooling water required = 2436 kg.
_________________________ 14
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________
NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2006

FOR


(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book
1. Which process or technology is not considered a fuel extraction process?
a) mining b) oil well

c) gas well d) enrichment
2. Renewable energy is obtained from sources that are
a) exhaustible b) essentially inexhaustible

c) available for free d) none of the above
3. Which fossil fuel dominates the energy sector of India?
a) coal b) gas c) oil d) biomass

4. Which one is normally not an energy conservation measure?
a) to reduce excess air of combustion

b) to replace 60 watt incandescent light bulb by a 12 watt CFL
c) to convert an oil fired boiler to wood fired
d) to increase air conditioned room temperature by 2oC
5. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 requires designated consumers to
a) appoint/ designate certified energy manager

b) conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) comply with energy consumption norms & standards
d) all of the above
_________________________ 1
6. If the population of India is 1.05 Billion people and annual electricity consumption is
660 Million MWh, how much is the annual per capita consumption in kWh?
a) 63 b) 500 c) 629 d) 6,280

7. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called
a) energy ratio b) energy intensity

c) per capita consumption d) none of the above
8. Acid rain is caused by
a) CO2 emissions b) soot in the air c) NO4 emissions d) SOX emissions

9. The number of times current changes directions every minute in a 50 cycle single
phase alternating current (AC) is
a) 50 times b) 100 times c) 25 times d) none of the above

10. At the constant temperature, electrical resistance is given by
a) Current/ Voltage b) Voltage/ Current

c) Voltage X Current d) none of the above
11. Active power in an alternating current (AC) circuit is given by
a) kVA • power factor b) (kVA2 – kVAr2)1/2

c) [(kVA + kVAr) x (kVA – kVAr)]1/2 d) all of the above
a) 1 calorie = 4.187J b) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh

c) 860 kcal = 1 kWh d) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ
13. Melting ice releases
a) sensible heat b) heat of vaporization c) latent heat d) super heat

14. The Second Law of Thermodynamics implies
a) energy conversion could be 100% efficient

b) energy conversion results in losses in form of heat
c) energy can be created
d) energy can be destroyed
15. The unit for heat transfer is
a) Watt b) cal c) kcal d) Watt/sec

16. One thousand litres of fuel oil cost Rs. 16,000. How much does one kg of fuel oil cost
if density is 0.95?
a) Rs. 15.2 b) Rs. 15.5 c) Rs. 17.2 d) Rs. 16.8

17. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?
a) kg/ oC b) kW/ ton of refrigeration

c) kWh/ kg yarn d) kcal/ kWh of electricity generated
18. Non-contact measurement can be carried out by
a) turbine flow meter b) infrared thermometer c) orifice meter d) pitot tube
_________________________ 2
19. A handheld modern combustion analyzer does not measure
a) CO2 b) CO, NOx, SOx and O2 c) O2 d) temperature

20. The law of conservation of mass implies
a) mass can be created b) mass can be lost

c) mass can be stored d) none of the above
21. Enthalpy in a boiler heat balance refers to
a) absolute zero point b) a reference level

c) – 273o Kelvin d) none of the above
22. The largest loss in the heat balance of a coal fired boiler is
a) dry flue gas loss b) loss due to Hydrogen in the fuel

c) radiation losses d) moisture in the air
23. One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% Hydrogen by weight. How much
water is evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?
a) 0.2 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.65 kg d) none of the above

24. The energy unit under the SI system is
a) Calorie b) Watt c) BTU d) Joule

25. Which of the following is not measured for the energy balance of a coal based power
plant?
a) bottom ash b) solid particles in stack gas

c) combustion air d) steam flow
26. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not include
a) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy

b) submission of technical report with recommendations
c) implementation of all the recommendations
d) action plan to reduce energy conservation
27. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts
with…
a) energy audit b) training c) seminar d) none of the above

28. A public expression of organization’s commitment to energy conservation is called
a) company policy b) energy policy

c) management philosophy d) quality policy
29. Which comparison is not an energy benchmarking exercise?
a) past performance b) industry average

c) least cost d) best practices
30. Which one is a negative force to reduce electricity consumption in a textile firm
a) top management commitment b) energy efficient technology available

c) high price of electricity d) insufficient funds to finance
_________________________ 3
31. The return on investment, ROI, is defined as
annual income annual net cash flow

a) b)
investment cost capital cost
capital investment
c) d) Interest rate of capital
annual income
32. IRR stands for
a) industrial rate of return b) interest return rate

c) internal rate of return d) investment return rate
33. If NPV = 1000 and i = 5% then the future value after 10 years is
a) 1,551 b) 614 c) 1,629 d) 645

34. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient
compressor in a plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 1.25 lakh. The
return on investment is
a) 15% b) 20% c) 18% d) none of the above

35. An energy audit requires
a) quantification of energy use

b) qualification of energy use
c) converting all energy use to one single unit
d) quantum reduction in power consumption
36. Which step is not necessarily part of project management?
a) project definition and scope b) project promotion

c) financing d) performance monitoring
37. The critical path is the path through the PERT network for which
a) LF = LS and ES = EF b) only EF = LF
c) ES = LS and EF = LF d) only ES = LS
38. Which one is not a time estimate in a PERT chart?
a) optimistic time b) most likely time c) pessimistic time d) average time

39. To draw a CUSUM chart, the following data is required
a) monthly energy consumption & monthly production

b) monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) monthly profits and production
d) all of the above
40. Which source of project financing is not from an internal source?
a) direct cash from company resources b) new share capital

c) payment by savings d) loans from employees
41. In the “energy versus production chart” coordinate system, the trend is
a) always a straight line going through zero point b) sometimes a curve

c) never a straight line d) always a straight line
_________________________ 4
42. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 2.3 lakh kWh for the period. The
average production is 20,000 tons with a specific electricity consumption of 10
kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 30,000 kWh b) 23,000 kWh c) 200,000 kWh d) none of the above

43. A firm pays Rs. 16 for 10,500 kcal of fuel oil. How much does the firm pay for 1 kWh
of fuel oil?
a) Rs. 0.76 b) Rs. 1.18 c) Rs. 1.31 d) question does not make sense
44. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) odometer

45. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 16 respectively. In the next two
months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 8. The energy savings at end of the fourth
month would be
a) 0 b) 24 c) 32 d) -8
46. Which gas has the least impact on global warming?
a) Carbon Dioxide (CO2) b) Carbon Monoxide (CO)

c) Methane (CH4) d) Nitrous Oxide (NOx)
47. The process by which Annex I countries could invest in GHG mitigation projects in
developing countries is called
a) conference of parties b) clean development mechanism

c) certified emission reduction d) green trading
48. Fuel oil contains 87% carbon by weight. How many kg of CO 2 does complete
combustion of 1 kg of oil generate?
a) 3.19 b) 2.61 c) 4.21 d) 3.67

49. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Methane is
a) 18.7 b) 270 c) 21 d) 1
50. Which country has not signed the Kyoto Protocol
a) Australia b) India c) China d) Russia
-------- End of Section - I ---------
_________________________ 5
(i) Answer all Ten questions

S-1 Explain the process of global warming and its impact.
• Solar radiation from the sun strikes the earth and earth absorbs the heat.
• The absorbed heat is emitted in the form of longwave radiation back to the
atmosphere.
• Some of this radiation is absorbed and remitted by green house gas molecules.
• The direct effect is the warming of the earth’s surface and the troposphere.
Impacts of global warming
Rise in global temperature Temperatures
Rise in sea level due to melting of polar ice caps causing floods in low lying
areas.
Loss of biodiversity
Food shortages and hunger
S-2 The quantity of heat supplied to a piece of steel to increase its temperature
depends on which factors and properties of steel?
Q = m x cp x dt
Mass , specific heat and temperature difference (initial temperature and final
temperature)
S-3 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to the industrial
consumers by a electric supply company.

• Energy charges
• Fuel cost adjustment charges
• Meter rentals
• Time of the day tariffs
_________________________ 6

• Surcharge if metering is at LT side in some of the utilities
S-4 In a steam heat exchanger, furnace oil at 40 kg/ hr. enters at 30oC and leaves at
90oC. Specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgoC. If the latent heat of steam is
540 kcal/ kg, find out the amount of steam required to heat the oil.
Heat required for heating the oil = 40 x 0.22 x (90oC - 30 oC)
528 Kcal/hr
Steam required = 528 / 540
= 0.977 kg/hr
S-5 CO2 found in the stack gas of a cement kiln comes from two sources. Explain in
words from which two sources and state the two equations of CO2 generation.
Sources of CO2
From process due to calcination of limestone
CaCo3 -------------------→ CaO + CO2
From combustion of fuel
C + O2 -------------------→ CO2
S-6 What is an energy audit and how it is classified?
Energy Audit is the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy including
submission of technical report containing recommendations for improving energy
efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to reduce energy
consumption
Energy audit can be classified into
• Preliminary energy audit

• Detailed energy audit
S-7 State the equation how to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of an investment
and identify the parameters in the equation.
_________________________ 7
Where NPV = Net Present Value

CFt = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘t’ (t=0,1,….n)
n = life of the project
 = Discount rate
S-8 How does a traditional contract differ from guaranteed savings performance
contract and shared savings performance contract?
Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a contractor who

procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price.
Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of savings is guaranteed by

the contractor, and all or part of the costs of equipment and/or services is paid
down out of savings as they are achieved.
Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides the financing and
is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This payment is
used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
S-9 Explain briefly the features and use of a Sankey diagram.
The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output
energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boiler, fired heaters,
furnaces etc.
This diagram represents various outputs and losses, which will help to focus on
improvements in a prioritized manner
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2 emissions/
kWh under complete combustion conditions.
C + O2 -------------------→ CO2
12 32 44

-------- End of Section – II ---------
_________________________ 8

L-1 What do you understand by energy security? Mention a few strategies to ensure
energy security.
The basic aim of energy security for a nation is to reduce its dependence on the
imported energy sources for its economic growth.
Some of the strategies for energy security are:

Building stock piles
Diversification of energy supply sources
Increased capacity of fuel switching
Demand restraint,
Development of renewable energy sources.
Energy efficiency
Sustainable development
L-2 Assume that the annual per capita electricity consumption of India is 606 kWh and
the population is 1.078 Billion people.
(i) If the installed power capacity is 118,419 MW, calculate the average plant load
factor of the power mix at 606 kWh per capita consumption.
(ii) Calculate annual per capita consumption 30 years later if electricity consumption in
India goes up by 6% each year, and population growth is 1.2% annually.
(iii) How many years will it take to reach the per capita consumption of the USA at
13,500 kWh under a business as usual scenario as in (ii)?
(i) 118,419 x 1000 kW x 24 hrs x 365 days x PLF = 606 x 1.078 x 109
PLF = 0.629 = 63 %
(ii) 606 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.012)]30
2433.5 kwh per capita
(0r) long route
(iii) 606 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.012)]n = 13,500

606 (1.0474)n = 13,500
(1.0474)n = 22.28
_________________________ 9
n log (1.0474) = log 22.28

n = 67 years
L-3 100 numbers of fused 60 Watt incandescent light bulbs (ILB) are replaced by
same numbers of 12 Watt CFL instead of new ILB. Calculate the following for
4000 hours of operation per year.
(i) The annual “kWh saved”
(ii) The annual “kVAh saved” if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
(iii) The annual reduction in electricity costs if Rs. 4 per kWh is the energy charge and
Rs. 250 per kVA per month is the demand charge.
(iv) The simple payback period if the ILB costs Rs. 10 and the CFL costs Rs. 100
(assume life of ILB and CFL as 1000 hours and 4000 hours respectively).
(i) The annual kWh saved = 100 x (60 - 12) x 4000/1000

= 19,200 kWh/annum
(ii) The annual kVAh saved if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
= 100 x (60 - 12/0.6) x 4000/1000

= 16,000 kVAh
(iii) Annual reduction in energy costs = 19,200 x Rs.4

= Rs. 76,800
Reduction in demand = 100 x (60 - 12/0.6)/1000

= 4 kVA
Reduction in demand charges = 4 x 250 x12
= Rs.12,000
Annual reduction in electricity costs = Rs.76,800 + Rs.12,000
= Rs.88,800/annum
(iv) Incremental investment for one CFL for 4000 hrs of operation = 100 – (10 x 4)
= Rs.60
Incremental investment for 100 CFLs for 4000 hrs of operation = Rs.60 x 100
= Rs.6000
Simple payback = 6000/88,800
= 0.067 years or 0.8 month
_________________________ 10
= less than a month
L-4 A reheating furnace heats steel billets (cp = 0.12 kcal/ kgoC) from 50oC to 1200oC
at a system efficiency of 25%.
(i) Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.
(ii) Calculate litres of furnace oil (with a calorific value of 10,000 kcal/ kg and a density
of 0.95 kg/litre) fired per 1 ton of steel billet.
(iii) Assume the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 25% to 30%. Calculate the
hourly furnace oil cost savings if 1 litre costs Rs. 16.
(iv) What is the simple payback period if investment is Rs. 2 Crore?
(v) How large could the investment be to improve the efficiency at an internal rate of
return of 16% and 4,800 operating hours per year over 5 years.
(i) Amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.
= m x cp x dT
= 10,000 kgs x 0.12 x (1200 –50)
= 13,80,000 kcals/hr
(ii) Litres of furnace oil fired per 1 ton of steel billet
Energy required per ton of billet = [(13,80,000/10)]
= 1,38,000 kcal
Input energy per ton of billet = 1,38,000/0.25
= 552000 Kcal
Kg of furnace oil required = 552000/10,000
= 55.2 kg
Furnace oil required in litres = 55.2/0.95
= 58.1 litres
(iii) Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton = 58.1x [(1 – (0.25/0.3)] x Rs.16
= Rs.155.2
Hourly furnace oil cost savingsfor 10 tons = Rs. 155.2 x 10
=Rs.1552
(iv) Simple payback period @4800 hrs of operation = 200,00,000/1552 x 4800
_________________________ 11
= 2.68 years or 32 months
(v) Net cash inflow per annum = 1552 x 4800

= Rs.74,49,600
Investment =
74,49,600 x
= Rs. 2.43 crores
L-5 Briefly describe the various financial analysis techniques for investments in energy
efficiency projects and their suitability of application.
Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation; the time

(number of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost),
considering only the Net Annual Saving:
The simple payback period is usually calculated as follows:
First Cost
Simple payback period (SPP) = ---------------------------------
Yearly Benefits – Yearly Costs
(Or) Investment /annual savings
• Simple concept: shorter payback indicate more attractive investment

• Favors project which generate substantial revenues in earlier years
• Fails to consider time value of money
• Ignores cash flow beyond payback period
Return on Investment (ROI) expresses the annual return from project as % of

capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital
investment, expressed as a percentage
Annual Net Cash Flow

ROI = --------------------------------- x 100
Capital Cost
• It does not take into account the time value of money
• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flow inflows
_________________________ 12
The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present values
of all the cash flows associated with it. Symbolically

 = Discount rate
• Represents benefit over and above the compensation for time and risk
• Decision associated with NPV criterion is:
o Accept the project if NPV is positive
o Reject the project if NPV is negative
• It takes into account time value of money

• It considers the cash flow stream in its project life
The internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net present
value (NPV) equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:
• Calculates rate of return that an investment is expected to yield

• IRR expresses each alternative in terms of interest (compound interest rate)
• The expected rate of return is the interest rate for which total discounted benefits
become = zero
• Criteria for selection among alternatives is to choose investment with the highest
rate of return
• It takes into account the time value of money
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety
_________________________ 13
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR


1. Enthalpy in a boiler heat balance refers to
a) – 273o Kelvin b) a reference level

c) absolute zero point d) none of the above
2. The largest loss in the heat balance of a coal fired boiler is
a) moisture in the air b) dry flue gas loss

c) loss due to Hydrogen in the fuel d) radiation losses
3. One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% Hydrogen by weight. How much
water is evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?
a) 0.65 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.2 kg d) none of the above

4. The energy unit under the SI system is
a) Joule b) Calorie c) Watt d) BTU

5. Which of the following is not measured for the energy balance of a coal based power
plant?
a) steam flow b) bottom ash

c) solid particles in stack gas d) combustion air
_________________________ 1
6. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not include
a) action plan to reduce energy conservation

b) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) implementation of all the recommendations
7. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts
with…
a) seminar b) training c) energy audit d) none of the above

8. A public expression of organization’s commitment to energy conservation is called
a) quality policy b) company policy

c) energy policy d) management philosophy
9. Which comparison is not an energy benchmarking exercise?
a) best practices b) past performance

c) industry average d) least cost
10. Which one is a negative force to reduce electricity consumption in a textile firm
a) insufficient funds to finance b) top management commitment

c) energy efficient technology available d) high price of electricity
11. In the “energy versus production chart” coordinate system, the trend is
a) always a straight line b) always a straight line going through zero point
c) sometimes a curve d) never a straight line
12. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 2.3 lakh kWh for the period. The
average production is 20,000 tons with a specific electricity consumption of 10
kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 200,000 kWh b) 23,000 kWh c) 30,000 kWh d) none of the above

13. A firm pays Rs. 16 for 10,500 kcal of fuel oil. How much does the firm pay for 1 kWh
of fuel oil?
a) Rs. 1.31 b) Rs. 1.18 c) Rs. 0.76 d) question does not make sense
14. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) odometer b) tachometer c) stroboscope d) oscilloscope

months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 8. The energy savings at end of the fourth
month would be
a) -8 b) 0 c) 24 d) 32
16. Which gas has the least impact on global warming?
a) Nitrous Oxide (NOx) b) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

c) Carbon Monoxide (CO) d) Methane (CH4)
_________________________ 2
17. The process by which Annex I countries could invest in GHG mitigation projects in
developing countries is called
a) green trading b) conference of parties

c) clean development mechanism d) certified emission reduction
18. Fuel oil contains 87% carbon by weight. How many kg of CO 2 does complete
combustion of 1 kg of oil generate?
a) 4.21 b) 2.61 c) 3.19 d) 3.67

19. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Methane is
a) 1 b) 18.7 c) 270 d) 21
20. Which country has not signed the Kyoto Protocol
a) Russia b) Australia c) India d) China

21. At the constant temperature, electrical resistance is given by
a) Voltage X Current b) Voltage/ Current

c) Current/ Voltage d) none of the above
22. The number of times current changes directions every minute in a 50 cycle single
phase alternating current (AC) is
a) 25 times b) 100 times c) 50 times d) none of the above

23. Acid rain is caused by
a) SOX emissions b) CO2 emissions c) soot in the air d) NO4 emissions

a) per capita consumption b) energy intensity

c) energy ratio d) none of the above
25. If the population of India is 1.05 Billion people and annual electricity consumption is
660 Million MWh, how much is the annual per capita consumption in kWh
a) 6,280 b) 63 c) 500 d) 629

26. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 requires designated consumers to
a) comply with energy consumption norms & standards

c) appoint/ designate certified energy manager
d) all of the above
27. Which one is normally not an energy conservation measure?
a) to increase air conditioned room temperature by 2oC

b) to reduce excess air of combustion
c) to replace 60 watt incandescent light bulb by a 12 watt CFL
d) to convert an oil fired boiler to wood fired
28. Which fossil fuel dominates the energy sector of India?
a) biomass b) coal c) gas d) oil
_________________________ 3
29. Renewable energy is obtained from sources that are
a) available for free b) essentially inexhaustible

c) exhaustible d) none of the above
30. Which process or technology is not considered a fuel extraction process?
a) enrichment b) mining
c) oil well d) gas well
31. Which source of project financing is not from an internal source?
a) loans from employees b) direct cash from company resources

c) new share capital d) payment by savings
32. To draw a CUSUM chart, the following data is required
a) monthly profits and production

b) monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) monthly energy consumption & monthly production
d) all of the above
33. Which one is not a time estimate in a PERT chart?
a) average time b) optimistic time c) most likely time d) pessimistic time

34. The critical path is the path through the PERT network for which
a) only ES = LS b) LF = LS and ES = EF
c) only EF = LF d) ES = LS and EF = LF
35. Which step is not necessarily part of project management?
a) performance monitoring b) project definition and scope

c) project promotion d) financing
36. An energy audit requires
a) quantum reduction in power consumption

b) quantification of energy use
c) qualification of energy use
d) converting all energy use to one single unit
37. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient
compressor in a plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 1.25 lakh. The
return on investment is

38. If NPV = 1000 and i = 5% then the future value after 10 years is
a) 645 b) 1,551 c) 614 d) 1,629

39. IRR stands for
a) investment return rate b) industrial rate of return

c) interest return rate d) internal rate of return
_________________________ 4
40. The return on investment, ROI, is defined as
b) annual income
a) Interest rate of capital
investment cost
annual net cash flow capital investment
c) d)
capital cost annual income
41. Active power in an alternating current (AC) circuit is given by
a) [(kVA + kVAr) x (kVA – kVAr)]1/2 b) (kVA2 – kVAr2)1/2

c) kVA • power factor d) all of the above

c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kcal = 1 kWh
43. Melting ice releases
a) super heat b) sensible heat c) heat of vaporization d) latent heat

44. The Second Law of Thermodynamics implies
a) energy can be destroyed

b) energy conversion could be 100% efficient
c) energy conversion results in losses in form of heat
d) energy can be created
45. The unit for heat transfer is
a) Watt/sec b) Watt c) cal d) kcal

46. One thousand litres of fuel oil cost Rs. 16,000. How much does one kg of fuel oil cost
if density is 0.95?
a) Rs. 16.8 b) Rs. 15.2 c) Rs. 15.5 d) Rs. 17.2

a) kcal/ kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC

c) kW/ ton of refrigeration d) kWh/ kg yarn
48. Non-contact measurement can be carried out by
a) pitot tube b) turbine flow meter c) infrared thermometer d) orifice meter

49. A handheld modern combustion analyzer does not measure
a) temperature b) CO2 c) CO, NOx, SOx and O2 d) O2

50. The law of conservation of mass implies
a) mass can be stored b) mass can be lost

c) mass can be created d) none of the above
-------- End of Section - I ---------
_________________________ 5

S-1 A thermal power plant uses 0.75 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity.
If the coal contains 54% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions.
C + O2 -------------------→ CO2
12 32 44

S-2 Explain briefly the features and use of a Sankey diagram.
The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output
energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boiler, fired heaters,
furnaces etc.
This diagram represents various outputs and losses, which will help to focus
on improvements in a prioritized manner
S-3 How does a traditional contract differ from guaranteed savings performance
contract and shared savings performance contract?
Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a contractor who

procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price.
Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of savings is guaranteed

by the contractor, and all or part of the costs of equipment and/or services is
paid down out of savings as they are achieved.
Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides the financing

and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This
payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
S-4 State the equation how to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of an
investment and identify the parameters in the equation.
_________________________ 6

 = Discount rate
S-5 Explain the process of global warming and its impact.
• Solar radiation from the sun strikes the earth and earth absorbs the heat.
• The absorbed heat is emitted in the form of longwave radiation back to the
atmosphere.
• Some of this radiation is absorbed and remitted by green house gas

molecules.
• The direct effect is the warming of the earth’s surface and the troposphere.
Impacts of global warming
Rise in global temperature Temperatures
Rise in sea level due to melting of polar ice caps causing floods in low lying
areas.
Loss of biodiversity
S-6 The quantity of heat supplied to a piece of steel to increase its temperature
depends on which factors and properties of steel?
Q = m x cp x dt
Mass , specific heat and temperature difference (initial temperature and final
temperature)
S-7 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to the industrial
consumers by a electric supply company.
_________________________ 7

• Energy charges
• Fuel cost adjustment charges
• Meter rentals
• Time of the day tariffs
• Surcharge if metering is at LT side in some of the utilities
S-8 In a steam heat exchanger, furnace oil at 50 kg/ hr. enters at 40oC and leaves
at 95oC. Specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgoC. If the latent heat of
steam is 540 kcal/ kg, find out the amount of steam required to heat the oil.
Heat required for heating the oil = 50 x 0.22 x (95oC - 40 oC)
= 605 Kcal/hr
Steam required = 605 / 540
= 1.12 kg/hr
S-9 CO2 found in the stack gas of a cement kiln comes from two sources. Explain
in words from which two sources and state the two equations of CO2
generation.
Sources of CO2
From process due to calcination of limestone
CaCo3 -------------------→ CaO + CO2
From combustion of fuel
C + O2 -------------------→ CO2
S-10 What is an energy audit and how it is classified?
Energy Audit is the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy

including submission of technical report containing recommendations for
improving energy efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to
reduce energy consumption
_________________________ 8
Energy audit can be classified into
• Preliminary energy audit

• Detailed energy audit
-------- End of Section – II ---------
_________________________ 9

L-1 Briefly describe the various financial analysis techniques for investments in
energy efficiency projects and their suitability of application.
Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation; the time

(number of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost),
considering only the Net Annual Saving:
First Cost
Simple payback period (SPP) = ---------------------------------
Yearly Benefits – Yearly Costs
(Or) Investment /annual savings
• Simple concept: shorter payback indicate more attractive investment

• Favors project which generate substantial revenues in earlier years
• Fails to consider time value of money
• Ignores cash flow beyond payback period
Return on Investment (ROI) expresses the annual return from project as % of

capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital
investment, expressed as a percentage
Annual Net Cash Flow

ROI = --------------------------------- x 100
Capital Cost
• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flow
inflows
The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present
values of all the cash flows associated with it. Symbolically
_________________________ 10

 = Discount rate
• Represents benefit over and above the compensation for time and risk
• Decision associated with NPV criterion is:
o Accept the project if NPV is positive
o Reject the project if NPV is negative
• It takes into account time value of money

• It considers the cash flow stream in its project life
The internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net
present value (NPV) equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:
• Calculates rate of return that an investment is expected to yield

• IRR expresses each alternative in terms of interest (compound interest rate)
• The expected rate of return is the interest rate for which total discounted
benefits become = zero
• Criteria for selection among alternatives is to choose investment with the
highest rate of return
L-2 A reheating furnace heats steel billets (cp = 0.12 kcal/ kgoC) from 60oC to
1200oC at a system efficiency of 25%.
(i) Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per
hour.
(ii) Calculate litres of furnace oil (with a calorific value of 10,000 kcal/ kg and a
density of 0.95 kg/litre) fired per 1 ton of steel billet.
(iii) Assume the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 25% to 30%. Calculate
the hourly furnace oil cost savings if 1 litre costs Rs. 16.
(iv) What is the simple payback period if investment is Rs. 2 Crore?
(v) How large could the investment be to improve the efficiency at an internal rate
of return of 20% and 4,800 operating hours per year over 5 years.
(i) Amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.
= m x cp x dT
_________________________ 11
= 10,000 kgs x 0.12 x (1200 –60)

= 13,68,000 kcals/hr
(ii) Litres of furnace oil fired per 1 ton of steel billet
Energy required per ton of billet = [(13,68,000/10)]
= 1,36,800 kcal
Input energy per ton of billet = 1,36,800/0.25
= 547200 Kcal
Kg of furnace oil required = 547200/10,000
= 54.72 kg
Furnace oil required in litres = 54.72/0.95
= 57.6 litres
(iii) Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton = 57.6 x [(1 – (0.25/0.3)] x Rs.16
= Rs.153.6
Hourly furnace oil cost savings for 10 tons = Rs. 153.6x 10
=Rs.1536
(iv) Simple payback period @4800 hrs of operation = 200,00,000/1536 x 4800

(v) Net cash inflow per annum = 1536 x 4800

= Rs.73,72,800
Investment =
73,72,800 x [1/(1.2) + 1/1.22 + 1/1.23 + 1/1.24 + 1/1.25]
= Rs. 2.2 crores
L-3 80 numbers of fused 60 Watt incandescent light bulbs (ILB) are replaced by
same numbers of 12 Watt CFL instead of new ILB. Calculate the following for
4000 hours of operation per year.
_________________________ 12
(i) The annual “kWh saved”

(ii) The “annual kVAh saved” if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
(iii) The annual reduction in electricity costs if Rs. 4 per kWh is the energy charge
and Rs. 250 per kVA per month is the demand charge.
(iv) The simple payback period if the ILB costs Rs. 10 and the CFL costs Rs 100
(assume life of ILB and CFL as 1000 hours and 4000 hours respectively)
(i) The annual kWh saved = 80 x (60 - 12) x 4000/1000

= 15,360 kWh/annum
(ii) The annual kVAh saved if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
= 80 x (60 - 12/0.6) x 4000/1000

= 12,800 kVAh
(iii) Annual reduction in energy costs = 15,360 x Rs.4

= Rs. 61,440
Reduction in demand = 80 x (60 - 12/0.6)/1000

= 3.2 kVA
Reduction in demand charges = 3.2 x 250 x12
= Rs.9600
Annual reduction in electricity costs = Rs.61,440 + Rs.9600
= Rs.71,040/annum
(iv) Incremental investment for one CFL for 4000 hrs of operation = 100 – (10 x 4)
= Rs.60
Incremental investment for 80 CFLs for 4000 hrs of operation = Rs.60 x 80
= Rs.4800
Simple payback = 4800/71,040
= 0.068 years or 0.8 month
= less than a month
_________________________ 13
L-4 Assume that the annual per capita electricity consumption of India is 615 kWh
and the population is 1.078 Billion people.
(i) If the installed power capacity is 118,419 MW, calculate the average plant load
factor of the power mix at 606 kWh per capita consumption.
(ii) Calculate annual per capita consumption 30 years later if electricity
consumption in India goes up by 6% each year, and population growth is 1.0%
annually.
(iii) How many years will it take to reach the per capita consumption of the USA at
13,500 kWh under a business as usual scenario as in (ii)?
(i) 118,419 x 1000 kW x 24 hrs x 365 days x PLF = 606 x 1.078 x 109
PLF = 0.629 = 63 %
(ii) 615 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.01)]30
2620.7 kwh per capita
(0r) long route Final answer may vary between 2610 and 2630 depending
on calculation
(iii) 615 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.01)]n = 13,500

615 (1.0495)n = 13,500
(1.0495)n = 21.95
n log (1.0495) = log 21.95
n = 64 years
L-5 What do you understand by energy security? Mention a few strategies to

ensure energy security.
The basic aim of energy security for a nation is to reduce its dependence on
the imported energy sources for its economic growth.
Some of the strategies for energy security are:

Building stock piles
Diversification of energy supply sources
Increased capacity of fuel switching
Demand restraint,
Development of renewable energy sources.
Energy efficiency
_________________________ 14
Sustainable development
_________________________ 15
Paper 1
Model Question Paper-2006

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION
FOR
Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

1. The fuel type, which is fastest growing among world energy consumption
a) Coal b) Oil
c) Natural Gas d) Nuclear Energy
2. The percentage of primary energy consumption of India in the total world energy
consumption is
a) 3.5 % b) 7 % c) 10.5 % d) 1 %
3. What is the current Reserves/Production ratio of coal in India
a) 180 b)200 c) 230 d) 290

4. The % of crude oil import bill of India in the year 2020 will be .
a) 72. b) 77 c) 82 d) 92.
5. Which one of the following is not considered as a pollutant
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) CO dVOCs
6. The major contribution of CO pollutant In the urban area is due to
a) 90 % of industrial pollution b) 90 % of road transport
c) 90 % residential and commercial d) all of the above
7. CAGR means
a) Compound annual growth rate
b) Compound average growth rate
c) Compound annual growth ratio
d) Compound average growth ratio
8. What is the heat content of the 200 liters of water at 50oC in terms of the basic unit
of energy in K.Joules
a) 3000 b) 2388 c) 1000 d) 4187
9. What is the heat required to melt 2 kg of ice from Zero degree to liquid water at zero
degree in KJ ?
a)672 b) 6000 c) 6048 d) 8374
a) Jules/Second b) K.Cal/hr c) BTU/hr d)all of the above
11. Which of the following is most accurate instrument for surface temperature
measurement of the hot pipe line
a) Thermocouples c) Infrared Thermometer
b) Leaf type contact thermometer d) All of the above
1
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12. Which one of the following is not considered for external benchmarking :
a) Scale of Operation b) Vintage of Technology

c) Energy Price d) Quality of Raw Material and Products
13 In inductive and resistive circuit, the effective power factor will be
a) less than 1 b) more than 1 c) zero d) one
14. Which of the following factor to be taken into account while procurement of fuel ?
a) Gross Calorific Value b) Moisture content
c)Cost at Site d) All of the above
15. A single phase 2.5 hp AC motor has the name plate details as 230v,10 amps and PF
0.8. the operating details are 220Volt, 8 amps and 0.7 PF what is the % loading of
motor
a) 67% b) 77 c) 80 d) 60
16. Which are the following is not correct as per Law of Conservation of Mass ?
a) Mass in = Mass out + Mass Stored

b) Raw material in = Product + Waste + Stored Material
c)Raw material in = Product + Waste + Stored material + Internal Recycling
d) All are the above
17 Which of the following formula is useful to determine the heat duty in
conducting heat balance?
a) Q = M.Cp.Δ T b) Q = AV c) PV = n RT d) None of the above
18 Utilization of Solar drying instead of washing machine for clothe drying
purpose is called
a) Energy substitutions b)Energy efficiency measure
c) Fuel substitution d) None of the above
19 The velocity of cold air in the air-conditioning duct can be measured by
a) pitot tube b) anemometer c) both a & b d) none of the above
20 Which one of the following is not important to the successful energy management in
all organizations?
a) Top management support b) Good Monitoring system
c) Strategic Planning d) Procuring low cost energy
21. Which one of the following is not an important duty of a certified energy manager ?
a) Report to BEE and State level designated agencies
b) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
c) Establish an improved data recording and analysis
d) Create knowledge bank on sectoral and national development on energy
efficiency technology and information
22 Which of the following is not common normalizing factor in industrial facilities?
a) Input b) Output c) Product type d) Operating hours
23 Which of the following is a negative force in force field analysis?
a) High price of energy b) High energy share of component of production cost
c) Availability of energy efficient technology d) Competing corporate priorities
24 Which of the following equation can be used to calculate the future value from the
present value of cash.?
a) NPV = FV x (1 + i)n b) FV= NPV x (1 - i)n
c) NPV =FV/ (1 + i)n d)NON OF THE ABOVE.
2
Paper 1
25 What is the expected ROI from the project with Rs.5 lakhs investment and annual
saving of Rs.1.75 lakhs and annual operating cost of Rs.0.25 lakhs
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40
26 ESCO means
a) Energy saving companies b) Energy service companies
c) Energy supply companies d) Energy saving corporation
27 A 500 kg of wet cloth with 50% moisture at 25o is dried to 5% moisture in stenter
steam drying machine. What is the moisture content removed from the cloth ?
a) 237 b) 263 c) 275 d) 225
28 Which of the following is not considered in CPM method Network Diagram?
a) Duration of each activities b) Dependency of activities
c) Time variation d) None of the above
29 Which of the following condition is useful to determine the critical path in the PERT
Network ?
a) ES = LS and EF = LF b) ES = LF and EF = LS
c) ES= EF and LS = LF d) None of the above
30 Which is not a fast track CDM Projects among the following ?
a) Biomass Power Plant up to 15 MW
b) Photovoltaic Power Plant up to 15 MW
c) Plantation Project upto 15 kiloTon of CO2 equivalent reduction annually
d) Energy efficiency improvement projects up to 15 MW Power Reduction annually
31 Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between
32 In a heat treatment furnace 500 kg/hr. iron material is heated from 27.5oC to 850oC.
Specific heat of the material is 1.8 K.cal/ kg. oC What is the heat duty in KW?
a) 500 b) 900 c) 860 d) None of the above

33 In a chemical process reactant A and B are mixed in the ratio of 100 kg:200 kg. The
yield will be resulted in the ratio of 50 : 50 . What is the amount of yield in kg?
a) 100 b)150 c) 200 d) 300
34 Which of the following is a macro factor for sensitivity analysis?
a) change in capital structure b) change in project duration
c) changes of the firms of finance d) change in tax rates
35 Sensitivity analysis is carried out for which purpose of the following assessment?
a) Profit b) Losses
c) risk d) all of the above
36 A factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the net present value for
the expected future cash flow is:
a) Discount rate b) Internal rate of return
c) Capital Cost d) All of the above
37 The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 40 lakhs and accounts for 25% of
the total energy bill. The annual energy bill for the company
a) ) Rs. 40 lakhs b) Rs. 80 lakhs c) Rs. 160 lakhs d) none of the above
38 Critical path in a PERT network diagram
a) is the shortest path in a network
b) where all activities of long duration fall
c) path that has no slack for all activity in that path
d) none of the above.
3
Paper 1
39 Matching energy use to requirement means providing

a) just providing theoretical energy needed b) just the designers’ needs
c) energy with minimum losses d) all of the above
40 The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) Zero b) positive c) Negative d) None of the above
41 The fixed energy consumption plant is 5000 Kwh. The specific energy
consumption of the product is 1200 Kwh/Ton . What is the total energy
consumption for the production of 100 Tons / day?
a) 120,000 b) 125,000 c) 6,200 d) 50,000
42 The last step in a project development cycle is
a) Identify components of the project b) Implement the project
c) arrange finance d) Close out the project
43 For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which
of these analysis would be the best option
a) SPP b) ROI c) NPV d) none of the above
44 Data required to plot a moving annual total chart
a) Month wise production b) Month wise energy consumption
c) Both a & b d) Annual production & annual energy consumption
45 What is the “toe” of 125 Ton of coal which has GCV of 4000 K.cal / kg
a) 40 b) 50 c) 400 d) 500
46 How many molecules are destroyed by a single CFC molecules before it

depletes.
a) 101 b) 103 c) 105 d) 107
47 ODS means
a) Ozone depleting substances b) Ozone diluting substances
c) Ozone disturbed space d) None of the above
48 GWP of Nitrous Oxide component CO2

a) 21 b) 210 c) 27 d) 270
49 India comes under which of the following category as per Kyoto protocol
a) Annex I Parties b) Annex 2 Parties
c) Annex 1 & 2 Parties d) Non Annex Parties
50 What is the size of the market for emission reduction in the world is
a) one million ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2008-2012
b) one billion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2008-2012
c) one billion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2005-2010
d) one trillion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2005-2010
4
Paper 1

S-1 (i) List down the role of state and central govt in implementation of Energy
conservation act 2001?
(ii) What is energy conservation building s code?
i) The role of Central and State Government is envisaged in the Act:

• Central - to notify rules and regulations under various provisions of the Act, provide
initial financial assistance to BEE and EC fund, Coordinate with various State
Governments for notification, enforcement, penalties and adjudication.
• State - to amend energy conservation building codes to suit the regional and local
climatic condition, to designate state level agency to coordinate, regulate and enforce
provisions of the Act and constitute a State Energy Conservation Fund for promotion
of energy efficiency.
ii) The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes are:
The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building Codes (ECBC).
These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other compelling
factors by the respective states for commercial buildings erected after the rules
relating to energy conservation building codes have been notified.
Buildings should have a connected load of 500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA
and above and are intended to be used for commercial purposes;
S-2 What are the different phases of detailed energy audit and list down the aims of
the preliminary site visit?
i) Detailed energy auditing is carried out in three phases such as

Phase I - Pre Audit Phase
Phase II - Audit Phase
Phase III - Post Audit Phase
ii) The main aims of this visit are: -

• To finalize Energy Audit team
• To identify the main energy consuming areas to be surveyed during the audit.
• To identify any existing instrumentation/ additional instrumentation required for
carrying out the audit.
• To plan with time frame
• To collect macro data on plant energy resources, major energy consuming centers
• To create awareness through meetings/ programme
.
5
Paper 1
S-3 An insulated Electric heater of 6 KW was replaced with low pressure steam
heater for furnace oil heating in Thermic fluid heating system .The avg
electricity consumption per day is 120 kwh. Find out the quantity of steam
consumption if steam at temperature 121oc with enthalpy of 642 kcal/kg and
per day. Electricity cost is 4Rs/unitPlant steam cost is Rs 0.50/kg. What is cost
reduction per day?
Steam consumption per day= 120x860/(642-121) =166.18 kg/day

Cost reduction per day = (120x4 – 166.18x0.5) =397 Rs/day
S-4 What is an objective of the energy policy in an organization? List down the
typical format of energy policy
•
Energy Policy provides top management's support and articulates the
organization's commitment to energy efficiency for employees, shareholders,
and other stakeholders.
• A public expression of the organization's commitment to energy conservation
and environmental protection
• A working document to guide the energy management practices and provides
continuity.
Typical Format of an Energy Policy
• Declaration of top management's commitment to, and senior and middle
management's involvement in, energy management.
• Statement of policy.
• Statement of objectives, separated into short and long-term goals.
S-5 Explain Quantitative Reviews and Qualitative Reviews while analyzing after
conducting energy audit?
There are a variety of ways by which data can be analyzed depending upon the needs
of the organization. The following analyses provide a guideline:
a) Quantitative Reviews
• Develop use profiles -Identify energy consumption peaks and valleys, and
determine how they relate to operations or key events.
• Compare performance -Compare the use and performance data of similar
facilities in your industry.
• Assess the financial impacts -Identify areas of high-cost energy use.
• Identify data gaps -Determine areas where more information is needed.
b) Qualitative Reviews
• Conduct interviews -Seek informed opinions from colleagues, lessons learned,
systems-specific information (e.g., HVAC, lighting, refrigeration), and in-house
audits or surveys.
• Review policies and procedures -Review organizational policies and operating
procedures to determine their impact on energy use.
6
Paper 1
S-6 Define the IRR of a project and indicate its limitation and advantages.
Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.
(i) The internal rate of return is the discount rate, d at which the Net Present
Value, NPV, becomes zero.
(ii) NPV = _ C0 + C1 + …. Cn = 0
(1+d)0 (1+d)1 1 + d)n
with Ci = Cash flow occurring in the year i,
n = life of project in years;
d = discount rate as a fraction and not in %
Limitations
• The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between lending and
borrowing and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be a
desirable feature.
Advantages
• It takes into account the time value of money.
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety.
S-7 Cold Air at 25oC is supplied through a square duct to a air-conditioning

building . The velocity and quantity of cold air flow are 2 m/s and 250 m3/ hr.
respectively. Find out the size of the square duct in mm.
Flow of cold air, Q = Area of a square duct x Velocity of air

250 / 3,600 m3/sec. = Area x 2 m/sec
Area = 0.186 mtr.
Size of the square duct = 186 mm. X 186 mm.
S-8 What are the 3 time estimate used for constructing PERT Network? One of the
activity has 3 time estimate of 4 weeks, 5 weeks and 6 weeks in a PERT
Network diagram. Find out the expected time to complete the activity and it’s
variance of the activity
i) Three time estimates are:
a) Optimistic time
b) Most likely time
c) Pessimistic time
o Expected time = (OT + 4 X MT + PT)/ 6

o ( 4 + 4 x 5 + 6) / 6 = 5
o
o Variance = { (PT – OT / 6 ) }2 =1/9
7
Paper 1
S-9 What are the Global warming implications and how India could affect by this
climatic change?
Global Warming (Climate Change) Implications

Rise in global temperature
There is strong evidence now that most of the observed warming over the last 50 years
is caused by human activities. Climate models predict that the global temperature will
rise by about 6 °C by the year 2100.
Rise in sea level
The mean sea level is expected to rise 9 - 88 cm by the year 2100, causing flooding of
low lying areas and other damages.
Water resources will be affected as precipitation and evaporation patterns change
around the world. This will affect agricultural output. Food security is likely to be
threatened and some regions are likely to experience food shortages and hunger.
India could be more at risks than many other countries

• Models predict an average increase in temperature in India of 2.3 to 4.8°C for the
benchmark doubling of Carbon-dioxide scenario.
• It is estimated that 7 million people would be displaced, 5700 km2 of land and
4200 km of road would be lost, and wheat yields could decrease significantly.
S-10 (i) What is the sensitivity analysis? List down 4 micro factors that are
considered in the above analysis.
i) Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of risk. Because of the uncertainty in assigning

values to the analysis, it is recommended that a sensitivity analysis be carried out -
particularly on projects where the feasibility is marginal. How sensitive is the project's
feasibility to changes in the input parameters? What if one or more of the factors in the
analysis is not as favourable as predicted? How much would it have to vary before the
project becomes unviable? What is the probability of this happening?
Suppose, for example, that a feasible project is based on an energy cost saving that
escalates at 10% per year, but a sensitivity analysis shows the break-even is at 9% (i.e.
the project becomes unviable if the inflation of energy cost falls below 9%). There is a
high degree of risk associated with this project - much greater than if the break-even
value was at 2%. Switching values showing the change in a variable required for the
project decision to change from acceptance to rejection are presented for key variables
and can be compared with post evaluation results for similar projects.
ii) Micro factors

-------- End of Section - II ---------
8
Paper 1
(i) Answer all Five questions (ii) Each question carries Ten marks
L-1 Find out the mass fraction and mole fraction of Carbon dioxide in the
Carbonated soft drink preparation. If 2 volume of CO2 is mixed with 1 volume
of water at 0o and atmospheric pressure gas content = 0.08206.
Basis 1 m3 of water = 1000kg

Volume of CO2 added = 2 m3
From Gas equation PV = nRT
PV = nRT
1 x 2 = n x0.08206 x273
n = 0.0893 mole
Molecular wt of CO2 44
Wt of CO2 added 0.0893 x 44 = 3.9292 kg.
Mass fraction of CO2 3.9292
= 3.91 x 10 – 3
(1000 + 3.9292)
mole fraction of CO2 = 0.0893

= 1.604x10 – 3
1000 /18 + 0.0893
L-2 What are the elements of monitoring and targeting system ? Explain how to
draw moving annual total method. What is the inference of this method?
i) The essential elements of M&T system are:
• Recording ,• Analysing , • Comparing • Setting Targets ,• Monitoring
• Reporting ,• Controlling
ii) Having more than twelve months of production and energy data, we can plot a
moving annual total. For this chart, each point represents the sum of the previous
twelve months of data. In this way, each point covers a full range of the seasons,
holidays, etc. The Figure shows a moving annual total for energy and production data.
This technique also smoothens out errors in the timing of meter readings. If we just
plot energy we are only seeing part of the story - so we plot both energy and
production on the same chart - most likely using two y-axes. Looking at these charts,
both energy and productions seem to be "tracking" each other - this suggests there is no
major cause for concern. But we will need to watch for a deviation of the energy line to
pick up early warning of waste or to confirm whether energy efficiency measures are
making an impact.
9
Paper 1
L-3 A company has invested Rs.20 lakhs for installing WHR Boiler to recover
waste heat from the flue gas in DG Set. Find out the IRR if the annual net
savings cash flow accrued for 6 years as given below: The company got a
bank loan for the investment at 8% interest rate. Whether the company can
recover the investment and repay the bank loan.
Year Annual Net

Saving, Rs.
lakhs
1 6
2 6
3 7
4 7
5 8
6 8
(i)
NPV at = - 20. 6 6 7 7 8 8
(1.24)o +(1.24)1 +(1.24)2 +(1.24)3 (1.2) 4 +(1.24)5 +(1.24)6
24%
= (+) 0.299
NPV = - 20. 6 6 7 7 8 8
(1.26)o + (1.26)1 +(1.26)2 +(1.26)3 (1.26) 4 +(1.26)5 + (1.26)6
26%
= -20 + 19.334
= - (-) 0.666
NPV at 24% (+) 0.299 Positive
NPV at 26 % (-) 0.666 Negative
By weighted avg. method
= 0. 24 + (.26 -. 24) . 299
0.299 - (-666)
= 0.24 + 0.02 x .299 = 0.2461

.965
IRR = 24.61%
(ii) The company got the loan @ 8% and IRR is 24.61% which is more than
capital cost. Therefore this project is most feasible
10
Paper 1
L-4 Construct a PERT Diagram for the following projects and find out the critical
path. If an activity duration of G is reduced by 2 days, what is the new critical
path and completion of time.?
Activity Duration Precedent

in Days
A 2 Start
B 3 A
C 5 A
D 4 B
E 6 B
F 5 C
G 7 D
H 3 E
I 1 F, G, H
i) What is the critical path?

ii) What is the total duration required to complete the project?
iii) What is the available slack period in days for activity C & E?
iv) If duration of activity G is reduced by 2 days by crashing, what is the
new critical path and it’s duration of the project completion?
PERT Diagram
C/5 F/5
A B D G I
2 3 4 7 1
H
E 3
6
Answer
1. Critical path is = A - B - D - G - I
2. Total completion of the project = 17 days
3. Slack time available for C = 5 days
4. Slack time available for E = 4 days
5. If the duration of activity of G is
reduced by 2 days, then also the critical path is A - B- D - G - I
11
Paper 1
L-5 How CDM works and what are the CDM initiatives in India
An investor from a developed country, can invest in, or provide finance for a project in
a developing country that reduces greenhouse gas emissions so that they are lower
than they would have been without the extra investment. The investor then gets
carbon credits - for the reductions and can use those credits to meet their Kyoto
target.
For example, a French company needs to reduce its emissions as part of its
contribution to meeting France's emission reduction target under the Kyoto Protocol.
Instead of reducing emissions from its own activities in France, the company provides
funding for the construction of a new biomass plant in India that would not have been
able to go ahead without this investment. This, they argue, prevents the construction
of new fossil-fueled plants in India, or displaces consumption of electricity from
existing ones, leading to a reduction in greenhouse gas emissions in India. The
French investor gets credit for those reductions and can use them to help meet their
reduction target in France.
Projects starting in the year 2000 are eligible to earn Certified Emission Reductions
(CERs) if they lead to "real, measurable, and long-term" GHG reductions, which are
additional to any that would occur in the absence of the CDM project. This includes
afforestation and reforestation projects, which lead to the sequestration of carbon
dioxide.
Indian Initiatives on CDM

Government of India has been willing to fulfill its responsibility under the CDM. It has
undertaken various capacity building activities like holding of workshops, initiation of
various studies, and briefing meeting with the stakeholders. India has been actively
participating in the CDM regime and has already approved projects for further
development. Under CDM, projects such as energy efficient hydrocarbon refrigerators,
modernization of small scale foundry units and renovation, modernization of thermal
power stations etc. are being taken up.
12
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 2006

FOR
PAPER-I: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT
Duration: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 150
Section-I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 1×50 = 50

i) Each question carries one mark
Put a (√ ) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book
1 Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?–

a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
2 Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
3 India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
4 Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the electricity
sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
5 Projected temperature increase by the year 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
6 Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates


8 The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) increases with decreasing temperature
9 Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.
a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
10 The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is
termed as -----
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
11 In an utility steam boiler, heat loss due to radiation normally is in the range of
a) 10% b) 14% c) 1% d) 8%
12 In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1000 kg. The ash content in the coal is
3%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 50 kg b) 300 kg c) 33 kg d) 720 kg
13 Which of the following is a speed measuring device
a) Fyrite b) Stroboscope c) Periscope d) Power analyser
14 Energy supplied by electricity, Q in kCal is equal to _____ .
a) kWh x 8.6 b) kWh x 86 c) kWh x 860 d) none
15 In material and energy balance, which of the following may not be considered
a) raw materials b) rejects c) production d) cost

16 An energy policy is preferably signed by the
a) top management b) energy Manager
c) energy auditor d) Electrical manager
17 Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager as per
a) Energy Conservation Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2004
c) Energy Conservation Act 2002 d) Energy Conservation Act 2001
18 In energy action planning, Monitoring and targeting is only a part of the comprehensive
information systems. State True or False?
19 Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action on
recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
a) BEE and state level agency once a year
b) BEE and state level agency twice year
c) BEE only
d) State level designated agency only
20 Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced energy
consumption?
a) tax on energy consumption
b) competing corporate priorities
c) Insufficient financial resources to fund
d) Absence of corporate energy policy
21 For all the expenditures in the plant, the value of cash flow at the end of the year will be
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Nil d) None of the above
22 The internal rate of return cannot distinguish between ____________
a) Lending b) Borrowing c) Both a & b d) None
23 The present value of a Rs. 1000 cost in year “0” projected to 10 years at an escalation rate of
5% and a 10% interest rate is:
a) Rs. 4225 b) Rs. 628 c) Rs. 1 d) Rs. 2.33
24 What is ESCO?
a) Energy saving company b) Energy sourcing company
c) Energy service company d) Energy section of company
25 The key to the successful involvement of an ESCO in performance contracting is:
a) Monitoring b) Verification c) Both a & b d) None
26 Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
27 The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
28 Performance is done after implementation. State True or false
29 In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness activity
completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review Technique
(PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False
30 Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
31 The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..
a) Text format b) Graphical representation
c) Oral communication d) None
32 What is CUSUM?
a) Cumbersome b) Cumulative Sum c) Calculated Sum d) None
33 To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required
a) Monthly energy consumption& monthly production
b) Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) Monthly profits and production
d) None
34 Energy and production data is useful to calculate……
a) Specific Energy Consumption b) Specific Fuel consumption
c) Specific Cost d) None
35 What do you mean by “toe”
a) Total oil equivalent b) Tons of effluent
c) Tons of oil equivalent d) none of the above
36 The predicted raise in mean sea level due to global warming by the year 2100 ____
a) 1 m b) 1 cm c) 2 m d) 9 -88 cm
37 What is COP?
a) Conference of Parties b) Coefficient of Pollution
c) Coalition of Parties d) Convention of People
38 Which country emits maximum CO2?
a) Australia b) Iceland c) Norway d) USA
39 CDM stands for
a) Carbon Depletion Mechanism
b) Clean Development Mechanism
c) Clear Development Mechanism
d) Carbon Depletion Machinery
40 The first project GOI approved under prototype carbon fund is_____
a) SWERF b) NICE c) Asia-Urbs d) ICT
41 The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
42 The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time
43 Non contact flow measurements can be carried out by
a) Magnetic flow meter b) Orifice flow meter
c) Ultrasonic flow meter d) Pitot tube
45 The energy used by any manufacturing process varies with
a) production volume b) type of process
c) resource input d) All the above
46 The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
47 In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product.
a) 100 b) 120 c) 130 d) 114.3
48 In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
49 The predicted raise in mean sea level due to global warming by the year 2100 ____
a) 1 m b) 1 cm c) 2 m d) 9 -88 cm
50 The agency to look after the climate changes and for action to cut GHG ____
a) UNFCCC b) WHO c) DOE d) GOI
Section-II: SHORT QUESTIONS Marks: 5×10 = 50
ii) Answer any TEN of the following

iii) Each question carries FIVE marks
1 What is greenhouse gas effect?

The heating up of earth’s atmosphere due to trapping of long wavelength infrared rays by the
carbon dioxide layer in the atmosphere is called green house effect.
2 A three phase induction 75 kW motor operates at 55 kW. The measured voltage

is 415 V, current is 80 amps. Calculate the power factor of the motor?
Power consumption = 3 x V x I x Cos ǿ
(55 x 1000) = 3 x 415 x 80 x Cos ǿ
Power factor (Cos ǿ) = (55 x 1000)/( 3 x 415 x 80)

= 0.96
3 What are the few important technical feasibility parameters that one should
consider during analysis of energy conservation opportunities?
The technical feasibility should address the following issues:
• Technology availability, space, skilled manpower, reliability, service etc
• The impact of energy efficiency measure on safety, quality, production or
process.
• The maintenance requirements and spares availability
4 List any three energy loss components in chemical plant.

Energy loss components in chemical plants are:
1. Flue / exhaust gas losses (from boilers, reactors etc.)
2. Evaporation loss (from cooling tower, condenser)
3. Surface heat losses (boilers, process equipment etc.)
5 Describe briefly in three or four lines the actions which you take to bring
awareness on energy management program?
One of the most successful means of motivating employees is through “awareness”.
Inform them of
(1) the amount of energy they are using (2) the costs involved (3) the critical part that energy
plays in the continued viability of their job (4) the many ways they can save energy in their
operation (5) the relationship between production rate and energy consumption.
6 List down at least three effects of acid rain?
The effects of acid rains are as follows:
⬧ Acidification of lakes, streams and soils.
⬧ Direct and indirect affects (release of metals, for e.g. aluminium which
washes away plant nutrients
⬧ Killing of wild life.
⬧ Decay of building materials, paints, statues and sculptures.
⬧ Health problems (respiratory, burning skin and eyes)
7 Why short term payback is an inadequate yardstick for assessing longer

term benefits?
The benefits arising from some energy saving measures may continue long after
their payback periods. Such measures do not need to be written off using fast
discounting rates but can be regarded as adding to the long term value of the assets.
For this reason, short term payback is an inadequate yardstick for assessing longer
term benefits
8 What are the different types of contracts involved in project

management system.
➢ Traditional contract
➢ Extended technical guarantee/service
➢ Extended financing terms
➢ Guaranteed savings performance contract
➢ Shared savings performance contract
9 What do you understand by CUSUM?

CUSUM represents the difference between the base line (expected or “standard”
consumption) and the actual consumption data points over the base line period of
time. A CUSUM graph therefore follows a trend, which represents the random
fluctuations of energy consumption and should oscillate about zero. This trend will
continue until something happens to alter the pattern of consumption such as the
effect of an energy saving measure or, conversely, a worsening in energy efficiency
(poor control, housekeeping or maintenance).
10 Write about chemistry of ozone?

Ozone formed by combination of three oxygen atoms, is a very unstable molecule.
The combination is brought about by high intensity ultra violet rays of the sun in
the upper atmosphere.
Section-III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10×5 = 50
i) Answer any FIVE of the following

ii) Each question carries TEN marks
1 How energy pricing is done in India?

Coal: Grade wise basic price of coal at the pithead excluding statutory levies for
run-of-mine (ROM) coal are fixed by Coal India Ltd from time to time. The
pithead price of coal in India compares favourably with price of imported coal. In
spite of this, industries still import coal due to its higher calorific value and low
ash content.
Oil: As part of the energy sector reforms, the government has attempted to bring
prices for many of the petroleum products (naphtha, furnace oil, LSHS, LDO and
bitumen) in line with international prices. The most important achievement has
been the linking of diesel prices to international prices and a reduction in subsidy.
However, LPG and kerosene, consumed mainly by domestic sectors, continue to
be heavily subsidised. Subsidies and cross-subsidies have resulted in serious
distortions in prices, as they do not reflect economic costs at all in many cases.
Natural Gas: The government has been the sole authority for fixing the price of
natural gas in the country. It has also been taking decisions on the allocation of gas
to various competing consumers.
Electricity: Electricity tariffs in India are structured in a relatively simple manner.
While high tension consumers are charged based on both demand (kVA) and
energy (kWh), the low-tension (LT) consumer pays only for the energy consumed
(kWh) as per tariff system in most of the electricity boards. In addition to the base
tariffs, some of the State Electricity Boards have additional recovery from
customers in form of fuel surcharges, electricity duties and taxes.
2 Describe the merits of using steam in industries.
Steam has been a popular mode of conveying energy, since the industrial
revolution. The following characteristics of steam make it so popular and useful to
the industry:
• Highest specific heat and latent heat

• Highest heat transfer coefficient
• Easy to control and distribute
• Cheap and inert
Steam is used for generating power and also used in process industries, such as,
sugar, paper, fertilizer, refineries, petrochemicals, chemical, food, synthetic fiber
and textiles. In the process industries, the high pressure steam produced in the
boiler, is first expanded in a steam turbine for generating power. The extraction or
bleed from the turbine, which are generally at low pressure, are used for the
process. This method of producing power, by the steam generated for process in
the boiler, is called "cogeneration."
3 Discuss the procedure followed during energy and mass balance

calculation.
The energy and mass balance is a calculation procedure that basically checks if
directly or indirectly measured energy and mass flows are in agreement with the
energy and mass conservation principles
This balance is of the utmost importance and is an indispensable tool for a clear
understanding of the energy and mass situation achieved practice.
In order to use it correctly, the following procedure should be used:
• Clearly identify the problem to be studied.
• Define a boundary that encloses the entire system or sub-system to be
analysed. Entering and leaving mass and energy flows must be measured
at the boundary.
• The boundary must be chosen in such a way that:
a) All relevant flows must cross it, all non-relevant flows being
within the boundary.
b) Measurements at the boundary must be possible in an easy and
accurate manner.
• Select an appropriate test period depending on the type of process and
product.
• Carry out the measurements.
• Calculate the energy and mass flow.
• Verify an energy and mass balance. If the balances are outside acceptable
limits, then repeat the measurements.
• The energy release or use in endothermic and exothermic processes should
be taken into consideration in the energy balance.
4 An energy auditor recommended to replace an old air fan and
incompetently designed air delivery duct system causing Rs 23 lakh a
year in electricity cost by changing the system with a modern backward
curved fan with adequately designed duct system for total investment
costs of Rs 2.2 lakh. Expected electricity cost reduction is 5%.
Considering over 15 years sustained savings, calculate ‘IRR’
Life of the modified system : 15 years
Expected annual savings : 5%
: 0.05 x 2300000
Rs. 1,15,000 / year
Investment : Rs 2,20,000/-
(1 + i ) n xi
S= xI
(1 + i ) n − 1
S = annual energy savings
I = Investment
N = years
I = Internal rate of return
115000 (1 + i ) 15 xi
=
220000 (1 + i ) 15 − 1
By trial and error method, I = 52%

5 What are the several types of contracts used in project management
and explain in brief?
 Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a
contractor who procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-
up or fixed price.
 Extended Technical Guarantee/Service: The contract offers
extended guarantees on the performance of selected equipment,
and/or offers service/maintenance agreements.
 Extended Financing Terms: The contractor provides the option of
an extended lease or other financing vehicle in which the payment
schedule can be based on the expected savings.
 Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of
savings is guaranteed by the contractor, and all or part of the costs of
equipment and/or services is paid down out of savings as they are
achieved.
 Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides
the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they
are achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of
equipment and/or services.
Model Question Paper – 2006

FOR
PAPER-I: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT
Duration: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 150
Section-I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 1×50 = 50
i) Each question carries one mark

ii) Put a (√ ) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book
1 Which of the following is commercial energy source?

a) Electricity b) Nuclear Energy c) Hydel d) Solar
2 Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
3 World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
4 The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe
5 The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
6 The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
7 Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the
following relations.
a) 3 x V x I b) 3 x V2 x I x cos
c) 3 x V x I2 x Cos d) 3 x V x I x Cos
8 The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
9 kVA is also called as
a) reactive power b) apparent power
c) active power d) captive power
10 The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as
a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
11 “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management
c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit
12 The objective of energy management includes

a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above
13 Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to the requirement
b) maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution
d) Performance improvement
14 The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller
15 Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas?
a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer
c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite
16 The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the:

a) input-output b) conversion efficiency
c) losses d) all the above e) none of the above
17 In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as
a) input to process b) output to process c) both (a) and (b) d) none of them
18 Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___.
a) energy input b) energy output c) energy balance d) all the above
19 In a furnace, the lower the exhaust temperature ____ is the furnace efficiency.
a) lower b) moderate c) higher d) none of above
20 In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient temperature
of 30 ° C considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C. What is the energy
content in one kg of material after heating?
a) 150 kCal b) 250 kCal c) 350 kCal 4) 100 kCal
21 The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
a) Positive forces only b) negative forces only
c) Both negative and Positive forces d) no forces
22 In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
23 The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written declaration of
commitment. This is called
a) Company policy b) Management policy
c) Energy policy d) Energy efficiency policy
24 The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which motivates plant to
take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field analysis towards
achievement of goal. State True or False?
25 “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be developed as
part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good for the company’s
a) Safety b) Accountability c) Reliability d) Stability
26 Simple pay back period is equal to:
a) Ratio of First cost/net yearly savings b) Ratio of Annual gross cash flow/capital cost
n
CFt
c)  (1 + k )
t =0
t
d) All the above
27 Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV (1 + i)n
c) NPV + (1 – i)n b) NPV/ (1 + i)n
28 The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs 1.25 lakh. The return on investment is:
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%
29 The broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment is __
a) NPV b) IRR
c) ROI d) Discount factor
30 The factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the
expected future cash flow is ________________
a) Life of the project b) Discount rate
c) Capital cost d) All the above
31 Project financing is the first step of project management- State True or False
32 The term ‘energy services contract’ in a project comes under

a) Financing b) contracting c) monitoring d) evaluation
33 The contract in which project specifications are provided to a contractor who procures and
installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price is called
a) Extended Financing terms b) guaranteed saving performance contract
c) shared saving performance contract d) Traditional contract
34 CPM predicts the time required to complete the project— State True or False
35 The path through the project network in which none of the activities have slack is called
a) start time b) slack time c) critical path d) delay time
36 Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
37 The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
38 Performance is done after implementation. State True or false

39 In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness activity
completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review Technique
(PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False.
40 Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
41 Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”.
a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption”
b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate”

c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure”
d) None of the above.

42 Which of the variable does not contribute to energy consumption?
a) Production b) Hours c) Climate d) none of the above

43 Level of production may have an effect on specific energy consumption. State True or False
44 The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy
consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly
related to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=Mx+C c) M=Cx+Y d) None of above

45 1 kg LPG = _____ kcal.
a) 12,000 kcal b) 8000 kCal c) 6000 kCal d) 4000 kCal

46 The spread of the ‘Stratosphere’ above the Earth’s surface is______
a) Below 15 km b) 10 to 50 km c) above 50 km d) above 100 km
47 The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
a) Solar UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) UV-A
rays
48 The compounds that can easily break ozone molecules are______
a) Chlorine b) Bromine c) Both a & b d) None
49 The main source of CFCs in household sector is___________
a) Televisions b) Refrigerators c) Washing machines d) All
50 Global warming is due to release of
a) SO2 b) greenhouse Gases c) inert gases d) free chlorine
Section-II: SHORT QUESTIONS Marks: 5×10 = 50
i) Answer any TEN of the following

ii) Each question carries FIVE marks
iii) Each answer should not exceed more than 8 lines ( ½ page)
1 Classify the types of the energy available on the earth?

Energy can be classified into several types based on the following criteria as:
• Primary and Secondary energy
• Commercial and Non commercial energy
• Renewable and Non-Renewable energy
2 A 250 W sodium vapor lamp is installed on a street. The supply voltage for a
street light is 230 V and it operates for around 12 hours in a day. Considering
the current of 2 amps and power factor 0.85 calculate the energy
consumption per day
Energy consumption = V x I x Cos ǿ x no. of hours
= 230 x 2 x 0.85 x 12
= 4692 watts or 4.692 kW
3 What are the few comparative factors need to be looked in to for external
benchmarking used for inter-unit comparison and group of similar units?
Few comparative factors, which need to be looked into while benchmarking externally
are:
• Scale of operation
• Vintage of technology
• Raw material specifications and quality
• Product specifications and quality
4 What is the purpose of material and energy balance?

The basic purpose of material and energy balance is
• to quantify all the material, energy and waste streams in a process or a system.
• to find out the difference between calculated/designed values and measured/actual
values thereby making it possible to identify previously unknown losses and
emissions.
5 What are the vital elements for a successful energy management

programme?
The four vital elements for a successful energy management program are:
⬧ Top management support
⬧ Well charted strategy plan
⬧ An effective monitoring system, and
⬧ Adequate technical ability for analysing and implementing energy saving options
6 Why organizations hesitant to invest money on energy conservation

projects?
i. Organization typically gives priority to investing in what they see as their core or
profit-making activities in preference to energy efficiency
ii. Even when they do invest in saving energy, they tend to demand faster rates of
return than they require from other kinds of investment.
7 Briefly explain shared saving performance contract.

Shared Savings Performance Contract is the contractor, which provides the financing and
is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This payment is used to
pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
8 Why CUSUM technique is most useful?
CUSUM technique is a simple but remarkably powerful statistical method which

highlights small differences in energy efficiency performances. Regular use of the
procedure allows energy manger to follow his plant performance and to spot any trends
at an early date.
9 Write the importance of ozone layer?

The ozone layer is highly beneficial to plant and animal life on earth filtering out the
dangerous part of sun’s radiation and allowing only the beneficial part of reach earth.
Any disturbance or depletion of this layer would result in an increase of harmful
radiation reaching the earth’s surface leading to dangerous consequences.
10 How do you relate plant maintenance to achieve energy efficiency in a plant?

There is a clear dependence relationship between energy efficiency and maintenance.
This operates at two levels:
❖ Initially, improving energy efficiency is most cost-effectively done in existing
facilities through normal maintenance procedures
❖ Subsequently, unless maintenance is regularly undertaken, savings from installed
technical measure, whether in new-build or existing facilities, may not be realized.
Section-III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10×5 = 50
i) Answer any FIVE of the following

ii) Each question carries TEN marks
iii) Each answer should not exceed more than 20 lines ( 1 page)
1 List the strategies for better energy security of the nation?

Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future challenges to Nation’s energy
security are:
• Building stockpiles
• Diversification of energy supply sources
• Increased capacity of fuel switching
• Demand restraint
• Development of renewable energy sources
• Energy efficiency
• Sustainable development
2 What is heat transfer? Briefly explain three primary modes of heat

transfer.
The rate of energy transfer is called heat transfer.
Heat is transferred by three primary modes:
o Conduction (Energy transfer in a solid)
o Convection (Energy transfer in a fluid)
o Radiation (Does not need a material to travel through)
Conduction
The conduction of heat takes places, when two bodies are in contact with one another.
If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the molecules in
the hotter body will agitate the molecules at the point of contact in the cooler body and
consequently result in increase in temperature.
Convection
The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid such as a gas or
liquid from the hot to the cold portion.
Thermal Radiation
Thermal radiation is a process in which energy is transferred by electromagnetic
waves similar to light waves. These waves may be both visible (light) and invisible.
3 Give a typical energy audit reporting format.
After successfully carried out energy audit energy manager/energy auditor should
report to the top management for effective communication and implementation. A
typical energy audit reporting contents and format are given below. The following
format is applicable for most of the industries. However the format can be suitably
modified for specific requirement applicable for a particular type of industry.
⬧ Acknowledgement
⬧ Executive summary - Energy audit options at a glance and recommendations
⬧ Introduction about the plant
⬧ Production process description
⬧ Energy and utility system description
- List of utilities
- Brief description of each utility
⬧ Detailed process flow diagram and energy and material balance
⬧ Energy efficiency in utility and process systems
⬧ Energy conservation options and recommendations
- List of options in terms of no cost / low cost, medium cost, and high investment
cost, annual energy and cost savings, and pay back
- Implementation plan for energy saving measures / projects
⬧ Annexures
4 Explain in brief the “position of energy manager” and “Energy committee”

in an organisation? In your own words, explain what do you expect as
support from top management?
The energy management function, whether vested in one “energy manager or

coordinator” or distributed among a number of middle managers, usually resides
somewhere in the organization between senior management and those who control
the end-use of energy. Exactly how and where that function is placed is a decision that
needs to be made in view of the existing organisational structure.
Because energy concerns different departments within a firm, an effective energy
management programme must involve a number of people. In many companies, a
committee is formed to include representatives of important departments.
It can encourage communications and the sharing of ideas amongst various
departments throughout the company. It can serve to obtain agreements on energy
conservation projects, which affect more than one department. It can provide a
stronger voice to the top management than a single manager normally could. The
composition of the energy committee will vary from one company to another,
depending on the existing management structure, the type and quantity of energy
used and other company-specific factors.
One of the roles of the top management is to publish a formal statement of its energy
policy, which can be used to define company activities in energy matters for its
employees.
Further, top managements must,
• Involve in all energy committee meetings.
• Empower those given with responsibility for implementing the energy management
programme.
• Ensure resources of manpower, budgets etc.
• Encourage discussion on energy in Staff/employee meetings
5 Explain the limitations with ‘Simple Payback Period’ technique with an

example.
The limitations are:
• It fails to consider the time value of money. Cash inflows, in the payback
calculation, are simply added without suitable discounting. This violates
the most basic principle of financial analysis, which stipulates that cash
flows occurring at different points of time can be added or subtracted only
after suitable compounding/discounting.
• It ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. This leads to

discrimination against projects that generate substantial cash inflows in
later years.
To illustrate, consider the cash flows of two projects, A and B:
Investment Rs. (100,000) Rs.(100,000)

Savings in Year Cash Flow of A Cash flow of B
1 50,000 20,000
2 30,000 20,000
3 20,000 20,000
4 10,000 40,000
5 10,000 50,000
6 - 60,000
The payback criterion prefers A, which has a payback period of 3 years, in comparison
to B, which has a payback period of 4 years, even though B has very substantial cash
inflows in years 5 and 6.
• It is a measure of a project’s capital recovery, not profitability.
• Despite its limitations, the simple payback period has advantages in that it
may be useful for evaluating an investment.
Paper 1 – Set A

FOR
Question Papers & Model solutions to the Question Papers

1. Primary energy sources are,
a) electricity b) converted into secondary energy sources

c) used in diesel generator sets d) LPG, petrol & diesel
2. Eighty percent of the worlds’ population lives in developing countries and consumes
approximately ……… of the world’s total energy consumption
a) 80 % b) 60 % c) 40 % d) 20 %
3. Energy consumption per unit GDP is called
a) energy ratio b) energy intensity c) per capita consumption d) all of the above
4. Identify the wrong statement for a measure to reduce energy costs in a furnace by
substitution of a fuel.
a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency.

b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency.
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs.
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption.
5. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not require designated consumers to
a) appoint/designate certified energy manager

d) invest in all energy conservation measures
_________________________ 1
Paper 1 – Set A
6. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 includes

c) action plan to reduce energy consumption d) all of the above
7. An example of stored mechanical energy is
a) water in a reservoir b) an arrow in a stretched bow

c) an air-borne aeroplane d) you on top of a mountain
8. Mega Volt Ampere (MVA) in a three phase electrical circuit could be written as
a) Voltage x Ampere b) Voltage x Ampere

1000 1,000,000
c) Voltage x Ampere x1,000 d) none of the above
9. When the current lags the voltage in an alternating current system, it is caused
mainly due to
a) resistive load b) capacitive load c) inductive load d) none of the above

10. The phase change from solid state to a liquid state is called
a) fission b) enthalpy c) latent heat d) fusion

11. The “superheat” of steam is expressed in a technical report as
a) degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature

b) critical temperature of the steam
c) the temperature of the steam d) none of the above
12. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in
a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per Second d) none of the above.

13. The electrical power unit GigaWatt (GW) may be written as
a) 1,000,000,000 MW b) 1,000 x MW c) 1,000 x kW d) 1,000,000 x W

14. CO2 measurement with a Fyrite kit is based on
a) weight basis (dry) b) volume basis (dry)

c) weight basis (wet) d) volume basis (wet)
15. A good coal has a Gross Calorific Value of 26,000 MJ/ton. Expressed in kCal/kg the
Gross Calorific Value is
a) 621000 b) 62100 c) 6210 d) 621

16. The annual energy consumption of a plant in the reference year 2003/2004 was
1 Lakh GJ. In the next year 2004/2005 it was 1.1 Lakh GJ. The plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity in ____
a) –10% b) 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above

17. An oil fired furnace is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 72%. How much more, or less energy, in percent is spent to
generate same amount of steam.
a) 10% more b) 12.2% more c) 13.9% less d) 13.9% more
_________________________ 2
Paper 1 – Set A
18. Portable combustion analyzers may have built in chemical cells for measurement of
stack gas components. Which combination of chemical cells is not possible?
a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2 ,O2 c) O2, NOx, SOx, CO d) O2 ,CO
19. Non contact flow measurement can be carried out by
a) orifice meter b) turbine flow meter

c) ultrasonic flow meter d) magnetic flow meter
20. Two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used in a chemical process. If
conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then the weight of the
product formed is ____
a) 150 kg b) 200 kg c) 250 kg d) 400 kg

21. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted by
a) Energy Manager b) Accredited energy auditor

c) Certified Energy Auditor d) Designated agencies
22. Which energy source is indirect in an overall energy balance in the generation of
electricity by a photovoltaic cell?
a) commercial energy b) wave energy c) sun light d) none of the above

23. In the material balance of a process which compound will not be considered on the
input side
a) chemicals b) air and water c) recycled product d) by-product

24. Which process emits the most CO2 per ton of coal burned
a) cogeneration b) power generation c) cement manufacture d) coal gasification

25. Which task is not considered as a duty of an energy manager
a) prepare an annual activity plan b) establish an improved data recording system

c) conduct mandatory energy audit d) prepare information material
26. Fill in the missing word. An energy policy provides the __________ for setting
performance goal and integrating energy management into an organization’s culture.
a) budget b) delivery mechanism c) action plan d) foundation

27. Which one is not a step in energy action planning
a) make commitments b) implement action plan

c) set goals d) report results to designated agency of the state
28. PERT/ CPM provides the following benefits
a) graphical view of the project

b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) predicts the time required to complete the project d) all the above
29. What does normalization of data mean?
a) comparing data with respect to performance of a specific year

b) removing the impact of various factors on data
c) indexing performance of process data d) benchmarking performance
_________________________ 3
Paper 1 – Set A
30. Benchmarking helps to
a) track performance change over time b) compare with best/average performance

c) both a & b d) none of the above
31. One of the basic indicators of financial investment appraisal is
a) risk assessment b) trending of fuel costs

c) interest rate d) simple payback
32. What does the concept of time value of money imply
a) present value of money b) future value of money

c) discounting of cash flows d) all of the above
33. Return on Investment (ROI) as a fraction means
a) initial investment / annual return b) annual cost / cost of capital

c) annual net cash flow / capital cost d) none of the above.
34. The net present value (NPV) is
a) equal to the sum of the present values of all cash flows

b) equal to the sum of returns
c) equal to the sum of all cash flows d) none of the above
35. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR), of an investment is calculated by
a) selecting a discount rate so that NPV = 0

b) equating total discounted costs with total discounted benefits
c) making sure the benefit / cost ratio equals unity d) all of the above
36. Which one is not a macro factor in a sensitivity analysis?
a) change in interest rates b) technology changes

c) cost of debt d) change in tax rates
37. Which service is normally not part of an ESCO contract?
a) financing of measures b) engineering analysis and design

c) project development and supervision d) obtaining operation permits
38. In Project Management, what does the 80/20 Rule say?
a) 20% is trivial and 80% is vital work

b) 20% of work consumes 80% of time and resources
c) the first 20% of work consumes 80% of your time and resources
39. Which subject is not so important in the screening of projects in a need identification
a) cost-effectiveness b) availability of technology

c) sustainability of the savings d) implementation period
40. A firm switches from a low ash and low moisture fuel to a less expensive high ash
and high moisture fuel by retrofitting a furnace. The most likely impact of the
measure is
a) saves fuel cost and reduces energy consumption

b) saves fuel cost but increases energy consumption
c) increases fuel costs and energy consumption d) none of the above.
_________________________ 4
Paper 1 – Set A
41. Critical path in a CPM network diagram
a) is the longest path in a network

b) is the shortest path in a network
c) where all activities of long duration fall
42. PERT stands for _____
a) Project Evaluation Research Technique

b) Programme Evaluation & Review Technique
c) Power & Energy Reforms Techniques
d) none of the above
43. Drawing a Gantt chart does not require
a) to know cost of the activities b) duration of activity

c) to know beginning of the activities d) to know the interdependency of the tasks
44. Pie chart of the fuel mix on energy consumption represents
a) percentage share of fuels based on costs

b) percentage share of fuels based on energy bill
c) percentage share of fuels based on volume content
d) percentage share of fuels based on common unit of energy
45. In an CUSUM chart, if the graph is horizontal for two consecutive periods then
a) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same

b) actual energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is the same
d) each one of the above may be true
46. In an industry the electricity consumed for a period is 1,00,000 kWh. The production
in this period is 10,000 tons with a variable energy consumption of 7 kWh/ton. The
fixed kWh consumption of the plant is
a) 30000 b) 23000 c) 7000 d) 10000

47. Which is a greenhouse gas
a) Sulfur Dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Nitrous Oxide d) none of the above

48. Which country was the latest to recently ratify the Kyoto Protocol
a) USA b) Australia c) Russia d) Germany

49. One of the flexible instrument as stated in the Kyoto Protocol is
a) CO2 adaptation b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

c) CO2 sequestration mechanism d) none of the above
50. Methane traps about ____ times more heat than Carbon Dioxide
a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28
-------- End of Section - I ---------
_________________________ 5
Paper 1 – Set A

S-1 (i) State two obvious measures, which may reduce the ratio of energy
consumption to gross domestic product (GDP) in the Indian economy.
(ii) What is roughly the ratio under present conditions?
(i) All energy efficiency measures and all national programmes to

promote low energy-intensive sectors of the Indian economy will
obviously lower energy intensity.
(ii) The present ratio is cited as 1.5, based on Book 1. Any answer
between 0.7 and 1.5 should be seen as correct.
S-2 Define Dew Point.
It is the temperature at which condensation of water vapour from the air

begins, as the temperature of the air-water vapour mixture falls.
S-3 State the key elements of an energy audit as defined in the Energy
Conservation Act 2001.
There are six key elements mentioned in the original text of the Act.
“Energy audit” means the (i) verification, (ii) monitoring and analysis of
use of energy, including (iii) submission of technical report, (iv)
containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with, (v)
cost benefit analysis and an, (vi) action plan to reduce energy
consumption.
S-4 During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was
200,000 m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was a little bit
higher at 210,000 m3 per hour. Dust load at the inlet was 6 gram/ m3 , and at
the outlet 0.1 gram/ m3 . How much dust in kg/hour was collected in the bag
filter bin?
Dust (gas in ) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)

200,000 x 6 = 210,000 x 0.1 + x and it follows
x = 1,179,000 gram/hour = 1,179 kg/hour.
S-5 List 5 positive forces of a force field analysis in support of the goal: “Reduce
energy consumption per unit production”.
(i) high price of energy

(ii) energy efficient technology available
(iii) top management commitment to energy conservation
(iv) energy is high component of product cost
(v) incentives for energy conservation available
_________________________ 6
Paper 1 – Set A
S-6 Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.
(i) The internal rate of return is the discount rate, d, at which the Net
Present Value, NPV, becomes zero.
(ii) or NPV = C0 + C1 + …. Cn = 0
(1+d)0 (1+d)1 (1 + d)n
S-7 List 5 steps in a PERT planning process
(i) identify specific activities and milestones.

(ii) determine the proper sequence of the activities
(iii) construct a network diagram.
(iv) estimate the time required for each activity.
(v) determine the critical path
(vi) update the PERT chart as the project progresses.
S-8 A company consumes 1.3 x 105 kWh of electricity and 11.18 x 107 kCal of
furnace oil per month. Draw the pie chart of percentage share of fuels based
on consumption in kCal. (1 kWh = 860 kcal)
The pie chart is split in half (50% oil and 50% electricity) because 1 kWh
= 860 kCal and therefore 130,000 x 860 = 11.18 x 107 kCal
S-9 The company “Save Electricity the Smart Way” sells a gadget that lowers
voltage of your electric water storage heater by 20% and saves electricity by
20%. The heater is rated 2 kW at 230 V. Do you agree with the claim of the
company? Support your opinion.
The answer is “No electricity is saved.” (ii) There are no calculations

necessary. The given information about the water is not needed. Due to
the lower voltage the kW load will go down. Therefore the process to
heat the water will take longer based on the energy balance. Since the
gadget to lower the voltage consumes itself electricity the electricity
consumption in fact goes slightly up on paper.
S-10 (i) Why is the Ozone layer important to plant, animal and human life on earth?
(ii) which substances are destroying it, and
(iii) by which process?
(i) Ozone (O3) is a filter for harmful Ultra Violet -B rays.

(ii) Chlorine and bromine compounds, such as CFC’s, and HCFC’s
are destroying Ozone.
(iii) Ozone is highly reactive and can be easily broken down. If UV rays
hit CFC’s and HCFC’s the chlorine (Cl) atom is separated from the
carbon atom and this Cl atom reacts with Ozone, breaking it apart.
-------- End of Section - II ---------
_________________________ 7
Paper 1 – Set A

L-1 The following table shows the import bill of fossil fuels in million metric tonnes
(MMT) and its cost in Crores Rupees over the last eight years.
(i) calculate the average annual percentage increase of fossil fuel imports
(ii) calculate the average annual percentage increase of the import bill
(iii) calculate the average costs for the last eight years, in Rs. Per metric
ton of imported fossil fuels.
Import bill of fossil fuels

Year Quantity (MMT) Value (Rs.Crore)
1996-97 33.90 18,337
1997-98 34.49 15,872
1998-99 39.81 19,907
1999-00 57.80 40,028
2000-01 74.10 65,932
2001-02 84.90 80,116
2002-03 90.00 85,042
2003-04 95.00 93,159
There are seven years to consider
(i) 95 / 33.90 = 2.80236 folded increase over 7 years. It follows to solve the
equation (1. x)7 = 2.80236 by introducing the exponent 1/7 of each side
we get 1.x = 2.802361/7 or 1.x = 1.15859 or 15.86%. By trial and error one
should get close to the result as well. Any number between 15.5% and
16% should count as correct
(ii) 93,159 / 18,337 = 5.0804 folded increase over 7 year. Similar to (i) it
follows 26.14%. Any answer between 26.0% and 26.3% should count as
correct.
(iii) The sum of all imports is 510 Million metric tons over this time period.
The value is Rs 418,393 Crore. Consequently average costs are
calculated as (418,393 x 10,000,000)/510,000,000 = 8,203.78 Rs per metric
ton.
_________________________ 8
Paper 1 – Set A
L-2 An energy manager or energy auditor is trying to establish the power factor of
a 15 HP induction motor. The instrument to measure electric parameters
displays the three numbers 5 kW and 2 kVAr and PF = 92.8%. Do you fully
agree with the instrument display and its correctness?
Rectangular triangle and Pythagoras yields (kVA) 2 = (kW)2 + (kVAr)2 .

Furthermore PF = kW/kVA, and consequently
kVA =(kVAr)2 + (kW)2 =(2)2 + (5)2 = 5.38516 and PF = 5/5.38516 = 0.928
This calculation agrees with the display of 92.8%.
However it is unlikely that a 10 kW motor operating at 50% load will ever

achieve PF = 0.928. Consequently something is suspicious with the
instrument. Therefore the answer is NO, because it is also unlikely that a
15 HP induction motor is compensated in such a way that this power
factor is achieved at 50% load.
L-3 Fuel substitution from a high cost fuel to a low cost fuel in boilers is common to
reduce energy bill. For the following situations calculate:
(i) annual reduction in energy costs in Crore Rs.

(ii) annual change in energy consumption in %. (Calorific value of fuels not
required for calculations)
Before substitution:
Steam output = 6 tons/hour

Fuel consumption = 1 ton oil per 13 tons of steam.
Operating hours = 6400 / Year
Fuel costs = Rs.13,000 /ton of oil
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average)= 82%
After Substitution:

Fuel consumption = 3 tons of waste wood per 13 tons of steam
Fuel costs = Rs.2,000 / ton of waste wood
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average) = 74%
Oil consumption before substitution was 6 x 6400/13 = 2,953.85 tons/y.

The annual oil costs were 2,953.85 x 13,000= 38,400,050 = Rs 3.84 Crore
Wood consumption after substitution is 6 x 6400x 3/13 =8,861.54 tons/y

The annual waste wood costs are 8,861.54 x 2,000 = 1.77 Crore Rs.
(i) The annual reduction in fuel costs is Rs 2.07 Crore.
(ii) More energy is used because the boiler efficiency drops

the change is 100 x (74-82)/74 = 10.8% more energy
_________________________ 9
Paper 1 – Set A
L-4 A company invests Rs.10 lakhs and completes an energy efficiency project at
the beginning of year 1. The firm is investing its own money and expects an
internal rate of return, IRR, of at least 26% on constant positive annual net
cash flow of Rs.2 lakhs, over a period of 10 years, starting with year 1.
(i) Will the project meet the firm’s expectations?

(ii) What is the IRR of this measure?
Solution
(i) Use the NPV formula with d = 0.26 and check to what extent NPV > 0
at n = 10 years.
NPV = -1,000,000 + 200,000 + 200,000 + ……200,000 =

1.261 (1.26)2 (1.26)10
= - 1,000,000 + 158,730 + 125,976 + 99,981 + 79,350 + 62,976 + 49,981 + 39,668 +

31,482 + 24,986 + 19,830 = MINUS 307,040
Since NPV is negative at 26%, project will not meet the firm’s expectations,
because this means that the factor of 1.26 must be selected smaller in order to
have NPV = 0 (7 marks)
(ii) The IRR is 15.1%. Any result between 14.5 and 15.5 is valid
L-5 (i) Construct a CPM diagram for the data given below
(ii) Identify the critical path. Also compute the earliest start, earliest finish,
latest start & latest finish of all activities
Activity Precedent Time, weeks

A Start 3
B A 4
C A 1
D C 3
E Start 2
F B 2
Finish D, E, F --
_________________________ 10
Paper 1 – Set A
Solution
(i)
3
B
4 F
A 2
1 2 C
3 4
1
D
3
E
2
ii) critical Path
A B F
3 4 2
1 2 3 5
Total time on critical path: 9 weeks
Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)
S.no Activity Duration ES EF LS LF

1 A 3 0 3 0 3
2 B 4 3 7 3 7
3 C 1 3 4 5 6
4 D 3 4 7 6 9
5 E 2 0 2 7 9
6 F 2 7 9 7 9
_________________________ 11
Paper 1 – Set B

FOR
Question Papers & Model solutions to the Question Papers

1. Methane traps about ____ times more heat than Carbon Dioxide
a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28
2. One of the flexible instrument as stated in the Kyoto Protocol is
a) CO2 adaptation b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

c) CO2 sequestration mechanism d) none of the above
3. Which country was the latest to recently ratify the Kyoto Protocol
a) USA b) Australia c) Russia d) Germany

4. Which is a greenhouse gas
a) Sulfur Dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Nitrous Oxide d) none of the above

5. In an industry the electricity consumed for a period is 1,00,000 kWh. The production
in this period is 10,000 tons with a variable energy consumption of 7 kWh/ton. The
fixed kwh consumption of the plant is
a) 30000 b) 23000 c) 7000 d) 10000

6. In an CUSUM chart, if the graph is horizontal for two consecutive period then
a) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same

b) actual energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is the same
d) each one of the above may be true
_________________________ 1
Paper 1 – Set B
7. Pie chart of a fuel mix on energy consumption represents
a) percentage share of fuels based on costs

b) percentage share of fuels based on energy bill
c) percentage share of fuels based on volume content
d) percentage share of fuels based on common unit of energy
8. Drawing a Gantt chart does not require
a) to know cost of the activities b) duration of activity

c) to know beginning of the activities d) to know the interdependency of the tasks
9. Critical path in a CPM network diagram
a) is the longest path in a network

b) is the shortest path in a network
c) where all activities of long duration fall
10. PERT stands for _____
a) Project Evaluation Research Technique

b) Programme Evaluation & Review Technique
c) Power & Energy Reforms Techniques
11. Benchmarking helps to
a) track performance change over time b) compare with best/average performance

c) both a & b d) none of the above
12. One of the basic indicators of financial investment appraisal is
a) risk assessment b) trending of fuel costs

c) interest rate d) simple payback
13. What does the concept of time value of money imply
a) present value of money b) future value of money

c) discounting of cash flows d) all of the above
14. Return on Investment (ROI) as a fraction means
a) annual return / initial investment b) annual cost / cost of capital

c) annual net cash flow / capital cost d) none of the above.
15. The net present value (NPV) is
a) equal to the sum of the present values of all cash flows

b) equal to the sum of returns
c) equal to the sum of all cash flows d) none of the above
16. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR), of an investment is calculated by
a) selecting a discount rate so that NPV = 0

b) equating total discounted costs with total discounted benefits
c) making sure the benefit / cost ratio equals unity d) all of the above
_________________________ 2
Paper 1 – Set B
17. Which one is not a macro factor in a sensitivity analysis?
a) change in interest rates b) technology changes

c) cost of debt d) change in tax rates
18. Which service is normally not part of an ESCO contract?
a) financing of measures b) engineering analysis and design

c) project development and supervision d) obtaining operation permits
19. In Project Management, what does the 80/20 Rule say?
a) 20% is trivial and 80% is vital work

b) 20% of work consumes 80% of time and resources
c) the first 20% of work consumes 80% of your time and resources
20. Which subject is not so important in the screening of projects in a need identification
a) cost-effectiveness b) availability of technology

c) sustainability of the savings d) implementation period
21. A firm switches from a low ash and low moisture fuel to a less expensive high ash
and high moisture fuel by retrofitting a furnace. The most likely impact of the
measure is
a) saves fuel cost and reduces energy consumption

b) saves fuel cost but increases energy consumption
c) increases fuel costs and energy consumption
22. The “superheat” of steam is expressed in a technical report as
a) degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature

b) critical temperature of the steam
c) the temperature of the steam d) none of the above
measured in
a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per Second d) none of the above.

24. The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as
a) 1,000,000,000 MW b) 1,000 x MW c) 1,000 x kW d) 1,000,000 x W

25. CO2 measurement with a Fyrite kit is based on
a) weight basis (dry) b) volume basis (dry)

c) weight basis (wet) d) volume basis (wet)
26. A good coal has a Gross Calorific Value of 26,000 MJ/ton. Expressed in kCal/kg the
Gross Calorific Value is
a) 621000 b) 62100 c) 6210 d) 621

27. The annual energy consumption of a plant in the reference year 2003/2004 was 1
Lakh GJ. In the next year 2004/2005 it was 1.1 Lakh GJ. Calculate the plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity.
a) –10% b) 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above
_________________________ 3
Paper 1 – Set B
28. An oil-fired furnace is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 72%. How much more, or less energy, in percent is spent to
generate same amount of steam.
a) 10% more b) 12.2% more c) 13.9% less d) 13.9% more

29. Portable combustion analyzers may have built in chemical cells for measurement of
stack gas components. Which combination of chemical cells is not possible?
a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2 ,O2 c) O2, NOx, SOx, CO d) O2 ,CO
30 Non contact flow measurement can be carried out by
a) orifice meter b) turbine flow meter

c) ultrasonic flow meter d) magnetic flow meter
31. Two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used in a chemical process as
reactants. If conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then calculate
the weight of the product formed.
a) 150 kg b) 200 kg c) 250 kg d) 400 kg

32. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted by

33. Which energy source is indirect in an overall energy balance in the generation of
electricity by a photovoltaic cell?
a) commercial energy b) wave energy c) sun light d) none of the above

34. In the material balance of a process which compound will not be considered on the
input side
a) chemicals b) air and water c) recycled product d) by-product

35. Which process emits the most CO2 per ton of coal burned
a) cogeneration b) power generation c) cement manufacturing d) coal gasification

36. Which task is not considered a major duty of an energy manager
a) prepare an annual activity plan b) establish an improved data recording system

c) conduct mandatory energy audit d) prepare information material
37. Fill in the missing word. An energy policy provides the __________ for setting
performance goal and integrating energy management into an organization’s culture.
a) budget b) delivery mechanism c) action plan d) foundation

38. Which one is not a step in energy action planning
a) make commitment b) implement action plan

c) set goals d) report result to designated agency
39. PERT/ CPM provides the following benefits
a) graphical view of the project

c) predicts the time required to complete the project d) all the above
_________________________ 4
Paper 1 – Set B
40. What does normalization of data mean?
a) comparing data with respect to performance of a specific year

b) removing the impact of various factors on data
c) indexing performance of process on data d) benchmarking performance
41. Primary energy sources are,
a) electricity b) converted into secondary energy sources

c) used in diesel generator sets d) LPG, petrol & diesel
42. Eighty percent of the worlds’ population lives in developing countries and consumes
approximately …….. of the world’s total energy consumption
a) 80 % b) 60 % c) 40 % d) 20 %
a) energy ratio b) energy intensity c) per capita consumption d) all of the above
44. Identify the wrong statement for a measure to reduce energy costs in a furnace by
substitution of a fuel.
a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency

b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency.
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs.
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption.
45. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not require all notified designated
consumers to
a) appoint/designate certified energy manager

d) invest in all energy conservation measures
46. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 includes

c) action plan to reduce energy consumption d) all of the above
47. An example of stored mechanical energy is
a) water in a reservoir b) an arrow in a stretched bow

c) an air-borne aeroplane d) you on top of a mountain
48. Mega Volt Ampere (MVA) in a three phase electrical circuit could be written as
a) Voltage x Ampere b) Voltage x Ampere

1000 1,000,000
c) Voltage x Ampere x1,000 d) none of the above
49. When the current lags the voltage in an alternating current system, it is mainly due to
a) resistive load b) capacitive load c) inductive load d) none of the above

50. The phase change from solid state to a liquid state is called
a) fission b) enthalpy c) latent heat d) fusion
-------- End of Section - I ---------
_________________________ 5
Paper 1 – Set B

S-1 List 5 negative forces of a force field analysis, which are a barrier to the
objective “reduce energy consumption per unit production”
(i) Low price of energy

(ii) Technology not available
(iii) Top management not committed
(iv) Energy is low component of product cost
(v) No incentives for energy conservation available
(vi) Firm makes enough profit
(vii) Lack of awareness throughout company
(viii) Absence of corporate energy policy
(ix) Insufficient financial resources to find measure.
S-2 Define Latent Heat
It is the (i) change in (ii) heat (energy) content of a substance, when its
(iii) physical state is changed (iv) without change in (v) temperature.
S-3 Distinguish between Gross Colorific Value (GCV) and Net Calorific Value
(NCV) of a fuel.
The difference between GCV and NCV is the (i) heat of vaporization of the
water that is either (ii) physically present in the fuel as moisture or (iii)
formed from the Hydrogen in the fuel during the combustion process.
(iv) NCV does not account for the heat of vaporization and is therefore
always smaller than GCV if a fuel contains hydrogen or moisture.
S-4 During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was
100,000 m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was a little bit
higher at 120,000 m3 per hour. Dust load at the inlet was 5 gram/ m3 , and at
the outlet 0.2 gram/ m3 . How much dust was in kg/hour was collected in the
bag filter bin?
Dust (gas in ) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)

100,000 x 5 = 120,000 x 0.2 + x and it follows
x = 476,000 gram/hour = 476 kg/hour.
_________________________ 6
Paper 1 – Set B
S-5 (i) State two obvious measures which may reduce the ratio of energy
consumption to gross domestic product (GDP) in the Indian economy.
(ii) What is roughly the ratio under present conditions?
(i) All energy efficiency measures and all national programmes to

promote less energy-intensive sectors of the Indian economy will
obviously lower energy intensity.
(ii) The present ratio is 1.5 based on Book 1 and any answer between 0.7
and 1.5 should be seen as correct.
S-6 List 5 sources of greenhouse gases which are either naturally occurring or are
caused by human activities.
(i) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide), (ii) CH4 (Methane), (iii) NOx (Nitrous Oxides),
(iv) H2 O(g) (Water in vapor form), (v) HFCs (Hydro Fluor Carbons),
(vii) SF6 (Sulfur Hexafluoride), (viii) PFCs (Pero Fluoro Carbons)
(OR)
Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, agriculture, industry, transport.
S-7 The company “Save Electricity the Smart Way” sells you a gadget that lowers
voltage of your electric water storage heater by 10% and saves electricity by
10%. The heater is rated at 2 kW at 230 V. Do you agree with the claim of
the company? Support your opinion.
The answer is “No electricity is saved.” There are no calculations

necessary. The given information about the water is not needed. Due to
the lower voltage the kW load will go down. Therefore the process to
heat the water will take longer based on the energy balance. Since the
gadget to lower the voltage consumes itself electricity the electricity
consumption in fact goes slightly up on paper.
S-8 A company consumes 5,000 tons of furnace oil per year (GCV =10,200
kCal/kg), as well as 29,651 MWh of electricity per year. Draw the pie-chart of
percentage share of fuels based on consumption in kCal (1kWh = 860 kcal)
5,000 tonnes x 10,200 kCal x1000 = 5.10 x 1010 kCal

29,651 MWh = 29,651,000 kWh
= 29,651,000 x 860 kCal
= 2.55 x 1010 kCal
Total consumption 5.10 + 2.55 = 7.65 x 1010 of which 2/3 (66.7%) is oil and
1/3 (33.3%) is electricity.
66.7% oil
33.3%
Electricity
_________________________ 7
Paper 1 – Set B
S-9 Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.
(i) The Internal Rate of Return is the discount rate d at which the net
present value NPV becomes zero.
(ii) or, NPV = C0 + C1 + …. Cn =0

(1+d)0 (1+d)1 (1 + d)n

S-10 State the key elements of an energy audit as defined in the Energy
Conservation Act 2001.
There are six key elements mentioned in the original text of the Act.
“Energy audit” means the (i) verification, (ii) monitoring and analysis of
use of energy, including (iii) submission of technical report, (iv)
containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with, (v)
cost benefit analysis and an, (vi) action plan to reduce energy
consumption.
-------- End of Section - II ---------

L-1 An energy auditor or an energy manager is trying to establish the power factor
of a 7.5 HP induction motor. The instrument to measure electric parameters
displays the three numbers 2.5 kW and 1 kVAr and PF = 92.9%. Do you fully
agree with the instrument display and its correctness?
Right angle triangle and Pythagoras yields (kVA)2 = (kW)2 + (kVAr)2.

Furthermore PF = kW/kVA, and consequently
kVA =(kVAr)2 + (kW)2 =(1)2 + (2.5)2 = 2.69 and PF = 2.5/2.69 = 0.928
This calculation agrees with the display of 92.9%
However it is unlikely that a 5.5 kW motor operating at 50% load will ever
achieve PF = 0.929. Consequently something is suspicious with the
instrument. Therefore the answer is NO, because it is also unlikely that a
7.5 HP induction motor is compensated in such a way that this power
factor is achieved at 50% load.
_________________________ 8
Paper 1 – Set B
L-2 The following table shows the import bill of fossil fuels in million tonnes and its
cost in Crores Rupees over the last eight years.
(i) calculate the average annual percentage increase of fossil fuel imports
(ii) calculate the average annual percentage increase of the import bill
(iii) calculate the average costs for the last eight years, in Rs. Per metric
ton of imported fossil fuels.
Import bill of fossil fuels

Year Quantity (MMT) Value (Rs.Crore)
1996-97 33.90 18,337
1997-98 34.49 15,872
1998-99 39.81 19,907
1999-00 57.80 40,028
2000-01 74.10 65,932
2001-02 84.90 80,116
2002-03 90.00 85,042
2003-04 95.00 93,159
There are seven years to consider
(i) 95 / 33.90 = 2.80236 folded increase over 7 years. It follows to solve the
equation (1. x)7 = 2.80236 by introducing the exponent 1/7 of each side
we get 1.x = 2.802361/7 or 1.x = 1.15859 or 15.86%. By trial and error one
should get close to the result as well. Any number between 15.5% and
16% should count as correct
Give 2 marks if the average is calculated as the arithmetic average by

summation the increase over each year. Result is 16.67%
(ii) 93,159 / 18,337 = 5.0804 folded increase over 7 year. Similar to (i) it
follows 26.14%. Any answer between 26.0% and 26.3% should count as
correct.
Give 2 marks if the arithmetic average is formed out of the sum of yearly
increases. The result is 29.37%
(iii) The sum of all imports is 510 Million metric tons over this time period.
The value is Rs 418,393 Crore. Consequently average costs are
calculated as (418,393 x 10,000,000)/510,000,000 = 8,203.78 Rs per metric
ton.
L-3 Fuel substitution from a high cost fuel to a low cost fuel is common to reduce
energy bill. For the following situations calculate:
(i) annual reduction in energy costs in Crore Rs .
(ii) annual change in energy consumption in %. (Calorific value of fuels
not required for calculations)
Before substitution:
_________________________ 9
Paper 1 – Set B

Fuel consumption = 1 ton oil per 13 tons of steam.
Operating hours = 6000 / Year
Fuel costs = Rs.13,000 /ton of oil
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average)= 84%
After Substitution:

Fuel consumption = 2.5 tons of shells per 13 tons of steam
Fuel costs = Rs.2,800 / ton of shells
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average) = 72%
Oil consumption before substitution was 5 x 6000/13 = 2,307.69 tons/y.

The annual oil costs were 2,307.69 x 13,000= 29,999,970 = Rs 3 Crore
Shell consumption after substitution is 5 x 6000x 2.5/13 = 5,769.23 tons/y

The annual shell costs are 5,769.23 x 2,800 = Rs 1.615 Crore
(i) The annual reduction in fuel costs is Rs 1.385 Crore.
(ii) More energy is used because the boiler efficiency drops

the change is 100 x (72-84)/72 = 16.7% more energy
L-4 (i) Construct a CPM diagram for the example below

(ii) Identify the critical path. Also compute the earliest start, earliest finish,
latest start & latest finish of all activities?
Activity Precedent Time,

weeks
A Start 3
B A 4
C B 1
D C 3
E Start 2
F B 1
Finish D, E, F --
_________________________ 10
Paper 1 – Set B
(i)
4
C
A B
1 D
1 2 3 3
3 4
F
2E 1 5
ii) Critical Path:

A B C D
1 2 3 4 5
3 4 1 3
Total time on critical path: 11 weeks
Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)
S.no Activity Duration ES EF LS LF

1 A 3 0 3 0 3
2 B 4 3 7 3 7
3 C 1 7 8 7 8
4 D 3 8 11 8 11
5 E 2 0 2 9 11
6 F 1 7 8 10 11
L-5 A company invests Rs.6 lakhs and completes an energy efficiency project at
the beginning of year 1. The firm is investing its own money and expects an
internal rate of return, IRR, of at least 20% on constant positive annual net
cash flow of Rs. 1 lakh, over a period of 10 years, starting with year 1.
(i) Will the project meet the firm’s expectations?

(ii) What is the IRR of this measure?
Solution
(i) Use the NPV formula with d = 0.20 and check to what extent NPV > 0
at n = 10 years.
_________________________ 11
Paper 1 – Set B
(ii) NPV = - 600,000 + 100,000 + 100,000 + …… 100,000 =

1.201 (1.20)2 (1.20)10
= - 600,000 + 83,333 + 69,444 + 57,870 + 48,225 + 40,188 + 33,490 + 27,908 +

23,257 + 19,381 + 16,151 = Minus 180,753
Since NPV is negative at 20%, the expectation of the project will not met the
firm’s expectations, because this means that the factor of 0.20 must be selected
smaller in order to have NPV = 0
The IRR is 10.56%. Any result between 10.2% and 10.7 is valid
_________________________ 12
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

(iii) Put a (√) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book
1. India’s share of the world’s total primary energy consumption in 2002 was
a) 2.1% b) 3.5% c) 5.4% d) 10.6%

2. The second major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is
a) Industry b) Agriculture c) Residential d) Transport

3. Non-commercial energy is
a) not available in the market b) no definite price set c) always traded for free
d) always ignored in energy accounting
4. If Rs. 1 Crore = US$ 200,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around
a) 1.6 Billion US$ b) 12 Billion US$ c) 16 Billion US$ d) 4 Billion US$

5. If the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of
2001 and is increased annually by 7%, then the installed capacity requirement
10 years later will be
a) 215,804 MW b) 183,846 MW c) 210,485 MW d) 196,715 MW

6. A person can do the following with solar energy
a) destroy it b) convert it c) create it d) burn it

7. Select the source of stored mechanical energy
a) compressed spring b) electricity c) water stored in reservoir d) coal
_________________________ 1
8. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1o C is

known as
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat

9. A three phase induction motor is drawing 12 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.85 and the motor efficiency is 96%, then the
mechanical shaft power output of the motor is
a) 7.46 kW b) 7.77 kW c) 5.3 kW d) 23.4 kW

10. The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = 1.732 x V x I x ?
a) sin phi b) cos phi c) efficiency d) a constant

11. Electrical resistance is defined as
a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage x Current c) Ohm x Voltage d) Voltage/Current

12. Energy management involves…
a) combination of technical and managerial skills b) managerial skills

c) technical skills d) energy audit skills
a) pitot tube b) x-rays c) doppler effect d) electric fields

14. The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/kg of refrigerant handled b) kW/ton of refrigeration

c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) kWh/ton of refrigeration
15. One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in Btu ?
a) 860 b) 3412 c) 746 d) 12000


17. In a chemical process two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used. If
conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product
formed is
a) 300 kg b) 150 kg c) 400 kg d) 200 kg

18. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or
system is know as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram c) psychrometric chart

d) balance diagram
19. Coal with 30% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 50 tonnes on a specific
day. Clinker is formed by 1% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of
ash are going out of the boiler on this day.
a) 14.85 b) 15 c) 15.15 d) 13.5

20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 15%. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 1000 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is
diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour
would be
a) 3,990 b) 14,010 c) 8,050 d) 7,650
_________________________ 2
21. In a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a positive force
a) high price of energy b) energy efficient technology available

c) salary of staff d) lack of awareness
22. Which of the following is least important of a good energy information system
a) data accuracy b) data relevance c) data volume d) data validation

23. The first vital step in an energy management programme is
a) top management commitment b) measurements c) setting goals

d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is
a) energy balance b) energy policy c) energy audit d) energy savings

25. What is not the duty of an energy manager
a) conduct an energy audit b) prepare an annual activity plan

c) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
d) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
26. The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present
value of the expected future cash flow is
a) life of project b) fuel cost inflation c) loan interest rate d) discount rate
a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions c) capital investment

d) best financing source
28. The Return of Investment, ROI, is expressed as
a) (first cost/first year benefits) x100 b) NPV/ IRR

c) annual costs/capital cost d) (annual net cash flow/capital cost) x100
29. The Net Present Value of a project at a discount rate of 16% with an investment of
Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 23,000 and Rs 36,000
at the end of the first and second year, respectively is
a) 6,581 b) -246 c) 862 d) 3,419

30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
6% interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth
year, if no money is withdrawn?
a) 13,382 b) 12,625 c) 13,000 d) 10,937

31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is
called
a) performance contract b) traditional contract

32. A path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF= earliest
finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if
a) ES=EF or EF=LF b) ES=LS and EF=LF

c) ES=LS or EF=LF d) LF=EF and EF=LS
_________________________ 3
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is
the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path c) the path from start to finish
d) the path where no activities have slack
35. CPM in project management refers to
a) critical periodic management b) critical project monitoring

c) critical path method d) cost project management
36. The major difference between CPM and PERT is
a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not

b) CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates
c) CPM is an expansion of PERT
d) PERT is an expansion of CPM
37. The calorific value of coal is 4000 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 100 kg of
coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg
a) 40 kg b) 56 kg c) 52 kg d) None of the above

38. Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a
a) bar chart b) vertical line chart c) pie chart d) X Y coordinate system

39. Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 200 kWh for 20
tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is… (No graph is needed to
arrive at correct answer).
a) 10 b) 40 c) 20 d) None of the above


41. The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called
a) energy intensity b) specific energy consumption

c) production energy ratio d) specific production ratio
a) nothing can be said b) energy consumption is reduced

43. A firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The

44. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an
IRR of 25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing
is available and project technical life is the same?
_________________________ 4
45. Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring
a) data recording b) data analysis

c) data reporting d) energy costing
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of industrialized countries as per
Kyoto protocol is

47. Global warming is mostly caused by emission of
a) sulfur dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) carbon dioxide d) methane

48. Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by
a) 0% b) + 8% c) -8% d) 12%
49. The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest
into or buy certified emission reductions is called.
a) cleaner development mechanism b) clean development mechanism

c) prototype carbon trading d) none of the above
50. The ozone depletion process is due to
a) Carbon Dioxide b) UV light breaking the ozone

c) Nitrogen d) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules
-------- End of Section - I ---------

S-1 Classify the types of energy available on earth.
S-2 List five forms of energy with examples.
S-3 A 10 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 85%. Actual input
measurement at a particular loading shows 415 Volt, 10 Amps, and PF of
0.68. Find out the motor loading in percentage.
S-4 Explain the difference between specific heat and heat capacity.
S-5 Give any five bench marking parameters followed for either equipment or
industrial production.
S-6 State definition of energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act
2001.
_________________________ 5
S-7 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with one
investment of Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year and a second
investment of Rs 30,000 at the beginning of the second year and fuel cost
savings of Rs 40,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is
16%.
S-8 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 40 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgo C. How much steam
per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.
S-9 Explain briefly PERT.
S-10 List at least 5 steps involved in CUSUM analysis.
-------- End of Section - II ---------

L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency,
and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy
consumption goes up.
L-2 A plant is using 4 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of
the coal is 4000 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 2,000/tonne. The plant
substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of
3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at
300 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 78%
on coal to 72% on rice husks.
L-3 In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 90% and pump
operating efficiency is 80%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 20%
loss; moreover 28% are lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase
motor operates at a power factor of 0.85, 440 Volt and 17 Ampere.
(I) Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.
(II) Calculate the overall system efficiency.
L-4 An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the

beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings
expected over 4 years are Rs. 10,000, Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 35,000
respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4th year, if the
discount rate is 18%. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your decision.
_________________________ 6
L-5 Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings
for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production
can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.
Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT

Jan 252 265
Feb 238 265
Mar 287 300
Apr 287 265
May 359 310
Jun 276 265
_________________________ 7
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

1. The global primary energy consumption in 2002 was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9,405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe

2. The sector with the lowest commercial energy consumption out of four major
sectors in the country is

3. Non-commercial energy is
a) not available in the market b) always traded for free

c) no definite price set d) always ignored in energy accounting
4. If Rs 1 Lakh = US$ 2,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around
a) 12 Billion US$ b) 1.6 Billion US$ c) 16 Billion US$ d) 4 Billion US$

5. If the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of
2001 and is increased annually by 8% then the installed capacity requirement
10 years later will be
a) 215,312 MW b) 215,892 MW c) 183,846 MW d) 210,485 MW

6. A person can do the following with solar energy
a) destroy it b) create it c) burn it d) harvest it
_________________________ 1
a) gas b) electricity c) compressed air d) water stored in reservoir

8. The viscosity of furnace oil...
a) decreases with increasing temperature

b) decreases with decreasing temperature
c) increases with increasing temperature
d) remains same
power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the
mechanical shaft power output of the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above

10. The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = ? x V x I x cos phi
a) kV b) kW c) efficiency d) a constant
11. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of
a) active power/reactive power b) apparent power/active power

c) active power/apparent power d) reactive power/active power
12. Energy manager should be well versed with
a) managerial and technical skills b) processing and technical skills

c) managerial and commercial skills d) energy audit skills
13. Carbon Dioxide measurement drawing the cold flue gas into a Fyrite kit is based on
a) weight basis wet b) volume basis dry

c) volume basis wet d) weight basis dry
14. The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/kg refrigeration b) kW/ton of refrigeration

c) kWh/ton of refrigeration d) kcal/m3 of chilled water
15. One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in GJ
a) 0.0036 b) 0.036 c) 0.36 d) None of the above


c) less than what is needed d) energy with minimum losses
17. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If
conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product
formed is.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg c) 400 kg d) 700 kg

18. Energy supplied by combustion of fuel is equal to
a) fuel mass x density b) fuel mass x specific heat

c) fuel mass x calorific value d) fuel mass x heat capacity
_________________________ 2
19. Coal with 35% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 70 tonnes on a specific
day. Clinker is formed by 2% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of
ash are going out of the boiler on this day.
a) 24.0 b) 24.5 c) 25.0 d) 25.5

20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 25%. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 400 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is
diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour
would be
a) 6000 kg b) 3934 kg c) 3.237 ton d) 3500 kg

21. In a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a negative
force
a) low price of energy b) energy efficient technology available

c) low salary of staff d) insufficient financial resources
22. Which of the following is least important in a good energy information system
a) data availability b) data relevance c) data volume d) data accuracy

23. Which of the following is not a requirement for energy audit planning
a) feedback b) publicity c) metering d) budgeting

24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is

a) prepare an annual activity plan

b) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
c) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy d) conduct an energy audit
26. The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present
value of the expected future cash flow is
a) life of project b) fuel cost inflation

c) discount rate d) loan interest rate

28. The sum of present values of all the cash flows associated with a project is called
a) NPV b) PV c) Internal rate of return d) return on investment

29. The Net Present Value (in Rs.) of a project at a discount rate of 18% with an
investment of Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 55,000
and Rs 60,000 at the end of the first and second year, respectively is
a) 27,458 b) 28,091 c) 45,000 d) 19,701

30. There are Rs 100,000 deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank
pays 7% interest annually. How much money (in Rs.) is in the bank account at the
end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?
a) 131,080 b) 135,000 c) 140,255 d) None of the above
_________________________ 3
called
a) performance contract b) guaranteed savings performance contract

c) traditional contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
32. A path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF=
earliest finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if
a) ES=EF or EF=LF b) ES=LS and EF=LF

c) ES=LS or EF=LF d) LF=EF and EF=LS
annual energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year.
How high is the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?
a) Rs 89 lakhs b) Rs 98 lakhs c) Rs 103 lakhs d) None of the above

a) the path where no activities have slack b) the quickest path

c) the shortest path d) the path from start to finish

c) cost project management d) critical path method
36. The major difference between CPM and PERT is
a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not b) CPM is an expansion of PERT
c) PERT is an expansion of CPM
d) CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates
37. The calorific value of coal is 3,200 kcal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of
coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg
a) 64 kg b) 62 kg c) 66 kg d) None of the above

a) bar chart b) X Y coordinate system c) vertical line chart d) pie chart

39. Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 180 kWh for
20 tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is .... (No graph is
needed to arrive at correct answer).
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 30
a) many forced outages b) poor process monitoring

c) poor process control d) none of the above
41. What is the definition of specific energy consumption?
a) energy input/rupee turnover b) energy consumption per month

c) energy cost/total cost d) none of the above
a) nothing can be said b) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
c) energy consumption is reduced d) specific energy consumption is going up
_________________________ 4
43. A firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The
a) higher energy consumption b) higher fuel cost

c) better boiler efficiency d) less smoke in the stack
44. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an
IRR of 25% and NPV of Rs. 200,000. Which project would you implement first if
financing is available and project technical life is the same?
a) Neither A nor B b) B c) A d) cannot be decided

45. Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring
a) data recording b) data analysis c) energy costing d) data reporting

46. The commitment period of industrialized countries for emission reductions as per
Kyoto protocol is
a) since 2001 d) there is none c) 2008 – 2012 d) 2012 -2022

47. Global warming is due to release of
a) sulfur dioxide b) greenhouse gases c) free chlorine d) ozone

48. Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by
a) + 8% b) -8% c) 12% d) 0%

50. The ozone depletion process is due to
a) Carbon Dioxide b) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules

c) UV light breaking the ozone d) Nitrogen
-------- End of Section - I ---------

S-1 Classify the types of energy available on earth.
S-2 Explain the importance of time of day tariff (TOD).
S-3 A 7.5 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 84%. Actual input
measurement shows 415 Volt, 12 Amps, and PF of 0.83. Find out the motor
loading in percent.
S-4 Explain the difference between latent heat of vaporization and super heat.
_________________________ 5
S-5 Explain the significance of an energy policy in an organisation?
S-6 Classify energy conservation measures in financial terms such as costs and
return.
S-7 Calculate the Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with one
savings of Rs 70,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is
16%.
S-8 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 80 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 35o C
to 85o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgo C. How much steam
per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.
S-9 List at least four different types of contracts involved in project management.
S-10 What do you understand by CUSUM chart?
-------- End of Section - II ---------
Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Marks: 5 x 10 = 50
L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency,
and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy
consumption goes up.
the coal is 4,500 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 1,600/tonne. The plant
L-3 In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 85% and pump
operating efficiency is 75%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 18%
loss; moreover 20% is lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase
motor operates at a power factor of 0.82, 440 Volt and 20 Ampere.
(I) Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.
(II) Calculate the overall system efficiency.
_________________________ 6
L-4 An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
discount rate is 22 %. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your
decision.
L-5 Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings
for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production
can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.

Jan 252 265
Feb 238 265
Mar 287 265
Apr 285 260
May 255 260
Jun 245 265
_________________________ 7
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS
PAPER – EM1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

1. Among the world’s coal producers, India’s position is
a) 10th b) 17th c) 4th d) 26th

2. The major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is

3. Which energy is not a commercial energy
a) electricity b) lignite c) oil d) solar hot water

4. The annual current oil import bill of India is around Rs....
a) 8,000 crores b) 80,000 crores c) 800,000 crores d) 20,000 crores

5. India’s total installed power plant capacity requirement in MW in 2012 is estimated as
a) 107,236 MW b) 150,804 MW c) 215,804 MW d) 300,000 MW

6. A person can do the following with electricity
a) destroy it b) create it c) burn it d) convert it

7. Select the source of stored chemical energy
a) electricity b) water c) coal d) compressed air

8. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1o C
is known as
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat d) calorific value
_________________________ 1
power factor of the motor is 0.85, then the power drawn by the motor is
a) 7.8 kW b) 4.5 kW c) 5.3 kW d) 23.4 kW

10. The term missing in the following equation (kVA) = (kW) + ( ? )2 is
2 2
a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVAr d) kVArh

a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage/Current
c) Voltage x Current d) Ohm x Voltage
12. Energy management involves
a) combination of technical and managerial skills b) managerial skills

c) technical skills d) energy audit skills
13. Air velocity in ducts is measured by
a) stroboscope b) pitot tube c) lux meter d) fyrite

14. An energy audit team is formed during
a) post audit phase b) audit phase

c) pre-audit phase d) the time of study
15. Having an energy policy…
a) shows top management commitment b) satisfying regulations

c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of other policies

17. A mass balance for energy conservation does consider the following substance
a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) all of the above

system is know as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram

c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
19. Coal with 40% ash is fired in a boiler. The daily coal consumption is 80 tonnes. The
ash going out of the boiler per day would be
a) 32 tonnes b) 40 tonnes c) 48 tonnes d) 3.2 tonnes

20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 15%. If the stochiometic air to fuel ratio
is 14 kg of air per kg of oil and oil consumption is 100 kg per hour, then the mass of
flue gas liberated in kg/ hour would be
a) 1320 b) 1400 c) 1190 d) 1610

21. An analysis which helps to bring into focus the positive and negative forces in an
organisation is
a) energy action planning b) force field analysis

c) energy policy d) energy analysis
22. Which of the following is the least important of a good energy information system
a) data accuracy b) data relevance c) data volume d) data validation
_________________________ 2
a) measurements b) setting goals

c) top management commitment d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment of energy conservation is

a) conduct an energy audit b) prepare an annual activity plan

c) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
26. Based on the following Net Present Value, which of the projects seems to be the
most attractive for investment
a) - Rs 2123 b) Rs 0 c) + Rs 15 d) + Rs 1830

28. The Return on Investment, ROI, is expressed as
a) (first cost/first year benefits) x100 b) NPV/ IRR

c) annual costs/capital cost d) (annual net cash flow/capital cost) x100
29. Cost of a heat exchanger is Rs. 1.0 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual operating cost of Rs 15,000 is
a) 0.75 b) 2.22 c) 1.66 d) 6.6

30. A sum of Rs 100,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank
pays 6% interest annually. How much money, in Rs., is in the bank account at the
end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?
a) 126,247 b) 133,823 c) 130,000 d) 109,368

called
a) performance contract b) traditional contract

32. The following is not a step in PERT planning
a) estimate one time required for each activity b) determine the critical path
c) construct a network diagram d) identify activities and milestones
33. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs which accounts for 38% of the
total monthly energy bill. How high is the plant’s monthly energy bill
a) Rs 315.73 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38 lakhs d) Rs 380 lakhs

34. In Project Management, the critical path in the network is


c) critical path method d) cost project management
_________________________ 3
36. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking progress is
a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) PERT d) CumSum

37. The Calorific Value of coal is 4000 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 100 kg of
coal if the Calorific Value of oil is 10,000 kCal/ kg
a) 100 kg b) 250 kg c) 40 kg d) 25 kg
38. The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called
a) energy intensity b) specific energy consumption

c) production energy ratio d) specific production ratio
39. Energy consumed for the period is
a) fixed consumption + variable consumption X production

b) fixed consumption X production
c) variable consumption X production
d) (fixed consumption + variable consumption) X production
40. The fixed energy consumption of a company is 1000 kWh per month. The line slope
of the energy(y) versus production(x) chart is 0.3. The energy consumed in kWh per
month for a production level of 80,000 tons/month is
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 24,100 d) 38,000


42. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is going up, it means
a) energy consumption is increasing b) energy consumption is reducing

c) specific energy consumption is increasing d) nothing can be said
months calculated energy consumption is more than actual energy consumption by 8
for each month. This means the energy savings at the end of the fourth month would
be
a) 24 b) 32 c) – 8 d) 0
44. In an industry the energy consumed for a period is 2.3 lakh kWh. The production in
this period is 20,000 tonnes with a specific energy consumption of 10 kWh/ tonne.
The fixed energy consumption of the plant is
a) 30,000 b) 23,000 c) 7,000 d) 10,000

45. Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring

c) data reporting d) energy efficiency equipment financing
46. The ozone layer exists in
a) stratosphere b) troposphere c) atmosphere d) at sea level

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide

c) Carbon Dioxide d) Methane
48. Which is not a Greenhouse gas
a) Methane b) Nitrous Oxide c) Carbon Dioxide d) Sulphur Dioxide
_________________________ 4

50. Which of the following gas damages the ozone layer
a) CFC’s b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) Argon
-------- End of Section - I ---------

S-1 What do you understand by the term Reserve to Production ratio (R/P) in the
field of exploration of fossil fuels?
S-2 What is energy intensity and what does it indicate?
S-3 The energy consumed by a plant was 18,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1000 kW. Calculate the load factor on that
day.
S-4 How is the Calorific Value of fuel measured in a laboratory?
S-5 What is the significance of an energy policy and what general aims and
specific targets does it relate to?
S-6 Explain how matching energy use to actual requirements can enhance energy
efficiency, and state one example with solution.
S-7 Describe important features of a Sankey diagram.
S-8 In a heat exchanger, steam is used to heat 40 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 30o
C to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/kg oC. The latent heat
of steam is 540 kcal/ kg. How much steam per hour is needed?
S-9 Explain the objective of a force field analysis and how such an analysis is
structured.
S-10 On an energy efficiency investment of Rs 30,000/- the annual savings are Rs.
85,000/- and annual operating costs are Rs. 10,000/-. Calculate the simple
pay back period (SPP) for the investment.
-------- End of Section - II ---------
_________________________ 5

L-1 Discuss the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency.
L-3 In a pumping system the motor efficiency is 90% and pump efficiency is 80%.
The pump discharge is throttled causing 20% loss; moreover 28% are lost
through friction in pipe fittings. The motor draws 34 kW. Calculate the net
water power available at the end of the piping system.
L-4 An investment of Rs 1.0 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
discount rate is 12%.
L-5 Construct a CPM diagram for the example below

A Start 3
B Start 4
C A 1
D A 2
E B 2
F C 3
Finish F,E,D -
_________________________ 6
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS
PAPER – EM1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

1. World oil known reserves are presently estimated to last for another
a) 65 years b) 45 years c) 90 years d) 25 years

2. The major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is
a) Transport b) Agriculture c) Industry d) Residential

3 A three phase induction motor is drawing 7.8 kW at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.85, then the current drawn by the motor is
a) 12 A b) 10 A c) 7.8 A d) 15 A
4. The country that accounts for nearly 25% of world commercial energy consumption is
a) China b) India c) USA d) Russia

5. India’s total installed power plant capacity requirement in MW in 2012 is estimated as
a) 107,236 MW b) 150,804 MW c) 215,804 MW d) 300,000 MW

6. Wind energy may be
a) burned b) created c) destroyed d) converted

a) electricity b) water c) coal d) compressed air

8. The quantity of heat required to convert one kg of a solid into a liquid without change
of temperature is called
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat of fusion d) heat capacity
______________________ 1
9. Which energy is not a commercial energy
a) electricity b) lignite c) oil d) solar hot water

10. The term missing in the following equation C = (? -32) x 5/9 is
a) F b) RH c) K d) V
a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage/Current c) Voltage x Current d) Ohm x Voltage

12. Energy management involves
a) energy audit skills b) managerial skills

c) combination of technical and managerial skills d) technical skills
13. Oxygen or Carbon Dioxide in the flue gas may be measured with
a) stroboscope b) pitot tube c) lux meter d) fyrite apparatus

14. An energy audit team is formed during
a) the time of study b) pre-audit phase c) audit phase d) post audit phase
15. Energy management does not include
a) energy conservation b) satisfying regulations

c) decreasing unavoidable losses d) fuel substitution
16. An energy audit of a boiler will usually reveal opportunities for
a) energy savings b) blow down reduction

c) energy cost reduction d) all of them
17. A heat balance does not normally consider the following energy flow
a) steam b) lubrication oil c) fuel d) flue gas

18. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m3/hour from a reservoir. The efficiency of the pump is
70%. The flow at the discharge side would be
a) 12 m3/hour b) 8.4 m3/hour c) 17.1 m3/hour d) 3.6 m3/hour

19. A system uses 100 kg of raw material -1, 200 kg of raw material -2 and 220 kg of raw
material – 3. The mix is cured at 220 C. Air is blown to cool the mix which carries
away 40% of the raw material -1 through a chimney. The output product would be
a) 432 kg b) 440 kg c) 480 kg d) 460 kg

20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 25 %. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 13 kg of air per kg of oil and oil consumption is 300 kg per hour, then the
mass of flue gas liberated in kg/ hour would be
a) 4830 b) 2925 c) 4875 d) 3613

21. An analysis which helps to bring into focus the positive and negative forces in an
organisation is
a) energy policy b) energy action planning

c) energy analysis d) force field analysis
22. Improved energy efficiency requires for sure
a) energy audit b) energy policy c) budget d) data validation
______________________ 2
a) measurements b) setting goals

c) top management commitment d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment of energy conservation is

25. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is going up, it means
a) energy consumption is increasing b) energy consumption is reducing

c) specific energy consumption is increasing d) nothing can be said
26. An investment of Rs 96,000 has a simple payback period of two years. The monthly
savings must be
a) Rs 8,000 b) Rs 4,000 c) Rs 9,600 d) Rs 12,000

27. For an investment which has fluctuating annual savings over its project life, which of
the following financial analysis techniques is the best?
a) Simple payback period b) ROI c) NPV d) IRR

28. ESCO stands for
a) Energy supply company b) Energy service company

c) Energy standards company d) Energy sourcing company
29. Cost of a high efficiency fan is Rs. 2.1 lakhs. The simple payback period (SPP) in
years considering annual savings of Rs 75,000 and annual maintenance cost of
Rs 5,000 is
a) 2.8 b) 3.0 c) 2.6 d) 2.4

30. A sum of Rs 50,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
6% interest annually. How much money in Rs. is in the bank account at the end of
the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?
a) 63,245 b) 63,123 c) 66,911 d) 65,000

31. The ozone layer exists in
a) stratosphere b) troposphere c) atmosphere d) at sea level

32. The following is not a step in PERT planning
a) estimate one time required for each activity b) determine the critical path
c) construct a network diagram d) identify activities and milestones
33. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs 5 lakhs which accounts for 24% of the
total monthly energy bill. How high is the plant’s monthly energy bill
a) Rs 6.58 lakhs b) Rs 16.57 lakhs c) Rs 20.83 lakhs d) Rs 13.16 lakhs

34. The first step in a project development cycle is
a) identify project components b) implement the project

c) arrange for financing d) start training
______________________ 3
36. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking progress is
a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) PERT d) CumSum

37. The Calorific Value of coal is 3,200 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of
coal if the Calorific Value of oil is 10,000 kCal/ kg
a) 32 kg b) 96 kg c) 64 kg d) 128 kg
38 The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called
a) production energy ratio b) specific production ratio

c) energy intensity d) specific energy consumption
39. Energy consumed for the period is described by the following equation
a) C + M x production b) C x M + production
c) (C +M) x production d) None of the above
40. The fixed energy consumption of a company is 1000 kWh per month. The line slope
of the energy (y) versus production (x) chart is 0.2. The energy consumed in kWh per
month for a production level of 80,000 tons/month is
a) 18,000 b) 16,000 c) 17,000 d) 80,200

a) critical periodic management b) critical path method

c) cost project management d) critical project monitoring
42. What is not a duty of an energy manager?
a) report to BEE or State level designated agency

b) provide support to accredited energy auditor firm
c) sign an energy policy
months calculated energy consumption is more than actual energy consumption by 8
for each month. This means the energy savings at the end of the fourth month would
be
a) 24 b) 32 c) – 8 d) 0
44. In an industry the energy consumed for a period is 1.3 lakhs kWh. The production in
this period is 10,000 tonnes with a specific energy consumption of 8 kWh/ tonne. The
fixed energy consumption of the plant is
a) 30,000 b) 50,000 c) 80,000 d) 10,000

45. Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring

c) data reporting d) energy efficient equipment financing
called
a) performance contract b) guaranteed savings performance contract

c) traditional contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
a) Carbon Dioxide b) Sulphur Dioxide c) Carbon Monoxide d) Methane
______________________ 4
48. Which is not a Greenhouse gas
a) Methane b) Nitrous Oxide c) Carbon Dioxide d) Sulphur Dioxide

a) Ozone layer depletion b) global warming c) loss of biodiversity

d) suspended particle matter
50. The Prototype Carbon Fund has been established by
a) United Nations b) United States c) World Bank d) Japan
-------- End of Section - I ---------

S-1 Explain the difference between Gross Calorific Value (GCV) and Net Calorific
Value (NCV) of a fuel.
S-2 What are the limitations of a simple pay back period (SPP)?
S-3 The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1400 kW. Calculate the load factor on that
day.
S-4 List four important factors involved in deciding final cost of purchased
electricity.
S-5 What do you mean by energy audit?
S-6 What is reactive power and active power?
S-7 Explain the meaning of fuel substitution and energy substitution with two
examples each.
S-8 In a heat exchanger, steam is used to heat 30 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 35o
C to 85o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.24 kcal/kg oC. The latent heat
of steam is 540 kcal/ kg. How much steam per hour is needed?
S-9 Explain what is meant by Greenhouse effect.
S-10 Calculate the future value of a cash flow with NPV = Rs 1 Lakh at the end of
the 7th year if the interest rate is 5%.
-------- End of Section - II ---------
______________________ 5

L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency.
L-3 In a pumping system the motor efficiency is 95% and pump efficiency is 70%.
The pump discharge is throttled causing 15% loss; moreover 24% are lost
through friction in pipe fittings. The motor draws 42 kW. Calculate the net
water power available at the end of the piping system.
L-4 An investment of Rs 1.5 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
discount rate is 16%.
L-5 Construct a CPM diagram for the example below

A Start 3
B Start 4
C A 1
D B 2
E B 2
F C 3
Finish F,E,D -
______________________ 6
2nd NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2005
FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS AND ENERGY AUDITORS
MODEL TEST SERIES-1

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT
Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

1. Which of the following is not a Primary Energy Source?
a) Oil b) Natural Gas c) Electricity d) Wood
2. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?
a) Bitumen b) Solar Energy c) Coal d) Natural Gas
3. Which of the following States in India does not have proven coal reserve?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Kerala d) West Bengal
4. At present the share of hydro power in the country’s total generated units is around
a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35%
5. Greenhouse effect refers to increase in
a) Global temperature. b) Carbon monoxide c) atmospheric pressure

d) Greenery
6. The nodal agency for coordinating the energy conservation activities under EC act in
India is
a) Bureau of Indian Standards b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency

c) Bureau of Energy Education d) Bureau of Energy and Environment
Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 1 of 14

7. X-Ray is a form of
a. Chemical Energy
b. Radiant Energy
c. Thermal Energy
d. Potential Energy
8. Ratio of maximum demand to connected load is termed as:

a. Load factor
b. Power factor
c. Demand factor
d. Form factor
9. When heat is added or subtracted, resulting in a change of temperature is called as

a. Sensible heat
b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat capacity
10. The objective of energy management is

a) To minimize energy costs
b) To minimize environmental effects
c) a & b
d) None of the above
11. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required
a) Current year’s production
b) Reference year production
c) Reference year energy use
d) Capacity utilization
12. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress is
a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) CUSUM
13. Moderation of chilled water temperature for process is

a) Matching energy usage to requirement
b) Increasing system efficiency
c) None of the above
d) a & b
14. Which of the following is used to represent energy balance of a system?
a) Sankey Diagram
b) Flow Chart
c) Single line Diagram
d) Block Diagram

15. Among the following, which is most important for carrying out a material balance
a) Temperature of Products
b) Mass
c) Waste Quantity
d) Pressure
16. In PV = nRT, Value of R is
a) 0.008206 m3 atm / mole K

b) 0.8206 m3 atm / mole K
c) 0.08206 m3 atm / mole K
d) 0.09206 m3 atm / mole K
17. Energy available in fuels is stored as

a) Heat Energy b) Chemical Energy c) Atomic Energy d) Explosive Energy
18. In continuous process which is considered for carrying out mass balance
a) Material Flow b) Time c) Both a and b d) None of the above
19. Reactive Power is required for

a. Inductive load
b. Resistive load
c. Capacitive load
d. All of the above
20. In a purely resistive circuit the reactive kVAR will be

a) less than 1 b) more than 1 c) zero d) one
21. Which one is the key element for successful Energy Management?
a) Top management support b) Planning c) Monitoring d) Training

22. Capital costs are the costs associated with
a) Design
b) Installation & Commissioning of project
c) a & b
d) Savings from project
23. What is the NPV of a project , (life 2 year) which requires an investment of
Rs.50000 & yield Rs.30000 in the 1st year and Rs.40000/- in the next year, if the
interest rate is 10%
a) 10330
b) (10330)
c) 20660
d) (30660)

24. Which is not a general practice of financing in-house energy management
a) From a central budget
b) Bank loan
c) Money from stock market
d) Hire purchase
25. The first step in a project development cycle is

a) Identify components of the project b) Implement the project c) arrange finance d)
Training
a) Payback b) NPV c)ROI d) IRR
27. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years if the interest rate is 10%?
a) 1610
b) 3221
c) 1331
d) 2420
28. If asset depreciation is considered, then tax cash flow would be
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) No effect
d) None of these
29. ESCO stands for
a) Energy supply company b) Energy service company c) Energy standards
company d) Energy sourcing company
30. Which of the following is not an external source of fund
a) Bank loans
b) Leasing arrangement
c) Revenue budget
d) Private Finance
31. Event in a project network diagram represents
a) Task
b) Milestone
c) a & b
32. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is
a) Recording b) Reporting c) Controlling d) All the above
33. Which is not a green house gas

a) Methane b) Nitrous oxide c) Carbon di oxide d) Sulphur di oxide
34. If LPG has GCV of 12000 Kcal / kg, then 12 KWh is equivalent to --------kg LPG
a) 0.96 b) 0.86 c) 8.6 d) 86

35. Percentage share of different energy consumption in an industry can be best shown
by a
a) Pie Chart b) Bar Chart c) Line Diagram
36. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil
37. In the equation, Energy consumed = C + (M x Production) , where ‘C’ is
a) Variable energy consumption b) Fixed energy consumption

c) Specific energy Consumption d) None of the above
38. Based on the following Net present values, which of the projects is attractive for
investment
a) –2199 b) + 23 c) 0 d) +13
39. While plotting a ‘CUSUM Chart’, it is observed that “CUSUM’ during previous
month was 8, the same during this month will be
a)  8 b)  8 c) = 8 d) Can’t be said
40. Specific energy Consumption can be expressed in which of the following units.
a) Tone / Kwh b) KCal / Kg c) Kcal / Kwh d) None of the above
41. The Ozone layer in the atmosphere acts as an efficient filter for
a) X-Rays b) UV-A Rays c) UV-B Rays d) Intra red Rays
42. Which of the following does not damage ozone layer?
a) CFC b) CCl3 c) HCFC d) HFC
43. Which gas causes global warming among the following?
a) CFC b) SO2 c) O2 d) Argon
44. Ozone has

a) Three oxygen atoms b) Two oxygen atoms c) Two chlorine atoms d) Two
bromine atoms
45. GHG emissions are presented in ------------ Units
a) MMTOE b) MMTCE c) MMTME d) MMT

46. The major source of electrical power generation in India is
a) thermal b) Hydel c) Nuclear d) Wind
b)
47. The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1oC is known as
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat d) calorie
48. Matching energy use to requirement means providing
a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the designers’ needs c) energy with
minimum losses d) less than what is needed
49. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) Zero b) +ve c) –ve d) Less than 1
50. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the
total energy bill. The annual energy bill for the company
a) Rs. 315 lakhs b) Rs. 26 lakhs c) Rs. 38 lakhs d) Rs. 380 lakhs

1 What are the immediate term energy strategies recommended?
The immediate term energy strategies recommended are:

• Rationalizing the tariff structure of various energy products
• Optimum utilization of existing assets
• Efficiency in production systems and reduction in distribution losses, including
those in traditional energy sources.
• Promoting R & D, transfer and use of technologies and practices for
environmentally sound energy systems, including new and renewable energy
sources.
2 A 3  AC Load draws 8 KW power at 400 V supply voltage and 15 A line current.

Calculate the power factor of the load.
Supply Voltage of the System (VL) = 400

Line Current (IL) -=15 A
Apparent Power = 3 x VL x IL
= 3 x 0.400 x 15

= 10.392 KVA
Active Power = 3 x VL x IL x (Cos ) KW
Given, active power of the Load = 8 KW
Hence, 10.392 COS  = 8 KW
8
P.F , Cos = = 0.77
10.392
3 How benchmarking of energy consumption internally and externally may be useful.
Benchmarking of energy consumption internally and externally (historical/trend

analysis) are two powerful tools for performance assessment and logical evolution of
avenues for improvement. Historical data well documented helps to bring out
energy consumption and cost trends month-wise/day-wise trend analysis of energy
consumption, cost, relevant production features, specific energy consumption help to
understand effects of capacity utilization on energy use efficiency and costs on a
broader scale.
4 Why steam is used as a popular mode of conveying energy?
The following characteristics of steam make it very popular and useful to convey
energy in the industries.
• High Specific heat and latent heat

• High heat transfer coefficient
• Easy to control and distribute
• Cheap and inert
5 In a chlora-alkali plant, the inlet brine concentration to cell house is 300 gpl and the
outlet concentration is 260 gpl. If 3 MT Salt is added per hour, find out the brine
flow rate to the Cell House.
Answer :
Inlet concentration of brine = 300 gpl
Outlet concentration of brine = 260 gpl
Salt consumption per litre of Flow = (300-260) gm
= 40 gm = 0.040 Kg
For 3 MT/hr Salt consumption, flows = 3 x 1000 Kg /hr
----------------------
0.040 Kg/lit
= 75,080 Lit/hr
= 75 m3/hr
6 What are the duties and responsibilities (five each) of Energy Manager as per the

Energy Conservation Act 2001?
Responsibilities
• Prepare an annual activity plan and present to management concerning

financially attractive investments to reduce energy costs
• Establish an energy conservation cell within the firm with management’s
consent about the mandate and task of the cell.
• Initiate activities to improve monitoring and process control to reduce energy
costs.
• Analyze equipment performance with respect to energy efficiency
• Ensure proper functioning and calibration of instrumentation required to
assess level of energy consumption directly or indirectly.
Duties
• Report to BEE and State level Designated Agency once a year the
information with regard to the energy consumed and action taken on the
recommendation of the accredited energy auditor, as per BEE Format.
• Establish an improved data recording, collection and analysis system to keep
track of energy consumption.
• Provide support to Accredited Energy Audit Firm retained by the company
for the conduct of energy audit
• Provide information to BEE as demanded in the Act, and with respect to the
tasks given by a mandate, and the job description.
• Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy and its conservation and
implement such scheme keeping in view of the economic stability of the
investment in such form and manner as may be provided in the regulations of
the Energy Conservation Act.
7 Explain Net Prevent Value and how NPV is calculated.
Net Present Value:

The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present values of
all the cash flows associated with it.
- CF0 CF1 CFn n CFt
NPV = (1 + k)0 +
(1 + k)1 + ---- +
(1 + k)n =
Σ (1 + k)t
t=0
CF t = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘ t ‘ (t = 0,1, ….n)
n = Life of the project
k = Discount rate
The discount rate (k) employed for evaluating the present value of the expected
future cash flows should reflect the risk of the project.
8 Define project and mention various steps involved in Project Management

A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service.
A project is temporary in that there is a defined start (the decision to proceed) and a
defined end (the achievement of the goals and objectives)
Steps in Project Management:

The various steps in a project management are:
a) Project definition and scope
b) Technical Design
c) Financing
d) Contracting
e) Implementation
Performance Monitoring
9 Calculate fixed energy consumption for a rolling mill consuming 3,00,000 units
electricity to produce 500 MT product per month and having specific energy
consumption of 500 Kwh/MT.
Total energy consumed = Fixed Energy Consumption + (Specific Energy

Consumption x Production)
Fixed energy consumption = Total energy consumed – (Specific energy
consumption x Production)
Given,
Total Energy Consumption = 3,00,000 Kwh
Specific energy Consumption = 500 Kwh / MT
Total Production = 500 Mt
Fixed Energy Consumption = 300000 – (500 x 500)
= 5000 Units
10 Explain briefly about Emission Trading?
Article 17 of the Kyoto protocol opens up for emissions trading between countries
that have made commitments to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The countries
have option to delegate this right of emissions trading to companies or other
organizations.
In a system for emissions trading, the total amount of emissions permitted is pre-
defined. The corresponding emissions allowances are then issued to the emitting
installations through auction or issued freely. Through trading, installations with
low costs for reductions are stimulated to make reductions and sell their surplus of
emissions allowances to organizations where reductions are more expensive. Both
the selling and buying company wins on this flexibility that trades offers with
positive effects on economy, resource efficiency and climate. The environmental

advantage is that one knows, in advance, the amount of greenhouse gases that will
be emitted. The economical advantage is that the reductions are done where the
reduction costs are the lowest. The system allows for a cost effective way to reach a
pre-defined target and stimulates environmental technology development.

1 Explain in detail the difference between Energy Conservation and Energy efficiency
and its relevance
Energy Conservation and Energy Efficiency are separate, but related concepts.
Energy conservation is achieved when growth of energy consumption is reduced,
measured in physical terms. Energy Conservation can, therefore, be the result of
several processes or developments, such as productivity increase or technological
progress. On the other hand Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a
specific product, process or area of production or consumption is reduced without
affecting output consumption or comfort levels.
Promotion of energy efficiency will contribute to energy conservation and is therefore
an integral part of energy conservation promotional policies.
Energy efficiency is often viewed as a resource option like coal, oil or natural gas.
Energy efficiency provides additional economic value by preserving the resource
base and reducing pollution. For example, replacing traditional light bulbs with
Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) will use only ¼ of the energy to light a room.
Apart from the economic benefits, energy conservation and energy efficiency
measures would assist in controlling the CO2 emission.
2 Explain in detail the methodology for conducting a detailed energy audit.
A detailed energy audit is carried out in three phases:

a) Pre-audit phase
b) Audit phase &
c) Post Audit phase
Pre Audit Phase:

A structured methodology to carryout an energy audit is necessary for efficient
working. An initial study of the site is essential, which will give an energy auditor an
opportunity to meet the personnel concerned to familiarize the site and assess the
procedures necessary to carry out the energy audit. The main aim of this visits are:
• To identify the main energy consuming areas/plant items to be surveyed during

the audit.

• To identify any existing instrumentation/additional metering required
• To decide whether any meters will have to be installed prior to the audit e.g. Kwh
steam, oil or gas meters.
• To identify the instrumentation required for carrying out the audit
Audit Phase:
As a first step during the audit phase, Energy Auditor would collect the base line
data, preparation of process flow charts etc. The monitoring and measurement will be
next stage. As per the field observations, detailed trials may be conducted for
selected energy guzzlers in the plant. Once all the operating data and design data and
other operational practices are collected/observed, detailed analysis of the data will
have to be done. Based on the analyses, Energy Conservation opportunities may be
developed and the economic viability of the options has to be established. The study
has to properly documented and the suggestions and findings are to be presented to
the top management
Post-Audit Phase:
In post audit phase the energy Auditor/Engineer may assist and implement the energy
conservation recommendation measures and monitor the performance.
3 During a ESP performance evaluation study, the inlet gas stream to ESP is
289920NM3/hr and the dust loading is 5500 mg/ NM3. The outlet gas stream from
ESP is 301100M3/hr and the dust loading is 110 mg/NM3. How much fly ash is
collected in the system?
Based on Mass balance,
Inlet gas stream dust = Outlet Gas stream dust + Fly ash
a) Inlet gas stream flow = 289920 NM3/hr

Dust Concentration = 5500 mg/NM3
Inlet dust quantity = 289920 x 5500
-----------
1000000
= 1594.50 kg/hr
b) Outlet dust quantity = 301100 (NM3/hr) x 110 (mg/NM3) x 1

----------
1000000
= 33.12 kg/hr
c) Fly Ash = Inlet gas stream dust – Outlet gas stream dust
= 1594.56 – 33.12 = 1561.44 kg/hr
4 Explain the following stating the advantages and limitations if any

a) Simple Pay Back Period

b) Return on Investment
c) Internal rate of return
Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation: the time (number
of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost), considering only the
Net Annual Saving:
Examples First cost
Simple payback period = Yearly benefits – Yearly costs
Advantages:
A widely used investment criterion, the payback period seems to offer the following
advantages:
• It is simple, both in concept and application. Obviously a shorter payback
generally indicates a more attractive investment. It does not use tedious
calculations.
• It favours projects, which generate substantial cash inflows in earlier years, and
discriminates against projects, which bring substantial cash inflows in later years
but not in earlier years.
Limitations:
• It fails to consider the time value of money.
• It ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. This leads to discrimination
against projects that generate substantial cash inflows in later years.
Return on Investment (ROI)
ROI expresses the “annual return” from the project as a percentage of capital cost.
The annual return takes into account the cash flows over the project life and the
discount rate by converting the total present value of ongoing cash flows to an
equivalent annual amount over the life of the project, which can then be compared to
the capital cost.
Limitations:
• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash inflows.
Internal Rate of Return:
This method calculates the rate of return that the investment is expected to yield. The
internal rate of return (IRR) method expresses each investment alternative in terms of
a rate of return (a compound interest rate).
popular discounted cash flow method, the internal rate of return criterion has several
advantages:
• It makes sense to businessmen who prefer to think in terms of rate of return and
find an absolute quantity, like net present value, somewhat difficult to work with.
Limitations:
The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between lending and borrowing

and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be a desirable feature.
5 Explain in detail about Ozone Layer depletion process ad its various effects
Ozone is highly reactive and easily broken down by man-made chlorine and bromine
compounds. These compounds are found to be most responsible for most of ozone
layer depletion.
The ozone depletion process begins when CFCs (used in refrigerator and air
conditioners) and other ozone depleting substances (ODS) are emitted into the
atmosphere. Winds efficiently mix and evenly distribute the ODS in the troposphere.
These ODS compounds do not dissolve in rain, are extremely stable, and have a long
life span. After several years, they reach the stratosphere by diffusion.
Strong UV light breaks apart the ODS molecules. CFCs, HCFCs, carbon
tetrachloride, methyl chloroform release chlorine atoms, and halons and methyl
bromide release bromine atoms. It is the chlorine and bromine atom that actually
destroys ozone, not the intact ODS molecule. It is estimated that one chlorine atom
can destroy from 10,000 to 100,000 ozone molecules before it is finally removed from
the stratosphere.
Effects on Human and Animal Health :
Increased penetration of solar UV-B radiation is likely to have high impact on human
health with potential risks of eye diseases, skin cancer and infectious diseases.
Effects on Terrestrial Plants :
In forests and grasslands, increased radiation is likely to change species composition

thus altering the bio-diversity in different ecosystems. It could also affect the plant
community indirectly resulting in changes in plant form, secondary metabolism, etc.
Effects pm Aquatic Ecosystems:
High levels of radiation exposure in tropics and subtropics may affect the distribution
of phytoplanktons, which form the foundation of aquatic food webs. It can also cause
damage to early development stages of fish, shrimp, crab, amphibians and other
animals, the most severe effects being decreased reproductive capacity and impaired
larval development.
Effects on Bio-geo-chemical Cycles : Increased solar UV radiation could affect

terrestrial and aquatic bio-geo-chemical cycles thus altering both sources and sinks of
greenhouse and important trace gases, e.g. carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide
(CO), carbonyl sulfide (COS), etc. These changes would contribute to biosphere-
atmosphere feedbacks responsible for the atmosphere build-up of these greenhouse
gases.

Effects on Air-Quality : Reduction of stratospheric ozone and increased penetration
of UV-B radiation result in higher photo dissociation rates of key trace gases that
control the chemical reactivity of the troposphere. This can increase both production
and destruction of ozone and related oxidants such as hydrogen peroxide, which are
known to have adverse effects on human health, terrestrial plants and outdoor
materials.

Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions
18th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2017
PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY

AUDIT

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen, as per
instructions
1. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?
a) CFCs b) SO2 c) PFC d) SF6

2. Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of
a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide

c) only ethane d) none of these
3. In a boiler, fuel substitution of coal with rice husk results in
a) energy conservation
b) energy efficiency
c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency
d) carbon neutrality
4. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow
Energy conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its
a) connected load is 120 kW and above

b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above
c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and above
_______________________ 1
d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA

5. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation
Act, 2001?
a) monitoring and analysis of energy use

b) verification of energy use
d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by
review
6. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumer?
a) designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor

b) adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as notified
c) submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d) conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
7. Which of the following is an energy security measure?
a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources

b) diversifying energy supply source
c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible
d) all of the above
8. Which of the following statements are true?
i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of
inductive devices
ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work
iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor
iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor
a) i & iv b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv

9. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are true?
i) ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC

ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount
of heat is retained in ETC
iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient temperature
i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii
_______________________ 2
10. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due
to Hydrogen in the fuel?
a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil

11. Assume CO equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
2
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO 2
emissions will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
12. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is
a) kW / kg of refrigerant used b) kcal / m3 of chilled water

c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration
measured in
a) kcal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.

14. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as
a) commercial energy b) primary energy

c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
15. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water
is evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above

a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1
17. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to
be appointed/designated by the
a) state designated agencies b) all industrial consumers

c) designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
18. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called .
a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink

c) carbon capture d) carbon adsorption
19. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?
a) lead b) mercury c) water d) alcohol

20. The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings
_______________________ 3
is Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

21. is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the
relationship between variables and enables standard equations to be established for
energy consumption.
a) linear regression analysis b) time-dependent energy analysis

c) moving annual total d) CUSUM
22. The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec
with a head of 14 meters and with a system efficiency of 55% is
a) 226.6 kW b) 76.4 kW c) 23.1 kW d) none of the above
23. Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for
energy conservation?
i) Kaizen events are structured for reduction of only energy wastes

ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in
energy conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of
top management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may
result in significant savings in overall energy use
a) ii & iv b) i & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv

a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W

25. The producer gas basically consists of
a) Only CH4 b) CO & CH4 c) CO, H2 & CH4 d) Only CO & H2

26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?
a) Time between its earliest start time and earliest finish time
b) Time between its latest start time and latest finish time
c) Time between latest start time and earliest finish time
d) Time between earliest finish time and latest finish time
27. The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted periodically by
a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor
_______________________ 4
c) accredited energy auditor d) state Designated Agencies

28.
The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2 is
a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh

29.
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is
335 kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

30. An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an
industry. How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30oC to
85oC ignoring losses?.
a) 1.3 b) 78.18 c) 275 d) none of the above

31. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating is:
a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above

32. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 oC is
known as:

33. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench Marking?
a) scale of operation b) energy pricing

c) raw materials and product quality d) vintage of technology
34. A sling psychrometer is used to measure :
a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature

c) both a & b d) relative humidity
The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------
35.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
36. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply
voltage is reduced to 220 V.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
37. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production -
1200 pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy
consumption - 950 kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month
_______________________ 5
is -------
a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh

38. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?
a) CO2 b) CFC
c) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)
39. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is known
as
a) apparent power b) active power

c) reactive power d) none of the above
40. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in energy consumption to
generate the same output
a) 12% increase b) 14.6% increase

c) 17.1% decrease d) 17.1% increase
power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical
shaft power output of the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
42. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on
a) solar energy insolation b) inverter

c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power output
43. To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas needs to
be done?
a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO

44. An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is
a) wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature

c) density of air d) dry bulb temperature
a) electricity is high-grade energy

b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact
c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals rather
than heating water for bath
_______________________ 6
d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the molecules
of carbon in coal
46. Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels?
a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow.

b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature
c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value
d) viscous fuels need heat tracing
47. The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a plant
was Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on investment is:
a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above

a) kcal/kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC.

c) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kWh/kg of yarn
49. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as
a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service

c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
50. In project financing ,sensitivity analysis is applied because
a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty

b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters
c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) all the above situation
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

S-1 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
consumers?
Ans  In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-
peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in. Many
_______________________ 7
electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will
record peak, off-peak and normal period consumption, separately.
 TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour
tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher
line losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by
reduced demand
…………………..5 marks
( each point consider 1.5 marks)
S- 2 In a chemical factory where dyes are made, wet cake at 30 OC consisting of 60% moisture
is put in a dryer to obtain an output having only 5% moisture, at atmospheric pressure. In
each batch about 120 kgs of material is dried.
a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch.
b. What is the total quantity ( sensible & latent) of heat required to evaporate the
moisture, if the latent heat of water is 540 kcal/kg at atmospheric conditions,
Ignore heat absorbed by the solids
c. Find the quantity of steam required for the drying process (per batch), if steam
at 4 kg/cm2 is used for generating hot air in the dryer and the dryer efficiency
is 80%. Latent heat of steam at 4 kg/cm2 is 520 kcal/kg.
Ans Given that

 Qty of material dried per batch - 120 Kgs
 Moisture at inlet - 60%
 Water quantity in a wet batch - 120 x 0.6 = 72 Kgs.

 Quantity of bone dry material - 120 – 72 = 48 Kgs.
 Moisture at outlet - 5%
 Total weight of dry batch output - 48/0.95 = 50.5 Kgs.
 Equivalent water in a dry batch - 50.5 - 48 = 2.5 Kgs.
_______________________ 8
 Total water removed in drying - 72 – 2.5 = 69.5 Kgs./batch

…………………….1.5 marks
b. The total quantity of heat required to evaporate the moisture.
To evaporate the moisture at atmospheric pressure, the material has to be first heated
up to 100 OC.
The total heat required would be;
Sensible heat - 72 x 1 x (100 – 30) = 5040 Kcal/batch

Latent heat - 69.5 x 540 = 37530 Kcal/batch
Total heat required - 5040 + 37530 = 42570 Kcal/batch
…………………….2 marks
c. The quantity of steam required for the drying process
Dryer Efficiency - 80%
Heat input to dryer - 42570/0.8 = 53212.50 Kcal/batch

Latent heat in 4 Kg/cm2 steam - 520 Kcal/Kg
Steam quantity required - 53212.50 / 520 = 102.3 Kgs / batch
…………………….1.5 marks
S-3 Explain PAT scheme and why it is a market based mechanism?
Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to
enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive
large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be
traded. The genesis of the PAT mechanism flows out of the provision of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010).
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for
the most energy intensive industries in sectors as listed below.
Sector
1. Aluminium
2. Cement
3. Chlor-Alkali
4. Fertilizer
5. Iron and Steel
6. Pulp and Paper
7. Textile
8. Thermal Power Plant
_______________________ 9
The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is depended on its operating
efficiency and the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient and more for the less efficient units.
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement
targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve
superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to
trade the additional certified energy savings certificates with other designated
consumers who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy
consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be
tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank
them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in which they have been issued.
The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the quantum of energy
saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year.
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3
to 7% are set and need to be accomplished during the 3 year cycle; after which new cycle
with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption
targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-compliance under Section
26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). For ensuring the
compliance with the set targets, system of verification and check-verification will be
carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
…………………….5 marks
Refer Book 1: Pg no 40-41

S-4 Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).
Ans Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
power was introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation
 It is a performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
generators owned and controlled by the central government.
 It is also a new system of scheduling and dispatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day - ahead schedule.
 It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a half
hours in advance.
 The order emphasizes prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action.
…………………….5 marks
_______________________ 10
S –5 In a heat treatment shop, steel components are heat-treated in batches of 80 Tons. The
heat treatment cycle is as follows;
 Increase temperature from 30 OC to 850 OC in 3 hours.
 Maintain 850 OC for 1 hour (soaking time).
 Cool the material to 60 OC in 4 hours.
a) Calculate the efficiency of the furnace, if the specific heat of steel is 0.12 kcal/kg OC
and fuel oil consumption per batch is 1400 litres.
 GCV of fuel oil - 10200 kcal/kg,

 Cost of fuel oil - Rs. 46,000/kL,
 Sp. gr. of fuel oil - 0.92.
b) Due to high cost of oil, the plant management decides to convert to a lower operating
cost LPG fired furnace lined on the inside with ceramic fibre insulation and with an
operating efficiency of 80%, for same requirement. The investment towards installation of
the new furnace is Rs. 50 lakhs. Calculate the Return on Investment, if the plant operates
two batches per day and 250 days in a year.
 Cost of LPG - Rs. 75/kg,

 GCV of LPG - 12500 kcal/kg.
Ans Quantity of steel treated per batch - 80 Tons
a. Efficiency of Furnace:
Useful heat supplied to steel - 80000 x 0.12 x (850 – 30)
= 7872000 kcal/batch
…………………….1 mark
Total heat supplied by fuel - 1400 x 0.92 x 10200
Efficiency of Furnace - 7872000/12067824 = 59.9%
…………………….1 mark
b. Return on Investment (RoI):
Cost of operating fuel oil furnace - 1400 x 46 = Rs. 64400/batch
Efficiency of new LPG furnace - 80%
Heat supplied in new LPG furnace - 7872000/0.8
_______________________ 11
Equivalent LPG consumption - 9840000/12500
= 787.2 kg/batch
…………………….1 mark
Cost of operating LPG Furnace - 787.2 x 75
=Rs. 59040/batch
Cost saving per batch - 64400 – 59040 =Rs. 5360/-
Annual cost saving - 5360 x 2 x 250
=Rs. 26,80,000/-
…………………….1 mark
Investment for new furnace - Rs. 50 Lakhs
Return on Investment (RoI) - (26.8/50)*100 = 53.6%
…………………….1 mark
S–6 In a 100 TPD Sponge Iron plant, the sponge iron is fed to the Induction melting furnace,
producing molten steel at 88% yield. The Energy consumption details are as follows:
Coal Consumption : 130 TPD

GCV of coal : 4500 kcal/kg
Power Purchased from Grid : 82400 kWh / day
Specific Energy consumption for Kiln producing Sponge Iron: 120 kWh / ton sponge iron
82400 kWh/day
from Grid
Factory Boundary
Electricity for
Induction Melting
130 TPD Coal Furnace
4500 kcals/kg
100 TPD Sponge
Induction Melting
Iron Ore Iron Molten
Sponge Iron Kiln Furnace
steel
Grid Electricity Yield: 88%
120 kWh/t of
Sponge iron
Calculate the following

1. Specific Energy Consumption of Induction melting furnace in terms of kWh/ton of
molten steel
2. Specific Energy Consumption of the entire plant, in terms of kcal/kg of molten

steel (product).
3. Total Energy Consumption of Plant in Tons of Oil Equivalent (TOE )
_______________________ 12
Ans a) Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace
Molten Steel Production from the Induction melting furnace per day
= 100 x 88/100 = 88 TPD
Total Energy Consumption of the Plant = 82400 kWh
Electrical Energy Consumption in Sponge Iron Making = 120 x 100

= 12000 kWh per day
Electrical Energy Consumption in Induction Melting Furnace = 82400-12000

= 70400 kWh/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace= 70400 / 88
= 800 kWh/ton of molten steel
…………………….1 mark
b)Total Energy Consumption of the Plant:
(82400x860) + (130x1000x4500) = (70864000+585000000)

= 655864000 kcal/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption in terms of kcal/kg of Molten metal
=655864000/88000 =7453 kcal/kg of molten metal
…………………….1 mark
c) Total Energy consumption of Plant in ToE
= 655864000/107 = 65.586 ToE

…………………….1 mark
S- 7 A manufacturing industry plans to improve its energy performance under PAT through
implementation of an energy conservation scheme. After implementation, calculate the
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) with 2015-16 as the reference year. What is your
inference?
Given that:
 The current year (2016-17 ) Annual Production – 28,750 T ,
 Current year (2016-17 ) Annual Energy Consumption– 23,834 MWh,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) production - 34,000 T,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) Energy consumption - 27,200 MWh.
Ans Production factor (PF) = 28750/34000 = 0.846

…………………….1 mark
Ref year equivalent energy (RYEE) = Ref Year Energy Use (RYEU) x PF
= 27,200 x 0.846= 23011MWh
_______________________ 13
…………………….1 mark
PEP = (RYEE – current year energy)/RYEE = (23011 – 23834)/23011
= (-) 0.0369 ie (-) 3.7 %
…………………….1.5 marks
Since the PEP is negative, it implies that the energy conservation measure did not yield
reduction in energy consumption, action to be taken to improve the plant performance.
…………………….1.5 marks
S-8 List down any five Designated Consumers notified under the Energy Conservation Act.
Ans
(1) Aluminium, (2) Cement, (3) Chloralkali, (4) Fertiliser, (5) Steel, (6) Pulp & Paper,
(7)Thermal Power Plants, (8) Textile, (9) Railways.
…………………….5 marks
( any 5 of the above and each one carries one mark)

L - 1 Saturated steam at 1 atm is discharged from a turbine at 1200 kg/h. Superheated steam at 300 0C
and 1 atm is needed as a feed to a heat exchanger. To produce it, the turbine discharge stream is
mixed with superheated steam at 400 0C, 1 atm and specific volume of 3.11 m3/kg.
Calculate the amount of superheated steam at 300 0C produced and the volumetric flow rate of the
400 0C steam.
Ans Solution
1. Mass balance of water
1200 + m1 = m2 ………………………………………… (1)
…………………….1 mark
2. Energy balance
(1200 kg/h)(2676 kJ/kg) + m1(3278 kJ/kg)
_______________________ 14
= m2(3074 kJ/kg) ……………………………………. …. (2)

…………………….1 mark
Eqs. (1) and (2) are solved simultaneously
3211200 + 3278m1 = (1200 + m1)3074
m1 = 2341.2 kg/h
m2 = 1200 + 2341.2 = 3541.2 kg/h (superheated steam produced)
…………………….4 marks
o
3. Volumetric flow rate of 400 C steam
The specific volume of steam at 400 C and 1 atm is 3.11 m3/kg. The volumetric flow rate is
calculated as follows:
(2341.2 kg/h)(3.11 m3/kg)
= 7281.1 m3/h
…………………….4 marks
L –2 The energy consumption and production patterns in a chemical plant over a 9 month period is provided in
the table below;
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Production in Tonnes / month 493 297 381 479 585 440 234 239 239
Energy Consumption MWh /month 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1
th
Estimate the cumulative energy savings at end of the 9 month and give your inference on the
result ? ( consider 9 month data for evaluation for predicted energy consumption)
Ans It is required to use the equations Y= mX + C and
nC + mΣX = ΣY
cΣX + mΣX2 = ΣXY
X=
Y =Energy
Production in
Month Consumption MWh X2 XY
Tonnes /
/month
month
1 493 78.2 243049 38574.12
2 297 75.7 88209 22479.51
3 381 76.3 145161 29076.88
4 479 76.1 229441 36436.09
5 585 78.1 342225 45671.42
6 440 70.7 193600 31110.53
7 234 73.7 54756 17240.63
8 239 64.4 57121 15402.96
9 239 72.1 57121 17228.98
3387 665.3 1410683 253221
_______________________ 15
Therefore, the normal equations become;

9c + 3387m = 665.3 ……….i
3387C + 1410683m = 253221.1 ……… ii
…………………….2 marks
c = (665.3-3387m)/9
Substituting in Eq. ii,
m = 0.021 and
c = 66.1
The best-fit straight line equation is;
y = 0.021x + 66.1
…………………….3 marks
Production in E cal Y =
Tonnes / 0.021x + Difference
Month month x Eactual 66.1 CUSUM
1 493 78.2 76.45 1.75 1.75
2 297 75.7 72.34 3.36 5.11
3 381 76.3 74.10 2.20 7.31
4 479 76.1 76.16 -0.06 7.25
5 585 78.1 78.39 -0.28 6.97
6 440 70.7 75.34 -4.64 2.33
7 234 73.7 71.01 2.69 5.01
8 239 64.4 71.12 -6.72 -1.71
9 239 72.1 71.12 0.98 -0.73
…………………….4 marks
Since the CUSUM value at the end of 9th month is negative, the plant has not achieved any net energy
savings and action has to be taken to determine reason for no performance of the encon option.
…………………….1 mark
L - 3 Explain the following
a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature
b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net Calorific Value
d) 5S & Return of Investment (ROI)
e) CUSUM
_______________________ 16
Ans a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature
• Dry bulb Temperature is an indication of the sensible heat content of air-water vapour
mixtures
• Wet bulb Temperature is a measure of total heat content or enthalpy. It is the temperature
approached by the dry bulb and the dew point as saturation occurs.
…………………….2 marks
• Maximum demand is maximum KVA or KW over one billing cycle

• Power Factor Cos = kW/ KVA or kW = kVA cos 
…………………….2 marks
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net calorific Value:
• Gross calorific value assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully
condensed.
• Net calorific value assumes the water leaves with the combustion products without being
fully condensed.
• The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour produced during
the combustion process.
…………………….2 marks
d) 5S:
Housekeeping. Separate needed items from unneeded items. Keep only what is
immediately necessary item on the shop floor.
Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be easily and
quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.
Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area immediately.
Cleanliness. Keep everything clean in a constant state of readiness.
Discipline. Everyone understands, obeys, and practices the rules when in the plant.
…………………….1 mark( any one of the above is sufficient)
d) Return on Investment:
ROI expresses the annual return from project as % of capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment,
_______________________ 17
expressed as a percentage.
…………………….1 mark
e) Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) Technique:
• Difference between expected or standard consumption with actual consumption data

points over baseline period of time.
• Follows a fixed trend unless something (energy saving measure, deterioration in

performance..) happens
• Helps calculation of savings/losses till date after changes
…………………….2 marks
L – 4 Answer the following

Chose the correct
S. No Statement answer OR
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 True/False
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks
Non Contact Infrared Thermometer cannot measure
3 True/False
temperature of objects placed in hazardous places
To measure the RPM of a Flywheel, ______ type of RPM
4 meter is used and for a visible shaft-end _______ type of Fill in the blanks
RPM meter is used.
In a switch yard, _____ instrument is used to identify the
5 Fill in the blanks
loose joints and terminations
Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy
audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within
______ months of notification issued by the Central
Government
280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 3.5 bar is

equivalent to __________kPa
8 One metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW Fill in the blanks
1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% of Carbon produces

______ kg of CO2
_______________________ 18
In a gasification system the reduction zone is above the

10 True/False
combustion zone
Ans Chose the correct

Sr
Statement answer OR Solution
No
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and True/False False
SO2
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the Fill in the blanks Transit Time; Doppler
principle of____& ____ Effect
3 Non Contact Infrared True/False False

Thermometer cannot measure
temperature of objects placed in
hazardous places
4 To measure the RPM of a Fill in the blanks Stroboscope; Tachometer
Flywheel, ______ type of RPM
meter is used and for a visible
shaft-end _______ type of
RPM meter is used.
5 In a switch yard, _____ Fill in the blanks Thermal imager or IR gun
instrument is used to identify
the loose joints and
terminations
6 Every Designated Consumer Fill in the blanks Accredited ; 18 months
shall have its first energy audit
conducted by ________ Energy
Auditor within ______ months
of notification issued by the
Central Government
7 Fill in the blanks 325.6 Watts;
280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to
(280x4.187x1000/3600)
_____Watts and 3.5 bar is
350 kPa (3.5 x100)
8 One metric ton of oil equivalent Fill in the blanks 11.62 MW
is to ________MW (1x1000x10000/(860x1000)
9 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% Fill in the blanks 1.1
of Carbon produces ______ kg [(44/12)x(0.3]
of CO2
10 In a gasification system the True/False False
reduction zone is above the
combustion zone
_______________________ 19
…………………….10 marks(each one carries one mark)
L - 5 A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated
below;
Project 1:
i. Investment – Rs. 15 Lakhs
ii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 4 lakhs.
iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost – Rs. 50,000/-
iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs
v. Life of the project – 8 years
vi. Salvage value – Rs. 5 lakhs
Project 2:
vii. Investment – Rs. 14 Lakhs
viii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 3.5 lakhs.
ix. Annual Maintenance cost – Rs. 20,000/-
x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs
xi. Life of the project – 8 years
xii. Salvage Value- 2 lakhs
Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12%.
_______________________ 20
Ans
Year Project 1 Project 2
Outgo Saving NPV Outgo Saving NPV
0 15.0 0 =-15.0 14.0 0 = -14
1 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1
= 3.571 = 2.95
2 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)2
= 2.79 = 2.63
3 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)3 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)3
= 2.84 = 2.35
4 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)4 5 3.5 = (-1.5 / (1+.12)4
= 2.22 = -0.95
5 6 4.0 = (-2 / (1+.12)5 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)5
= -1.13 = 1.87
6 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)6 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)6
= 1.77 = 1.67
7 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)7 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)7
= 1.81 = 1.49
8 0.5 9 (4+5) = (8.5 / (1+.12)8 0.2 5.5 = (5.3 / (1+.12)8
= 3.43 (3.5+2) = 2.14
NPV = + 2.301 @12% = + 0.15
NPV Project 1 is higher than Project 2. Hence project 1 is preferred.

…………………….10 marks
A project activity has several components as indicated below;
L- 6 S. Activity Preceded by Duration (in

No. Weeks)
1 A - 8
2 B A 6
3 C A 12
4 D B 4
5 E D 5
6 F B 12
7 G E& F 9
8 H C 8
9 I F&H 5
10 J I&G 6
d. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the
critical path.
_______________________ 21
e. What are the Earliest Start, Latest Start and Total Float of activity ‘H’?
f. What would be the project duration if activity ‘H’ got delayed by 3 weeks?
Ans PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow
D 5 G
B 5 9 J, 6
A 6 F,12 I ,5
8 c
12 H 8
OR
PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node
…………………….6 marks
a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J
…………………….1 mark
b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks
_______________________ 22
…………………….1 mark
c. For activity H, Early Start is 20, Latest Start is 22 and Total Float is 2 weeks.
…………………….1 mark
d. Project duration will be 42 weeks- a delay of 1 week.

…………………….1 mark
_______________________ 23
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

FOR

AUDIT
Date: 23.09.2017 Timings: 09:30-12:30 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

instructions
1. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How

much water is evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
2.
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0oC. If the latent heat of fusion of
ice is 335 kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

3. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to
follow Energy conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act,
2001 provided its

c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and
above
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature, if
the supply voltage is reduced to 220 V.
_______________________ 1
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

6. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the
operating power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then
the mechanical shaft power output of the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
7. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating
is:

8. An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in
an industry. How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from
30oC to 85oC ignoring losses?.

9. An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is

10. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal
efficiency drops from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in
energy consumption to generate the same output

11. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is
required to be appointed/designated by the

12.
Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are
of the order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent
CO2 emissions will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
_______________________ 2
a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide

c) only ethane d) none of these
a) commercial energy b) primary energy
c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
15. In a boiler, fuel substitution of coal with rice husk results in
a) energy conservation
b) energy efficiency
c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency
d) carbon neutrality
16. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month:
Production - 1200 pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece;
variable energy consumption - 950 kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of
the plant for the month is -------

17. In project financing , sensitivity analysis is applied because
a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty

b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters
c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) all the above situation
18. is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the
relationship between variables and enables standard equations to be established
for energy consumption.


20. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is
known as

_______________________ 3
21. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual
savings achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment
and/or services. This is known as

22. The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a
plant was Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on
investment is:
a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above

a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W

24. The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers
should get energy audits conducted periodically by

a) solar energy insolation b) inverter

c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power output
The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------
27.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
28. The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of
3 m3/sec with a head of 14 meters and with a system efficiency of 55% is
29. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called .

30. The producer gas basically consists of
_______________________ 4
31. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by
1oC is known as:
measured in
33. The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings is Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%
34.
The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2
is
35. To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas
needs to be done?
a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO

36. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on
combustion due to Hydrogen in the fuel ?

37. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumer?
a. designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor

b. adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as
notified
c. submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d. conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
a) CO2 b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)

39. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

d) all of the above
_______________________ 5
a) electricity is high-grade energy

b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact
c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals
rather than heating water for bath
d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the
molecules of carbon in coal

43. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy
Conservation Act, 2001?

d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by
review
44. Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels?
a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow.

b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature
c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value
d) viscous fuels need heat tracing
45. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench
Marking?

i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field
of inductive devices
_______________________ 6
47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?
48. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are
true?

ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher
amount of heat is retained in ETC
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient
temperature
a) i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii

49. Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of
Kaizen for energy conservation?

ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get
involved in energy conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and
approval of top management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area
may result in significant savings in overall energy use
a) ii & iv b) i & iv c) iii & iv d) i & iv

a) kcal/kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC.

c) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kWh/kg of yarn
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

_______________________ 7
S-1 Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).
Ans Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
power was introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation
 It is a performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
 It is also a new system of scheduling and dispatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day - ahead schedule.
 It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a half
hours in advance.
 The order emphasizes prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action.
…………………….5 marks
S- 2 A manufacturing industry plans to improve its energy performance under PAT through
implementation of an energy conservation scheme. After implementation, calculate the
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) with 2015-16 as the reference year. What is your
inference?
Given that:
 The current year (2016-17 ) Annual Production – 34000 T ,
 Current year (2016-17 ) Annual Energy Consumption– 27,200 MWh,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) production - 28,750 T,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) Energy consumption - 23,834MWh.
Ans Production factor (PF) = 34000 / 28750= 1.18

…………………….1 mark
Ref year equivalent energy (RYEE) = Ref Year Energy Use (RYEU) x PF
= 23834 x 1.18= 28124.12MWh
…………………….1.5 marks
PEP = (RYEE – current year energy)/RYEE = (28124.12 – 27200)/28124.12
= (+) 0.0329 ie (+) 3.3 %
…………………….1.5 marks
Since the PEP is positive, it implies that the energy conservation measure had yield
reduction in energy consumption. Action has to be taken to improve plant performance.
…………………….1 mark
S- 3 List down any five Designated Consumers notified under the Energy Conservation Act.
_______________________ 8
Ans
(1) Aluminium, (2) Cement, (3) Chloralkali, (4) Fertiliser, (5) Steel, (6) Pulp & Paper,
(7)Thermal Power Plants, (8) Textile, (9) Railways.
…………………….5 marks
( any 5 of the above and each one carries one mark)
S-4 In a 100 TPD Sponge Iron plant, the sponge iron is fed to the Induction melting furnace,
producing molten steel at 86% yield. The Energy consumption details are as follows:
Coal Consumption : 130 TPD

GCV of coal : 4500 kcal/kg
Power Purchased from Grid : 82400 kWh / day
Specific Energy consumption for Kiln producing Sponge Iron: 120 kWh / ton sponge iron
82400 kWh/day
from Grid
Factory Boundary
Electricity for
Induction Melting
130 TPD Coal Furnace
4500 kcals/kg
100 TPD Sponge
Induction Melting
Iron Ore Iron Molten
Sponge Iron Kiln Furnace
steel
Grid Electricity Yield: 86%
120 kWh/t of
Sponge iron
Calculate the following

1. Specific Energy Consumption of Induction melting furnace in terms of kWh/ton of
molten steel.
2. Specific Energy Consumption of the entire plant, in terms of kcal/kg of molten

steel (product).
3. Total Energy Consumption of Plant in Tons of Oil Equivalent (TOE ).
Ans a) Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace
Molten Steel Production from the Induction melting furnace per day
= 100 x 86/100 = 86 TPD
Total Energy Consumption of the Plant = 82400 kWh
Electrical Energy Consumption in Sponge Iron Making = 120 x 100

= 12000 kWh per day
_______________________ 9
Electrical Energy Consumption in Induction Melting Furnace = 82400-12000

= 70400 kWh/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace= 70400/86
= 818.6 kWh/ton of molten steel
…………………….1 mark
b)Total Energy Consumption of the Plant:
= (82400x860) + (130x1000x4500) = (70864000+585000000)

= 655864000 kcal/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption in terms of kcal/kg of Molten metal
=655864000/86000 =7626.3 kcal/kg of molten metal
…………………….1 mark
c) Total Energy consumption of Plant in ToE
= 655864000/107 = 65.586 ToE

…………………….1 mark
S-5 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
consumers?
Ans  In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-
peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in. Many
electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
record peak, off-peak and normal period consumption, separately.
 TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour
tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher
line losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by
reduced demand.
…………………..5 marks
( each point consider 1.5 marks)
S –6 In a chemical factory where dyes are made, wet cake at 30 OC consisting of 60% moisture
is put in a dryer to obtain an output having only 8% moisture, at atmospheric pressure. In
each batch about 120 kgs of material is dried.
_______________________ 10
b. What is the total quantity (sensible & latent) of heat required to evaporate the
moisture, if the latent heat of water is 540 kcal/kg at atmospheric conditions,
Ignore heat absorbed by the solids
c. Find the quantity of steam required for the drying process (per batch), if steam
at 4 kg/cm2 is used for generating hot air in the dryer and the dryer efficiency
is 70%. Latent heat of steam at 4 kg/cm2 is 520 Kcal/kg.
Ans Given that

 Qty of material dried per batch - 120 kgs
 Moisture at inlet - 60%
 Water quantity in a wet batch - 120 x 0.6 = 72 kgs.

 Quantity of bone dry material - 120 – 72 = 48 kgs.
 Moisture at outlet - 8%
 Total weight of dry batch output - 48/0.92 = 52.2 kgs.
 Equivalent water in a dry batch - 52.2 - 48 = 4.2 kgs.
 Total water removed in drying - 72 – 4.2 = 67.8 kgs./batch
…………………….1.5 marks
b. The total quantity of heat required to evaporate the moisture.
To evaporate the moisture at atmospheric pressure, the material has to be first heated
up to 100 OC.
The total heat required would be;
Sensible heat - 72 x 1 x (100 – 30) = 5040 kcal/batch

Latent heat - 67.8 x 540 = 36612 kcal/batch
Total heat required - 5040 + 36612 = 41652 kcal/batch
…………………….2 marks
c. The quantity of steam required for the drying process
Dryer Efficiency - 70%
Heat input to dryer - 41652/0.7 = 59502.86 kcal/batch
_______________________ 11
Latent heat in 4 Kg/cm2 steam - 520 kcal/kg

Steam quantity required - 59502.86 / 520 = 114.4 kgs / batch
…………………….1.5 marks
S–7 Explain PAT scheme and why it is a market based mechanism?
Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to
enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive
large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be
traded. The genesis of the PAT mechanism flows out of the provision of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010).
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for
the most energy intensive industries in sectors as listed below.
Sector
1. Aluminium
2. Cement
3. Chlor-Alkali
4. Fertilizer
5. Iron and Steel
6. Pulp and Paper
7. Textile
8. Thermal Power Plant
The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is depended on its operating
efficiency and the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient and more for the less efficient units.
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement
targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve
superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to
trade the additional certified energy savings certificates with other designated
consumers who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy
consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be
tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank
them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in which they have been issued.
The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the quantum of energy
saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year.
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3
to 7% are set and need to be accomplished during the 3 year cycle; after which new cycle
with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption
targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-compliance under Section
26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). For ensuring the
_______________________ 12
compliance with the set targets, system of verification and check-verification will be
carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
…………………….5 marks
Refer Book 1: Pg no 40-41
S- 8 In a heat treatment shop, steel components are heat-treated in batches of 80 Tons. The
heat treatment cycle is as follows;
 Increase temperature from 30 OC to 850 OC in 3 hours.
 Maintain 850 OC for 1 hour (soaking time).
 Cool the material to 60 OC in 4 hours.
a) Calculate the efficiency of the furnace, if the specific heat of steel is 0.12 kcal/kg OC
and fuel oil consumption per batch is 1400 litres.
GCV of fuel oil - 10200 kcal/kg,

Cost of fuel oil - Rs. 46,000/kL,
Sp. gr. of fuel oil - 0.92.
b) Due to high cost of oil, the plant management decides to convert to a lower operating
cost LPG fired furnace lined on the inside with ceramic fibre insulation and with an
operating efficiency of 75%, for same requirement. The investment towards installation of
the new furnace is Rs. 50 lakhs. Calculate the Return on Investment, if the plant operates
two batches per day and 270 days in a year.
Cost of LPG - Rs. 75/kg,

GCV of LPG - 12500 kcal/kg.
Ans Quantity of steel treated per batch - 80 Tons
a. Efficiency of Furnace:
Useful heat supplied to steel - 80000 x 0.12 x (850 – 30)
…………………….1 mark
Total heat supplied by fuel - 1400 x 0.92 x 10200
Efficiency of Furnace - 7872000/12067824 = 59.9%
…………………….1 mark
b. Return on Investment (RoI):
Cost of operating fuel oil furnace - 1400 x 46 = Rs. 64400/batch
_______________________ 13
Efficiency of new LPG furnace - 75%

Heat supplied in new LPG furnace - 7872000/0.75
Equivalent LPG consumption - 10496000/12500
= 839.68 kg/batch
…………………….1 mark
Cost of operating LPG Furnace - 839.68 x 75
=Rs. 62976/batch
Cost saving per batch - 64400 – 62976 =Rs. 1424/-
Annual cost saving - 1424 x 2 x 270
= Rs. 768960/-
…………………….1 mark
Investment for new furnace - Rs. 50 Lakhs
Return on Investment (RoI) - (7.69/50)*100 = 15.38%
_______________________ 14

L - 1 The energy consumption and production patterns in a chemical plant over a 9 month period is provided in
the table below;
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Production in Tonnes / month 493 297 381 479 585 440 234 239 239
Energy Consumption MWh /month 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1
th
Estimate the cumulative energy savings at end of the 7 month and give your inference on the
result? (Consider 9 month data for evaluation of equation for predicted energy consumption)
Ans It is required to use the equations Y= mX + C and
nC + mΣX = ΣY
cΣX + mΣX2 = ΣXY
X=
Y =Energy
Production in
Month Consumption MWh X2 XY
Tonnes /
/month
month
1 493 78.2 243049 38574.12
2 297 75.7 88209 22479.51
3 381 76.3 145161 29076.88
479 76.1 229441 36436.09
5 585 78.1 342225 45671.42
6 440 70.7 193600 31110.53
7 234 73.7 54756 17240.63
8 239 64.4 57121 15402.96
9 239 72.1 57121 17228.98
3387 665.3 1410683 253221

9c + 3387m = 665.3 ……….i
3387C + 1410683m = 253221.1 ……… ii
…………………….2 marks
c = (665.3-3387m)/9
m = 0.021 and
_______________________ 15
c = 66.1
y = 0.021x + 66.1
…………………….3 marks
Production in E cal Y =
Tonnes / 0.021x + Difference
Month month x Eactual 66.1 CUSUM
1 493 78.2 76.36204 1.9 1.9
2 297 75.7 72.26433 3.4 5.3
3 381 76.3 74.02049 2.3 7.6
4 479 76.1 76.06935 0.0 7.6
5 585 78.1 78.28546 -0.2 7.4
6 440 70.7 75.25398 -4.5 2.8
7 234 73.7 70.9472 2.7 5.6
…………………….4 marks
Since the CUSUM value at the end of 7th month is positive, the plant has achieved net energy savings.
…………………….1 mark
L –2 Saturated steam at 1 atm is discharged from a turbine at 1000 kg/h. Superheated steam at 300 0C
and 1 atm is needed as a feed to a heat exchanger. To produce it, the turbine discharge stream is
mixed with superheated steam at 400 0C, 1 atm and specific volume of 3.11 m3/kg
Calculate the amount of superheated steam at 300 0C produced and the volumetric flow rate of the
400 0C steam.
Ans Solution
1. Mass balance of water
1000 + m1 = m2 ………………………………………… (1)
…………………….1 mark
2. Energy balance
(1000 kg/h)(2676 kJ/kg) + m1(3278 kJ/kg)
= m2(3074 kJ/kg) ……………………………………. …. (2)
…………………….1 mark
Eqs. (1) and (2) are solved simultaneously
2676000 + 3278m1 = (1000 + m1)3074
_______________________ 16
m1 = 1950.98 kg/h
m2 = 1000 + 1950.98 = 2950.98 kg/h (superheated steam produced)
…………………….4 marks
o
3. Volumetric flow rate of 400 C steam
The specific volume of steam at 400 o C and 1 atm is 3.11 m3/kg. The volumetric flow rate is
calculated as follows:
(1950.98 kg/h)(3.11 m3/kg)
= 6067.55 m3/h
…………………….4 marks
L - 3 Explain the following
a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net Calorific Value
d) 5S & Return of Investment (ROI)
e) CUSUM
Ans a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature
• Dry bulb Temperature is an indication of the sensible heat content of air-water vapour
mixtures
• Wet bulb Temperature is a measure of total heat content or enthalpy. It is the temperature
approached by the dry bulb and the dew point as saturation occurs.
…………………….2 marks
• Maximum demand is maximum KVA or KW over one billing cycle

• Power Factor Cos = kW/ KVA or kW = kVA cos 
…………………….2 marks
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net calorific Value:
• Gross calorific value assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully
condensed.
• Net calorific value assumes the water leaves with the combustion products without being
fully condensed.
• The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour produced during
the combustion process.
…………………….2 marks
_______________________ 17
d) 5S:
Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be easily and
quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.
Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area immediately.
…………………….2 marks
d) Return on Investment:
ROI expresses the annual return from project as % of capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment,
expressed as a percentage.
…………………….2 marks
e) Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) Technique:
• Difference between expected or standard consumption with actual consumption data

points over baseline period of time.
• Follows a fixed trend unless something (energy saving measure, deterioration in

performance..) happens
• Helps calculation of savings/losses till date after changes.
…………………….2 marks
L – 4 Answer the following
Chose the correct
S. No Statement answer OR
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 True/False
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks
Non Contact Infrared Thermometer can measure
3 True/False
temperature of objects placed in hazardous places
To measure the RPM of a visible shaft-end, ______ type
of RPM meter is used and for a Flywheel _______ type of
_______________________ 18
RPM meter is used.
In a switch yard, thermal imager instrument is used to

5 True/False
identify the loose joints and terminations
Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy
audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within
______ months of notification issued by the Central
Government
380 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 4.5 bar is
8 1.5 metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW Fill in the blanks
1 kg of Coal, consisting of 35% of Carbon produces

______ kg of CO2
In a gasification system the reduction zone is below the

10 True/False
combustion zone
Ans Chose the correct

Sr
Statement answer OR Solution
No
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and True/False False
SO2
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the Fill in the blanks Transit Time; Doppler Effect
principle of____& ____
3 Non Contact Infrared True/False True
Thermometer can measure
temperature of objects placed in
hazardous places
4 To measure the RPM of a Fill in the blanks Tachometer; Stroboscope
visible shaft-end, ______ type
of RPM meter is used and for a
Flywheel _______ type of
RPM meter is used.
5 In a switch yard, thermal True/False True
imager instrument is used to
identify the loose joints and
terminations
6 Every Designated Consumer Fill in the blanks Accredited ; 18 months
shall have its first energy audit
conducted by ________ Energy
Auditor within ______ months
_______________________ 19
of notification issued by the

Central Government
7 Fill in the blanks 441.96 Watts;
380 kcal/ hr is equivalent to
(380x4.187x1000/3600)
_____Watts and 4.5 bar is
450 kPa (4.5 x100)
8 1.5 metric ton of oil equivalent Fill in the blanks 17.44 MW
is to ________MW (1.5x1000x10000/(860x1000)
9 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 35% Fill in the blanks 1.28
of Carbon produces ______ kg [(44/12)x(0.35]
of CO2
10 In a gasification system the True/False True
reduction zone is below the
combustion zone
…………………….10 marks ( each one carries one mark)
L- 5 A project activity has several components as indicated below;
S. Activity Preceded by Duration (in

No. Weeks)
1 A - 8
2 B A 6
3 C A 12
4 D B 4
5 E D 5
6 F B 12
7 G E& F 9
8 H C 8
9 I F&H 5
10 J I&G 6
a. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the critical
path.
b. What are the Earliest Start, Latest Start and Total Float of activity ‘H’?
c. What would be the project duration if activity ‘H’ got delayed by 3 weeks?
Ans PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow
_______________________ 20
D 5 G
B 5 9 J, 6
A 6 F,12 I ,5
8 c
12 H 8
OR
PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node
…………………….6 marks
a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J
…………………….1 mark
b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks
…………………….1 mark
c. For activity H, Early Start is 20, Latest Start is 22 and Total Float is 2 weeks.
…………………….1 mark
d. Project duration will be 42 weeks i.e a delay of 1 week, if activity ‘H’ got delayed
by 3 weeks.
_______________________ 21
…………………….1 mark
L - 6 A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated
below;
Project 1:
i. Investment – Rs. 15 Lakhs
ii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 4 lakhs.
iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost – Rs. 50,000/-
iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs
v. Life of the project – 8 years
vi. Salvage value – Rs. 2 lakhs
Project 2:
vii. Investment – Rs. 14 Lakhs
viii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 3.5 lakhs.
ix. Annual Maintenance cost – Rs. 20,000/-
x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs
xi. Life of the project – 8 years
xii. Salvage Value- 5 lakhs
Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12%.
_______________________ 22
Ans
Year Project 1 Project 2
Outgo Saving NPV Outgo Saving NPV
0 15.0 0 =-15.0 14.0 0 = -14
1 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1
= 3.571 = 2.95
2 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)2
= 2.79 = 2.63
3 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)3 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)3
= 2.84 = 2.35
4 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)4 5 3.5 = (-1.5 / (1+.12)4
= 2.22 = -0.95
5 6 4.0 = (-2 / (1+.12)5 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)5
= -1.13 = 1.87
6 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)6 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)6
= 1.77 = 1.67
7 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)7 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)7
= 1.81 = 1.49
8 0.5 6 (4+2) = (5.5 / (1+.12)8 0.2 8.5 = (8.3 / (1+.12)8
= 2.22 (3.5+5) = 3.35
NPV = + 1.091 @12% = + 1.36
NPV Project 2 is higher than Project 1. Hence project 2 is preferred.

…………………….10 marks
_______________________ 23
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

FOR

AUDIT
Date: 24.09.2016 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS
Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when
compared with those producing it, would in all probability be
a) Higher b) Lower c) Almost equal d) No correlation

O
2. If a 2 KW immersion heater is used to heat 30litres of water at 30 C, what would be the
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system
O O O
a) 87.3 C b) 44.3 C c) 71.3 C d) none of the above
3. Which of the following statements regarding ECBC are correct?
i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per cubic metre of area
ii) ECBC does not encourage retrofit of Energy conservation measures
iii) ECBC prescribes energy efficiency standards for design and construction of
commercial and industrial buildings
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs
(construction and operating energy costs)
a) i b) ii c) iiii d) iv
4. Verification and Check-verification under PAT will be carried out by
b) Accredited energy auditors
c) Certified energy auditor
d) Empanelled accredited energy auditors
5. Which of the following enhances the energy efficiency in buildings?
a) Light pipes
_______________________ 1
b) Triple glaze windows

c) Building integrated solar photovoltaic panels
d) All of the above
6. Energy is consumed by all sectors of the economy but at different proportions. Which
sector in India is the largest consumer?
a) Agriculture c). Commercial

b) Industrial d). Domestic
7. M & V audit under PAT is carried out
a) Immediately after the baseline audit

b) Every year following the baseline audit
c) At the end of each PAT cycle
d) Before the baseline audit
8. Which of the following sector is not covered under PAT?
a) Chlor-alkali c) Cement
b) Aluminum d) Commercial buildings
9. A solar _______ is connected and packaged in a solar _________, which in turn is

linked with others in sequence in a solar _________.
a) module, cell, array

b) array, module, sequence
c) module, array, sequence
d) cell, module, array
10. At Standard Atmospheric Pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
o
temperature of 50 C will be _________ kCal/kg.
a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) none of the above

11. In a drying process product moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Inlet weight of the
material is 200 kg. Calculate the weight of the outlet product.
a) 80 b) 120.5 c) 114.3 d) none of the above

12. Which among the following factor(s) is most appropriate for adopting EnMS?
a) To improve their energy efficiency

b) To reduce costs
c) To increase productivity
d) Systematically manage their energy use
13. Which energy source releases the most climate-altering carbon pollution per kg?
a). Oil b). Coal c). Rice husk d). Bagasse

14. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years, if the interest rate is 10%
a) Rs. 1331 b) Rs.1610 c) Rs.3221 d) none of the above

15. Having a documented energy policy in industry
_______________________ 2
a) Satisfies regulations
b) Reflects top management commitment
c) Indicates availability of energy audit skills
d) None of the Above
16. Red wood seconds is a measure of
a) Density b) Viscosity c) Specific gravity d) Flash point

17. Which amongst the following sources of electricity has the highest installed capacity in
India ?
a)Gas b) Nuclear c) Oil d) Renewables

18. Energy Intensity is the ratio of
a) Fuel Consumption / GDP

b) GDP/Fuel Consumption
c) GDP/ Energy Consumption
d) Energy Consumption / GDP
19. If Heat Rate of Power plant is 3000 kCal/kWh then efficiency of Power plant will be
a) 28.67% b) 35% c) 41% d) None of the above

20. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate
and 40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost
medium to store _______
a. Electrical energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
21. For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________
times.
22. The producer gas is basically
a. CO, H2 and CH4

b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
a) Recording b) Reporting
c) Controlling d) All of the above
24. One energy saving certificate ( ESCerts) under PAT is equivalent to
a. one ton of carbon

b. one MWh of electricity
c. one ton of coal
d. one ton of Oil equivalent
25. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed
electricity consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity
_______________________ 3
consumption of 11 kWh/ton. Calculate the production of the industry

a) 50000 tonnes b) 60000 tonnes c) 58000 tonnes d) None of the above
26. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating
at
a) Lagging power factor b) Unity power factor
c) Leading power factor d) none of the above
27. Capital cost are associated with
a) Design of Project
b) Installation and Commissioning of Project
c) Operation and Maintenance cost of project
d) both a and b
28. Any management would like to invest in projects with
a) Low IRR b) Low ROI

c) Low NPV of future returns d) none of the above
29. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of
a) power b) work c) time d) force.

30. Which among the following is a green house gas?

c) NO2 d) Methane
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
32. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no
natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around
__________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
o
33. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is
known as:

34. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of
4000 kcal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
36. A sling psychrometer is capable of measuring
_______________________ 4

c) both dry and wet bulb temperature d) absolute humidity
37. Which of these is not true of payback period
a. Simple to calculate
b. Considers cash flow beyond the payback period
c. Shorter the period the better
d. Does not take into account, time value of money
38. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the energy auditor must consider
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows
c) salvage value d) all the above
39. In a cumulative sum chart if the graph is going up, it means
a. Energy consumption is going up
b. Energy consumption is going down
c. Specific energy consumption is coming down
d. No inference can be made
40. Doppler effect principle is used in the following instrument
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter
c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer
In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal
41. is 6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 216 kg b) 300 kg c) 1872 kg d) none of the above
42. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called
a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) none of the above
43. A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that
a) CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
b) CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4
c) the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4
system is known as
45. ISO 50001:2011 provides a framework of requirements for organizations to:
a) Develop a policy for more efficient use of energy b) Measure the results
c) Fix targets and objectives to meet the policy d) all of the above
factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
power output of the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
47. Absolute pressure is
a. Gauge pressure
b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
48. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is
50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.
_______________________ 5
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
c) 400 kg d) none of the above
49. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor,
a coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90
and wind speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW
50. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
a. Difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
b. Average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
c. DBT of the atmospheric air
d. WBT of the atmospheric air
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
S-1 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4

different units used in pressure measurement.
Ans Absolute pressure is zero-referenced against a perfect vacuum, so it is equal to gauge

pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Gauge pressure is zero-referenced against ambient air pressure, so it is equal to absolute
pressure minus atmospheric pressure. (Negative signs are usually omitted)
Absolute Pressure = Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure + Gauge Pressure
(NOTE: also please refer guide book-1 pg-70)
The four units of pressure measurement are:
i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
v) Meters of water column
2
vi) Pounds / inch
S- 2 A plant is using 6 tonnes / day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
kcal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue ,
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal/kg and costs Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 300 days of operation, assuming the boiler efficiency
remains same at 72% for coal and agro residue as fuel.
Ans Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day

= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day
_______________________ 6
To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of rice husk required

= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800
1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving=13703 x 300
=Rs 41,10,900/-
S–3 Explain how an ESCO model works?
ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project management services
and financing.
The ESCO will usually offer the following performance contract options.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
 Guaranteed savings
S-4 The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.10 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?
Existing efficiency =65%
Proposed efficiency=78%
Annual fuel cost =Rs. 10 Lakhs
Annual cost savings = annual fuel cost *( 1-(EffO/EffN))
= 10 x ((1-(0.65/0.78))
=Rs. 1,66,667 per annum
S-5 A tank containing 600 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over that
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is well
insulated and heat losses are negligible.
Determine the steam flow rate in kg/hr.
O O
Q = 600 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200)
= 30 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 30 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg
= 51.23 kg/h
S–6 Feed water is provided to a boiler at 70oC from the feed water tank. The
temperature of condensate water returning to the tank is 86oC, while the
_______________________ 7
temperature of makeup water is 27oC. Determine the amount of condensate water

that can be recovered?
 Performing a mass & heat balance yields,

 (i.e : mCpdTCond + mCpdT MakeUp = mCpdT FeedWater)
(27)(x)(1)+ (86)(1-x)(1) = 70(1)(1)
 Therefore, x = 0.27 or 27% of make-up water.
 Hence, condensate recovered = 73%
S–7 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
has a moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate
(output) from the stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if
the steam enters the stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the
o
stenter is at 170 C Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent
heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.
Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr

Bone dry cloth in output = 200 X 0.96 = 192 kgs.
Moisture in output = 8 kgs.

Moisture in input = 52%
Bone dry cloth in input = 48%
Total weight of input cloth = 192/0.48 = 400 kg/hr
Quantity of water evaporated = 400 – 200 = 200 kg/hr
O
Assuming sensible heat in steam at 170 C = 170 kcal/kg
Quantity of steam required = (200 X 540)/(660 – 170)
= 220.4 kg/hr
S–8 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac
kWh. The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-
9660 kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 kL of
Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 720 kL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a
Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
Annual electrical energy consumption = 12.35 x 12 = 148.2 lac Kwh
5 7
Equivalent heat energy = (148.2 x 10 x 860)/(1 x 10 )
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
Annual Furnace oil consumption = 5760 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (5760 x 1000 x 9660)/(1 x 10 )
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
Annual HSD consumption = 720 kL
7
= 677.52 Mtoe _(iii)
Total annual energy consumption = 1274.52 + 5564.16 + 677.52

= 7516.2 Mtoe
To be a designated consumer, the minimum annual energy consumption (in aluminium sector)
_______________________ 8
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant exceeds this threshold limit, it qualifies to be a designated
consumer.
_______________________ 9
Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
L-1 The integrated paper plant has produced 119366 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of PAT scheme
and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of product to 50 GJ/tonne of
product. The actual production during the assessment year (2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate
the plant energy performance and state your inference.
Ans Reference year production = 119366 MT

Reference year specific energy consumption = 53 GJ/tonne of product
Assessment year production = 124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption = 50 GJ/tonne of product
production factor = (124141 / 119366) = 1.04
= 53 x 119366 = 6326398 GJ
=50 x 124141 = 6207050 GJ
= 6326398 GJ x 1.04 =6579454 GJ
= ((6579454 - 6207050 ) / 6579454 )x 100

= 5.66%
Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy savings.
L – 2 a) A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full
load
efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy auditor measures the
_______________________ 10
following
operating data of the motor.
1) Supply voltage= 408V
2) Current drawn= 30A
3) PF=0.83
Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
1) Power input in kW
2) % motor loading
b) List five energy saving measures in your home
Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*30*0.83

= 17.60 kW
2) % motor loading = [17.60/(20/0.88)]*100
= [(17.60/22.73)]*100
= 77.43%
b)
 Replacement of inefficient electric lamps with efficient electric lamps
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c’s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
 Using Solar water heating systems for hot water requirements to minimize use of electric
geysers
 Using Solar PV systems for electricity generation
 Proper ventilation maximizing the use of natural light
 Switching off all equipment when not required
 Using pressure cooker for cooking food
 Maximizing the use of low fire burner (SIM) in the gas stove

o o o
Using A/Cs at setpoint of 21 C-23 C instead of 16 C
 Placing the fridge so that the rear ( condenser coils ) are located where there is proper air
flow.
L-3 The cash flows in two different energy conservation projects are given in the table below. Please help
the management of an infrastructure company to decide which project to invest in as the
management is interested in investing in only one project. The company is likely to consider any
project which gives a minimum return on investment of 18%. Please justify your choice.
(Amount in Rs.)
Project A Project B
Investment 17,50,000/- 12,00,000/-
Year Expenses Savings Expenses Savings
1 4,00,000 4,50,000
2 4,00,000 4,00,000
3 4,00,000 3,50,000
4 4,00,000 3,00,000
5 1,00,000 6,00,000 2,50,000
6 6,00,000 2,00,000
7 6,00,000 1,16,650
_______________________ 11
8 3,80,300
Ans As the investments required in both the cases as well as their durations are different, the prudent
method to compare the two projects would be to calculate their NPV.
0 1
a) NPV of Project A @ 18% = (-1750000 / (1+0.18) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +((6,00,000-100000) / (1+0.18) )+
6 7 8
(6,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.18) ) = 57,367
0 1
b) NPV of Project B @ 18% = (-1200000 / (1+0.18) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.18) ) +(3,50,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (2,00,000 /
6 7
(1+0.18) ) +(1,16,650 / (1+0.18) ) = 57370
Since both the projects are having the same NPV at 18%, both the projects are worth
considering. However, by increasing the rate 20% if one of the projects shows higher NPV, that
project would be the choice between the two.
0 1 2
c) NPV of Project A @ 20% = (-1750000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5
+(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +((6,00,000-100000) / (1+0.2) )+ (6,00,000 /
6 7 8
(1+0.2) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.2) ) = (-) 56734
0 1 2
d) NPV of Project B @ 20% =(-1200000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5 6
+(3,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (2,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
7
+(1,16,650 / (1+0.2) ) = 3.86
As the NPV of project B at 20% is higher than that of Project A, Project B is recommended.
L – 4 The energy consumption pattern in a steel re rolling mill over 8 month period is provided in the table
below;
Month Production (Tons) Coal Consumption (Tons)
1 488 422
2 553 412
3 455 411
4 325 363
5 488 438
6 585 426
7 455 414
8 419 396
Estimate,
_______________________ 12
i) Fixed energy consumption in the Mill.
ii) Expected coal consumption for a production of 600 Tons/month.
Ans To establish the relationship between Production & Coal consumption, it is necessary to derive the
best-fit line for which the following normal equation are used ( see page 218 of book 1)
Cn +m∑x =∑y
2
c∑x + m∑x =∑xy
2
n x y x xy
1 488 422 238144 205936
2 553 412 305809 227836
3 455 411 207025 187005
4 325 363 105625 117975
5 488 438 238144 213744
6 585 426 342225 2 9 10
7 455 414 20702 188370
8 419 396 175561 165924
Total 3768 3282 1819558 1556000

8c + 3768m = 3282 ……….i
3768c + 1819558m = 1556000 ……… ii
c = (3282 -3768m) / 8
m = 0.23 and
c = 316
y = 0.23x + 316
i) The fixed energy consumption in the Mill = 316 Tons of coal/month
ii) The expected coal consumption for a production of 600 Tons,
= 0.23 X 600 + 316 = 454 Tons
L-5 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?
Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to enhance cost
effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive large industries and
facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be traded.
_______________________ 13
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for the most
energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation in energy intensities of
different units in almost every sector. The scheme envisages improvements in the energy intensity
of each unit covered by it. The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent
on its operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement targets. To
facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy
savings certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified as
Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included under PAT Scheme)
who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy consumption reduction targets.
Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme
also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the
quantum of energy saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year (for
st
1 Cycle of PAT, assessment year is 2014-15).
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3 to 7% have
been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after which new cycle with new targets will be
proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract
penalty for the non-compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of verification and
check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
In a particular drying operation, it is necessary to hold the moisture content of feed to

a calciner to 15% (w/w) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
L- 6
mixing the feed having 30% moisture (w/w) with recycle stream of dried material
having 3% moisture (w/w). The dryer operation is shown in fig below. What fraction of
the dried product must be recycled?
Let
F indicate quantity of feed
_______________________ 14
R indicate quantity of recycle

P indicate quantity of product
Based on solid content at Mixer
0.7F + 0.97R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =1.25 F ………………..(1)
Based on solid content at Drier
0.85 (F + R) = 0.97 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 1.25F) = 0.97 P + (0.97 x 1.25 F)
1.91 F = 0.97 P + 1.21F
0.7 F = 0.97 P
Hence F = 1.386 P ………………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1) for obtaining Recycle quantity in terms of Product
R = (1.25 x 1.386 P) = 1.7325 P ……………..(3)
Product plus Recycle is
P+R = (P + 1.7325 P) = P(1 + 1.7325) = 2.7325 P ……...(4)
R (as a fraction of dried product) = {(1.7325 P) / (2.7325 P)} x (100)
= 63.4%
_______________________ 15
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

FOR

AUDIT

i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per cubic metre of area
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs (construction and
operating energy costs)
a) i b) ii c) iiii d) iv
3. Which of the following sector is not covered under PAT?
a) Chlor-alkali c) Cement
b) Aluminum d) Commercial buildings
4. Which of the following enhances the energy efficiency in buildings?
a) Light pipes
b) Triple glaze windows
c) Building integrated solar photovoltaic panels
d) All of the above
5. Which energy source releases the most climate-altering carbon pollution per kg?
_______________________ 1
a). Oil b). Coal c). Rice husk d). Bagasse

6. Which amongst the following sources of electricity has the highest installed capacity in
India ?
a)Gas b) Nuclear c) Oil d) Renewables


c) NO2 d) Methane
8. Which among the following factor(s) is most appropriate for adopting EnMS?
a) To improve their energy efficiency

b) To reduce costs
c) To increase productivity
d) Systematically manage their energy use

10. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor,
a coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90
and wind speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW
11. Verification and Check-verification under PAT will be carried out by
b) Accredited energy auditors
c) Certified energy auditor
d) Empanelled accredited energy auditors
o
known as:

a. CO, H2 and CH4

b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
4000 kcal/kg is
_______________________ 2
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1

21. Red wood seconds is a measure of
a) Density b) Viscosity c) Specific gravity d) Flash point

22. One energy saving certificate ( ESCerts) under PAT is equivalent to
a. one ton of carbon

b. one MWh of electricity
c. one ton of coal
d. one ton of Oil equivalent
23. M & V audit under PAT is carried out
a) Immediately after the baseline audit

b) Every year following the baseline audit
c) At the end of each PAT cycle
d) Before the baseline audit
a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) None of the above
27. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate
and 40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost
_______________________ 3
medium to store _______
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
28. In a drying process product moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Inlet weight of the
material is 200 kg. Calculate the weight of the outlet product.
a) 80 b) 120.5 c) 114.3 d) none of the above

In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal
30. is 6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
at
33. If Heat Rate of Power plant is 3000 kCal/kWh then efficiency of Power plant will be
a) 28.67% b) 35% c) 41% d) None of the above

O
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system.
O O O
__________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
times.
38. Energy is consumed by all sectors of the economy but at different proportions. Which
_______________________ 4
sector in India is the largest consumer?
a) Agriculture c). Commercial

b) Industrial d). Domestic
a) Fuel Consumption / GDP

b) GDP/Fuel Consumption
c) GDP/ Energy Consumption
d) Energy Consumption / GDP

system is known as
d) both a and b
43. At Standard Atmospheric Pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
o
temperature of 50 C will be _________ kCal/kg.


a. Gauge pressure
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
47. A solar _______ is connected and packaged in a solar _________, which in turn is
linked with others in sequence in a solar _________.
a) module, cell, array

b) array, module, sequence
c) module, array, sequence
_______________________ 5
d) cell, module, array

a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
a)CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
S-1 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
o
stenter is at 150 C. Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent
Ans Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr


O
= 211.8 kg/hr
S-2 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lakh
9660 Kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 Kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 KL
of Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 500 KL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies
as a Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
Ans 1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
5 7
_______________________ 6
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)

7
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
7
= 470.5 Mtoe _(iii)
= 7309.18 Mtoe
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant energy consumption doesn’t exceed this threshold limit, it is
not qualifies to be a designated consumer. ...... 1 mark
savings?
Ans Existing efficiency =65%
= 8x((1-(0.65/0.78))
=Rs. 1,33,333.6 per annum


i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
2
vi) Pounds / inch
S–5 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 350 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency
_______________________ 7
Ans
Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800

1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving =13703 x 350
= Rs 47,96,050/-
S-6 Explain how an ESCO model works?
Ans ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
and financing.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
(Note: Please refer page no: 177-179 of Paper 1, candidates can write relevant
things about ESCO operation model)
S–7 A tank containing 500 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108 kJ/kg. The tank is well
O O
Ans Q = 500 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200)
= 25 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 25 kJ/secx3600 / 2108 kJ/kg
= 42.69 kg/h
S–8 Feed water is provided to a boiler at 70oC from the feedwater tank. The
temperature of condensate water returning to the tank is 86oC, while the
temperature of makeup water is 27oC. Determine the amount of condensate water
that can be recovered?
Ans
 Performing a mass & heat balance yields,
_______________________ 8
 (i.e : mCpdTCond + mCpdT MakeUp = mCpdT FeedWater)

(27)(x)(1)+ (86)(1-x)(1) = 70(1)(1)
 Therefore, x = 0.27 or 27% of make-up water.
 Hence, condensate recovered = 73%
L-1 A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
following
operating data of the motor.
3) PF=0.83
.Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
2) % motor loading
Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*28*0.83

= 16.42 kW
2) % motor loading = 16.42/(20/0.88)]*100
= (16.42/22.73)
= 72.24%
b)
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c’s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
geysers

o o o
 Placing the fridge so that the rear ( condenser coils ) are located where there is proper air
flow.
Note : Any five of the above and also give marks for other relevant options
L – 2 The integrated paper plant has produced 134241 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
Ans Reference year production =134241 MT
_______________________ 9

Assessment year production =124141 MT
= 53 x 134241 = 7114773 GJ
=49 x 124141 = 6082909 GJ
= 7114773 GJ x 0.92 =6545591.16 GJ
= ((6545591.16 - 6082909 ) / 6545591.16 )x 100

= 7.07%
L-3 The cash flows in two different energy conservation projects are given in the table below.
Please help the management of an infrastructure company to decide which project to
invest in as the management is interested in investing in only one project. The company
is likely to consider any project which gives a minimum return on investment of 19%.
Please justify your choice.
(Amount in Rs.)
Project A Project B
Investment 17,50,000/- 12,00,000/-
Year Expenses Savings Expenses Savings
1 4,00,000 4,50,000
2 4,00,000 4,00,000
3 4,00,000 3,50,000
4 4,00,000 3,00,000
5 30,180 6,00,000 2,50,000
6 6,00,000 2,00,000
7 6,00,000 1,16,650
8 3,80,300
_______________________ 10
Ans As the investments required in both the cases as well as their durations are different, the prudent
method to compare the two projects would be to calculate their NPV.
0 1
a) NPV of Project A @ 19% = (-1750000 / (1+0.19) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +((6,00,000-30180) / (1+0.19) )+
6 7 8
(6,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.19) ) = 27,622
0 1
b) NPV of Project B @ 19% = (-1200000 / (1+0.19) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.19) ) +(3,50,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (2,00,000 /
6 7
(1+0.19) ) +(1,16,650 / (1+0.19) ) = 27,622
Since both the projects are having the same NPV at 19%, both the projects are worth
considering. However, by increasing the rate 20% if one of the projects shows higher NPV, that
project would be the choice between the two.
0 1 2
c) NPV of Project A @ 20% = (-1750000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5
+(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +((6,00,000-30180) / (1+0.2) )+ (6,00,000 / (1+0.2)
6 7 8
) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.2) ) = (-) 28,675
0 1 2
d) NPV of Project B @ 20% =(-1200000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5 6
+(3,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (2,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
7
+(1,16,650 / (1+0.2) ) = 3.86
As the NPV of project B at 20% is higher than that of Project A, Project B is recommended.
L – 4 The energy consumption pattern in a steel re rolling mill over 8 month period is provided in the
table below;
Month Production (Tons) Coal Consumption (Tons)
1 488 422
2 553 412
3 455 411
4 325 363
5 488 438
6 585 426
7 455 414
8 419 396
Estimate,
i) Fixed energy consumption in the Mill.
ii) Expected coal consumption for a production of 500 Tons/month.
Ans To establish the relationship between Production & Coal consumption, it is necessary to derive the
best-fit line. for which the following normal equation are used ( see page 218 of book 1)
_______________________ 11
Cn +m∑x =∑y
c∑x + m∑x2 =∑xy
2
n x y x xy
1 488 422 238144 205936
2 553 412 305809 227836
3 455 411 207025 187005
4 325 36 105 5 11 975
5 488 438 238144 213744
6 585 426 342225 249210
7 455 414 207025 188370
8 419 396 175561 165924
Total 3768 3282 1819558 1556000

8c + 3768m = 3282 ……….i
3768c + 1819558m = 1556000 ……… ii
c = (3282 -3768m) / 8
m = 0.23 and
c = 316
y = 0.23x + 316
i) The fixed energy consumption in the Mill = 316 Tons of coal/month
ii) The expected coal consumption for a production of 500 Tons,
= 0.23 X 500 + 316 = 431 Tons
Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to enhance cost
effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive large industries and
facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be traded.
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for the most
energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation in energy intensities of
different units in almost every sector. The scheme envisages improvements in the energy intensity
of each unit covered by it. The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent
on its operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.
_______________________ 12
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement targets. To
facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy
savings certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified as
Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included under PAT Scheme)
who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy consumption reduction targets.
Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme
also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the
quantum of energy saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year (for
st
1 Cycle of PAT, assessment year is 2014-15).
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3 to 7% have
been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after which new cycle with new targets will be
proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract
penalty for the non-compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of verification and
check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
L-6
a calciner to 15% (W/W) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 35% moisture (w/w) with recycle steam of dried material
Let
_______________________ 13
0.65F + 0.95R = 0.85 (F + R)

Hence R =2 F ………………..(1)
0.85 (F + R) = 0.95 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 2F) = 0.95 P + (0.95 x 2 F)
2.55 F = 0.95 P + 1.9 F
0.65 F = 0.95 P
Hence F = 1.46 P ………………(2)
R = (2.0 x 1.46 P) = 2.92 P ……………..(3)
P+R = (P + 2.92 P) = P(1 + 2.92) = 3.92 P …..(4)
= 74.49%
_______________________ 14
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A
Regn No: __________________
Name : __________________
(To be written by the candidate)

FOR

O
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system. Sp.heat of water
O
is 4.18 KJ/Kg C.
O O O
3. Identify from the following non-commercial energy.
a. Wind
b. Solar energy for water heating
c. Solar energy for power generation
d. All the above
4. In energy performance monitoring, „Production Factor‟ means
a) Current year Production b) Reference Year Production
Design Capacity Current year Production
c) Current Year Production d) CurrentYear Production
Reference Year Production Previous Year Production
_______________________ 1
5. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% and the losses will be
a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal

6. For energy consumption monitoring and target setting, it is imperative to have
a) adequate metering b) accurate production data
c) energy consumption data d) all of the above
7. Which is not an example of fuel substitution?
a. Replacement of Naptha by Natural gas as feedstock for fertilizer plant.
b. Replacement of coal by coconut shells.
c. Replacement of LDO by LSHS
d. Replacement of coconut shells by rice husk
8. Which of the following equipment is not covered under the mandatory schemes as per the
S & L programme?
a) household frost free refrigerators b) tubular fluorescent lamp
c) ceiling fans d) room air conditioners
9. CUSUM technique can be used to identify
a) deterioration in operating performance
b) impact of good housekeeping & maintenance
c) savings achieved by implementing energy conservation
measure(s)
d) all of the above
10. As per laws of thermodynamics;

a) It is impossible to reduce the temperature of any substance to absolute zero
b) Heat always flows from a hotter object to a colder object
c) Energy conversion from one form to another cannot be 100%
d) All of the above
Infrared thermometer is used to measure
11. a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
12. The “superheat” of steam is expressed as
a. degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature

b. critical temperature of the steam
c. the temperature of the steam
d. none of the above
13.
If Oxygen rich combustion air is supplied to a furnace instead of normal air the % CO2 in
flue gases will
a) reduce b) increase c) remain same d) will become zero
14. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get energy
audits conducted by

15.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
_______________________ 2
a) delay time b) slack time
c) critical path d) start time
16. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will not
be considered on the input side?
a) Chemicals b) Water/air c) Recycle d) By product
17.
The Critical Path in project planning technique indicates.
a) minimum time required for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) early start and late end of the project
18. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor, a
coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90 and
wind speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW

system is known as
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
a. Gauge pressure
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
_______________________ 3


c) NO2 d) Methane
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
__________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
o
known as:
4000 kcal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
37. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal is
6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
_______________________ 4


at

d) both a and b
44. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate and
40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost medium
to store _______
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
times.
a. CO, H2 and CH4
b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
48. In project management, the critical path in the network is
c) The path from start to finish d) the path where activities have no slack
_______________________ 5
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
S-1 What is meant by the following terms?

b) Benchmarking
Ans a) Normalising of data

compared.
b) Benchmarking
S-2 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4 different units used in
pressure measurement.

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
2
vi) Pounds / inch
Note: any four of the above
_______________________ 6
S–3 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost of Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 300 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency
Ans Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day

= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800

1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving=13703 x 300
=Rs 41,10,900/-
The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.10 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
S-4 efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?
= 10.((1-(0.65/0.78))
=Rs. 1,66,667 per annum
S-5 Explain how an ESCO model works.
and financing.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
S-6 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac Kwh.
The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-9660 Kcal/Ltr)
and HSD (GCV-9410 Kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 KL of Furnace oil (sp. gr.
0.92) and 720 KL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a Designated Consumer
under the EC Act?
_______________________ 7
7
5 7
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
7
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
7
= 677.52 Mtoe _(iii)

= 7516.2 Mtoe
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant exceeds this threshold limit, it qualifies to be a designated
consumer.
S-7 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter has a
moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate (output) from the
stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if the steam enters the
o
stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the stenter is at 170 C Consider
drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.



O
= 220.4 kg/hr
S–8 A tank containing 600 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes (1200
seconds), using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over
that temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is well
O O
Ans Q = 600 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200) = 30 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 30 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg = 51.2 kg/h
_______________________ 8
L-1 An investment of Rs.250,000 is being considered for an energy efficient

equipment.The cost of capital for the investment is 13%.Following cash flows are
expected from the investment:
Year Rs.
0 (250,000)
1 50,000
2 100,000
3 200,000
1) Calculate the IRR for the proposed investment and interpret your answer.
Ans Step 1: Select 2 discount rates for the calculation of NPVs
We can take 10% (R1) and 20% (R2) as our discount rates.
Step 2: Calculate NPVs of the investment using the 2 discount rates

Net Present Value @ 10%
Cash Flow Discount Factor Present Value
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.909 45,450
100,000 0.826 82,600
200,000 0.751 150,200
NPV1 28,250
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.833 41,650
100,00 0.694 69,400
200,000 0.57 115,800
NPV2 -23,150
…... 5 marks
Step 3: Calculate the IRR
NPV1 x (R2 - R1)%

Internal Rate of Return = R1% +
(NPV1 - NPV2)
28,250 x (20 - 10)%
= 10% +
(28,250 - (- 3,150))
28,2 0 x 10%
= 10% +
28,250 + 23,150
= 10% + 5.5%
_______________________ 9
= 15.5%
L-2 a) Why do project managers give a great degree of attention to critical path ?
b) For the PERT diagram with duration of activities shown, determine the
following:
1. What is the shortest time for completion of the project?

2. Which activities must be completed on time in order for the project to finish
in the shortest possible time?
Ans a) The critical path is of great interest to project managers. The activities on the
critical path are the ones which absolutely must be done on time in order for the
whole project to complete on time. If any of the activities on the critical path are
late, then the entire project will finish late.
b)
Activity Duration ES EF LS LF Slack Critical

(weeks) path
A 4 0 4 0 4 Yes
B 3 0 3 6 9
C 5 4 9 5 10
_______________________ 10
D 5 4 9 4 9 Yes
E 8 4 12 8 16
F 6 9 15 10 16
G 7 9 16 9 16 Yes
H 9 9 18 17 26
I 10 16 26 16 26 Yes
J 7 16 23 17 24
K 4 9 13 20 24
L 3 16 19 26 29
M 3 26 29 26 29 Yes
N 5 23 28 24 29
1. The shortest time to complete project – 29 weeks

2. Critical path : A - D - G - I – M
L – 3 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?
Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism
to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-
intensive large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings
that could be traded.
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements
for the most energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation
in energy intensities of different units in almost every sector. The scheme
envisages improvements in the energy intensity of each unit covered by it. The
energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent on its
operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for
those who are more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC

improvement targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for
industries who achieve superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for
this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy savings
certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified
as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included
under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with their
specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
(ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the
cycle in which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be
issued would depend on the quantum of energy saved over and above the target
energy savings in the assessment year (for 1stCycle of PAT, assessment year is
2014-15).
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from
_______________________ 11
about 3 to 7% have been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after
which new cycle with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific
energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-
compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of
verification and check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of
accredited energy auditors.
NOTE: As the PAT scheme was not discussed in the 3rd edition, the evaluator may
grant at least 5 marks to each candidate if this question was attempted, or more, if
written well.
L-4 a) A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has
a full load efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy
auditor measures the following operating data of the motor.
3) PF=0.83
2) % motor loading
Ans 1) Power input = 1.732*408*30*0.83

= 17.60 kW
2) % motor loading = [17.60/(20/0.88)]*100

= (17.60/22.73)
= 77.43%
b)
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c‟s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
geysers

o o o
 Placing the fridge so that the rear (condenser coils) are located where there is proper air flow.
L – 5 The integrated paper plant has produced 119366 MT of paper during the year 2012-13.
The management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of
PAT scheme and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of
product to 50 GJ/tonne of product. The actual production during the assessment year
(2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate the plant energy performance and state your
inference.
_______________________ 12
Ans
Reference year production : 119366 MT
Reference year specific energy consumption : 53 GJ/tonne of product
Assessment year production : 124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption : 50 GJ/tonne of product
= 53 x 119366 = 6326398 GJ
=50 x 124141 = 6207050 GJ
= 6326398 GJ x 1.04 =6579454 GJ
= ((6579454 - 6207050 ) / 6579454 )x 100

= 5.66%
Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy
savings.
L-6
a calciner to 15% (w/w) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 30% moisture (w/w) with recycle stream of dried material
_______________________ 13
Ans
Let
0.7F + 0.97R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =1.25 F ………………..(1)
0.85 (F + R) = 0.97 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 1.25F) = 0.97 P + (0.97 x 1.25 F)
1.91 F = 0.97 P + 1.21F
0.7 F = 0.97 P
Hence F = 1.386 P ………………(2)
R = (1.25 x 1.386 P) = 1.7325 P ……………..(3)
.
P+R = (P + 1.7325 P) = P(1 + 1.7325) = 2.7325 P ……...(4)
= 63.4%
_______________________ 14
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B
Regn No: __________________
Name : __________________

FOR

2. Which of the following equipment is not covered under the mandatory schemes as per the
S & L programme?
a) household frost free refrigerators b) tubular fluorescent lamp
c) ceiling fans d) room air conditioners
3. Which is not an example of fuel substitution?
a. Replacement of Naptha by Natural gas as feedstock for fertilizer plant.
b. Replacement of coal by coconut shells.
c. Replacement of LDO by LSHS
d. Replacement of coconut shells by rice husk

c) NO2 d) Methane
_______________________ 1
6. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor, a
coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90 and wind
speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW
8.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish time of
an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time
c) critical path d) start time
o
9. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is known
as:
a. CO, H2 and CH4
b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
11. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of 4000
kcal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
16. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when compared
with those producing it, would in all probability be

17. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get energy audits
_______________________ 2
conducted by

18.
The Critical Path in project planning technique indicates.
c) early start and late end of the project
19. The “superheat” of steam is expressed as
a. degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature

b. critical temperature of the steam
c. the temperature of the steam
d. none of the above


Infrared thermometer is used to measure
22. a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
23. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will not be
considered on the input side?
a) Chemicals b) Water/air c) Recycle d) By product
24. In energy performance monitoring, „Production Factor‟ means
a) Current year Production b) Reference Year Production
Design Capacity Current year Production
c)Current Year Production d) CurrentYear Production
Reference Year Production Previous Year Production
25. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed electricity
consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity consumption of 11 kWh/ton.
Calculate the production of the industry

c) The path from start to finish d) the path where activities have no slack
27. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate and 40%
potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost medium to store
_______
_______________________ 3
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
29. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal is 6%.
Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
30. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is 50%
and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
at
32.
If Oxygen rich combustion air is supplied to a furnace instead of normal air the % CO 2 in flue
gases will
O
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system.
O O O
34. Identify from the following non-commercial energy.
a. Wind
b. Solar energy for water heating
c. Solar energy for power generation
d. All the above
36. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no natural
greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around __________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________ times.
38. For energy consumption monitoring and target setting, it is imperative to have
a) adequate metering b) accurate production data
c) energy consumption data d) all of the above
_______________________ 4

40. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or system is
known as
41. CUSUM technique can be used to identify
a) deterioration in operating performance
b) impact of good housekeeping & maintenance
c) savings achieved by implementing energy conservation
measure(s)
d) all of the above

d) both a and b
43. As per laws of thermodynamics;
a) It is impossible to reduce the temperature of any substance to absolute zero
b) Heat always flows from a hotter object to a colder object
c) Energy conversion from one form to another cannot be 100%
d) All of the above
a. Gauge pressure
46. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power factor
of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft power output of
the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
48. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency is
80% and the losses will be

a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
_______________________ 5

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
S-1 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac
9660 kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 kL of
Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 500 kL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a
Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
5 7
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
7
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
7
= 470.5 Mtoe _(iii)

= 7309.18 Mtoe
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant energy consumption doesn‟t exceed this threshold limit, it is
not qualifies to be a designated consumer.
savings?
_______________________ 6
= 8x((1-(0.65/0.78))
=Rs. 1,33,333.6 per annum
S-3 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
o
stenter is at 150 C. Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent



O
= 211.8 kg/hr
S–4 A tank containing 500 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is
well insulated and heat losses are negligible.
O O
Ans Q = 500 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200) = 25 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 25 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg = 42.69 kg/h
Explain how an ESCO model works.

S-5
and financing.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings


_______________________ 7

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
2
vi) Pounds / inch
Note: any four of the above
S-7 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300 kcal/kg. The
cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue , as a boiler fuel,
which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost Rs.1800/tonne. Calculate the annual cost
savings at 350 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency remains same at 72% for coal
and agro residue as fuel.
Ans
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800

1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-

= Rs 47,96,050/-
S–8 What is meant by the following terms?

b) Benchmarking
Ans a) Normalising of data
compared.
b) Benchmarking
_______________________ 8
L-1 An integrated paper plant has produced 134241 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
Ans Reference year production =134241 MT

Assessment year production =124141 MT
= 53 x 134241 = 7114773 GJ
=49 x 124141 = 6082909 GJ
= 7114773 GJ x 0.92 =6545591.16 GJ
= ((6545591.16 - 6082909 ) / 6545591.16 )x 100

= 7.07%

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism
to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-
_______________________ 9
intensive large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings

that could be traded.
The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements
for the most energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation
in energy intensities of different units in almost every sector. The scheme
envisages improvements in the energy intensity of each unit covered by it. The
energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent on its
operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for
those who are more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.
Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC

improvement targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for
industries who achieve superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for
this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy savings
certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified
as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included
under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with their
specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the
cycle in which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be
issued would depend on the quantum of energy saved over and above the target
energy savings in the assessment year (for 1stCycle of PAT, assessment year is
2014-15).
After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from
about 3 to 7% have been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after
which new cycle with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific
energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-
compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of
verification and check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of
accredited energy auditors.
NOTE: As the PAT scheme was not discussed in the 3rd edition, the evaluator may
grant at least 5 marks to each candidate if this question was attempted, or more, if
written well.
L-3
a calciner to 15% (W/W) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 35% moisture (w/w) with recycle steam of dried material
_______________________ 10
Ans
Let
0.65F + 0.95R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =2 F ………………..(1)
0.85 (F + R) = 0.95 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 2F) = 0.95 P + (0.95 x 2 F)
2.55 F = 0.95 P + 1.9 F
0.65 F = 0.95 P
Hence F = 1.46 P ………………(2)
R = (2.0 x 1.46 P) = 2.92 P ……………..(3)
P+R = (P + 2.92 P) = P(1 + 2.92) = 3.92 P …..(4)

= 74.49%
L-4 a) Why do project managers give a great degree of attention to critical path?
_______________________ 11
b) For the PERT diagram with duration of activities shown, determine the
following:
1. What is the shortest time for completion of the project?

2. Which activities must be completed on time in order for the project to finish
in the shortest possible time?
Ans a) The critical path is of great interest to project managers. The activities on the
critical path are the ones which absolutely must be done on time in order for the
whole project to complete on time. If any of the activities on the critical path are
late, then the entire project will finish late.
b)
Activity Duratio ES EF LS LF Slack Critical

n path
(weeks)
A 4 0 4 0 4 Yes
B 3 0 3 6 9
C 5 4 9 5 10
D 5 4 9 4 9 Yes
E 8 4 12 8 16
F 6 9 15 10 16
G 7 9 16 9 16 Yes
_______________________ 12
H 9 9 18 17 26
I 10 16 26 16 26 Yes
J 7 16 23 17 24
K 4 9 13 20 24
L 3 16 19 26 29
M 3 26 29 26 29 Yes
N 5 23 28 24 29
1. The shortest time to complete project – 29 weeks

2. Critical path : A - D - G - I – M
L -5 A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
following operating data of the motor.
3) PF=0.83
2) % motor loading
Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*28*0.83

= 16.42 kW
2) % motor loading = [16.42/(20/0.88)]*100

= (16.42/22.73)
= 72.24%
b)
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c‟s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
geysers

o o o
 Placing the fridge so that the rear (condenser coils) are located where there is proper air flow.
L-6 An investment of Rs.250,000 is being considered for an energy efficient

equipment.The cost of capital for the investment is 13%.Following cash flows are
expected from the investment:
Year Rs.
_______________________ 13
0 (250,000)
1 50,000
2 100,000
3 200,000
1) Calculate the IRR for the proposed investment and interpret your answer.
Ans Step 1: Select 2 discount rates for the calculation of NPVs
We can take 10% (R1) and 20% (R2) as our discount rates.
Step 2: Calculate NPVs of the investment using the 2 discount rates

A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.909 45,450
100,000 0.826 82,600
200,000 0.751 150,200
NPV1 28,250
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.833 41,650
100,000 0.694 69,400
200,000 0.57 115,800
NPV2 -23,150
Step 3: Calculate the IRR
NPV1 x (R2 - R1)%

Internal Rate of Return = R1% +
(NPV1 - NPV2)
28,250 x (20 - 10)%
= 10% +
(28,250 - (- 3,150))
28,250 x 10%
= 10% +
28,250 + 23,150
= 10% + 5.5%
= 15.5%
_______________________ 14
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

FOR

AUDIT

instructions
1. Which one is not a consequence of global warming
a) rise in global temperature b) rise in sea level

c) food shortage and hunger d) fall in global temperature
2. Which of the following will not be a major component of mass balance

3. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption
a) kWh/ton b) kCal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kCal

4. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time
a) CO2 b) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6)

c) CFC d) Per FluoroCarbon (PFC)
5. Which of the following comes under mandatory labeling programme
a) diesel Generators b) induction motors

c) tubular Fluorescent Lamps d) LED lamps
6. Transit time method is used in which of the instrument
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot tube d) fyrite

7. To improve the boiler efficiency, which of the following needs to be done
_______________________ 1
a) maximize O2 in flue gas b) maximize CO2 in flue gas

c) minimize CO2 in flue gas d) maximize CO in flue gas
8. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy management
projects is called
a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) WBS

9. The ratio of wind power in the wind actually converted into mechanical power and the power
available in the wind is about
a) 75% b) 59% d) 44% e)10%

10. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 OC is termed as
a) latent heat b) one kilojoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
11. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is
a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000

12. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ------------
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
13. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 100 lakhs which accounts for 45% of the total
monthly energy bill. How much is the plant’s monthly energy bill
a) Rs 222.22 lakhs b) Rs 45 lakhs c) Rs 138 lakhs d) None of above

14. The major share of energy loss in a thermal power plant is in the
a) generator b) boiler c) condenser d) turbine

15. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is
a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) None of the above

16. The indicator of energy performance in a thermal power plant is

17. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1,000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the production is
80,000 Tons
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000

18. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a plant
was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on investment is
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%

19. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings achieved.
This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services. This is known as
a)traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service

c) performance contract d) shared savings performance contract
_______________________ 2
20. PERT/CPM provides which of the following benefits
a) predicts the time required to complete the project

c) graphical view of the project
d) all the above
21. Input fuel of fuel cell
a) petrol b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) natural gas

22. In India power sectors consumes about_______% of the coal produced
a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 90%
23. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the average
production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed
electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000 kWh c) 80000 kWh d) none of the above

24. In a drying process, moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is 200
kg. Calculate the weight of the product
a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3

25. In a DG set, the generator is consuming 400 litres per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of the set
at 0.6 power factor
a) 1200 KVA b) 2222 KVA c) 600 KVA d)1600 KVA

26. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second
a) 50 times b) 100 times c) Two times d) 25 times

27. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % relative humidity will
a) increase b) decrease c) no Change d) can’t say

2
28. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm then boiling point will be approximately
a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) Can’t say

29. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of power plant will be
a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%

30. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean molecular
weight of air is
a) 11.9 b) 28.8 c) 17.7 d) insufficient data

31. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant for a
flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%
a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW

32. Fuel cell using methanol as anode and oxygen as cathode is
_______________________ 3
a) proton exchange membrane fuel cell b) phosphoric acid fuel cell

b) alkaline fuel cell d) direct methanol fuel cell
33. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which of the
following conversion factors is appropriate
a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above

a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production

c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization
35. ESCerts cannot be
a) bought b) sold c) banked for next cycle d) traded directly between DCs
36. Energy intensity is the ratio of
a) fuel consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption

c) GDP/ energy consumption d) energy consumption / GDP
37. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project are
a) variable costs b) capital costs c) salvage value d) none of the above

38. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having temperature of
50 OC will be _________ kcal/kg
a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say

39. AT & C losses means
a) administration transmission and commercial

b) aggregate technical and commercial
c) average technical and commercial
40. As per primary commercial energy consumption mix in India, the fuel dominating the energy
production mix in India is
a) natural gas b) oil c) coal d) nuclear energy
An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14 then
41. for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be
a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114

42. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a pessimistic time
of 27 days. What is the expected time
a) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days

43. Among which of the following fuels, the difference between the GCV and NCV is maximum
a) coal b) furnace Oil c) natural gas d) rice husk

44. A waste heat recovery system costs Rs. 54 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs per year to operate and
maintain. If the annual savings is Rs. 20 lakhs, the payback period will be
_______________________ 4
a) 8 years b) 2.7 years c) 3 years d) 10 years

45. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency is
80% and the losses will be

46. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a continuous
flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the discharge side would
be
a) 12 m3/hr b) 10 m3/hr c) 5.5 m3/hr d) 6.6 m 3/hr

47. A 400W lamp was switched on for 10 hours per day. The supply volt is 230V (current= 2 amps &
PF= 0.8). What is the energy consumption per day
a) 3.68 kWh b) 6.37 kWh c) 0.37 kWh d) 4.0 kWh

48. 3 3
20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The volume of
the mixture would be
a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
49. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’ as
a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
50. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood
a) 0.78 kg b) 220 grams c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

S-1 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C to
85oC. If the GCV of the gas is 9200 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
kg/min (assume efficiency of water heater as 82%)
Solution:
Volume of water heated = 20 liters/min

Mass of water heated = 20 Kg/min
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water. … 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min * 9200 * 0.82 = 20 Kg/min * 1 kcal/Kg/oC)* (85-25)oC
_______________________ 5
… 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9200*0.82)
= 0.159 Kg/ min.
…. 3 marks

0 75,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000
Ans:
NPV = - 75,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3
…… 3 marks
= -75,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794
= 24,904 Rs.
…… 2 marks
S-3 In a process plant, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by w/w
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 30% solids w/w. calculate the
evaporation of water per 500 kgs of feed to the evaporator.
Solution :
Inlet solid contents = 6 %
Output solid contents = 30%
Feed = 500 kgs
Inlet solid content in kg in feed = 500 x 0.06 = 30 kg …… 1 mark
Outlet solid content in kg = 30 kg …… 1 mark
Quantity of water evaporated = [500 – {(30 / 30) x 100}] = 400 kg.

…… 3 marks
S-4 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001
Ans:
Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act - 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes (ECBC)
 Standards and labeling (S&L)
 Demand side management (DSM)
 Bachat Lamp Yojana (BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises (SME’s)
 Designated consumers
 Certification of energy auditors and energy managers
_______________________ 6
….. (5 marks for any of the above five schemes)

S-5 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?
a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer
Ans:
a. Pitot tube Static, Dynamic and Total Pressure of Gas

b. Stroboscope Speed, RPM
c. Fyrite CO2 % or O2 %
d. Psychrometer Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet Bulb Temperature
e. Anemometer Air or wind velocity
…… (1 mark each)
S-6 What are ESCerts and explain the basis for their issue and trading under PAT scheme ?
PAT scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified
energy savings certificates with other designated consumers (energy intensive
industries notified as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act
and included under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with
their specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued.
….. (5 marks)
S–7 Pressure of a nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 25 0C. Specific gravity of mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
Nitrogen pressure = 100 mm of Water Gauge = 100 / 13.6 = 7.353 mm of Hg
….. (0.5 mark)
Absolute Temperature, T = 25 + 273 = 298 K,
Mass = 1.5 kg & Barometric pressure = 756 mm of Hg.
Absolute pressure = 756 + 7.353 = 763.353 mm of Hg

….. (0.5 mark)
Pressure, P = Density, (kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) / 1000

= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
_______________________ 7
….. (1.5 marks)

Molar mass of Nitrogen = 28 kg/kMol.
Number of kMol, n = Mass / Molar Mass = 1.5/ 28 = 0.0536 kMol

……(1 mark)
Using the ideal gas equation and putting the above values;
PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 298
V = 1.395 m3
….. (1.5 marks)
S–8 Distinguish between designated agency and designated consumer as per energy
conservation act 2001
Ans:
Designated Agency: Designated agency means an agency which coordinates,
regulates and enforces of Energy Conservation Act 2001within a state.
..… (2.5 marks)
Designated Consumer: Designated consumer means any users or class of users

of energy in the “energy intensive industries and other establishments” specified
in Schedule as designated consumer.
..… (2.5 marks)

L-1 a) A furnace heating steel ingots is fired with oil having a calorific value of 10,500 kCal/kg
and efficiency of 75%. Calculate the oil consumption per hour when the throughput of the
furnace is 50 TPH and the temperature of the finished product is 600 oC. Take ambient
temperature as 30 oC and Specific Heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC
b) In Steel industry, different types of gases are generated during steel making process.
Volumetric Flow rate and Calorific Values of each gases are:
Type of Gas Flow (SM3/hr) CV (kCal/SM3)

Coke Oven Gas 75,000 4,000
COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Blast Furnace Gas 80,000 700
_______________________ 8
All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific
Value (in kCal/SM3) of mix gas.
Ans:
a) Oil Consumption / hr
50 (TPH) x 0.12 (kCal/kg oC) x (600 – 30) (oC)

= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,500 (kCal/kg)
= 0.43 TPH
(5 marks)
b) Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 mark)
CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000
= 2,071 kCal/SM3 (4 marks)
L – 2 A) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?
I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking
B) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.
Ans:
A) I) Normalizing:
The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the
energy efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include
weather or certain operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of
removing the impact of various factors on energy use so that energy
performance of facilities and operations can be compared.
…… (3 marks)
II) Benchmarking:
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a

relative understanding of where our performance ranks.
…… (2 marks)
B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples:
_______________________ 9
Substituting existing fossil fuels/energy with more efficient and / or less cost/less polluting
fuel.
….. (1 mark)
Few examples of fuel substitution
 Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the fertilizer,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
 Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
 Replacement of LDO by LSHS
…… (2 marks)
Few examples of energy substitution
 Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters.
 Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems.
…… (2 marks)
a) Draw a PERT chart

b) Find out the duration of the project
c) Identify the critical path.

Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7
Ans:
_______________________ 10
.….(6 marks)
Duration = 28 days ….. (2 marks)
Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H ….. (2 marks)

L – 4 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating at
an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the paper drying machine
which found to be 60% and 95% respectively.
The steam is supplied at 4 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 510 kCal/kg. The evaporated
moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg. Plant operates 24
hours per day. Assume only latent heat of steam is being used for drying the paper and
neglect the enthalpy of the moisture in the wet paper.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated per hr.

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hr.
Ans:
Output of the drying machine = 480 TPD with 95% dryness.
Bone dry mass of paper at the output = 480 x 0.95 = 456 TPD
…. (2 marks)
Since the dryness at the inlet is 60%,
Total mass of wet paper at the inlet = (456 x 100) / 60 = 760 TPD
…..(2 marks)
Moisture evaporated per hour = (760 – 480)/ 24 = 11.67TPH
….(3 marks)
Mass of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 510 = 14.6 TPH
…..(3 marks)
L-5 Use CUSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for 8 months
period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 6,000 MT
per month. Refer to field data given in the table below.
_______________________ 11

May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335
Ans
Actual
Predicted SEC, Diff = ( Act - Pred ) CUSUM
Month SEC,
kWh/MT ( - = Saving ) ( - = Saving )
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
…..(7 marks)
Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 6000 =1,68,000 kWh
…..(3 marks)
L-6 Write short notes on?
1. Time of the day tariff

2. Comparative label
3. Endorsement label
4. Benefits of ISO 50001
Solution:
1) In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-peak
_______________________ 12
hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in.
 Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
record peak and off-peak consumption and normal period separately.
 ToD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour tariff is
quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher line
losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by reduced
demand
….. (2.5 marks)
2) Comparative label: allow consumers to compare efficiency of all the models of a

product in order to make an informed choice. It shows the relative energy use of a
product compared to other models available in the market.
….. (2.5 marks)
3) Endorsement label: define a group of products as efficient when they meet minimum
energy performance criteria specified in the respective product
schedule/regulation/statutory order.
….. (2.5 marks)
4) ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits
 A framework for integrating energy efficiency into management practices
 Making better use of existing energy-consuming assets
 Benchmarking, measuring, documenting, and reporting energy intensity

improvements and their projected impact on reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions
 Transparency and communication on the management of energy resources
 Energy management best practices and good energy management behaviours
 Evaluating and prioritizing the implementation of new energy-efficient technologies
 A framework for promoting energy efficiency throughout the supply chain
 Energy management improvements in the context of GHG emission reduction

projects.
….. (2.5 marks)
_______________________ 13
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

FOR

AUDIT
a) Answer all 50 questions

b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil
1. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % relative humidity will
a) increase b) decrease c) no Change d) can’t say

2
a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) Can’t say

3. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of power plant will be
a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%

molecular weight of air is

5. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant for
a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%
a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW

6. Fuel cell using methanol as anode and oxygen as cathode is
a) proton exchange membrane fuel cell b) phosphoric acid fuel cell

b) alkaline fuel cell d) direct methanol fuel cell
7. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which of
the following conversion factors is appropriate
_______________________ 1
a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above


9. ESCerts cannot be
a) bought b) sold c) banked for next cycle d) traded directly between DCs
10. Energy intensity is the ratio of
a) fuel consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption

11. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project are

12. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having temperature
of 50 OC will be _________ kcal/kg
a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say

13. AT & C losses means
a) administration transmission and commercial

b) aggregate technical and commercial
c) average technical and commercial
14. As per primary commercial energy consumption mix in India, the fuel dominating the energy
production mix in India is
a) natural gas b) oil c) coal d) nuclear energy
An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14
15. then for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be
a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114

16. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a pessimistic
time of 27 days. What is the expected time
a) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days

17. Among which of the following fuels, the difference between the GCV and NCV is maximum


19. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency
is 80% and the losses will be
_______________________ 2

20. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a continuous
flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the discharge side
would be

21. A 400W lamp was switched on for 10 hours per day. The supply volt is 230V (current= 2
amps & PF=0.8). What is the energy consumption per day
a) 3.68 kWh b) 6.37 kWh c) 0.37 kWh d) 4.0 kWh

22. 20 m3 of water is mixed with 30 m 3 of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The volume
of the mixture would be
a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
23. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’ as
a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125

25. Which one is not a consequence of global warming
a) rise in global temperature b) rise in sea level

c) food shortage and hunger d) fall in global temperature

a) kWh/ton b) kCal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kCal

28. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time

c) CFC d) Per FluoroCarbon (PFC)
29. Which of the following comes under mandatory labeling programme
a) diesel Generators b) induction motors

c) tubular Fluorescent Lamps d) LED lamps
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot tube d) fyrite


32. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy
_______________________ 3

33. The ratio of wind power in the wind actually converted into mechanical power and the power
available in the wind is about
a) 75% b) 59% d) 44% e)10%

34. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 OC is termed as
a) latent heat b) one kilojoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
35. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is
a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000

36. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ____________
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5


a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) None of the above


production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the production
is 80,000 Tons
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000

42. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on investment
is
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%

This is known as

c) performance contract d) shared savings performance contract
_______________________ 4

d) all the above
45. Input fuel of fuel cell
a) petrol b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) natural gas

46. In India power sectors consumes about_______% of the coal produced
a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 90%
47. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the
average production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000 kWh c) 80000 kWh d) none of the above

48. In a drying process, moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product
a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3

consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of the
set at 0.6 power factor
a) 1200 KVA b) 2222 KVA c) 600 KVA d)1600 KVA

50. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

S –1 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?
a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer
Ans:
_______________________ 5

…. (1 mark each)
S-2 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001
Ans:
Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes(ECBC)
 Standards and labeling(S&L)
 Demand side management(DSM)
 Bachat lamp yojana(BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises(SME’s)
….. (5 marks for any of the above five schemes)

S-3 In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 8% by w/w
evaporation of water per 500 Kgs of feed to the evaporator
Ans :
Output solid contents=45%
Feed=500kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =500 x0.08 = 40 Kg …… 1 mark
Outlet Solid contents in kg =40 kg
…… 1 mark
quantity of water evaporated=[500 – {(100) x 40}] = 411.1 kgs
45
…… 3 marks

0 1,00,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000
Ans
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12) 2 + (75,000 –
_______________________ 6
50,000)/(1+0.12)3
…… 3 marks
= -100,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794 + 22,243
= -96 Rs.
…… 2 marks
S-5 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C to
85oC. if the GCV of the gas is 9555 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
Solution:
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water.
… 1 mark
… 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9555*0.82)
= 0.1532 Kg/ min
… 3 marks
S–6 Distinguish between designated agency and designated consumer as per energy
conservation act 2001
Ans:
Designated Agency: Designated agency means an agency which coordinates,
regulates and enforces of Energy Conservation Act 2001within a state.
..… (2.5 marks)
Designated Consumer: Designated consumer means any users or class of users
of energy in the “energy intensive industries and other establishments” specified
in Schedule as designated consumer.
..… (2.5 marks)
S–7 Pressure of a Nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
Water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of Mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 35 0C. Specific Gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
….. (0.5 mark)
Absolute Temperature, T = 35 oC = 35 + 273 = 308 K,

….. (0.5 mark)
Pressure, P = Density, ῤ(kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) /

1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
_______________________ 7
….. (1.5 marks)


……(1 mark)
PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 308
V = 1.35 m3
….. (1.5 marks)
S-8 What are ESCerts and explain the basis for their issue and trading under PAT scheme ?
PAT scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified
energy savings certificates with other designated consumers (energy intensive
industries notified as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act
and included under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with
their specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued.
….. (5 marks)

1. Time of the day tariff

2. Comparative label
3. Endorsement label
4. Benefits of ISO 50001
Solution:
1) In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-peak
hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in.
 Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
_______________________ 8
record peak and off-peak consumption and normal period separately.
 ToD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour tariff is
quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher line
losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by reduced
demand
….. (2.5 marks)
2) Comparative label: allow consumers to compare efficiency of all the models of a

product in order to make an informed choice. It shows the relative energy use of a
product compared to other models available in the market.
….. (2.5 marks)
3) Endorsement label: define a group of products as efficient when they meet minimum
energy performance criteria specified in the respective product
schedule/regulation/statutory order.
….. (2.5 marks)
4) ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits
 A framework for integrating energy efficiency into management practices
 Making better use of existing energy-consuming assets
 Benchmarking, measuring, documenting, and reporting energy intensity

improvements and their projected impact on reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions
 Transparency and communication on the management of energy resources
 Energy management best practices and good energy management behaviours
 Evaluating and prioritizing the implementation of new energy-efficient technologies
 A framework for promoting energy efficiency throughout the supply chain
 Energy management improvements in the context of GHG emission reduction

projects.
….. (2.5 marks)
_______________________ 9

May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335
Ans
Actual
Month SEC,
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
…..(7 marks)
Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 7,500 = 2,10,000 kWh
…..(3 marks)
L – 3 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating
at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The evaporated

_______________________ 10
Ans:
…. (2 marks)

…. (2 marks)

…. (3 marks)
Maas of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 513 = 14.5 TPH

…. (3 marks)


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7
Ans:
……(6 Marks)
Duration = 28 days ……(2 Marks)
Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H ……(2 Marks)
_______________________ 11
I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking
Ans:
A)
I) Normalizing:
3 Marks
II) Benchmarking:

2 Marks
B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.
fuel.
….. (1 mark)
….. (2 marks)
….. (2 marks)
_______________________ 12

COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific Value
(in kCal/SM3) of Mix Gas.
Ans:

= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,000 (kCal/kg)
= 0.456 TPH
(5 marks)
b)
Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 mark)
CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000
_______________________ 13

FOR


2. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’
as
a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
3 3
3. 20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The
volume of the mixture would be
a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
4. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a
continuous flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the
discharge side would be

_______________________ 1

7. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
a) Methane and Ozone b) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide

c) Methane and Sulphur Dioxide d) Carbon Dioxide and Sulphur Dioxide
8. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using pilot tube and ________
a) Manometer b) Orifice meter c) Bourdon guage d) Anemometer

9. Among which of the following fuels, is the difference between the GCV and NCV the
maximum?

10. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is the expected time
A) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114

12. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
temperature of 50 OC will be _________ kCal/kg.
A) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say

13. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project
are:

a) fuel Consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption

a) Commercial energy b) Primary energy

c) Renewable energy d) Secondary energy

17. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which
of the following conversion factors is appropriate
a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh

c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above
_______________________ 2
18. Having energy policy
a) satisfies regulations b) shows commitment

c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number of other policies
19. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%.
a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW


21. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of Power plant will be
a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%

22. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm 2 then boiling point will be approximately
a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) can’t say

23. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating at
a) lagging power factor b) unity power factor c) leading power factor d) none of the
above
24. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % Relative Humidity will
a) increase b) decrease
c) no Change d) can’t say
25. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second.

consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of
the set at 0.6 power factor?
a) 1200 kVA b) 2222 kVA c) 600 kVA d) 1600 kVA

27. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product.
a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3

a) 58000 kwh b) 30000 kwh c) 80000 kwh d) None of the above

29. In project financing, sensitivity analysis
a) is applied in almost all the cash flows method involve uncertainly

b) assures how sensitive the project to change the input parameter
c) enables the analysis of what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) is applicable for all the above situations
_______________________ 3

d) all the above
31. Replacement of steam and hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to requirement b) energy substitution

c) maximizing system efficiency d) performance improvement
This is known as

plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on
investment is:
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%

34. The data and information sources related to energy use in a company may be obtained
from
a) plant level b) plant department level

c) system level and equipment Level d) all of the above
production is 80,000 Tons.
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000

a) heat rate (kcal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) none of the above



a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
41. The ozone depletion process is triggered by
_______________________ 4
a) methane b) chlorine molecules c) carbondioxide d) Nitrogen

42. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is:
a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000

43. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of Water by 1 OC is termed
as
a) latent heat b) one kiloJoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above


a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot Tube d) fyrite


c) CFC d) per fluorocarbon (PFC)
48. Which of the following is not a primary energy
a) natural gas b) oil c) wood d) electricity

a) kWh/ton b) kcal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kcal

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….


_______________________ 5
evaporation of water per 300 Kgs of feed to the evaporator.

Solution :
Feed=300kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =300 x 0.06 = 18 Kg
Outlet Solid contents in kg =18 kg (2 marks)
Quantity of water evaporated=[300 – {(100) x 18}] = 240 kg (3 marks)

30
S-2 List down at least five scheme of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001.
Solution :
(5 marks for any of the above 5 schemes)

S–3 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?
a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer
Ans:

(1 mark for each)
Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
S-4 consumers?
Ans:
_______________________ 6
i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
hours are built in.
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say
during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours.
Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and normal
period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak
hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
vi. turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
(5 marks for any of the above 5 relevant points)

0 75,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000
Ans:
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3 +
(3 marks)
= -75,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794

= 24904 Rs.
(2 marks)
S-6 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C
to 85oC. If the GCV of the gas is 9200 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
Solution:
(1 mark)

Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9200*0.82)
(3 marks)
= 0.159 Kg/ min
_______________________ 7
(1 mark)
S-7 A thermal power plant uses 0.7 kg of coal to generate one KWh of electricity. If the coal
contains 32% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO 2 emission/KWh under
complete combustion.
Solution:
Amount of carbon present in coal= 0.7*32/100 = 0.224 kg
As per chemical reaction,
C + O2 = CO2
1 kg of carbon generates 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide (CO 2) under complete
combustion
(2 marks)
Amount of CO2 generation while generating one KWh of electricity =0.224*44/12

= 0.81 Kg/KWh
(3 marks)
S–8 Pressure of a nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
Water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 25 0C. Specific Gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:

1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
(2 marks)
PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 298
V = 1.395 m3
(3 marks)
_______________________ 8

I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking
Ans:
A) I) Normalizing
(3 marks)
II) Benchmarking

(2 Marks)
B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.
fuel.
(1 mark)
(2 marks)
_______________________ 9

(2 marks)


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7
Ans:
(6 Marks)
Duration = 28 days (2 Marks)
Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H (2 Marks)

_______________________ 10
COREX Gas 50,000 2,000

BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Value (in kCal/SM3) of mix gas.
Ans:

= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,500 (kCal/kg)
= 0.43 TPH
(5 marks)
b)
(1 marks)
CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335
Ans
_______________________ 11
Actual
Month SEC,
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
(7 marks)
Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 6,000 =

1,68,000 kWh (3 marks)
The steam is supplied at 4 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 510 kCal/kg. The evaporated

Ans:
(2 marks)
(2 marks)

(3 marks)
Mass of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 510 = 14.6 TPH
(3 marks)
1) Net calorific value
2) Maximum Demand
3) Contract Demand
_______________________ 12
4) Load factor
Ans:
Net Calorific Value (NCV)

The heating value of fuel is the measure of the heat released during the complete
combustion of unit weight of fuel. It is expressed as Gross Calorific Value (GCV) or Net
Calorific Value (NCV). The difference between GCV and NCV is the heat of vaporization
of the moisture and atomic hydrogen (conversion to water vapour) in the fuel.
(2.5 Marks)
Maximum Demand
Maximum demand is the highest average kVA recorded during any one-demand interval
within the month. The demand interval is normally 30 minutes, but may vary from utility
to utility from 15 minutes to 60 minutes. The demand is measured using a tri-vector
meter / digital energy meter.
(2.5 Marks)
Contract Demand
Contract demand is the amount of electric power that a customer demands from utility in
a specified interval. Unit used is kVA or kW. It is the amount of electric power that the
consumer agreed upon with the utility. This would mean that utility has to plan for the
specified capacity.
(2.5 Marks)
Load factor
It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of energy
consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy demand if maximum
load is maintained throughout that time period.
(2.5 Marks)
_______________________ 13

FOR

a) fuel Consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption

2. Among which of the following fuels, is the difference between the GCV and NCV the
maximum?

2
a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) can’t say

4. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
temperature of 50 OC will be _________ kCal/kg.
A) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say

5. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of Power plant will be
a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%

6. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % Relative Humidity will
a) increase b) decrease
c) no Change d) can’t say
_______________________ 1
7. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of Water by 1 OC is termed

as
a) latent heat b) one kiloJoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
8. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second.


a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot Tube d) fyrite

3 3
11. 20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The
volume of the mixture would be
a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
12. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a
continuous flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the
discharge side would be

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114

14. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product in kgs
a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
a) kWh/ton b) kcal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kcal




_______________________ 2
20. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is:
a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000

plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on
investment is:
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%


23. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is the expected time
A) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days



d) all the above
26. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project
are:

production is 80,000 Tons.
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000

This is known as

a) heat rate (kcal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

_______________________ 3

c) CFC d) per fluorocarbon (PFC)
32. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
a) Methane and Ozone b) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide

c) Methane and Sulphur Dioxide d) Carbon Dioxide and Sulphur Dioxide
a) Commercial energy b) Primary energy

c) Renewable energy d) Secondary energy
34. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which
of the following conversion factors is appropriate
a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh

c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above
35. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’
as
a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
36. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using pilot tube and ________
a) Manometer b) Orifice meter c) Bourdon guage d) Anemometer


a) 58000 kwh b) 30000 kwh c) 80000 kwh d) None of the above

39. The ozone depletion process is triggered by
a) methane b) chlorine molecules c) carbondioxide d) Nitrogen

40. In project financing, sensitivity analysis
a) is applied in almost all the cash flows method involve uncertainly

b) assures how sensitive the project to change the input parameter
c) enables the analysis of what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) is applicable for all the above situations
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%.
a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW

42. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating at
_______________________ 4
a) lagging power factor b) unity power factor c) leading power factor d) none of the
above
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of
the set at 0.6 power factor?
a) 1200 kVA b) 2222 kVA c) 600 kVA d) 1600 kVA


45. Which of the following is not a primary energy
a) natural gas b) oil c) wood d) electricity

46. The data and information sources related to energy use in a company may be obtained
from
a) plant level b) plant department level

c) system level and equipment Level d) all of the above


a) satisfies regulations b) shows commitment

c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number of other policies
50. Replacement of steam and hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to requirement b) energy substitution

c) maximizing system efficiency d) performance improvement
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

S–1 Pressure of a Nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
_______________________ 5
water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of Mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 35 0C. specific gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:

1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
(2 marks)
PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 308
V = 1.35 m3
(3 marks)
S-2 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001.
Solution :
(5 marks for any of the above 5 schemes)
S–3 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?
a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
_______________________ 6
e) Anemometer
Ans:

(1 mark for each)
evaporation of water per 400 Kgs of feed to the evaporator
Ans :
inlet solid contents = 8 %
Feed=500kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =400 x0.08 = 32 Kg
Outlet Solid contents in kg = 32 kg (2 marks)
quantity of water evaporated=[400 – {(100) x 32}] = 328.9 kgs

45
(3 marks)
Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
S-5 consumers?
Ans:
i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
hours are built in.
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say
during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours.
Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and normal
period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak
hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
vi. turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
(5 marks for any of the above 5 relevant points)
_______________________ 7
0 1,00,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000
Ans:
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3
(3 marks)
= -100,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794

= - 96 Rs.
(2 marks)
S-7 A thermal power plant uses 0.7kg of coal to generate one KWh of electricity. If the coal
contains 38% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2 emission/KWh under
complete combustion.
Solution:
Amount of carbon present in coal= 0.7*38/100 = 0.266 kg
As per chemical reaction,
C + O2 = CO2
1 kg of carbon generates 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide (CO 2) under complete
combustion
(2 marks)
Amount of CO2 generation while generating one KWh of electricity =0.266*44/12

= 0.98 Kg/KWh
(3 marks)
S-8 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C
to 85oC. if the GCV of the gas is 9555 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
Solution:
(1 mark)
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9555*0.82)
(3 marks)
= 0.1532 Kg/ min
(1 mark)
_______________________ 8

which were found to be 60% and 95% respectively.
The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The evaporated

Ans:
(2 marks)
(2 marks)
(3 marks)
Maas of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 513 = 14.5 TPH

(3 marks)

May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335
_______________________ 9
Ans
Actual
Month SEC,
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
(7 marks)
Positive savings i.e. savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are
28 x 7,500 = 2,10,000 kWh
(3 marks)
L – 3 a) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?
I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking
b) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.
Ans:
a) I) Normalizing
3 marks
II) Benchmarking

2 Marks
b) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.
fuel.
_______________________ 10
(1 mark)
(2 marks)
(2 marks)
temperature as 30 oC and specific heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC

COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Value (in kCal/SM3) of Mix Gas.
Ans:
Oil Consumption / hr

= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,000 (kCal/kg)
= 0.456 TPH
(5 marks)
B)
Ans:
(1 mark)
_______________________ 11
CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

1) Net calorific value
2) Maximum Demand
3) Contract Demand
4) Load factor
Ans:
Net Calorific Value (NCV)

The heating value of fuel is the measure of the heat released during the complete
combustion of unit weight of fuel. It is expressed as Gross Calorific Value (GCV) or Net
Calorific Value (NCV). The difference between GCV and NCV is the heat of vaporization
of the moisture and atomic hydrogen (conversion to water vapour) in the fuel.
(2.5 Marks)
Maximum Demand
Maximum demand is the highest average kVA recorded during any one-demand interval
within the month. The demand interval is normally 30 minutes, but may vary from utility
to utility from 15 minutes to 60 minutes. The demand is measured using a tri-vector
meter / digital energy meter.
(2.5 Marks)
Contract Demand
Contract demand is the amount of electric power that a customer demands from utility in
a specified interval. Unit used is kVA or kW. It is the amount of electric power that the
consumer agreed upon with the utility. This would mean that utility has to plan for the
specified capacity.
(2.5 Marks)
Load factor
It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of energy
consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy demand if maximum
load is maintained throughout that time period
(2.5 Marks)


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
_______________________ 12
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7
Ans:
6 Marks
Duration = 28 days 2 Marks
Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H 2 Marks
_______________________ 13
Paper 1 –Set A

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – August, 2014
Section - I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

1. A geothermal field may yield
a) dry steam b) wet steam c) hot air d) all of these


a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide c) only ethane d) none of these
i) bagasse is a source of secondary energy

ii) beneficiated coal belongs to primary energy
iii) electricity is basically a convenient form of primary energy
iv) steam is a convenient form of secondary energy
a) (ii) & (iii) b) (i) & (iii) c) (ii) & (iv) d) (ii) & (i)
5. Natural gas contains
a) methane, ethane and propane in equal proportions

b) only butane and propane in equal proportions
c) methane, propane and pentane in equal proportions
d) mostly methane and minor amounts of other gases
6. Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy?
a) consistency in pricing of energy

b) scope for improving supply of energy from varied sources
c) energy conservation Research and Development
1
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
d) reducing price of energy

7. Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security will not affect agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by avoiding dependence upon imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries strengthen energy security
d) strengthening energy security requires increasing exploration to find oil and gas
reserves
8. In a boiler substitution of coal with rice husk leads to
a) energy conservation b) energy efficiency

c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency d) carbon emission reduction
9. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow Energy
conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its

10. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act,
2001?

d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review
11. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumers?


d) all of the above
13. An induction motor with 11 kW rating and efficiency of 90% in its name plate means
a) it will draw 12.22 kW at full load

b) it will always draw 11 kW at full load
2
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
c) it will draw 9.9 kW at full load

d) nothing can be said about how much power it will draw as motor power factor is not
given
14. Which of the following statement is true regarding maximum demand controller?
a) maximum demand controller enables a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks in the consumer
load profile
b) maximum demand controller enables a way of improving the system power factor
c) enables a way for using more electrical energy at lower total cost of energy without
investment in expansion of power supply
d) maximum demand controller is installed by concerned utility at customer premises
i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices

16. Which of the following is a standard for Energy Management System?
a) ISO 14001 b) ISO 9001 c) ISO 18001 d) ISO 50001

17. Which of the following statements are true regarding simple payback period?
a) considers impact of cash flow even after payback period

b) takes into account the time value of money
c) considers cash flow throughout the project life cycle
d) determines how quickly invested money is recovered
18. Which of the following statements are true regarding CPM?
i) work breakdown structure are used to list the activities in the project as a first step
in CPM
ii) CPM takes into account variation in the completion time and average time is used
for any activity
iii) if the project is to finish earlier, it is necessary to focus on activities other than
critical path
iv) critical path is the longest path in the network.
a) i & iv b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) iii & iv

19. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Global warming will result in:
3
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
a) melting of the ice caps b) increasing sea levels

c) severe damage to ozone layer in stratosphere d) unpredictable climate patterns
20. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called
a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink c) carbon Capture d) carbon absorption

21. Which of the following statements are true regarding wind turbine?
i) wind power varies as cube of rotor size

ii) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
iii) wind speed has more influence on wind power than turbine area
iv) practical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind
turbine rotor is about 79%
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) ii & iv


ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount of
heat is retained in ETC

23. What percentage of the sun’s energy can silicon solar panels convert into electricity?
a) 30% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%
24. How much theoretical power you would expect to generate from a river-based mini
hydropower with flow of 20 litres/second and head of 12 metres
a) 2.35kW b) 2.44MW c) 1.67kW d) none of the above
25. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due to
Hydrogen in the fuel ?
26. Energy in one Tonne of Oil Equivalent (toe) corresponds to

a) 4.187 GJ b) 1.162 MWh c) 1 Million kcal d) none of the above
27. Tonnes of Oil Equivalent energy consumption / GDP in Million US $ is termed as

a) energy intensity b) per capita oil consumption
c) per capita energy consumption d) energy performance
4
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
28. Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO2 emissions
will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr
c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
29. Under the Energy Conservation Act, the designated consumer is required to get the
mandatory energy audit conducted by
c) accredited energy auditor d) in-house engineer
30. If the relative humidity of air is 100%, then which of the following statements is correct
a) only dew point & wet bulb temp. are same
b) only dew point & dry bulb temp. are same
c) only wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
d) all dew point , wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
31. Among which of the following fuel is the difference between the GCV and NCV
maximum?
a) coal b) furnace oil c) natural gas d) rice husk
32. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) speedometer
33. Which of the following instrument is used for assessing combustion efficiency ?
a) lux Meter b) pitot tube & manometer c) ultrasonic flow meter d) fyrite

35. If 800 kcal of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0oC. (Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 kcal/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4 kg c) 10 kg d) 20 kg
36. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product
obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 d) 40
5
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
37. The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as

a) annual cost / capital cost b) (first cost / first year benefits) x 100
c) NPV / IRR d) (annual net cash flow x 100) / capital cost
measured in
a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.
39. Cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.5 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual maintenance cost of Rs 10,000 is
a) 0.4 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 6

a) commercial energy b) primary energy c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
42. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakh kwh for a given period. The
average production is 50000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kwh/ton for the same
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000kWh c) 80000kWh d) none of the above
43. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in
a plant costs Rs. 8 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 2 lakhs. The return on
investment
44. The amount of electricity required to heat 100 litres of water from 30oC to 70 oC through
resistance heating is
a) 0.465 kWh b) 4.65 kWh c) 465 kWh d) 2 kWh
45. In project financing, sensitivity analysis is applied because

a) almost all the cash flows involve uncertainly
b) it evaluates how sensitive the project is to change in the input parameters
c) it assesses the impact of ‘what if one or more factors are different from what is
predicted’
d) it is applicable to all the above situations
46. A process requires 120 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 4800 kcal/kg for heating with a
system efficiency of 82 %. The loss would be
6
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A

a) satisfies regulations b) shows top management commitment
c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number other policies
a) CO, H2 and CH4 b) only CH4 c) only CO and CH4 d) only CO and H2
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest
50.
finish time of an activity is
……. End of Section – I …….

Calculate Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with an investment of
S-1
Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year and second investment of Rs 70,000 at the
beginning of the second year and fuel cost saving of Rs 95,000 in second and third
year. The discount rate is 14%
Ans
NPV = –70,000 – (70000/1.14) + [95000/(1.14x1.14)] + [95000/(1.14x1.14x1.14)]
= –70000 – 61404 +73099 + 64122
= –131404 +137221
= Rs 5817/-
A water pumping station fills a reservoir at a fixed rate. The head and flow rate are
S-2
constant and hence the power drawn by the pump is always same. The pump operates
at 100 m head and delivers 250 litres per second. The power consumption was
measured as 300 kW.
Calculate energy consumption to pump 13,500 kL of water to the reservoir.

Ans
Time taken to pump water in hours = 13,500 × 103 L
250 L/s x 3600 sec/hr
= 15 hours
Power required to pump water = 300 kW
7
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
Energy consumption = 300 x 15 =4500 kWh
S-3 A conveyor delivers coal with a width of 1 m and coal bed height of 0.25 m at a speed
of 0.5 m/s. Determine coal delivery in tons per hour considering coal density of 1.1
ton/m3.
Ans Volume of coal delivered per hour = area x length travelled per second
=1 m x 0.25 m x 0.5 m/s
= 0.125 m3/s = 450 m3/hr
Coal delivery rate = 450 m3/hr x 1.1 t/m3
= 495 t/hr
S-4 In a process industry, 12,000 kg/hr water is currently being heated from 18oCto 80oC by
indirect heating of steam. An opportunity has been identified which would preheat the
inlet water to 45oC to reduce the steam required.
Estimate the reduction in steam in kg/hr considering latent heat of steam as 520 kcal/kg
in both the cases.
Ans Without heat recovery

Heating required (Q1) = mCp T
= 12,000 x 1 x (80-18)
= 744,000 kcal/hr
Steam required = 744,000 / 520
= 1431 kg/hr
After heat recovery
Heating required (Q2) = 12,000 x 1 x (80 – 45)
= 420,000 kcal/hr
Steam required = 420,000/520
= 808 kg/hr
Reduction in steam required = 1431 - 808 = 623 kg/hr
Write short notes on any two of the following:
S-5
a) Building envelope
b) Standards and Labeling
c) Demand Side Management (DSM)
(a) Building envelope includes all components of building exposed to outside
Ans
environment such as outside doors, windows, roofs etc. Its main purpose is to
protect employees from outside environment.
8
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Paper 1 –Set A
(b) Standards and Labeling (Page -35): There is a wide variation in energy
consumption of similar products by various manufacturers. Also information on
energy consumption is often not easily available. Standards and Labeling (S&L)
has been identified as a key activity for energy efficiency improvement. The S&L
program, when in place, would ensure that only energy efficient equipment and
appliances would be made available to the consumers.
Standards: Energy-efficiency standards are procedures and regulations prescribing

the energy performance of energy-consuming products. The sale of products that
are less energy efficient than minimum standards, often called Minimum Energy
Performance Standards (MEPS) may be prohibited. For establishing the standards,
agreed testing protocols (test procedures) are defined and value of energy
performance is determined.
Labels: Energy-efficiency labels are informative labels affixed to manufactured

products to describe the product’s energy performance (usually in the form of
energy use, efficiency). These labels give consumers the data necessary to make
informed purchases. Star rating is a system initiated by BEE to determine energy
efficiency of an appliance. Label indicates the energy efficiency levels through the
number of stars highlighted in colour on the label. It is being applied to many
products such as refrigerators, TVs, ACs and so on.
(c) Demand Side Management (Page -36) : Demand Side Management (DSM) means
managing of the demand for power, by utilities / Distribution companies, among
some or all its customers to meet current or future needs. DSM programs result in
energy and / or demand reduction. For example, under this process, the demand
can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby reducing the need for buying
expensive imported power during peak hours. DSM also enables end-users to
better manage their load curve and thus improves the profitability. Potential energy
saving through DSM is treated same as new additions on the supply side in MWs.
DSM can reduce the capital needs for power capacity expansion.
a) Briefly explain why combustion of biomass fuels is considered as carbon neutral?

S6
b) Name five energy intensive industries having annual energy consumption of 30,000
metric tonne of oil equivalent and above, notified as designated consumers under
the EC Act 2001
9
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
Ans a) The CO2 emitted by combustion of biomass fuels is largely balanced by the
absorption/capture of carbon dioxide during its growth.
b)
1. Thermal Power Stations
2. Fertilizer
3. Cement
4. Iron & Steel
5. Pulp & Paper
S7 Briefly explain the difference between flat plate collector and evacuated tube collector.
Ans. (Page 260-261)
Flat plate collector:

 The most common collector is called a flat-
plate collector.
 Heat the circulating fluid to a temperature of
about 40-60°C.
 Usually comprises of copper tubes welded to
copper sheets (both coated with a highly
absorbing black coatings) with toughened
glass sheet on top for cover and insulating
material at the bottom. The entire assembly is Solar Flat Plate Collector
placed in a flat box.
Evacuated tube collector:

 Used For higher temperatures.
 Evacuated tube collector is less dependent upon
ambient temperature unlike flat plate collector
and its efficiency does not drop with ambient
temperature.
 Evacuated glass tubes are used instead of
copper in which case a separate cover sheet
and insulating box are not required. Evacuated Tube Collector
 Can reach high temperatures upto 150°C
10
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Paper 1 –Set A
A sample of coal being used in a boiler is found to contain 60% carbon and 23% ash.
S8
The refuse obtained after combustion is analysed and found to contain 7% carbon &
the rest is ash.
Compute the percentage of the original carbon in coal which remains as unburnt in the
refuse.
Ans
Let the quantity of Refuse sample =100 kg
Amount of unburnt Carbon in Refuse = 7 kg
Amount of Ash in the Refuse = 93 kg
Total ash in the coal that has come into the Refuse = 23% of coal
93 kg of Ash corresponds to 23% ash in the coal
Therefore, quantity of total raw coal = 93 / 0.23

= 404.35 kg
Quantity of original Carbon in the coal = 0.60 x 404.35
= 242.61 kg
Quantity of unburnt coal in Refuse = 7 kg
%age of the original carbon unburnt in the refuse = (7 / 242.61) x 100

= 2.89%
------- End of Section - II ---------

L1 In pre-treatment process of a plating section of an engineering industry, LPG was being

used indirectly to heat 6000 litres/hr of water by 100C. The industry is planning to convert
from LPG to electrical heating.
Other data:
Annual operating hours = 3000 hours
Efficiency of indirect heating with LPG = 85%
Calorific value of LPG = 11000 kcal/kg,
Landed cost of LPG = Rs.75/kg
Cost of electricity = Rs.6/kwh.
a) If LPG is replaced with electrical heating with an investment is Rs.1.5 lakhs, compute
simple payback period.
b) Calculate the CO2 emissions in both the cases. Consider emission factors for LPG as 3
tons of CO2/Ton of LPG and Electricity as 0.81 tons of CO2/MWh
11
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
Ans Water flow rate 6000 Litres/hr

Temperature rise 10oC
Heat provided with LPG (6000 x 10)=60000 kCal/hr
LPG consumption 60000/(11000 x 0.85) =6.4 kg/hr
Annual LPG consumption 6.4 x 3000 = 19.2 Tons/yr

Annual CO2 emission with LPG heating 19.2 x 3 =57.6 t CO2
Cost of heating with LPG 19.2 x 1000 x 75
= Rs.14.4 lakhs/annum
Electricity equivalent of LPG (60000/860) = 70 kW

70 x 3000 = 210 MWh
Average cost of electricity Rs. 6/kWh

Cost of electrical heating (70 x 6) = Rs. 420/hr
420 x 3000 = Rs.12.6 lakhs
Annual CO2 emission with electrical heating 210 x 0.81 =170 t CO2
Annual cost savings (14.4-12.6)

Potential annual savings Rs.1.8 lakhs
Investment for electrical heating Rs.1.5 lakhs

Payback period 1.5/1.8
0.83 years (< 10 months)
L2 A project has the following activities, precedence relationships, and time estimates in
weeks:
Activity Immediate Optimistic Most Likely Pessimistic

Predecessors Time Time Time
A - 15 20 25
B - 8 10 12
C A 25 30 40
D B 15 15 15
E B 22 25 27
F E 15 20 22
G D 20 20 22
a) Draw the network diagram (expected time may be rounded to the nearest whole number)
b) Identify the critical path and
c) Determine the project duration.
12
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Paper 1 –Set A
ANS (a) Expected Time calculation:

Activity Immediate To Tm Tp Expected Time
Predecessors Te
A - 15 20 25 20
B - 8 10 12 10
C A 25 30 40 30.8
D B 15 15 15 15
E B 22 25 23 24.8
F E 15 20 22 19.5
G D 20 20 22 20.3
a)Network PERT Diagram
C (31)
A (20) (20, 51)
(0, 20)
2
(24, 55)
(4, 24) G (20) 6
1 (25, 45)
B (10) (35, 55)
(0, 10) D (15) 4 F (20)
(10, 25)
(0, 10) (35, 55)
(20, 35) E (25) (35, 55)
3 (10, 35)
(10, 35) 5
b)Critical Path : B-E-F
c)Project Duration : 55 weeks
L3 A company has got following two investment options:
Option A:. Investment envisaged Rs. 40 lakhs with an annual return of Rs. 8
lakhs; Life of the project is 10 years
Option B: Investment envisaged Rs. 24 lakhs; Annual return Rs. 5 lakhs;

Life of the project is 8 years
Calculate IRR of both the options and suggest which option the company should select.
13
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
Option A:
Investment = Rs. 40 lakh
Annual Return = Rs. 8 lakh
Life of project = 10 years
0 = [(-) 40 x 105 ] + [(8 x 105) / (1 + 0.15)1] + [(8 x 105) / (1 + 0.15)2 ] + ---------- + [(8 x 105)
/ (1 + 0.15)9 ] + [ ( 8 x 105) / (1 + 0.15)10 ]
= 15.12 %
Option B:
0 = [(-) 24 x 105 ] + [ (5 x 105) / (1 + 0.13)1 ] + [(5 x 105) / (1 + 0.13)2] + ---------- + [(5 x 105) /
(1 + 0.13)7 ] + [ (5 x 105) / (1 + 0.13)8 ]
= 13.04 %
Based on IRR, the Option A has higher IRR value and the company may opt for Option A.
L4 Write short note on any two of the following
a) Energy Service Companies (ESCOs)

b) Sensitivity analysis for financing of energy conservation projects
c) Sankey diagram
Ans a) Energy Service Companies (ESCOs) : page -171
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project
management services, and financing.
Depending on the company’s capability to manage the risks (equipment performance,

financing, etc.) the company will delegate some of these responsibilities to the ESCO. In
general, the amount of risk assigned to the ESCO is directly related to the percent savings
that must be shared with the ESCO.
For example, a lighting retrofit has a high probability of producing the expected cash flows,
whereas a completely new process does not have the same “time tested” reliability. If the
in-house energy management team cannot manage this risk, performance contracting may
be an attractive alternative.
The ESCO will usually offer the following common types of contracts:
Fixed fee
Shared savings
14
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Paper 1 –Set A
Guaranteed savings
Services offered by an ESCO usually include:
 An investment grade energy audit to identify energy and operational savings

opportunities, assess risks, determine risk management/mitigating strategies, and
calculate cost-effectiveness of proposed measures over time.
 Financing from its own resources or through arrangements with banks or other
financing sources.
 The purchase, installation and maintenance of the installed energy efficient
equipment; possibly maintenance on all energy-consuming equipment.
 New equipment training of operations and maintenance (O&M) personnel.
 Training of O&M personnel in energy-efficient practices.
 Monitoring of the operations and energy savings, so reduced energy consumption
and operation costs persist.
 Measurement and savings verification; and
 A guarantee of the energy savings to be achieved.
b) Sensitivity analysis for financing of energy conservation projects : (page168 -169)
Many of the cash flows in the project are based on assumptions that have an element of
uncertainty. The cash flows such as capital cost, energy cost savings, maintenance costs
can usually be estimated fairly accurately. Even though these costs can be predicted with
some certainty, it should always be remembered that they are only estimates. Cash flows in
future years normally contain inflation components and project life itself can vary
significantly.
Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of risk. Because of the uncertainty in assigning values

to the analysis, it is recommended that a sensitivity analysis be carried out - particularly on
projects where the feasibility is marginal. How sensitive is the project's feasibility to
changes in the input parameters? What if one or more of the factors in the analysis is not
as favourable as predicted? How much would it have to vary before the project becomes
unviable? What is the probability of this happening?
Sensitivity analysis is undertaken to identify those parameters that are both uncertain and
for which the project decision taken through the NPV or IRR is sensitive. The effect of
switching values of key variables required for the project decision (from acceptance to
rejection) can be compared with the post evaluation results of similar projects. Sensitivity
and risk analysis should lead to improved project design, with mitigation actions against
major sources of uncertainty involved.
The various micro and macro factors / variables that are considered for the sensitivity
analysis are listed below.
Micro factors:
 Operating expenses (various expenses items)
 Capital structure
 Costs of debt, equity
 Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
 Changing the project life
15
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
Macro factors: Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation of the
industry of which the company operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among others:
 Changes in interest rates

 Changes in the tax rates
 Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
 Changes in depreciation rates
 Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
 General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
 Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
 Energy price change
 Technology changes
c) Sankey diagram: (page - 127)
The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output energy flow
in any energy equipment or system such as boiler generation, fired heaters, furnaces after
carrying out energy balance calculation. Usually the flows are represented by arrows. The
width of the arrows is proportional to the size of the actual flow. Better than numbers, tables
or descriptions, this diagram represents visually various outputs (benefits) and losses so that
energy managers can focus on finding improvements in a prioritized manner.
The Figure shows a Sankey diagram for

an internal combustion engine. From the
Figure, it is clear that exhaust flue gas
losses are a key area for priority
attention. Since the engines operate at
high temperatures, the exhaust gases
leave at high temperatures resulting in
poor system efficiency. Hence a heat
recovery device such as a waste heat
boiler has to be necessarily part of the
system. The lower the exhaust
temperature, higher is the system
efficiency. Sankey Diagram for an Internal Combustion Engine
L5 a) Calculate the annual energy savings and simple payback from replacing standard
existing motor with energy efficient motor versus rewinding the existing motor.
The data given:

Average cost of rewinding =Rs 6500
Cost of new high efficient motor =Rs 37000
Efficiency after rewound of standard motor =87%
Efficiency of energy efficient motor = 94%
Operating hours = 7200 hrs
16
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
% loading of motor = 82%

Power cost = Rs 5.2 / kWh
Name plate rating of motor = 20 kW
b) During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was 200,000
m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was little bit higher at 220,000m 3 per
hour. The dust load at the inlet was 5 g/m3 and at the outlet 0.2 g/m3.
How much dust in kg/hour was collected in the bag filter bin?
a)
a) Solution: Energy cost savings (Rs/year)
=[(KW)*(% loading)*{(100/efficiency of rewound standard motor)-(100/efficiency of energy
efficient motor)}*(Hrs/annum)*(Rs/kwh)]
= 20*0.82*7200*[(100/87)-(100/94)]*5.2
=118080*[1.1494-1.0638]*5.2
=52560/-
Simple payback period = [(Rs 37000-Rs 6500)/52560]

= 7 months
b) Dust (gas in) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)
200000 x 5 = 220000 x 0.2 + X
X = 1000000 – 44000
= 956000 gm/hr
= 956 Kg/hr
L6 Write short note on any two of the following.
a) 5S
b) KAIZEN
c) ISO 50001
d) TPM
Ans a) 5S: (page-145)
5S, abbreviated from the Japanese words Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Seiketsu, and Shitsuke,
are simple but effective methods to organize the workplace.
The 5S, translated into English are: housekeeping, workplace organization, cleanup,
maintain cleanliness, and discipline. They can be defined as follows:
17
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Paper 1 –Set A

Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be
easily and quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.
Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area
immediately.
Implementing 5S methods in the plant would help the company to reduce waste hidden in
the plant, improve the levels of quality and safety, reduce the lead time and cost, and thus
increase Company’s profit.
b) KAIZEN: (page -147)
“KAIZEN”, is a practice developed by Japanese for increasing productivity. KAIZEN is the

Japanese word made up of two components.
KAI – Change
ZEN – Good (for the better)
KAIZEN – Change for the better or continuous improvement.
KAIZEN means continuous improvement involving everyone – Managers and Workers

alike. It emphasizes improvement on working standard through small, gradual
improvement. Its philosophy assumes that our way of working life, our social life or our
human life – deserves to be constantly improved.
Kaizen events focuses on reducing various forms of wastes and often energy reduction
result from projects that focus on an area or a process. For example, a project that was
implemented to reduce colouring chemicals in a plastic industry resulted in small changes
in plant layout and material flow to its use. This ended up in big reduction in amount of
forklift travelled and fuel used in the forklift.
Implementation:
Step-1: Identification of a problem, i.e. waste, defect or something not working. The
operator writes and describes the problem
Step-2: Operator later develops an improvement idea and goes to immediate supervisor
Step-3: Supervisor / Kaizen team members review it and encourage immediate action and
fills up the Kaizen form
Step-4: The idea is implemented & checked.
Step-5: The operator is rewarded.
c) ISO 50001: (page -151)
ISO 50001 will establish a framework for industrial plants, commercial facilities or entire
organizations to manage energy. The document is based on the common elements found
in all of ISO’s management system standards, assuring a high level of compatibility with
ISO 9001 (quality management) and ISO 14001 (environmental management).
Energy Management System enables an organization to take a systematic approach in

order to achieve continual improvement of energy performance, energy efficiency and
18
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Paper 1 –Set A
energy conservation.
An energy management system addresses:
- Energy supply;
- Measurement;
- Documentation and reporting of energy use; and
- Procurement & design practices for energy-using equipment, systems and
processes.
To simply put it, ISO 50001 is “saying what you do and doing what you say”.
d) TPM : (page -148)
Total productive maintenance (TPM) is the method that focuses on optimizing the
effectiveness of manufacturing equipment. TPM builds upon established equipment-
management approaches and focuses on team-based maintenance that involves
employees at every level and function.
The goal of TPM is to build a robust organisation by maximizing production system

efficiency (overall effectiveness).
TPM addresses the entire production system lifecycle and builds a concrete, shop floor-
based system to prevent all losses. It aims to eliminate all accidents, defects, and
breakdowns.
TPM involves all departments from production to development, sales, and
administration.
Everyone participates in TPM, from the top executive to shop floor employees.
TPM achieves zero losses through overlapping team activities.
19
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Paper 1 –Set B

FOR

1. A geothermal field may yield
a) dry steam b) wet steam c) hot air d) all of these

2. A process requires 120 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 4800 kcal/kg for heating with a
system efficiency of 82 %. The loss would be
3. If 800 kcal of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0oC. (Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 kcal/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4 kg c) 10 kg d) 20 kg
4. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product
a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 d) 40
5. The amount of electricity required to heat 100 litres of water from 30oC to 70 oC through
resistance heating is
a) 0.465 kWh b) 4.65 kWh c) 465 kWh d) 2 kWh
6. Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO2 emissions
will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr
c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
7. An induction motor with 11 kW rating and efficiency of 90% in its name plate means
a) it will draw 12.22 kW at full load

b) it will always draw 11 kW at full load
c) it will draw 9.9 kW at full load
1
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set B
d) nothing can be said about how much power it will draw as motor power factor is not
given
8. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakh kwh for a given period. The
average production is 50000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kwh/ton for the same
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000kWh c) 80000kWh d) none of the above
9. Cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.5 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual maintenance cost of Rs 10,000 is
a) 0.4 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 6
evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
11. If the relative humidity of air is 100%, then which of the following statements is correct
a) only dew point & wet bulb temp. are same
b) only dew point & dry bulb temp. are same
c) only wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
d) all dew point , wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same

ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount of
heat is retained in ETC

13. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Global warming will result in:
a) melting of the ice caps b) increasing sea levels
c) severe damage to ozone layer in stratosphere d) unpredictable climate patterns
i) bagasse is a source of secondary energy

ii) beneficiated coal belongs to primary energy
iii) electricity is basically a convenient form of primary energy
iv) steam is a convenient form of secondary energy
2
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set B
a) (ii) & (iii) b) (i) & (iii) c) (ii) & (iv) d) (ii) & (i)
i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices

16. Which of the following statements are true regarding wind turbine?
i) wind power varies as cube of rotor size

ii) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
iii) wind speed has more influence on wind power than turbine area
iv) practical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind
turbine rotor is about 79%
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) ii & iv

17. Which of the following statements are true regarding simple payback period?
a) considers impact of cash flow even after payback period

b) takes into account the time value of money
c) considers cash flow throughout the project life cycle
d) determines how quickly invested money is recovered
18. Which of the following statements are true regarding CPM?
i) work breakdown structure are used to list the activities in the project as a first step
in CPM
ii) CPM takes into account variation in the completion time and average time is used
for any activity
iii) if the project is to finish earlier, it is necessary to focus on activities other than
critical path
iv) critical path is the longest path in the network.
a) i & iv b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) iii & iv

19. Which of the following statement is true regarding maximum demand controller?
a) maximum demand controller enables a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks in the consumer
load profile
b) maximum demand controller enables a way of improving the system power factor
c) enables a way for using more electrical energy at lower total cost of energy without
3
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Paper 1 –Set B
investment in expansion of power supply

d) maximum demand controller is installed by concerned utility at customer premises
20. Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security will not affect agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by avoiding dependence upon imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries strengthen energy security
d) strengthening energy security requires increasing exploration to find oil and gas
reserves
21. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act,
2001?

d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review


d) all of the above
24. Which of the following is a standard for Energy Management System?
25. Which of the following instrument is used for assessing combustion efficiency ?
a) lux Meter b) pitot tube & manometer c) ultrasonic flow meter d) fyrite
26. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumers?

27. Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy?

c) energy conservation Research and Development
4
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Paper 1 –Set B
d) reducing price of energy
28. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due to
Hydrogen in the fuel ?
29. What percentage of the sun’s energy can silicon solar panels convert into electricity?
a) 30% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%
30. Under the Energy Conservation Act, the designated consumer is required to get the
mandatory energy audit conducted by
c) accredited energy auditor d) in-house engineer
31. Tonnes of Oil Equivalent energy consumption / GDP in Million US $ is termed as

a) energy intensity b) per capita oil consumption
c) per capita energy consumption d) energy performance
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest
32.
finish time of an activity is

33. The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as
measured in
a) CO, H2 and CH4 b) Only CH4 c) only CO and CH4 d) Only CO and H2
a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink c) carbon Capture d) carbon absorption

38. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in
a plant costs Rs. 8 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 2 lakhs. The return on
investment
5
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Paper 1 –Set B

40. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) speedometer
41. Natural gas contains
a) methane, ethane and propane in equal proportions

b) only butane and propane in equal prportions
c) methane, propane and pentane in equal proportions
d) mostly methane and minor amounts of other gases
42. In project financing, sensitivity analysis is applied because
a) almost all the cash flows involve uncertainly
b) it evaluates how sensitive the project is to change in the input parameters
c) it assesses the impact of ‘what if one or more factors are different from what is
predicted’
d) it is applicable to all the above situations
43. In a boiler substitution of coal with rice husk leads to
a) energy conservation b) energy efficiency

c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency d) carbon emission reduction
44. How much theoretical power you would expect to generate from a river-based mini
hydropower with flow of 20 litres/second and head of 12 metres
a) 2.35kW b) 2.44MW c) 1.67kW d) none of the above

a) satisfies regulations b) shows top management commitment
c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number other policies

a) commercial energy b) primary energy c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
47. Energy in one Tonne of Oil Equivalent (toe) corresponds to

a) 4.187 GJ b) 1.162 MWh c) 1 Million kcal d) none of the above
a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide c) only ethane d) none of these
49. Among which of the following fuel is the difference between the GCV and NCV
6
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Paper 1 –Set B
maximum?
a) coal b) furnace oil c) natural gas d) rice husk
50. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow Energy
conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its


S-1 In a process industry, 12,000 kg/hr water is currently being heated from 18oCto 80oC by
indirect heating of steam. An opportunity has been identified which would preheat the
inlet water to 45oC to reduce the steam required.
Estimate the reduction in steam in kg/hr considering latent heat of steam as 530
kcal/kg in both the cases.
Ans Without heat recovery

Heating required (Q1) = mCp T
= 12,000 x 1 x (80-18)
= 744,000 kcal/hr
Steam required = 744,000 / 530
= 1404 kg/hr
After heat recovery
Heating required (Q2) = 12,000 x 1 x (80 – 45)
= 420,000 kcal/hr
Steam required = 420,000/530
= 792 kg/hr
Reduction in steam required = 1404 - 792 = 612 kg/hr
A water pumping station fills a reservoir at a fixed rate. The head and flow rate are
S-2
constant and hence the power drawn by the pump is always same. The pump operates
at 100 m head and delivers 250 litres per second. The power consumption was
measured as 400 kW. Calculate energy consumption to pump 13,500 kL of water to
7
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Paper 1 –Set B
the reservoir.
Ans
Time taken to pump water in hours = 13,500 × 103 L
250 L/s x 3600 sec/hr
= 15 hours
Power required to pump water = 400 kW
Energy consumption = 400 x 15 =6000 kWh
S-3 Briefly explain the difference between flat plate collector and evacuated tube collector.
Ans. (Page 260-261)
Flat plate collector:

 The most common collector is called a flat-
plate collector.
 Heat the circulating fluid to a temperature of
about 40-60°C.
 Usually comprises of copper tubes welded to
copper sheets (both coated with a highly
absorbing black coatings) with toughened
glass sheet on top for cover and insulating
material at the bottom. The entire assembly is Solar Flat Plate Collector
placed in a flat box.
Evacuated tube collector:

 Used For higher temperatures.
 Evacuated tube collector is less dependent
upon ambient temperature unlike flat plate
collector and its efficiency does not drop with
ambient temperature.
 Evacuated glass tubes are used instead of
Evacuated Tube Collector
copper in which case a separate cover sheet
and insulating box are not required.
 Can reach high temperatures upto 150°C
Calculate Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with an investment of
S-4
Rs 75,000 at the beginning of the first year and second investment of Rs 70,000 at the
beginning of the second year and fuel cost saving of Rs 95,000 in second and third
8
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Paper 1 –Set B
year. The discount rate is 14%
Ans
NPV = –75,000 – (70000/1.14) + [95000/(1.14x1.14)] + [95000/(1.14x1.14x1.14)]
= –75000 – 61404 +73099 + 64122
= –146404 +137221
= (+) Rs 817
A sample of coal being used in a boiler is found to contain 60% carbon and 33% ash.
S-5
The refuse obtained after combustion is analysed and found to contain 7% carbon &
the rest is ash. Compute the percentage of the original carbon in coal which remains as
unburnt in the refuse.
Let the quantity of Refuse sample =100 kg

Ans
Amount of unburnt Carbon in Refuse = 7 kg
Amount of Ash in the Refuse = 93 kg
Total ash in the coal that has come into the Refuse = 33% of coal
93 kg of Ash corresponds to 23% ash in the coal

Therefore, quantity of total raw coal = 93 / 0.33
= 281.82 kg
Quantity of original Carbon in the coal = 0.60 x 281.82
= 169.1 kg
Quantity of unburnt coal in Refuse = 7 kg
%age of the original carbon unburnt in the refuse = (7 / 169.1) x 100

= 4.14%
a) Briefly explain why combustion of biomass fuels is considered as carbon neutral?
S6
b) Name five energy intensive industries having annual energy consumption of 30,000
metric tonne of oil equivalent and above, notified as designated consumers under
the EC Act 2001
Ans a) The CO2 emitted by combustion of biomass fuels is largely balanced by the
absorption/capture of carbon dioxide during its growth.
b)
1. Thermal Power Stations
2. Fertilizer
3. Cement
4. Iron & Steel
5. Pulp & Paper
S7 A conveyor delivers coal with a width of 1 m and coal bed height of 0.25 m at a speed
of 0.5 m/s. Determine coal delivery in tons per hour considering coal density of 1.2
ton/m3.
Ans Volume of coal delivered per hour = area x length travelled per second
9
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Paper 1 –Set B
=1 m x 0.25 m x 0.5 m/s

= 0.125 m3/s = 450 m3/hr
Coal delivery rate = 450 m3/hr x 1.2 t/m3
= 540 t/hr
Write short notes on any two of the following:
S8
a) Building envelope
b) Standards and Labeling
c) Demand Side Management (DSM)
(a) Building envelope includes all components of building exposed to outside
Ans
environment such as outside doors, windows, roofs etc. Its main purpose is to
protect employees from outside environment.
(b) Standards and Labeling (Page 35) There is a wide variation in energy consumption
of similar products by various manufacturers. Also information on energy
consumption is often not easily available. Standards and Labeling (S&L) has been
identified as a key activity for energy efficiency improvement. The S&L program,
when in place, would ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliances
would be made available to the consumers.
Standards: Energy-efficiency standards are procedures and regulations prescribing

the energy performance of energy-consuming products. The sale of products that
are less energy efficient than minimum standards, often called Minimum Energy
Performance Standards (MEPS) may be prohibited. For establishing the standards,
agreed testing protocols (test procedures) are defined and value of energy
performance is determined.
Labels: Energy-efficiency labels are informative labels affixed to manufactured

products to describe the product’s energy performance (usually in the form of
energy use, efficiency). These labels give consumers the data necessary to make
informed purchases. Star rating is a system initiated by BEE to determine energy
efficiency of an appliance. Label indicates the energy efficiency levels through the
number of stars highlighted in colour on the label. It is being applied to many
products such as refrigerators, TVs, ACs and so on.
(c) Demand side management (DSM) (Page 36) Demand Side Management (DSM)
means managing of the demand for power, by utilities / Distribution companies,
among some or all its customers to meet current or future needs. DSM programs
result in energy and / or demand reduction. For example, under this process, the
demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby reducing the need for
buying expensive imported power during peak hours. DSM also enables end-users
to better manage their load curve and thus improves the profitability. Potential
energy saving through DSM is treated same as new additions on the supply side in
MWs. DSM can reduce the capital needs for power capacity expansion.
------- End of Section - II ---------
10
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Paper 1 –Set B

L1 A company has got following two investment options:
Option A:. Investment envisaged Rs. 50 lakhs with an annual return of Rs. 8
lakhs; Life of the project is 10 years
Option B: Investment envisaged Rs. 34 lakhs; Annual return Rs. 5 lakhs;

Life of the project is 8 years
Calculate IRR of both the options and suggest which option the company should select.
Option A:
0 = [ (-) 50 x 105 ] + [ (8 x 105) / (1 + 0.1)1 ] + [(8 x 105) / (1 + 0.1)2 ] + --------- + [ (8 x 105) /

(1 + 0.1)9 ] + [( 8 x 105) / (1 + 0.1)10 ]
IRR = 9.61 %
Option B:
0 = [(-) 34 x 105 ] + [(5 x 105) / (1 + 0.04)1 ] + [ (5 x 105) / (1 + 0.04)2 ] + --------- + [ (5 x 105)

/ (1 + 0.04)7 ] + [ (5 x 105) / (1 + 0.04)8 ]
IRR = 4 %
Based on IRR, the Option A has higher IRR value and the company may opt for Option A.
11
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Paper 1 –Set B
L2 In pre-treatment process of a plating section of an engineering industry, LPG was being

used indirectly to heat 6000 litres/hr of water by 100C. The industry is planning to convert
from LPG to electrical heating.
Other data:
Annual operating hours = 3000 hours
Efficiency of indirect heating with LPG = 85%
Calorific value of LPG = 11000 kcal/kg,
Landed cost of LPG = Rs.75/kg
Cost of electricity = Rs.7/kwh.
a) If LPG is replaced with electrical heating with an investment is Rs.1.5 lakhs, compute
simple payback period.
b) Calculate the CO2 emissions in both the cases. Consider emission factors for LPG as 3
tons of CO2/Ton of LPG and Electricity as 0.81 tons of CO2/MWh
Ans Water flow rate 6000 Litres/hr

Temperature rise 10oC
Heat provided with LPG (6000 x 10)=60000 kCal/hr
LPG consumption 60000/(11000 x 0.85) =6.4 kg/hr
Annual LPG consumption 6.4 x 3000 = 19.2 Tons/yr
Annual CO2 emission with LPG heating 19.2 x 3 =57.6 t CO2
Cost of heating with LPG 19.2 x 1000 x 75
= Rs.14.4 lakhs/annum
Electricity equivalent of LPG (60000/860) = 70 kW
70 x 3000 = 210 MWh
Average cost of electricity Rs. 7/kWh
Cost of electrical heating (70 x 7) = Rs. 490/hr
490 x 3000 = Rs.14.7 lakhs
Annual CO2 emission with electrical heating 210 x 0.81 =170 t CO2
Annual cost savings / loss (14.4 – 14.7)
Potential annual loss (-) Rs. 0.3 lakhs
Since there is an annual loss of Rs. 30,000/-, no payback.
L3 A project has the following activities, precedence relationships, and time estimates in
weeks:

Predecessors Time Time Time
A - 15 20 25
B - 8 10 12
C A 25 30 40
D B 15 15 15
E B 22 25 27
12
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Paper 1 –Set B
F E 15 20 22
G D 20 20 22
a) Draw the network diagram (expected time may be rounded to the nearest whole number)
b) Identify the critical path and
c) Determine the project duration.
Ans (a) Expected Time calculation:

Activity Immediate To Tm Tp Expected
Predecessors Time
Te
A - 15 20 25 20
B - 8 10 12 10
C A 25 30 40 30.8
D B 15 15 15 15
E B 22 25 23 24.8
F E 15 20 22 19.5
G D 20 20 22 20.3
a) Network PERT Diagram
C (31)
A (20) (20, 51)
(0, 20)
2
(24, 55)
(4, 24) G (20) 6
1 (25, 45)
B (10) (35, 55)
(0, 10) D (15) 4 F (20)
(10, 25)
(0, 10) (35, 55)
(20, 35) E (25) (35, 55)
3 (10, 35)
(10, 35) 5
b)Critical Path : B-E-F
c)Project Duration : 55 weeks
13
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Paper 1 –Set B
L4 Write short note on any two of the following.
a) 5S
b) KAIZEN
c) ISO 50001
d) TPM
Ans a) 5S: (page-145)
5S, abbreviated from the Japanese words Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Seiketsu, and Shitsuke,
are simple but effective methods to organize the workplace.
The 5S, translated into English are: housekeeping, workplace organization, cleanup,
maintain cleanliness, and discipline. They can be defined as follows:
Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be
easily and quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.
Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area
immediately.
Implementing 5S methods in the plant would help the company to reduce waste hidden in
the plant, improve the levels of quality and safety, reduce the lead time and cost, and thus
increase Company’s profit.
b) KAIZEN: (page -147)
“KAIZEN”, is a practice developed by Japanese for increasing productivity. KAIZEN is the

Japanese word made up of two components.
KAI – Change
ZEN – Good (for the better)
KAIZEN – Change for the better or continuous improvement.
KAIZEN means continuous improvement involving everyone – Managers and Workers

alike. It emphasizes improvement on working standard through small, gradual
improvement. Its philosophy assumes that our way of working life, our social life or our
human life – deserves to be constantly improved.
Kaizen events focuses on reducing various forms of wastes and often energy reduction
result from projects that focus on an area or a process. For example, a project that was
implemented to reduce colouring chemicals in a plastic industry resulted in small changes
in plant layout and material flow to its use. This ended up in big reduction in amount of
forklift travelled and fuel used in the forklift.
Implementation:
14
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Paper 1 –Set B
Step-1: Identification of a problem, i.e. waste, defect or something not working. The
operator writes and describes the problem
Step-2: Operator later develops an improvement idea and goes to immediate supervisor
Step-3: Supervisor / Kaizen team members review it and encourage immediate action and
fills up the Kaizen form
Step-4: The idea is implemented & checked.
Step-5: The operator is rewarded.
c) ISO 50001: (page -151)
organizations to manage energy. The document is based on the common elements found
in all of ISO’s management system standards, assuring a high level of compatibility with
ISO 9001 (quality management) and ISO 14001 (environmental management).
Energy Management System enables an organization to take a systematic approach in

order to achieve continual improvement of energy performance, energy efficiency and
energy conservation.
An energy management system addresses:
- Energy supply;
- Measurement;
- Documentation and reporting of energy use; and
- Procurement & design practices for energy-using equipment, systems and
processes.
To simply put it, ISO 50001 is “saying what you do and doing what you say”.
d) TPM : (page -148)
Total productive maintenance (TPM) is the method that focuses on optimizing the
effectiveness of manufacturing equipment. TPM builds upon established equipment-
management approaches and focuses on team-based maintenance that involves
employees at every level and function.
The goal of TPM is to build a robust organisation by maximizing production system

efficiency (overall effectiveness).
TPM addresses the entire production system lifecycle and builds a concrete, shop floor-
based system to prevent all losses. It aims to eliminate all accidents, defects, and
breakdowns.
TPM involves all departments from production to development, sales, and
administration.
Everyone participates in TPM, from the top executive to shop floor employees.
TPM achieves zero losses through overlapping team activities.
15
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Paper 1 –Set B
L5 Write short note on any two of the following
a) Energy Service Companies (ESCOs)

b) Sensitivity analysis for financing of energy conservation projects
c) Sankey diagram
Ans a) Energy Service Companies (ESCOs) : (page -171)
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project
management services, and financing.
Depending on the company’s capability to manage the risks (equipment performance,

financing, etc.) the company will delegate some of these responsibilities to the ESCO. In
general, the amount of risk assigned to the ESCO is directly related to the percent savings
that must be shared with the ESCO.
For example, a lighting retrofit has a high probability of producing the expected cash flows,
whereas a completely new process does not have the same “time tested” reliability. If the
in-house energy management team cannot manage this risk, performance contracting may
be an attractive alternative.
The ESCO will usually offer the following common types of contracts:
Fixed fee
Shared savings
Guaranteed savings
Services offered by an ESCO usually include:
 An investment grade energy audit to identify energy and operational savings

opportunities, assess risks, determine risk management/mitigating strategies, and
calculate cost-effectiveness of proposed measures over time.
 Financing from its own resources or through arrangements with banks or other
financing sources.
 The purchase, installation and maintenance of the installed energy efficient
equipment; possibly maintenance on all energy-consuming equipment.
 New equipment training of operations and maintenance (O&M) personnel.
 Training of O&M personnel in energy-efficient practices.
 Monitoring of the operations and energy savings, so reduced energy consumption
and operation costs persist.
 Measurement and savings verification; and
 A guarantee of the energy savings to be achieved.
b) Sensitivity analysis for financing of energy conservation projects : (page168 -169)
Many of the cash flows in the project are based on assumptions that have an element of
uncertainty. The cash flows such as capital cost, energy cost savings, maintenance costs
can usually be estimated fairly accurately. Even though these costs can be predicted with
some certainty, it should always be remembered that they are only estimates. Cash flows in
16
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Paper 1 –Set B
future years normally contain inflation components and project life itself can vary
significantly.
Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of risk. Because of the uncertainty in assigning values

to the analysis, it is recommended that a sensitivity analysis be carried out - particularly on
projects where the feasibility is marginal. How sensitive is the project's feasibility to
changes in the input parameters? What if one or more of the factors in the analysis is not
as favourable as predicted? How much would it have to vary before the project becomes
unviable? What is the probability of this happening?
Sensitivity analysis is undertaken to identify those parameters that are both uncertain and
for which the project decision taken through the NPV or IRR is sensitive. The effect of
switching values of key variables required for the project decision (from acceptance to
rejection) can be compared with the post evaluation results of similar projects. Sensitivity
and risk analysis should lead to improved project design, with mitigation actions against
major sources of uncertainty involved.
The various micro and macro factors / variables that are considered for the sensitivity
analysis are listed below.
Micro factors:
 Operating expenses (various expenses items)
 Capital structure
 Costs of debt, equity
 Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
 Changing the project life
Macro factors: Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation of the
industry of which the company operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among others:
 Changes in interest rates

 Changes in the tax rates
 Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
 Changes in depreciation rates
 Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
 General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
 Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
 Energy price change
 Technology changes
c) Sankey diagram: (page - 127)
The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output energy flow
in any energy equipment or system such as boiler generation, fired heaters, furnaces after
carrying out energy balance calculation. Usually the flows are represented by arrows. The
width of the arrows is proportional to the size of the actual flow. Better than numbers, tables
or descriptions, this diagram represents visually various outputs (benefits) and losses so that
energy managers can focus on finding improvements in a prioritized manner.
17
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Paper 1 –Set B
The Figure shows a Sankey diagram for

an internal combustion engine. From the
Figure, it is clear that exhaust flue gas
losses are a key area for priority
attention. Since the engines operate at
high temperatures, the exhaust gases
leave at high temperatures resulting in
poor system efficiency. Hence a heat
recovery device such as a waste heat
boiler has to be necessarily part of the
system. The lower the exhaust
temperature, higher is the system
efficiency. Sankey Diagram for an Internal Combustion Engine
L6 a) Calculate the annual energy savings and simple payback from replacing standard
existing motor with energy efficient motor versus rewinding the existing motor.
The data given:
Average cost of rewinding =Rs 6500

Cost of new high efficient motor =Rs 42,000
Efficiency after rewound of standard motor =87%
Efficiency of energy efficient motor = 94%
Operating hours = 7200 hrs
% loading of motor = 82%
Power cost = Rs 5.2 / kWh
Name plate rating of motor = 20 kW
b) During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was 200,000
m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was little bit higher at 220,000m 3 per
hour. The dust load at the inlet was 8 g/m3 and at the outlet 0.2 g/m3.
How much dust in kg/hour was collected in the bag filter bin?
a)
a) Solution:
Energy cost savings (Rs/year)

=[(KW)*(% loading)*{(100/efficiency of rewound standard motor)-(100/efficiency of energy
efficient motor)}*(Hrs/annum)*(Rs/kwh)]
= 20*0.82*7200*[(100/87)-(100/94)]*5.2
=118080*[1.1494-1.0638]*5.2
=52560/-
Simple payback period = [(Rs 42000-Rs 6500)/52560]
18
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Paper 1 –Set B
b) Dust (gas in) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)
200000 x 8 = 220000 x 0.2 + X
X = 1600000 – 44000
= 15,56,000 gm/hr
= 1556 Kg/hr
19
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Paper 1 –Set A Solutions

FOR

c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
pencil, as per instructions
As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to be
appointed/designated by the

The type of energy possessed by a charged capacitor is

The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called __________.

What is the heat content of 200 liters of water at 5 oC in terms of the basic unit of energy in
kilojoules ?
a) 3000 b) 2388 c) 1000 d) 4187

Nameplate kW rating of a motor indicates
a) input to the motor b) rated output of the motor

c) no-load input to the motor d) rated input to the motor
Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

What is the average conversion efficiency of a solar photo voltaic cell?
a) 22% b)15% c) 98% d)50%

1
_______________________
An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is

Which of the following statements with respect to Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is true?
a) is a constant once established

b) varies every year with changes in production
c) varies every year with changes in reserves
d) varies every year with changes in production and reserves
Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy of India?

c) energy conservation, research and development
d) removal of subsidies for energy across all sectors
In inductive and resistive combination circuit, the resultant power factor under AC supply
will be
a) less than unity b) more than unity c) zero d) unity

Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security can even reduce agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by minimising dependence on imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries weaken energy security
d) increasing exploration to find oil and gas reserves improves energy security
An energy policy at the plant level is to be preferably signed by
a) chief executive b) energy Manager

c) energy auditor d) chief executive with approval of state designated agency
The energy benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is

c) kW/m3 of chilled water d) kW/EER
How much carbon dioxide emission will be reduced annually by replacing 60 Watt
incandescent lamp with a 15 Watt CFL Lamp, if emission per unit is 1 kg CO2 per kWh and
annual burning is 3000 hours?
a) 45 ton b) 3 ton c) 0.135 ton d) 183 ton
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Demand Side Management
(DSM)?
a) agriculture and municipalities are potential areas for DSM activities

b) savings accrued through DSM cannot be treated as avoided capacity on supply
side
2
_______________________
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during peak hours
d) DSM programs may result in demand as well as energy reduction
_________ considers impact of cash flow even after payback period
a) net present value b) return on investment

b) sensitivity analysis d) simple payback period
Consider two competitive projects entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- . Project A returns
Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at the end of year 2.
Which project is superior?
a) Project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) Project B since it offers higher return in two years
c) both projects are equal in rank
d) insufficient information
__________ determines the project viability in response to changes in input parameters.
a) Life cycle analysis b) Financial analysis

c) Sensitivity analysis d) Payback analysis
Which of the following is false?

The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 110 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. The plant’s
annual energy bill at the end of the third year will be about ________
a) Rs 335 lakhs b) Rs 268 lakhs c) Rs 386 lakhs d) Rs 418 lakhs

The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings is
Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

For a project to be financially attractive, ROI must always be ___ than interest rate.

A sum of Rs 100,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
10% interest annually. How much money will be in the bank account at the end of the fifth
a) 161050 b) 150000 c) 155000 d) 160000

The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects through a bar chart is called
3
_______________________

____________is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the relationship
between variables and enables standard equations to be established for energy
consumption.

Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance?
a) ozone layer depletion b) global Warning

c) loss of Biodiversity d) suspended particulate Matter
The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec with
a head of 14 meters with system efficiency of 55% is

If the wind speed doubles, energy output from a wind turbine will be:
a) 2 times higher b) 4 times higher c) 6 times higher d) 8 times higher

Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for energy
conservation?

ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in energy
conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of top
management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may result in
significant savings in overall energy use

The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as
a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W
Which of the following statements regarding TOD tariff is true?
a) an incentive to induce user to draw more power during peak period

b) discourages user from drawing more power during off peak period
c) both a and b are true
d) encourages user to shift load from peak period to off peak period
The producer gas basically consists of

The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
4
_______________________
a) UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) beta rays

Which of the following macro factors is used in the sensitivity analysis of project finance?
a) Change in tax rates b) Changes in maintenance cost

c) Changes in debt: equity ratio d) Change in forms of financing
Which among the following has the lowest Global Warming Potential?
a) Perflurocarbon b) chloroflurocarbons c) methane d) nitrous oxide

Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?
In a cumulative sum (CUSUM) chart, if the graph is going up, then
CO2 measurement in a Fyrite kit is based on
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
The depletion of Ozone layer is caused mainly by _________
a) nitrous oxide b) carbon dioxide c) choloroflourocarbons d) methane gas

Portable combustion analyzers may have in-built chemical cells for measurement of stack
gas components. Which combination of chemical cells for measurement of stack gas
components is not possible?
a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2, O2 c) O2, NOr, SOx, CO d) O2, CO
The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get

The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2
+ ( ? ) 2 is

The weight (kg) of the water vapour in each kg of dry air(kg/kg) is termed as :
a) Specific Humidity b) relative humidity c) humidity d) saturation ratio
5
_______________________
Which of the following tool is made use of to assess the input, conversion efficiency,
output, losses, quantification of all material, energy and waste streams in a process or
system?
a) material balance b) energy balance

c) material and energy balance d) Sankey diagram
If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 10% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product
a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 62.5
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0 oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is 335
kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an industry.
How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30 oC to 85oC ignoring
losses?.
The fixed energy consumption of a company is 2000 kWh per month. The line slope of the
energy (y) versus production (x) chart is 0.3. The energy consumed in kWh per month for
a production level of 80,000 tons/month is
a) 24,000 kWh b) 24,200 kWh c) 26,000 kWh d) 38,000 kWh
The major constituent of natural gas is
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Hydrogen

S-1 The rating of a single phase electric geyser is 2000 Watts, at 230 Volt.
Calculate:
a) Rated current
b) Resistance of the geyser in Ohms
6
_______________________
c) Actual power drawn when the measured supply voltage is 210 Volts
Answer:
a)Rated Current of the Geyser, I = P/V= 2000/230 = 8.7 Ampere
b)Resistance Value , R = V/I = 230/8.7= 26.4 Ohms
c)Actual Power drawn at 210 Volts = (V/R)*V = (210/26.4) x210

= 1670 Watts
OR (210/230)2 x 2000 = 1667 Watts
S-2 A Diesel Generator performance trial gives specific generation of 3.5 kWh per
liter of diesel. The cooling water loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of
fuel input are 28% and 32% respectively. The calorific value of diesel is 10,200
kcal/kg. The specific gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as
percentage of input energy.
Ans CV of Diesel = 10,200 kcal/kg

Heat in input diesel = 10,200 x 0.85 = 8670 kcal/litre
Heat in kWh energy output = 3.5 x 860 = 3010 kcal/litre
% of heat used for kWh output = 3010/8670 = 34.72 %
Unaccounted loss = 100 – (34.72+28+32) = 5.28 %
A renovation and modernization (R&M) program of a 110 MW coal-fired thermal

S-3
power plant was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 28% to
32%. The specific coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 7000 hours
of operation per year and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate

a) Specific coal consumption after modernization = 28 x 0.7/32 = 0.6125 kg/kwh

Ans
Annual savings = (0.7 – 0.6125) x110 x 1000 x 7000/1000 = 67,375 Tonnes per year
b) CO2 emission reduction =67,375 x 1.53 = 103083.75 Tonnes of per year

S-4 Briefly compare NPV and IRR method of financial analysis.
In NPV method, NPV is determined by assuming the discount rate (cost of capital). In
Ans
IRR calculations, we set the NPV as zero and determine the discount rate (internal rate
of return) which satisfies this condition.
7
_______________________
The net present value method calculates the present value of all the yearly cash flows
(i.e. capital costs and net savings) incurred or accrued throughout the life of a project
and summates them. Costs are represented as negative value and savings as a
positive value. The higher the net present value, the more attractive the proposed
project.
The calculation procedure for determining IRR is tedious (iterative) and usually requires
a computer spreadsheet. The exact internal rate of return can be found by interpolation
or plotting the net present value on a graph. If this discount rate is greater than current
interest rate, the investment is sound.
NPV is essentially a tool which enables number of different projects to be compared

while IRR method is designed to assess whether a single project will achieve a target
rate of return.
The project is accepted if the net present value is positive and rejected if the net
present value is negative. A negative net present value indicates that the project is not
achieving the return standard and thus will cause an economic loss if implemented. A
zero NPV is value neutral.
In IRR, the criterion for selection among alternatives is to choose the investment with
the highest rate of return. The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between
lending and borrowing and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be
a desirable feature.
Both the NPV and IRR takes into account the time value of money and it considers the
cash flow stream in entire project life.
When the same quantity of heat is added to equal masses of iron and copper
S-5
pieces, the temperature of iron piece rises by 15 OC. Calculate the rise in
temperature of copper piece, if the specific heat of iron is 470 J / kg / OC and that
of copper is 390 J / kg / oC.
Mass of Iron x Sp. Heat Iron x 15 OC = Mass of Copper x Sp. Heat Copper x
Ans
(Rise in Temp of Copper OC)
Since mass of Iron = Mass of Copper
Sp. Heat Iron x 15 OC = Sp. Heat Copper x (Rise in Temp of Copper OC)
Sp. Heat of Iron = 470 J / kg / OC
Sp. Heat of Copper = 390 J / kg / OC
Hence, Rise in Temp. of Copper piece = (470 x 15 ) / 390
= 18.08 OC
8
_______________________
Write down the parameters, which can be measured by following instruments:

S-6
a) Stroboscope
b) Sling Psychrometer
c) Fyrite
d) Tachometer
e) Pitot tube
Ans
a) Stroboscope : Speed (Non Contact)
b) Sling Psychrometer : Dry & Wet Bulb Temperatures
c) Fyrite : O2 or CO2 in Flue Gases
d) Tachometer : Speed (Contact type)
e) Pitot tube : Velocity pressure of moving gases
An industrial plant is consuming 400 kW of power with a maximum demand of

S-7
520 kVA. The demand charge is Rs. 150/-per kVA. Determine the savings
possible by improving power factor to 0.95 and payback period if investment on
capacitor bank is Rs 1,50,000/-.
Ans
Present Power Factor : 400 / 520 = 0.77
Present Demand Charges Rs. : 520 * 150 = 78000/-
Future Demand with higher PF : 400 / 0.95 =421 kVA
Modified Demand Charges : 421 * 150 = Rs. 63150/-
Savings =78000 – 63150
= Rs. 14850/- per Month
Capacitor Investment =Rs. 1.50,000/-
Simple Payback Period =1,50,000 / 14850

=10.1 Months
S-8 A 100 tonnes per day capacity chlor-alkali plant produced 30,000 tonnes per
annum (TPA) of caustic soda with annual energy consumption of
90 million kWh in the reference year 2009-10. During the year 2011-
12, the annual production was 25,000 TPA, with an annual energy
consumption of 80 million kWh. Calculate the Plant Energy
Performance.
Ans
Production Factor = 25000 / 30000
= 0.833
Reference year energy equivalent = Reference year energy use x Production factor
= 90 x 0.833 = 75 million kWh

9
_______________________
Excess Energy Consumption in 2011-2012 = 80 – 75 = 5 million kWh
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) = [ (75 - 80) / 75 ] x 100
= (-) 6.67 %
The performance in the year 2011 – 2012 is poor as compared to the reference
year
------- End of Section - II ---------

L1 A bag house is being used to remove dust from an air exhaust stream flowing at
100 m3/min. The dirty air contains 15 g/m3 of particles, while the cleaned air from
the bag house contains 0.02 g/m3. The industry's operating permit allows the
exhaust stream to contain as much as 0.9 g/m3.
For various operating reasons, the industry wishes to bypass some of the dirty air
around the bag house and blend it back into the cleaned air so that the total
exhaust stream meets the permissible limit. Assume no air leakage and negligible
change in pressure or temperature of the air throughout the process.
Draw a schematic diagram and calculate the flow rate of air through the bag
house and the mass of dust collected per day in kg.
ANS Draw a flow diagram of the process as shown in Figure 1.
In this problem two balances can be made, namely, flow rate of dust in g/m 3 and flow
rate of air in m3/min. Balancing of flow rate of air in m 3/min is possible because the
temperature and pressure of air remains constant in the system.
10
_______________________
Write a balance for dust around the total system:
Input = Output from bag house +Output in the mixed exhaust
Or
Dust removed from bag house (Z) = 100m3/min. x 15 g/m3 —100m3/min. x 0.90 g/m3
=1410 g/min.
Or
Daily dust Output = 1410g/min x 24h/1d x 60min/1h x 1kg/1000g= 2030 kg
Write a balance for airflow

100 = X+Y, where X and Yare bypass stream and flow through bag house,
respectively.
Write a balance for dust around B:

15X + 0.02Y = 0.9x100
Solving the last two equations

X, the bypass stream = 5.9 m3/ min.
Y, the flow through bag house = 94.1 m3/min.
L2 a. Explain the difference between GCV and NCV.

b. A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at the rate of 1.2 M 3 / hour from
20oC to 65oC. If the GCV of the gas is 4x10 7 J/kg, what is the rate of combustion
gas in kg/hr. The efficiency of water heater as 80%,
11
_______________________
a. The calorific value is the measurement of heat or energy produced, and is measured
either as gross calorific value or net calorific value.
The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour
produced during the combustion process.
Gross calorific value (GCV) assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is
fully condensed. Net calorific value (NCV) assumes the water leaves with the combustion
products without fully being condensed.
b)
Mass of water heated = 1.20 M3 /hr
= 1.2 x 1000 / 60 = 20 kg/min
Heat required by Water = m x Cp x (t2 – t1)
= 20 kg/min x 4.187 x 103 J/kg/0C x (65-20) oC
= 3.77 x 106 J/min
Mass of Gas kg/min = 3.77 x 106 / 0.8 /(4 x 107 )
Mass 0f Gas Required = 0.1178 kg / min
= 7.068 kg / Hr
L-3 Answer any two of the following
a) Benefits of Monitoring and Targeting system
b) Duties and responsibilities of energy manager
c) Energy substitution need not save energy: Explain with an example
ANS a) Benefits of Monitoring and Targeting system

The ultimate goal is to reduce energy costs through improved energy efficiency and
management control measures. Other benefits include
 Identify and explain an increase or decrease in energy use

 Draw energy consumption trends (weekly, seasonal, operational)
 Improve energy budgeting corresponding to production plans
 Observe how the organization reacted to changes in the past
 Determine future energy use when planning changes in operations
 Diagnose specific areas of wasted energy
 Develop performance targets for energy management programs / energy action
plans
 Manage energy consumption rather than accept it as a fixed cost that cannot be
controlled.
Responsibilities:
12
_______________________
1. Prepare an annual activity plan and present to management concerning

financially attractive investments to reduce energy costs.
2. Establish an energy conservation cell within the firm and agree with
management about the mandate and task of the cell.
3. Initiate activities to improve monitoring and process control to reduce energy
costs.
4. Analyze equipment performance with respect to energy efficiency.
5. Ensure proper functioning and calibration of instrumentation required to assess
level of energy consumption directly or indirectly.
6. Prepare information material and conduct internal workshops about the topic for
other staff.
7. Improve disseminating of energy consumption data down to shop level or profit
center of a firm.
8. Establish a methodology to accurately calculate the specific energy consumption
of various products/services or activity of the firm.
9. Develop and manage training programme for energy efficiency at operating
levels.
10. Co-ordinate nomination of management personnel to external programs.
11. Create knowledge bank on sectorial, national and international development on
energy efficiency technology and management system and information
denomination.
12. Develop integrated system of energy efficiency and environmental up gradation.
13. Wide internal and external networking
14. Co-ordinate implementation of energy audit/efficiency improvement projects
through external agencies.
15. Establish and / or participate in information exchange with other energy
managers of the same sector through association.
Duties of Energy Manager:
1. Report to BEE and State level Designated Agency once a year. The information
with regard to energy consumed and action taken in the recommendation of the
accredited energy auditor, as per BEE – Format.
2. Establish an improved data recording, collection and analysis system to keep
track of energy consumption.
3. Provide support to Accredited Energy Audit Firm retained by the company for the
conduct of energy audit.
4. Provide information to BEE as demanded in the Act, and with respect to the
tasks given by the mandate, and the job description.
5. Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy and its conservation and implement
such scheme keeping in view the economic stability of the investment in such
firm and manner as may be provided in the regulations of the Energy
Conservation Act.

The objective of energy substitution may be to reduce the use of costlier energy
source to maximize the profit and to improve the efficiency of the process.
Example: Replacement of conventional energy by renewable energy.
13
_______________________
The efficiency of fuel oil fired systems will be higher than rice husk fired systems.
Hence the total energy input to the systems will increase for rice husk fired systems.
Even though material handling cost, specific fuel (energy) consumption increases for
rice husk, this is a cheap locally available renewable form of energy which will bring
down the fuel cost and transport cost compared to fuel oil.
Hence Energy substitution need not save energy.
Any other similar example.
L-4 For the following tasks, durations, and predecessor relationships in the following
activity table,

Description Predecessor(s) (Weeks) (Weeks) (Weeks)
A --- 4 7 10
B A 2 8 20
C A 8 12 16
D B 1 2 3
E D, C 6 8 22
F C 2 3 4
G F 2 2 2
H E, G 4 8 12
I H 1 2 3
a) Draw the network

b) Calculate expected time for all tasks
c) Calculate variance for all tasks
d) Determine all possible paths and their estimated durations
e) Identify the critical path
Network diagram is shown below:
14
_______________________
Formulas used for filling the above table:
Te = (To + 4 Tm + Tp)/6
= (Tp –To)/6
V = ((Tp –To)/6)2
Activity Immediate Optimistic Most Likely Pessimistic Te Variance

A --- 4 7 10 7 1.00
B A 2 8 20 9 9.00
C A 8 12 16 12 1.78
D B 1 2 3 2 0.11
E D, C 6 8 22 10 7.11
F C 2 3 4 3 0.11
G F 2 2 2 2 0.00
H E, G 4 8 12 8 1.78
I H 1 2 3 2 0.11
The critical path is A – C – E – H – I

Duration of critical path is 39 days
.
A - B – D – E – H –I 7+9+2+10+8+2 = 38
A–C–E–H–I 7+12+10+8+2 = 39
A–C–F–G–H–I 7+12+3+2+8+2 = 34

Duration of critical path is 39 weeks.
L-5 Write short notes on any two of the following:
15
_______________________
a) Advantages of Demand Side Management (DSM) for end user and utility
b) ISO 50001 Energy Management System
c) Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency
ANS a) Advantages of DSM
End user:
End use demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby reducing the need
for buying expensive energy during peak hours
Helps better manage the load curve and thus reduce the demand improve the
profitability
Utility:
Energy saving through DSM is treated same as new additions in supply side
Can reduce the capital needs for power capacity expansion
Improved loading of utility power plants and hence improved efficiency and profitability
b) ISO 50001 features

ISO 5001involves the following features:
Goal outlined in Energy policy
Objectives to achieve the goal
Targets which are more specific than objectives which outlines actual energy
conservation measures to be implemented. An objective may have one or more
targets.
Action plans to implement the targets which outline actions, time frame, responsibility
and resources for implementation.
All the above with other related documents are audited during internal and external
audits.
c) Energy conservation and Energy efficiency

Energy conservation is achieved when energy consumption is reduced in physical
terms as a result of productivity increase or technology change. On the other hand,
energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity is reduced in a specific product,
process or area of production without affecting the output, consumption or comfort
levels. Energy efficiency means using less energy to perform the same function.
Energy efficiency promotion will contribute to energy conservation and therefore a part
of energy conservation policies.
16
_______________________
L-6 It is proposed to install a heat recovery device in a process industry. The capital
cost of installing the device is Rs.2,00,000 and after 5 years its salvage value is
envisaged at Rs.15,000. The savings accrued by the heat recovery device are as
shown below. Determine the net present value after 5 years for a discount rate of
8%.
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Savings (Rs.) 70,000 60,000 60,000 50,000 50,000
Ans
Year Discount factor Capital Net savings Present value (Rs.)
for 8% Investment (Rs.) (Rs.)
0 1.00 -200000 -200000
1 0.926 70000 +64820
2 0.857 60000 +51420
3 0.794 60000 +47640
4 0.735 50000 +36750
5 0.681 50000 +15000 +44265
NPV=+44895
It is evident that over a 5-year life-span the net present value of the project is 44895.
17
_______________________

FOR

c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
_________ considers impact of cash flow even after payback period
a) net present value b) return on investment

b) sensitivity analysis d) simple payback period
__________ determines the project viability in response to changes in input parameters.
a) Life cycle analysis b) Financial analysis

c) Sensitivity analysis d) Payback analysis
____________is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the relationship

between variables and enables standard equations to be established for energy
consumption.
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0 oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is 335
kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

A sum of Rs 100,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
10% interest annually. How much money will be in the bank account at the end of the fifth
a) 161050 b) 150000 c) 155000 d) 160000

An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an industry.
How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30 oC to 85oC ignoring
losses?.
1
_______________________
An energy policy at the plant level is to be preferably signed by
a) chief executive b) energy Manager

c) energy auditor d) chief executive with approval of state designated agency
An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is

As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to be
appointed/designated by the

CO2 measurement in a Fyrite kit is based on
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
Consider two competitive projects entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- . Project A returns
Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at the end of year 2.
Which project is superior?
a) Project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) Project B since it offers higher return in two years
d) insufficient information
For a project to be financially attractive, ROI must always be ___ than interest rate.

How much carbon dioxide emission will be reduced annually by replacing 60 Watt
incandescent lamp with a 15 Watt CFL Lamp, if emission per unit is 1 kg CO2 per kWh and
annual burning is 3000 hours?
a) 45 ton b) 3 ton c) 0.135 ton d) 183 ton
If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 10% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product
a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 62.5
If the wind speed doubles, energy output from a wind turbine will be:
a) 2 times higher b) 4 times higher c) 6 times higher d) 8 times higher

In a cumulative sum (CUSUM) chart, if the graph is going up, then
2
_______________________
In inductive and resistive combination circuit, the resultant power factor under AC supply
will be
a) less than unity b) more than unity c) zero d) unity

Nameplate kW rating of a motor indicates
a) input to the motor b) rated output of the motor
c) no-load input to the motor d) rated input to the motor
Portable combustion analyzers may have in-built chemical cells for measurement of stack
gas components. Which combination of chemical cells for measurement of stack gas
components is not possible?
a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2, O2 c) O2, NOr, SOx, CO d) O2, CO
The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 110 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. The plant’s
annual energy bill at the end of the third year will be about ________
a) Rs 335 lakhs b) Rs 268 lakhs c) Rs 386 lakhs d) Rs 418 lakhs

The depletion of Ozone layer is caused mainly by _________
a) nitrous oxide b) carbon dioxide c) choloroflourocarbons d) methane gas

The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as
a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W
The energy benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is

c) kW/m3 of chilled water d) kW/EER
The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get

The fixed energy consumption of a company is 2000 kWh per month. The line slope of the
energy (y) versus production (x) chart is 0.3. The energy consumed in kWh per month for
a production level of 80,000 tons/month is
a) 24,000 kWh b) 24,200 kWh c) 26,000 kWh d) 38,000 kWh
The major constituent of natural gas is
3
_______________________
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Hydrogen
The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
a) UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) beta rays

The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec with
a head of 14 meters with system efficiency of 55% is

The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called __________.

The producer gas basically consists of

The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings is
Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects through a bar chart is called

The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2
+ ( ? ) 2 is

The type of energy possessed by a charged capacitor is

The weight (kg) of the water vapour in each kg of dry air(kg/kg) is termed as :
a) specific Humidity b) relative humidity c) humidity d) saturation ratio

What is the average conversion efficiency of a solar photo voltaic cell?
a) 22% b) 15% c) 98% d) 50%

What is the heat content of 200 liters of water at 5 oC in terms of the basic unit of energy in
kilojoules ?
a) 3000 b) 2388 c) 1000 d) 4187

Which among the following has the lowest Global Warming Potential?
a) Perflurocarbon b) chloroflurocarbons c) methane d) nitrous oxide
4
_______________________
Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy of India?

c) energy conservation, research and development
d) removal of subsidies for energy across all sectors
Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

Which of the following is false?

Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance?
a) ozone layer depletion b) global Warning

c) loss of Biodiversity d) suspended particulate Matter
Which of the following macro factors is used in the sensitivity analysis of project finance?
a) Change in tax rates b) Changes in maintenance cost

c) Changes in debt: equity ratio d) Change in forms of financing
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Demand Side Management
(DSM)?
a) agriculture and municipalities are potential areas for DSM activities

b) savings accrued through DSM cannot be treated as avoided capacity on supply
side
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during peak hours
Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security can even reduce agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by minimising dependence on imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries weaken energy security
d) increasing exploration to find oil and gas reserves improves energy security
Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?
Which of the following statements regarding TOD tariff is true?
5
_______________________
a) an incentive to induce user to draw more power during peak period

b) discourages user from drawing more power during off peak period
c) both a and b are true
d) encourages user to shift load from peak period to off peak period
Which of the following statements with respect to Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is true?
a) is a constant once established

b) varies every year with changes in production
c) varies every year with changes in reserves
d) varies every year with changes in production and reserves
Which of the following tool is made use of to assess the input, conversion efficiency,
output, losses, quantification of all material, energy and waste streams in a process or
system?
a) material balance b) energy balance

c) material and energy balance d) Sankey diagram
Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for energy
conservation?

ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in energy
conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of top
management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may result in
significant savings in overall energy use

Calculate:
a) Rated current
Answer
:
6
_______________________
a)Rated Current of the Geyser, I = P/V= 2000/230 = 8.7 Ampere
b)Resistance Value , R = V/I = 230/8.7= 26.4 Ohms
c)Actual Power drawn at 220 Volts = (V/R)*V = (220/26.4) x220

= 1833.3 Watts
OR (220/230)2 x 2000 = 1830 Watts
S-2 A Diesel Generator performance trial gives specific generation of 3.5 kWh per
liter of diesel. The cooling water loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of
fuel input are 29% and 31% respectively. The calorific value of diesel is 10,200
kcal/kg. The specific gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as
percentage of input energy.
Ans CV of Diesel = 10,200 kcal/kg

Heat in input diesel = 10,200 x 0.85 = 8670 kcal/litre
Heat in kWh energy output = 3.5 x 860 = 3010 kcal/litre
% of heat used for kWh output = 3010/8670 = 34.72 %
Unaccounted loss = 100 – (34.72+29+31) = 5.28 %
A renovation and modernization (R&M) program of a 110 MW coal-fired thermal

S-3
power plant was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 28% to
32%. The specific coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 7000 hours
of operation per year and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate

a) Specific coal consumption after modernization = 28 x 0.7/32 = 0.6125 kg/kwh

Ans
Annual savings = (0.7 – 0.6125) x110 x 1000 x 7000/1000 = 67,375 Tonnes per year
b) CO2 emission reduction =67,375 x 1.48 = 99,715 Tonnes of per year

In NPV method, NPV is determined by assuming the discount rate (cost of capital). In
ANS
IRR calculations, we set the NPV as zero and determine the discount rate (internal rate
of return) which satisfies this condition.
7
_______________________
positive value. The higher the net present value, the more attractive the proposed
project.
The calculation procedure for determining IRR is tedious (iterative) and usually requires
a computer spreadsheet. The exact internal rate of return can be found by interpolation
or plotting the net present value on a graph. If this discount rate is greater than current
interest rate, the investment is sound.
NPV is essentially a tool which enables number of different projects to be compared

while IRR method is designed to assess whether a single project will achieve a target
rate of return.
The project is accepted if the net present value is positive and rejected if the net
present value is negative. A negative net present value indicates that the project is not
achieving the return standard and thus will cause an economic loss if implemented. A
zero NPV is value neutral.
In IRR, the criterion for selection among alternatives is to choose the investment with
the highest rate of return. The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between
lending and borrowing and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be
a desirable feature.
Both the NPV and IRR takes into account the time value of money and it considers the
cash flow stream in entire project life.
When the same quantity of heat is added to equal masses of iron and copper
S-5
pieces, the temperature of iron piece rises by 20 OC. Calculate the rise in
temperature of copper piece, if the specific heat of iron is 470 J / kg / OC and that
of copper is 390 J / kg / oC.
Mass of Iron x Sp. Heat Iron x 20 OC = Mass of Copper x Sp. Heat Copper x
(Rise in Temp of Copper OC)
Since mass of Iron = Mass of Copper
Sp. Heat Iron x 20 OC = Sp. Heat Copper x (Rise in Temp of Copper OC)
Sp. Heat of Iron = 470 J / kg / OC
Sp. Heat of Copper = 390 J / kg / OC
Hence, Rise in Temp. of Copper piece = (470 x 20 ) / 390

= 24.11 OC Ans
Write down the parameters, which can be measured by following instruments:
S-6
a) Stroboscope
b) Sling Psychrometer
c) Fyrite
d) Tachometer
e) Pitot tube
8
_______________________
Solution:
a) Stroboscope : Speed (Non Contact)

b) Sling Psychrometer : Dry & Wet Bulb Temperatures
c) Fyrite : O2 or CO2 in Flue Gases
d) Tachometer : Speed (Contact type)
e) Pitot tube : Velocity pressure of moving gases
An industrial plant is consuming 400 kW of power with a maximum demand of
S-7
520 kVA. The demand charge is Rs. 150/-per kVA. Determine the savings possible
by improving power factor to 0.95 and payback period if investment on capacitor
bank is Rs 1,00,000/-.
Solution:
Present Power Factor : 400 / 520 = 0.77

Present Demand Charges Rs. : 520 * 150 = 78000/-
Future Demand with higher PF : 400 / 0.95 =421 kVA
Modified Demand Charges : 421 * 150 = Rs. 63150/-
Savings =78000 – 63150
= Rs. 14850/- per Month
Capacitor Investment =Rs. 1,00,000/-
Simple Payback Period =1,00,000 / 14850

=6.73 Months
S-8 A 100 tonnes per day capacity chlor-alkali plant produced 30,000 tonnes per
annum (TPA) of caustic soda with annual energy consumption of
90 million kWh in the reference year 2009-10. During the year 2011-
12, the annual production was 25,000 TPA, with an annual energy
consumption of 75 million kWh. Calculate the Plant Energy
Performance.
Solution:
Production Factor = 25000 / 30000

= 0.833
Reference year energy equivalent = Reference year energy use x Production factor
= 90 x 0.833 = 75 million kWh
Excess Energy Consumption in 2011-2012 = 75 – 75 = 0 million kWh
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) = [ (75 - 75) / 75 ] x 100
= 0%
The performance in the year 2011 – 2012 is same as compared to the reference
9
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year
------- End of Section - II ---------

L1 A bag house is being used to remove dust from an air exhaust stream flowing at 100
m3/min. The dirty air contains 15 g/m3 of particles, while the cleaned air from the bag
house contains 0.02 g/m3. The industry's operating permit allows the exhaust
stream to contain as much as 0.9 g/m3.
For various operating reasons, the industry wishes to bypass some of the dirty air
around the bag house and blend it back into the cleaned air so that the total exhaust
stream meets the permissible limit. Assume no air leakage and negligible change in
pressure or temperature of the air throughout the process.
Draw a schematic diagram and calculate the flow rate of air through the bag house
and the mass of dust collected per day in kg.
ANS Draw a flow diagram of the process as shown in Figure 1.
In this problem two balances can be made, namely, flow rate of dust in g/m 3 and flow rate
of air in m3/min. Balancing of flow rate of air in m 3/min is possible because the temperature
and pressure of air remains constant in the system.
Write a balance for dust around the total system:

10
_______________________
Input = Output from bag house +Output in the mixed exhaust
Or
Dust removed from bag house (Z) = 100m3/min. x 15 g/m3 —100m3/min. x 0.90 g/m3
=1410 g/min.
Or
Daily dust Output = 1410g/min x 24h/1d x 60min/1h x 1kg/1000g= 2030 kg
Write a balance for airflow

100 = X+Y, where X and Yare bypass stream and flow through baghouse,
respectively.
Write a balance for dust around B:

15X + 0.02Y = 0.9x100
Solving the last two equations

X, the bypass stream = 5.9 m3/ min.
Y, the flow through bag house = 94.1 m3/min.
L2 a. Explain the difference between GCV and NCV.

b. A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at the rate of 1.2 M 3 / hour from 20oC
to 65oC. If the GCV of the gas is 4x10 7 J/kg, what is the rate of combustion gas in
kg/hr. The efficiency of water heater as 85%,
a. The calorific value is the measurement of heat or energy produced, and is measured
either as gross calorific value or net calorific value.
The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour
produced during the combustion process.
Gross calorific value (GCV) assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully
condensed. Net calorific value (NCV) assumes the water leaves with the combustion products
without fully being condensed.
b)
Mass of water heated = 1.20 M3 /hr
= 1.2 x 1000 / 60 = 20 kg/min
Heat required by Water = m x Cp x (t2 – t1)
= 20 kg/min x 4.187 x 103 J/kg/0C x (65-20) oC
= 3.77 x 106 J/min
Mass of Gas kg/min = 3.77 x 106 / 0.85 /(4 x 107 )
Mass of Gas Required = 0.1109 kg / min
= 6.65 kg / Hr
11
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L-3 Answer any two of the following
a) Benefits of Monitoring and Targeting system
ANS a) Benefits of Monitoring and Targeting system

The ultimate goal is to reduce energy costs through improved energy efficiency and
management control measures. Other benefits include
 Identify and explain an increase or decrease in energy use

 Draw energy consumption trends (weekly, seasonal, operational)
 Improve energy budgeting corresponding to production plans
 Observe how the organization reacted to changes in the past
 Determine future energy use when planning changes in operations
 Diagnose specific areas of wasted energy
 Develop performance targets for energy management programs / energy action
plans
 Manage energy consumption rather than accept it as a fixed cost that cannot be
controlled.
Responsibilities:
1. Prepare an annual activity plan and present to management concerning financially

attractive investments to reduce energy costs.
2. Establish an energy conservation cell within the firm and agree with management
about the mandate and task of the cell.
3. Initiate activities to improve monitoring and process control to reduce energy costs.
4. Analyze equipment performance with respect to energy efficiency.
5. Ensure proper functioning and calibration of instrumentation required to assess
level of energy consumption directly or indirectly.
6. Prepare information material and conduct internal workshops about the topic for
other staff.
7. Improve disseminating of energy consumption data down to shop level or profit
center of a firm.
8. Establish a methodology to accurately calculate the specific energy consumption of
various products/services or activity of the firm.
9. Develop and manage training programme for energy efficiency at operating levels.
10. Co-ordinate nomination of management personnel to external programs.
11. Create knowledge bank on sectorial, national and international development on
energy efficiency technology and management system and information
denomination.
12. Develop integrated system of energy efficiency and environmental up gradation.
13. Wide internal and external networking
14. Co-ordinate implementation of energy audit/efficiency improvement projects
through external agencies.
12
_______________________
15. Establish and / or participate in information exchange with other energy managers
of the same sector through association.
Duties of Energy Manager:
1. Report to BEE and State level Designated Agency once a year. The information
with regard to energy consumed and action taken in the recommendation of the
accredited energy auditor, as per BEE – Format.
2. Establish an improved data recording, collection and analysis system to keep track
of energy consumption.
3. Provide support to Accredited Energy Audit Firm retained by the company for the
conduct of energy audit.
4. Provide information to BEE as demanded in the Act, and with respect to the tasks
given by the mandate, and the job description.
5. Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy and its conservation and implement
such scheme keeping in view the economic stability of the investment in such firm
and manner as may be provided in the regulations of the Energy Conservation Act.

The objective of energy substitution may be to reduce the use of costlier energy source
to maximize the profit and to improve the efficiency of the process.
Example: Replacement of conventional energy by renewable energy.
The efficiency of fuel oil fired systems will be higher than rice husk fired systems.
Hence the total energy input to the systems will increase for rice husk fired systems.
Even though material handling cost, specific fuel (energy) consumption increases for
rice husk, this is a cheap locally available renewable form of energy which will bring
down the fuel cost and transport cost compared to fuel oil.
Hence Energy substitution need not save energy.
Any other similar example.
L-4 For the following tasks, durations, and predecessor relationships in the following
activity table,
13
_______________________

A --- 4 7 10
B A 2 8 20
C A 8 12 16
D B 1 2 3
E D, C 6 8 22
F C 2 3 4
G F 2 2 2
H E, G 4 8 12
I H 1 2 3
a) Draw the network

b) Calculate expected time for all tasks
c) Calculate variance for all tasks
d) Determine all possible paths and their estimated durations
e) Identify the critical path
Ans
Network diagram is shown below:
Formulas used for filling the above table:
Te = (To + 4 Tm + Tp)/6
= (Tp –To)/6
V = ((Tp –To)/6)2
14
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Activity Description Immediate Optimisti Most Likely Pessimistic Te Variance

Predecessor(s c (Weeks) (Weeks)
) (Weeks)
A --- 4 7 10 7 1.00
B A 2 8 20 9 9.00
C A 8 12 16 12 1.78
D B 1 2 3 2 0.11
E D, C 6 8 22 10 7.11
F C 2 3 4 3 0.11
G F 2 2 2 2 0.00
H E, G 4 8 12 8 1.78
I H 1 2 3 2 0.11
A - B – D – E – H –I 7+9+2+10+8+2 = 38
A–C–E–H–I 7+12+10+8+2 = 39
A–C–F–G–H–I 7+12+3+2+8+2 = 34

Duration of critical path is 39 weeks.
L-5 Write short notes on any two of the following:

a) Advantages of Demand Side Management (DSM) for end user and utility
b) ISO 50001 Energy Management System
c) Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency
ANS a) Advantages of DSM
End user:
End use demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby reducing the need for
buying expensive energy during peak hours
Helps better manage the load curve and thus reduce the demand improve the profitability
Utility:
Energy saving through DSM is treated same as new additions in supply side
Can reduce the capital needs for power capacity expansion
Improved loading of utility power plants and hence improved efficiency and profitability
b) ISO 50001 features

ISO 5001involves the following features:
Goal outlined in Energy policy
Objectives to achieve the goal
Targets which are more specific than objectives which outlines actual energy
15
_______________________
conservation measures to be implemented. A objective may have one or more targets.

Action plans to implement the targets which outline actions, time frame, responsibility and
resources for implementation.
All the above with other related documents are audited during internal and external
audits.
C) Energy conservation and Energy efficiency

Energy conservation is achieved when energy consumption is reduced in physical terms
as a result of productivity increase or technology change. On the other hand, energy
efficiency is achieved when energy intensity is reduced in a specific product, process or
area of production without affecting the output, consumption or comfort levels. Energy
efficiency means using less energy to perform the same function. Energy efficiency
promotion will contribute to energy conservation and therefore a part of energy
conservation policies.
L-6 It is proposed to install a heat recovery device in a process industry. The capital
cost of installing the device is Rs.2,00,000 and after 5 years its salvage value is
envisaged at Rs.25,000. The savings accrued by the heat recovery device are as
shown below. Determine the net present value after 5 years for a discount rate of
8%.
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Savings (Rs.) 70,000 60,000 60,000 50,000 50,000
Ans Year Discount factor Capital Net savings Present value (Rs.)
for 8% Investment (Rs.) (Rs.)
0 1.00 -200000 -200000
1 0.926 70000 +64820
2 0.857 60000 +51420
3 0.794 60000 +47640
4 0.735 50000 +36750
5 0.681 50000 + 25000 +51075
NPV=+51705
It is evident that over a 5-year life-span the net present value of the project is 51075.
16
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Paper -1 Set A Solutions

FOR
Date: 15.09.2012 Timings: 09:30-12:30 Hrs Duration: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 150

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
1. The primary energy content of fuels is generally expressed in terms of ton of oil equivalent
(toe) and is based on the following conversion factor
a) 1 toe=10x106 kCal b) 1 toe=11630 kWh

c) 1 toe=41870 MJ d) all the above
2. Largest share of global primary energy consumption is from which of the following fuels:
a) oil and natural gas b) coal and oil c) oil and nuclear d) coal and nuclear
evaporated from wood during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood ?
a) 0.78 kg b) 0.22 kg c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg
4. A power utility distributed 1 million 15 Watt CFLs for Rs 15 million, replacing 60

Watt incandescent lamps under Bachat Lamp Yojna. What will be the drop in power
in the evening on the demand side, if 80% of the lights are on at that time, assuming
similar numbers of incandescent lamps were switched on during the same period?
a) 360 kW b) 12 MW c) 36 MW d) 60
MW
5. Which of the following with respect to fossil fuels is true?
a) Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is a constant once established

b) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in production
c) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in reserves
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d) R/P ratio varies every year with changes in both production and reserves
6.
From rated V, A and PF given in the name-plate of a motor , one can calculate:
a) rated input Power b) rated output Power c) both a & b d) none of
these
7.
Air velocity in the ducts can be measured by using ___________ and manometer
a) orifice meter b) Bourden gauge c) Pitot tube d) anemometer
8. One certified emission reduction (CER) is equivalent to:

a) one kg of carbon b) one kg of carbon dioxide
c) one ton of carbon d) one ton of carbon dioxide
9. Speed measurement (RPM) of an electric motor is measured with a
a) stroboscope b) ultrasonic meter c) lux meter d) rotameter

for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60% ?
a) 5.6 kW b) 2.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW

11. A process requires 10 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kCal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% The losses then will be
a) 10000 kCal b) 45000 kCal c) 40000 kCal d) 20000 kCal

12. Ratio of average load (kW) to maximum load (kW) is termed as
a) load factor b) demand factor c) form factor d) utilization factor


14. Material and energy balance is used to quantify
a) material and energy losses b) profit

c) cost of production d) all of the above
15. Which is not a part of “ Energy Audit” defined as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001

b) ensuring implementations of recommended measures followed by review
d) verification of energy use
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i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per sq. metre of area taking into
account climatic region where building is located
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs (construction and
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iii d) i & iv
17. Which of the following statements regarding BLY (Bachat Lamp Yojana) are correct ?
i) BLY aims at large scale replacement of all fluorescent lamps of poor lumen intensity
with CFL of high lumen intensity
ii) CDM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost replaced
incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
iii) BLY involves public, private partnership and DISCOM partnerships
iv) DSM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost replaced
incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
18. The average gross efficiency of thermal power generation on all India bases is about
a) 30 – 34% b) 36 – 38% c) 39 - 41% d) 25 - 28%
19. Which of the following is not the activity related to restructured APDRP?
a) separate feeders for agricultural pumps

b) energy auditing at distribution transformer level
c) GIS mapping of the network and consumers
d) establishing targets for reducing power consumption
20. Assuming total conversion of electrical energy to heat energy, how much heat is produced
by a 200 W heater in 5 minutes?
a) 200 kJ b) 40 kJ c) 1000 kJ d) 60 kJ
21. Which of the following statements regarding DSM is incorrect?
a) potential areas for DSM thrust activity are agriculture, domestic and municipalities
b) savings accrued through DSM can be treated as new power addition on supply side
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from off-peak to peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during off peak hours
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22. A motor with 10 kW rating in its name plate, will draw Input power of____
a) 10 kW at full load b) more than 10 kW at full load

c) less than 10 kW at full load d) 10 kW at 110% of full load
23. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Maximum Demand Control?
a) Maximum demand control offers a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks and ‘filling’ the valleys in
the consumer load diagram
b) Maximum demand control is carried out by concerned utility at customer
premises
c) Maximum demand control focuses on critical load for management
d) All of the above
24. Which of the following statements is false?
a) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices
b) some portion of reactive current is converted into useful work
c) Cosine of the angle between kVA and kW vector is called power factor
d) power factor is unity in a pure resistive circuit
25. Steam leak reduction program can be best achieved through
a) Small Group Activities b) Autonomous Maintenance

c) TPM d) All of the above
26. Consider two competitive projects A and B each entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- .
Project A returns Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at
the end of Year 2. Which project is superior?
a) project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) project B since it offers higher return before end of two years
d) insufficient information to assess the superiority
27. Which of the following statements regarding Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is correct?
a) IRR distinguishes between lending and borrowing

b) Internal rate of return is the discount rate at which net present value is equal to
zero
c) if the IRR is higher than current interest rate, the investment is not attractive
d) between two alternative projects, the project with lower internal rate of return would be
considered more attractive
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28. Global warming will not result in
a) melting of the ice caps

b) increasing sea levels
c) increasing the size of the hole in the ozone layer
d) unpredictable climate patterns
29. The ozone layer found in the stratosphere:
a) protects against the sun’s harmful UV rays

b) can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
c) is toxic to plants
d) is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber on earth
____________
a) carbon capture and sequestration b) carbon sink

c) carbon capture d) carbon absorption
31. Which of the following statements is false regarding wind turbine?
a) wind power does not vary as the cross-sectional area of the rotor
b) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
c) cut-in wind speed is always less than rated wind speed
d) theoretical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind turbine
rotor is about 95%
32. What percentage of the sun’s energy falling on a silicon solar panel gets converted into
electricity?
a) 25% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%
33. Which of the following fuels is non-renewable?
a) LPG b) lignite c) nuclear d) all of the above
34. India’s share of world oil reserves is _________
a) 5% b) 2% c) 0.5 % d) 3%
35. Nuclear power development in India is constrained by
a) low % of Uranium in the ore b) inadequate supply of Uranium

c) constraints in import of Uranium d) all of the above
36. In a contract when all or part of the savings are guaranteed by contractor, and all or part of
the costs of equipment and/or services are paid out of savings as they are achieved, is
termed as
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a) traditional contract b) guaranteed saving performance contract

c) shared saving performance contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
37. A fuel cell is

a) an electromagnetic cell b) a magnetic cell
c) an electrochemical device d) none of the above
38.
If 3350 kJ of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0o C (latent heat of melting of ice is 335 kJ/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4.18 kg c) 10 kg d) 29
kg
39.
If oxygen rich combustion air (25% vol oxygen) is supplied to a furnace instead of normal
air (21% vol oxygen), the % CO2 in flue gases will
40.
The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as
c) NPV / IRR d) (annual net cash flow x 100) /
capital cost
41.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
42. In project management work breakdown structure defines
a) temporary endeavour undertaken to create unique product or service

b) the activities to be completed in the projects
c) how realistic were the assumptions underlying the project
43.
The empirical relationship used to plot Production Vs Energy consumption is………………
( where Y= energy consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy
consumption directly related to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=MX+C c) M=CX+Y d) Y= MX-C
44.
The main constituent of greenhouse gases (GHG) in atmosphere is
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a) CO2 b) SOx c) nitrogen d) water vapor
45. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of nitrous oxide (N2O) is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 5700
a) the path where activates have slack b) the shortest path

c) the path where no activities have slack d) none of the above
47. The cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.0 lakh. The simple payback period in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual operating cost of Rs. 10,000 is
a) 0.50 b) 1.66 c) 2.00 d)

6.00
48. Of the total natural gas used in India, the largest share goes to__________sector.
a) petrochemicals b) fertilizers c) power d) domestic

49. What is the future value of Rs. 1000/- after 3 years if the interest rate is 10% ?
a) 1331 b) 3000 c) 3300 d) 2420

50. If the asset depreciation is considered, then net operating cash inflow would be
a) higher b) lower c) no effect d) none of these

S-1 Explain the concept of Bachat Lamp Yojana (BLY)?
ANS BLY aims at the large scale replacement of inefficient incandescent bulbs in
households by Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs).
It seeks to provide CFLs to households at the same price to that of incandescent

bulbs. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is used to recover the cost difference
between the market price of the CFLs and the price at which they are sold to
households.
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BLY involves public-private partnership between the Government of India, private

sector CFL suppliers and State level Electricity Distribution Companies (DISCOMs).
Briefly explain ‘Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO)’ and means by which this
S-2
requirement can be met ?
ANS RPO is Renewable Purchase Obligation requires each retail seller of electricity to
include in its resource portfolio a certain proportion of power is from renewable
sources such as wind, solar, small hydro or various forms of biomass energy.
The retailer can meet this requirement by owning a renewable energy facility and
producing power or purchasing power from another renewable energy facility.
Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).

S-3
Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
ANS
power introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation (any three)
• It is performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
• It is also a new system of scheduling and despatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day ahead schedule.
• It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a
half hours in advance.
• The order emphasis prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action
Any other relevant points as appropriate may also be given marks
In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% w/w

S-4
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 30% solids w/w. Calculate the

ANS
Feed=400kgs
quantity of water evaporated=[400 – {(100) x 24}] = 320

30
Also right = 24x400/30 = 320
In the management of financial aspects, state what are micro and macro factors and
S-5
list three factors in each, which influence sensitivity analysis?
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ANS
Micro factors are variables related to the project being implemented and can be
influenced
Any three in the following list
ü Operating expenses (various expenses items)

ü Capital structure
ü Costs of debt, equity
ü Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
ü Changing the project life
Macro factors are variables that affect the operation of industry of which the
company operates and cannot be changed by the company management.
ü Changes in interest rates

ü Changes in the tax rates
ü Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
ü Changes in depreciation rates
ü Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
ü General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
ü Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
ü Energy Price change
A plant is using 6 ton/day of coal in a boiler to generate steam at 72% boiler

S-6
efficiency. The gross calorific value of coal is 3300 kCal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs.
4200/ton . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue , as a boiler fuel, which has a
gross calorific value of 3100 kCal /kg and costs Rs. 1800/ton. The boiler efficiency
reduces to 68%. Calculate the annual cost savings for 300 days of operation with
agro residue as fuel.
ANS
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day
To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of agro residue required

= 14256000
3100 x 0.68
= 6763 kg/day
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6763 x 1800

1000 1000
= 25200-12173
= Rs 13027/-
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=Rs 39,08,100/-
Based on local pollution control department norms the maximum limit of dust in the
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gas stream leaving the industry should not exceed one ton per day. A bag filter was
installed to reduce the pollution from the exhaust gas stream. Find out the dust
collected in ton per day if the gas stream to the dust collector was entering at the rate
of 130,000 m3 per hour containing 6 g/m3 and leaving at the rate of 150,000 m3 per
hour, inclusive of ingress of air) containing 300 mg/m3. Also find out whether, the
industry met the pollution norms if the plant operates for 24 hours a day at same
capacity.
ANS
Amount of Dust in the inlet stream = 130,000 x 6
= 780,000 grams/hour
Amount of Dust in the outlet stream = 150,000 x 0.30 g/hr

= 45,000 grams/hour
Amount of Dust in the Bag Filter = 780,000 - 45,000
= 735,000 grams/hour x 24/106
= 17.64 Tonnes/day
Amount of dust leaving the Industry = 45,000 grams / hour x 24/106
= 1.08 Tonnes / day
Since it is more than 1 tonne/ day, the industry does not meet the pollution norms
In an industry the existing winding of a motor has burnt out. Calculate the annual
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energy savings and simple payback for replacing the burnt out motor with an energy
efficient motor of the same capacity instead of rewinding.
The data given are

• Efficiency after rewinding of burnt out motor - 86%
• Cost of rewinding - Rs 7500
• Efficiency of energy efficient motor - 94%
• Cost of new energy efficient motor - Rs 42000
• Operating hours/year - 6900 hours
• % loading of motor - 82%
• Energy cost - Rs 5.2/kWh
• Name plate rating of motor - 22 kW
Energy cost saving (Rs / year)

ANS
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=[(kW) x (% loading) x [(1/efficiency of rewound standard motor)

- (1/ Efficiency of energy efficient motor)] x (HRS/annum) x (Rs/kwh)
=22 x 0.82 x 6900 x 5.2 [(100/86) – (100/94)]
=Rs 64055
Simple payback period

= [(42000-7500)/64055]
=6.5 months
------- End of Section - II ---------

L-1 An oil fired reheating furnace heats steel billets from 40oC to 1220oC at a furnace efficiency of
28%. The furnace operates for 4700 hours per annum. The GCV of furnace oil is10,000 kCal
/kg and density is 0.94kg/litre. The cost of furnace oil is Rs.45 /liter. The specific heat of billets
is 0.12 kCal/kgoC.
a. Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 12 tons
of steel billets per hour
b. Calculate liters of furnace oil fired per tons of steel billets.
c. If the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 28% to
30% by adopting ceramic fibre insulation, calculate the hourly furnace oil cost
saving
d. What is the simple payback period if the investment is Rs.
20 lakhs ?
e. How large could be the investment to improve the
efficiency at an internal rate of 16% and per year over 6 years.
ANS : a) Amount of energy necessary to heat 12 tons of steel billets
= m x cp x t
= 12000 Kgs x 0.12 x (1220- 40) kCals/hr
= 16,99,200 Kcals/hr
B) Litres of furnace oil fired per ton of steel billet

= [( 1699200/12)]
= 141600 Kcal/ tonne of billet
Input energy per ton of billet = 141160/0.28
= 505714 kcal/ tonne of billet
Furnace oil required in kg = 505714
10,000
= 50.57 Kg/ tonne of billet
Furnace oil required in litres = 50.57
0.94
= 53.79 litres/ tonne of billet
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c). Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton

= 53.79 x [ 1 – (0.28/0.30)] * Rs 45
= Rs 161.37/tonne
Hourly furnace oil cost savings for 12 tons
= Rs 161.37 *12
=Rs 1936/hr
d). Simple payback period @ 4700 hrs of operation

=20,00,000/1936*4700
= 0.352 yrs or 4.2 months
e) Net cash inflow per annum= 1936*4700

= Rs 91.0 lakhs
Investment = 91.0 [ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ]
1.16 (1.16)2 ( 1.16)3 (1.16)4 (1.16)5 (1.16)6
= 91.0 [0.862+ 0.743+0.641+0.552+0.476+0.410]
= Rs. 3.35 crores
L-2 The Energy- production data (for Jan-June, 2011) of an industry follows a relationship :
Calculated energy consumption = 0.5 P +220.
A Waste heat recovery system was installed at end of June 2011 and further data was
gathered up to December 2011.
Using CUSUM technique, calculate energy savings in terms of ton of oil equivalent (toe) and
the reduction in specific energy consumption achieved with the installation of waste heat
recovery system.
The plant data is given in the table below.
Actual Energy Actual production,

2011-Month Consumption, toe/month ton/month
Jan 620 760
Feb 690 960
Mar 635 790
Apr 628 830
May 545 610
Jun 540 670
July 590 760
Aug 605 820
Sep 670 940
Oct 582 750
Nov 512 610
Dec 540 670
ANS
The table below gives values of actual energy consumption Vs. calculated (predicted)
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energy consumption from July –Dec. 2011.

Specific energy consumption monitored Vs predicted for each month. The variations are
calculated and the Cumulative sum of differences is calculated from Jan-June-2011.
2011- Ecal
Month Eact. 0.5P+220 Eact - Ecal CUSUM
July 590 600 -10 -10
Aug 605 630 -25 -35
Sept 670 690 -20 -55
Oct. 582 595 -13 -68
Nov. 512 525 -13 -81
Dec. 540 555 -15 -96
Energy savings achieved = 96 toe
Reduction in specific energy consumption = 96/4550 = 0.021 toe/tonne of production

(Production for 6 months = 760+820+940+750+610+670 = 4550 tonnes)
L-3 A proposed energy efficiency improvement project requires an initial investment of

Rs.5,00,000 and generates cash flow as given below:
Savings in year Cash flow (Rs.)
1 120000
2 115500
3 130000
4 116500
5 117250
6 200000
Calculate IRR of the project by interpolation method by taking initial discount rate as 11%.
ANS a) NPV at 11% = -500000 + 120000/(1+0.11)1 + 115500/(1+0.11)2 +130000/(1+0.11)3 +
116500/(1+0.11)4 +117250/(1+0.11)5 +200000/(1+0.11)6
= 50157.88
NPV at 16% = -500000 + 120000/(1+0.16)1 + 115500/(1+0.16)2 +130000/(1+0.16)3 +

116500/(1+0.16)4 +117250/(1+0.16)5 +200000/(1+0.16)6
= -25176.29
NPV is between 11% and 16%
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IRR with Linear Interpolation
IL = 11%
NPVL = 50157.88
IU= 16%
NPVU = -25176.29
IRR = IL + (IU -IL) x NPVL

(NPVL - NPVU)
= 0.11 + (0.16-0.11) (50157.88) / [(50157.88 – (- 25176.20)]

= 0.11 + (0.05 x 50157.88) / 75334.17
= 0.11 + 2507.894 / 75334.17
= 0.11 + 0.0333
= 0.1433
= 14.33%
L-4 Write short notes on any two of the following

a)BEE’s Standards and Labeling programme for equipment and appliances
b)Role of ESCOs
c)Evacuated tube collector for solar energy applications
ANS a) Standards & Labeling
Standards and Labeling would ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliances
would be made available to consumers.
Main provisions of S&L are:
• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for notified equipment
and appliances
• Prevent manufacture, sale and import of equipment which do not meet the standards
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment and appliances to enable
consumers to make informed choices
• Spread information on benefits to consumers
For establishing standards, agreed testing procedures are defined and values of energy
performance are measured.
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Energy labels are the best way to implement the standards. They are information affixed to
manufactured products to describe the product’s energy performance usually in form of
energy use or efficiency. These give data to consumers to make informed purchases.
b) Role of ESCOs
Conduct of Investment grade energy audit
Arranging finance
Purchase, installation and maintenance of installed energy efficient equipment
Operation & Maintenance training
Monitoring of operations and energy savings
c) Evacuated Tube Collector

Evacuated tube collector comprises of two concentric glass tubes fused in the ends. The air is
evacuated from the gap between the tubes. The evacuated double-walled glass tube provides
thermal insulation similar to that of thermally insulated "Thermos" bottle. The outer glass tube
is clear, and the surface of the inner glass tube is coated with a special heat material that
absorbs the sun's energy.
Sun rays penetrate the outer clear glass and heat energy is absorbed by the inner coated
glass. The vacuum permits the heat radiation to enter the outer tube. The absorbent coating
on the inner tube converts short wave radiation to long wave radiation thus preventing re-
radiation to atmosphere. Since conduction cannot take place in vacuum, heat loss due to
conduction back to atmosphere is also prevented. Because of this principle, more heat is
trapped compared to a flat plate collector. The heat loss in Evacuated tube collector is less
than 10% compared with 40% for a flat plate collector. Water flows in through a third,
innermost concentric feeder tube and hot water flows out in the annulus outside the feeder
tube in contact with the absorber tube surface. This type of solar collector can reach high
temperatures upto 150°C.
L-5 a) Explain in brief the process of gasification of biomass.
b) Find out the conversion efficiency of a gasifier, if 20 kg of wood (having a calorific value of
3200 kCal / kg) produces 46 m3 of producer gas having an average calorific value of 1000
kCal / Nm3.
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a) Gasification of Biomass
ANS
Biomass contains Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen molecules. Complete combustion of
Biomass would produce Carbon Dioxide and water vapour, whereas combustion under
controlled conditions ie partial combustion produces Carbon Monoxide and Hydrogen, which
are combustible gases. The biogas produced through gasification is called as Producer Gas.
Gasification is a partial oxidation of biomass and takes place at temperature of about 1000oC.
Partial oxidation is facilitated by supplying air less than the stoichiometric requirements. The
products of combustion are gases like Carbon Monoxide, Hydrogen and traces of Methane
and non- useful products like tar & dust. The production of these gases is by reaction of water
vapour and Carbon Dioxide through a glowing layer of charcoal.
A gasification system consists of 4 main steps:
§ Feeding of Feedstock
§ Gasifier reactions where gasification takes place.
§ Cleaning of resultant gas
§ Utilization of cleaned gas
Biomass Gasifier is a thermo-chemical convertor / reactor where various physical and

chemical reactions take place. Biomass is passed through following zones before being
converted to high quality producer gas:
• Drying Zone
• Distillation Zone
• Pyrolysis zone
• Combustion Zone
• Reduction Zone
The following reactions take place:
C + O2 = CO2
H2 + ½ O2 = H2O
C + O2 = 2CO
C + H2O = CO + H2
CO2 + H2 = CO + H2O
C +2 H2 = CH4
The Producer gas has relatively a low calorific value ranging from 1000 to 1200 kCal/Nm3. The
conversion efficiency of Gasifier is in the range of 60 – 70%. It can be used for combustion in
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a reciprocating engine.
b) Heat Input in the Gasifier = 20 x 3200

= 64000 kCal
Heat Output as Producer gas = 46 x 1000

= 46000 kCal
Conversion efficiency of Gasifier = Heat Output / Heat Input

= 46000 x 100 / 64000
= 71.88 % Ans
L-6 a) Construct a PERT/CPM network diagram for a project for which the data is given below
b) Compute the earliest start, earliest finish, latest start, latest finish and slack for all the
activities
c) Also compute the project duration, identify critical activities and the critical path(s)
Activity Predecessor Time in weeks

A - 3
B - 5
C A 4
D A 6
E C 5
F D 3
G B 2
H E,F 1
I G,H 2
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ANS (a) PERT/CPM Network Diagram
b) Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)
Activity Duration ES EF LS LF Slack

(weeks)
A 3 0 3 0 3 0
B 5 0 5 6 11 6
C 4 3 7 3 7 0
D 6 3 9 3 9 0
E 5 7 12 7 12 0
F 3 9 12 9 12 0
G 2 5 7 11 13 6
H 1 12 13 12 13 0
I 2 13 15 13 15 0
c) Critical Paths
Two critical paths exist. They are
A-C-E-H-I & A-D-F-H-I
Project duration : 15 weeks
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FOR
Date: 15.09.2012 Timings: 09:30-12:30 Hrs Duration: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 150

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil
evaporated from wood during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood?
a) 0.78 kg b) 0.22 kg c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg

2. A fuel cell is
a) an electromagnetic cell b) a magnetic cell

c) an electrochemical device d) none of the above
3. A motor with 10 kW rating in its nameplate, will draw input power of____
a) 10 kW at full load b) more than 10 kW at full load

c) less than 10 kW at full load d) 10 kW at 110% of full load
4. A power utility distributed 1 million 15 Watt CFLs for Rs. 15 million, replacing 60 Watt
incandescent lamps under Bachat Lamp Yojna. What will be the drop in power in the evening on
the demand side, if 80% of the CFL lamps are on at that time, assuming similar numbers of
incandescent lamps were switched on during the same period?
a) 360 kW b) 12 MW c) 36 MW d) 60 MW
5. A process requires 10 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80%. The losses then will be
6. Air velocity in the ducts can be measured by using ___________ and manometer
a) orifice meter b) Bourden gauge c) Pitot tube d) anemometer
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7. Assuming total conversion of electrical energy to heat energy, how much heat is produced
by a 200 W heater in 5 minutes?
a) 200 kJ b) 40 kJ c) 1000 kJ d) 60 kJ
8. Consider two competitive projects A and B each entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- .
Project A returns Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at
the end of two years. Which project is superior?
a) project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) project B since it offers higher return before end of two years
d) insufficient information to assess the superiority
9. From rated V, A and PF given in the nameplate of a motor , one can calculate
a) rated input power b) rated output power c) both a & b d) none of these
10. Global warming will not result in
a) melting of the ice caps

b) increasing sea levels
c) increasing the size of the hole in the ozone layer
d) unpredictable climate patterns
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60% ?
a) 5.6 kW b) 2.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW
12. If 3350 kJ of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into water
at 0o C (latent heat of melting of ice is 335 kJ/kg)?
a) 1 kg b) 4.18 kg c) 10 kg d) 29 kg
13. If oxygen rich combustion air (25% vol oxygen) is supplied to a furnace instead of normal
air (21% vol oxygen), the % CO2 in flue gases will
a) reduce b) increase c) remain same d) will become

zero
14. If the asset depreciation is considered, then net operating cash inflow would be
a) higher b) lower c) no effect d) none of

these
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15. In a contract, when all or part of the savings are guaranteed by contractor, and all or part of
the costs of equipment and/or services are paid out of savings as they are achieved, is
termed as
a) traditional contract b) guaranteed saving performance contract

c) shared saving performance contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
16. In project management work breakdown structure defines
a) temporary endeavour undertaken to create unique product or service

b) the activities to be completed in the projects
c) how realistic were the assumptions underlying the project
a) the path where activates have slack b) the shortest path

c) the path where no activities have slack d) none of the above
18. India’s share of world oil reserves is _________
a) 5% b) 2% c) 0.5 % d) 3%
19. Largest share of global primary energy consumption is from which of the following fuels?
a) oil and natural gas b) coal and oil c) oil and nuclear d) coal and
nuclear
20. Material and energy balance is used to quantify
a) material and energy losses b) profit

c) cost of production d) all of the above
21. Nuclear power development in India is constrained by
a) low % of Uranium in the ore b) inadequate supply of Uranium

c) constraints in import of Uranium d) all of the above
22. Of the total natural gas used in India, the largest share goes to__________sector.
a) petrochemicals b) fertilizers c) power d) domestic
23. One certified emission reduction (CER) is equivalent to

a) one kg of carbon b) one kg of carbon dioxide
c) one ton of carbon d) one ton of carbon dioxide
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24. Ratio of average load (kW) to maximum load (kW) is termed as
a) load factor b) demand factor c) form factor d) utilization factor
25. Speed measurement (RPM) of an electric motor is measured with a
a) stroboscope b) ultrasonic meter c) lux meter d) rotameter
26. Steam leak reduction program can be best achieved through
a) Small Group Activities b) Autonomous Maintenance

c) TPM d) all of the above
27. The average gross efficiency of thermal power generation on all India basis is about
a) 30 – 34% b) 36 – 38% c) 39 - 41% d) 25 -

28%
28. The cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.0 lakh. The simple payback period in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual operating cost of Rs. 10,000 is
a) 0.50 b) 1.66 c) 2.00 d) 6.00

29. The empirical relationship used to plot Production Vs Energy consumption is ___________
( where Y= energy consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy
consumption directly related to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=MX+C c) M=CX+Y d) Y= MX-C
30. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of nitrous oxide (N2O) is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 5700
a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 14001 d) none of the

above
32. The main constituent of greenhouse gases (GHG) in atmosphere is
a) CO2 b) SOx c) nitrogen d) water vapor
33. The ozone layer found in the stratosphere
a) protects against the sun’s harmful UV rays

b) can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
c) is toxic to plants
d) is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber on earth
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34. The primary energy content of fuels is generally expressed in terms of ton of oil equivalent
(toe) and is based on the following conversion factor
a) 1 toe=10x106 kCal b) 1 toe=11630 kWh c) 1 toe=41870 MJ d) all the above
35. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called ___________
a) carbon capture and sequestration b) carbon sink

c) carbon capture d) carbon absorption
36. The return on investment (ROI) is expressed as ___________
37. The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
38. What is the future value of Rs. 1000/- after 3 years if the interest rate is 10% ?
a) 1331 b) 3000 c) 3300 d) 2420
39. What percentage of the sun’s energy falling on a silicon solar panel gets converted into
electricity?
a) 25% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%

40. Which is not a part of “ Energy Audit” defined as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001

b) ensuring implementations of recommended measures followed by review
d) verification of energy use
41. Which of the following fuels is non-renewable?
a) LPG b) lignite c) nuclear d) all of the above
42. Which of the following is not the activity related to restructured APDRP?
a) separate feeders for agricultural pumps

b) energy auditing at distribution transformer level
c) GIS mapping of the network and consumers
d) establishing targets for reducing power consumption
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43. Which of the following statements regarding DSM is incorrect?
a) potential areas for DSM thrust activity are agriculture, domestic and municipalities
b) savings accrued through DSM can be treated as new power addition on supply side
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from off-peak to peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during off peak hours
44. Which of the following statements is false regarding wind turbine?
a) wind power does not vary as the cross-sectional area of the rotor
b) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
c) cut-in wind speed is always less than rated wind speed
d) theoretical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind turbine
rotor is about 95%
45. Which of the following statements is false?
a) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices
b) some portion of reactive current is converted into useful work
c) Cosine of the angle between kVA and kW vector is called power factor
d) power factor is unity in a pure resistive circuit
46. Which of the following statements is not true regarding maximum demand control?
a) maximum demand control offers a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks and ‘filling’ the valleys in
the consumer load diagram
b) maximum demand control is carried out by concerned utility at customer premises
c) maximum demand control focuses on critical load for management
d) all of the above
47. Which of the following statements regarding BLY (Bachat Lamp Yojana) are correct?
i. BLY aims at large scale replacement of all fluorescent lamps of poor lumen
intensity with CFL of high lumen intensity
ii. CDM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost
replaced incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
iii. BLY involves public, private partnership and DISCOM partnerships
iv. DSM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost
replaced incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
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i. ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per sq. metre of area taking into
account climatic region where building is located
ii. ECBC does not encourage retrofit of energy conservation measures
iii. ECBC prescribes energy efficiency standards for design and construction of
iv. One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs (construction and
49. Which of the following statements regarding Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is correct?
a) IRR distinguishes between lending and borrowing

b) Internal rate of return is the discount rate at which net present value is equal to zero
c) if the IRR is higher than current interest rate, the investment is not attractive
d) between two alternative projects, the project with lower internal rate of return would be
considered more attractive
50. Which of the following with respect to fossil fuels is true?
a) Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is a constant once established

b) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in production
c) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in reserves
d) R/P ratio varies every year with changes in both production and reserves

S-1 Explain the concept of Bachat Lamp Yojana (BLY)?
ANS BLY aims at the large scale replacement of inefficient incandescent bulbs in
households by Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs).
It seeks to provide CFLs to households at the same price to that of incandescent

bulbs. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is used to recover the cost difference
between the market price of the CFLs and the price at which they are sold to
households.
BLY involves public-private partnership between the Government of India, private

sector CFL suppliers and State level Electricity Distribution Companies (DISCOMs).
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A plant is using 6 ton/day of coal in a boiler to generate steam at 72% boiler

S-2
efficiency. The gross calorific value of coal is 3300 kCal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs.
4200/ton. The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue, as a boiler fuel, which has a
gross calorific value of 3100 kCal /kg and costs Rs. 1800/ton. The boiler efficiency
reduces to 70 %. Calculate the annual cost savings for 300 days of operation with
agro residue as fuel.
ANS
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day
To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of agro residue required

= 14256000
3100 x 0.70
= 6570 kg/day
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6570 x 1800

1000 1000
= 25200-11826
= Rs 13374/-

=Rs 40,12,200/-
Based on local pollution control department norms the maximum limit of dust in the
S-3
gas stream leaving the industry should not exceed one ton per day. A bag filter was
installed to reduce the pollution from the exhaust gas stream. Find out the dust
collected in ton per day if the gas stream to the dust collector was entering at the rate
of 130,000 m3 per hour containing 6 g/m3 and leaving at the rate of 150,000 m3 per
hour, inclusive of ingress of air) containing 260 mg/m3. Also find out whether, the
industry meets the pollution norms if the plant operates for 24 hours a day at same
capacity.
ANS
Amount of Dust in the inlet stream = 130,000 x 6
= 780,000 grams/hour
Amount of Dust in the outlet stream = 150,000 x 0.26 g/hr

= 39,000 grams/hour
Amount of Dust in the Bag Filter = 780,000 - 39,000
= 741,000 grams/hour x 24/106
= 17.78 Tonnes/day
Amount of dust leaving the Industry = 39,000 grams / hour x 24/106
= 0.936 Tonnes / day
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Since it is less than 1 tonne/ day, the industry meets the pollution norms
Briefly explain ‘Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO)’ and means by which this
S-4
requirement can be met ?
ANS RPO is Renewable Purchase Obligation requires each retail seller of electricity to
include in its resource portfolio a certain proportion of power is from renewable
sources such as wind, solar, small hydro or various forms of biomass energy.
The retailer can meet this requirement by owning a renewable energy facility and
producing power or purchasing power from another renewable energy facility.
Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).

S-5
Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
ANS
power introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation (any three)
• It is performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
• It is also a new system of scheduling and despatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day ahead schedule.
• It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a
half hours in advance.
• The order emphasis prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action
Any other relevant points as appropriate may also be given marks
In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 10% w/w

S-6
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 30% solids w/w. Calculate the

ANS
Feed=400kgs
Quantity of water evaporated=[400 – {(100) x 40}] = 266.7

30
In an industry the existing winding of a motor has burnt out. Calculate the annual
S-7
energy savings and simple payback for replacing the burnt out motor with an energy
efficient motor of the same capacity instead of rewinding.
The data given are

• Efficiency after rewinding of burnt out motor - 86%
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• Cost of rewinding - Rs 7500

• Efficiency of energy efficient motor - 94%
• Cost of new energy efficient motor - Rs 50,000
• Operating hours/year - 6900 hours
• % loading of motor - 82%
• Energy cost - Rs 5.2/kWh
• Name plate rating of motor - 22 kW
Energy cost saving (Rs / year)

ANS
=[(kW) x (% loading) x [(1/efficiency of rewound standard motor)
- (1/ Efficiency of energy efficient motor)] x (HRS/annum) x (Rs/kWh)
=22 x 0.82 x 6900 x 5.2 [(100/86) – (100/94)]
=Rs 64055
Simple payback period

= [(50,000-7500)/64055]
=0.663 year (i.e.) 8 months
In the management of financial aspects, state what are micro and macro factors and
S-8
list three factors in each, which influence sensitivity analysis?
ANS
Micro factors are variables related to the project being implemented and can be
influenced
ü Operating expenses (various expenses items)

ü Capital structure
ü Costs of debt, equity
ü Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
ü Changing the project life
Macro factors are variables that affect the operation of industry of which the
company operates and cannot be changed by the company management.
ü Changes in interest rates

ü Changes in the tax rates
ü Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
ü Changes in depreciation rates
ü Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
ü General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
ü Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
ü Energy Price change
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------- End of Section - II ---------
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L-1 A proposed energy efficiency improvement project requires an initial investment of

Rs.5,00,000 and generates cash flow as given below:
Savings in year Cash flow (Rs.)
1 120000
2 115500
3 130000
4 116500
5 117250
6 200000
Calculate IRR of the project by interpolation method by taking initial discount rate as 11%.
ANS a) NPV at 11% = -500000 + 120000/(1+0.11)1 + 115500/(1+0.11)2 +130000/(1+0.11)3 +
116500/(1+0.11)4 +117250/(1+0.11)5 +200000/(1+0.11)6
= 50157.88
NPV at 16% = -500000 + 120000/(1+0.16)1 + 115500/(1+0.16)2 +130000/(1+0.16)3 +

116500/(1+0.16)4 +117250/(1+0.16)5 +200000/(1+0.16)6
= -25176.29
NPV is between 11% and 16%
IRR with Linear Interpolation
IL = 11%
NPVL = 50157.88
IU= 16%
NPVU = -25176.29
IRR = IL + (IU -IL) x NPVL

(NPVL - NPVU)
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= 0.11 + (0.16-0.11) (50157.88) / [(50157.88 – (- 25176.20)]

= 0.11 + (0.05 x 50157.88) / 75334.17
= 0.11 + 2507.894 / 75334.17
= 0.11 + 0.0333
= 0.1433
= 14.33%
L-2 An oil fired reheating furnace heats steel billets from 40oC to 1220oC at a furnace efficiency of
28%. The furnace operates for 4700 hours per annum. The GCV of furnace oil is10,000 kCal
/kg and density is 0.94kg/litre. The cost of furnace oil is Rs.45 /liter. The specific heat of billets
is 0.12 kCcal/kgoC.
a. Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 12 tons of steel billets per hour
b. Calculate liters of furnace oil fired per tons of steel billets.
c. If the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 28% to 30% by adopting ceramic
fibre insulation, calculate the hourly furnace oil cost saving
d. What is the simple payback period if the investment is Rs. 32 lakhs ?
e. How large could be the investment to improve the efficiency at an internal rate of
16% and same savings per year over 6 years.
ANS : a. Amount of energy necessary to heat 12 tons of steel billets

= m x cp x t
= 12000 Kgs x 0.12 x (1220- 40) kCals/hr
= 16,99,200 Kcals/hr
b.. Litres of furnace oil fired per ton of steel billet
= [( 1699200/12)]
= 141600 Kcal/ tonne of billet
Input energy per ton of billet = 141600/0.28
= 505714 kcal/ tonne of billet
Furnace oil required in kg = 505714
10,000
= 50.57 Kg/ tonne of billet
Furnace oil required in litres = 50.57

0.94
= 53.79 litres/ tonne of billet
C. Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton

= 53.79 x [ 1 – (0.28/0.30)] * Rs 45
= Rs 161.37/tonne
Hourly furnace oil cost savings for 12 tons
= Rs 161.37 *12
=Rs 1936/hr
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D. Simple payback period @ 4700 hrs of operation

=32,00,000/1936*4700
= 0.352 yrs or 4.2 months
E. Net cash inflow per annum= 1936*4700

= Rs 91.0 lakhs
Investment = 91.0 [ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ]
1.16 (1.16)2 ( 1.16)3 (1.16)4 (1.16)5 (1.16)6
= 91.0 [0.862+ 0.743+0.641+0.552+0.476+0.410]
= Rs. 3.35 crores
L-3 a. Construct a PERT/CPM network diagram for a project for which the data is given below
b. Compute the earliest start, earliest finish, latest start, latest finish and slack for all the
activities
c. Also compute the project duration, identify critical activities and the critical path(s)
Activity Predecessor Time in

weeks
A - 3
B - 5
C A 4
D A 6
E C 5
F D 3
G B 9
H E,F 1
I G,H 2
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ANS (a) PERT/CPM Network Diagram
b) Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)
Activity Duration ES EF LS LF Slack

(weeks)
A 3 0 3 0 3 0
B 5 0 5 -1 4 1
C 4 3 7 3 7 0
D 6 3 9 3 9 0
E 5 7 12 7 12 0
F 3 9 12 9 12 0
G 9 5 14 4 13 1
H 1 12 13 12 13 0
I 2 13 15 13 15 0
c) Critical Paths
The critical path is B-G-I
Project duration : 16 weeks
L-4 a. Explain in brief the process of gasification of biomass.
b. Find out the conversion efficiency of a gasifier, if 20 kg of wood (having a calorific

value of 3200 kCal / kg) produces 40 m3 of producer gas having an average calorific
value of 1000 kCal / Nm3.
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a) Gasification of Biomass
ANS
Biomass contains Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen molecules. Complete combustion of
Biomass would produce Carbon Dioxide and water vapour, whereas combustion under
controlled conditions ie partial combustion produces Carbon Monoxide and Hydrogen, which
are combustible gases. The biogas produced through gasification is called as Producer Gas.
Gasification is a partial oxidation of biomass and takes place at temperature of about 1000oC.
Partial oxidation is facilitated by supplying air less than the stoichiometric requirements. The
products of combustion are gases like Carbon Monoxide, Hydrogen and traces of Methane
and non- useful products like tar & dust. The production of these gases is by reaction of water
vapour and Carbon Dioxide through a glowing layer of charcoal.
A gasification system consists of 4 main steps:
§ Feeding of Feedstock
§ Gasifier reactions where gasification takes place.
§ Cleaning of resultant gas
§ Utilization of cleaned gas
Biomass Gasifier is a thermo-chemical convertor / reactor where various physical and

chemical reactions take place. Biomass is passed through following zones before being
converted to high quality producer gas:
• Drying Zone
• Distillation Zone
• Pyrolysis zone
• Combustion Zone
• Reduction Zone
The following reactions take place:
C + O2 = CO2
H2 + ½ O2 = H2O
2C + O2 = 2CO
C + H2O = CO + H2
CO2 + H2 = CO + H2O
C +2 H2 = CH4
The Producer gas has relatively a low calorific value ranging from 1000 to 1200 kCal/Nm3. The
conversion efficiency of Gasifier is in the range of 60 – 70%. It can be used for combustion in
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a reciprocating engine.
b) Heat Input in the Gasifier = 20 x 3200

= 64000 kCal
Heat Output as Producer gas = 40 x 1000

= 40000 kCal
Conversion efficiency of Gasifier = Heat Output / Heat Input

= 40000 x 100 / 64000
= 62.5 % Ans
L-5 The Energy- production data (for Jan-June, 2011) of an industry follows a relationship :
Calculated energy consumption = 0.5 P +220.
A Waste heat recovery system was installed at end of June 2011 and further data was
gathered up to December 2011.
Using CUSUM technique, calculate energy savings in terms of ton of oil equivalent (toe) and
the reduction in specific energy consumption achieved with the installation of waste heat
recovery system.
Actual Energy Actual production,

2011-Month Consumption, toe/month ton/month
Jan 620 760
Feb 690 960
Mar 635 790
Apr 628 830
May 545 610
Jun 540 670
July 590 760
Aug 605 820
Sep 670 940
Oct 582 750
Nov 510 610
Dec 538 670
ANS
The table below gives values of actual energy consumption Vs. calculated (predicted)
energy consumption from July –Dec. 2011.
Specific energy consumption monitored Vs predicted for each month. The variations are
calculated and the Cumulative sum of differences is calculated from Jan-June-2011.
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2011-
Mont Ecal
h Eact. 0.5P+220 Eact - Ecal CUSUM
July 590 600 -10 -10
Aug 605 630 -25 -35
Sept 670 690 -20 -55
Oct. 582 595 -13 -68
Nov. 510 525 -15 -83
Dec. 538 555 -17 -100
Energy savings achieved = 100 toe
Reduction in specific energy consumption = 100/4550 = 0.022 toe/tonne of production

(Production for 6 months = 760+820+940+750+610+670 = 4550 tonnes)

a. BEE’s Standards and Labeling programme for equipment and appliances
b. Role of ESCOs
c. Evacuated tube collector for solar energy applications
ANS a. Standards & Labeling
Standards and Labeling would ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliances
would be made available to consumers.
Main provisions of S&L are:
• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for notified equipment
and appliances
• Prevent manufacture, sale and import of equipment which do not meet the standards
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment and appliances to enable
consumers to make informed choices
• Spread information on benefits to consumers
For establishing standards, agreed testing procedures are defined and values of energy
performance are measured.
Energy labels are the best way to implement the standards. They are information affixed to
manufactured products to describe the product’s energy performance usually in form of
energy use or efficiency. These give data to consumers to make informed purchases.
b. Role of ESCOs
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Conduct of Investment grade energy audit

Arranging finance
Purchase, installation and maintenance of installed energy efficient equipment
Operation & Maintenance training
Monitoring of operations and energy savings
c. Evacuated Tube Collector

Evacuated tube collector comprises of two concentric glass tubes fused in the ends. The air is
evacuated from the gap between the tubes. The evacuated double-walled glass tube provides
thermal insulation similar to that of thermally insulated "Thermos" bottle. The outer glass tube
is clear, and the surface of the inner glass tube is coated with a special heat material that
absorbs the sun's energy.
Sun rays penetrate the outer clear glass and heat energy is absorbed by the inner coated
glass. The vacuum permits the heat radiation to enter the outer tube. The absorbent coating
on the inner tube converts short wave radiation to long wave radiation thus preventing re-
radiation to atmosphere. Since conduction cannot take place in vacuum, heat loss due to
conduction back to atmosphere is also prevented. Because of this principle, more heat is
trapped compared to a flat plate collector. The heat loss in Evacuated tube collector is less
than 10% compared with 40% for a flat plate collector. Water flows in through a third,
innermost concentric feeder tube and hot water flows out in the annulus outside the feeder
tube in contact with the absorber tube surface. This type of solar collector can reach high
temperatures upto 150°C.
19
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Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________
11th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – February, 2011

FOR
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management and Energy Audit
(i) Answer all 50 questions.

(ii) Each question carries one mark.
pencil, as per instructions.
1. The Government of India levies Clean Energy Cess on which of the following
a) electricity b) coal c) Diesel d) biodiesel


4000 kCal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
4. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 deg. C
is known as:


_______________________

7. A solution of common salt in water is prepared by adding 20 kg of salt to 80 kg of water.
The concentration of salt as w/w fraction is:
a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.8 d) 0.6

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply
voltage is reduced to 220 V.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
10. The proposed ISO standard for Energy Management System is:

11. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the project manager must consider:

12. Which of the following is not true of natural gas?
a) it is denser than air b) contains mainly methane c) can be transported

through pipelines d) compressed natural gas can be used in IC engines
13. Which of the following is not a part of the definition of energy audit as per the Energy
Conservation Act 2001?
a) verification of energy use b) implementation of energy saving measures

c) submission of technical report d) monitoring of energy use
14. Availability Based Tariff (ABT) is applicable to pricing of :
a) oil b) coal c) natural gas d) electricity

15. Which among the following is not a typical performance contract?
a) fixed fee b) liquidation for damage c) shared savings d) guaranteed savings

16. An activity in a project has an optimistic time of 10 days, a most likely time of 15 days and
a pessimistic time of 20 days. Its expected time of completion is-------
a) 10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 35 days.

17. Network diagrams show logic clearly but does not have -------- like Gantt chart.
a) nodes b) arrows c) time scale d) events

18. A chart in Scatter Diagram shows a low degree of scatter. It is indicative of------
a) good fit b) poor fit c) skewed fit d) normal fit

19. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production - 1200
pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy consumption - 950
kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month is -------
_______________________

20. A single CFC molecule can destroy about ------------ ozone molecules.
a) 10,000 b) 100,000 c) 1 million d) 10 million

a) CO2 b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)

22. Which of the following is not a commercial
2 form of energy
4
a) Oil b) Lignite c) Electricity d) Solar energy
23. Which of the following is the least
2 predominant loss in oil fired boiler?
5
a) dry flue gas losses b) heat loss due to moisture in air
c) heat loss due to hydrogen in fuel d) none of the above
24. The component of electric power
2 which yields useful mechanical power output is known as
6
25. Identify the wrong statement 2
7
b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption
26. If a feed of 100 tonnes per hour2at 9% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product
obtained at 36% concentration is8 equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 27 b) 25 c) 36 d) 45
27. The annual energy consumption
2 of a plant was 2.00 Lakh GJ in the reference year
2008/2009. In the next year 9 2009/2010, it was 2.20 Lakh GJ. The plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity is ____
a) 10% b) - 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above

28. In force field analysis of energy 3action planning, one of the actions below does not fall
under positive force? 0
a) high price of energy b) availability of energy efficient technology

c) commitment of top management d) lack of awareness
29. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted 3
to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency drops
from 82% to 70%. What will1 be the percentage change in energy consumption to
generate the same output

30. Doppler effect principle is used 3
in which of the following instrument
3
31. ROI must always be ________ 3borrowing interest rate for economic feasibility of any
project 4
_______________________
a) lower than b) higher than

c) equal to d) no relation
32. The reagent used to absorb CO32 in a fyrite is
5
a) chromous chloride b) potassium hydroxide
c) potassium permanganate d) pyrogallol
33. The Critical Path in PERT indicates
3 _____.
6
c) maximum time required for the completion of the project
34. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001
3 requires that all the notified designated consumers to
get mandatory energy audits conducted
7 by
a) a certified energy manager b) an accredited energy auditor

c) a certified energy auditor d) a state designated agency
35. A three phase induction motor is3 drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.90 and the
8 motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
36. As per Energy Conservation Act,
3 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manager is
mandatory for all 9
a) industrial units b) commercial buildings

c) notified designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
37. Which among the following raw 4materials is used for bio-diesel production
0
a) leaves b) coal c) light Diesel oil (LDO) d) jatropha seeds
38. Input to Fuel Cell is 4
2
a) bio-gas b) hydrogen c) oil –gas mix d) oxygen
39. Wind speed for commercial exploitation
4 for electricity production has to be :
3
a) Up to 15 km/hr b) 15- 18 km/hr c) 25-30 km/hr d) no limit , whatsoever
40. Which of the following is not a national
4 mission under the Prime Minister’s National Action
Plan on Climate Change 5
a) national solar mission b) national mission for enhanced energy efficiency

c) national mission on CFC alternatives d) national mission for green India
41. Which among the following 4renewable energy routes accounts for the maximum
contribution to power generation7 in India
a) wind b) geothermal c) solar thermal d) solar PV

42. Producer gas is basically : 4
8
a) Only CH4 b) CO and CH4 c) CO, H2 and CH4 d) only CO and H2
43. Which4 of the following is a renewable energy source?
_______________________
9
a) bitumen b) wood c) nuclear fuels d) lignite
44. What is the load factor of a continuously operating facility that consumed 400,000 kWh of
energy during a 30-day billing period and established a peak demand of 1000 kW?
a) 0.55 b) 0.40 c) 0.65 d) 0.50

45. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of sulfur hexafluoride is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 22,000
46. The amount of solar energy that strikes a square meter of the earth’s surface in a single
day is called
a) solar window b) solar constant c) solar insolation d) solar radiation

a) solar energy insolation b) inverter c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power
output
48. The exhaust from a fuel cell would contain
a) Hydrogen b) Water vapour c) CO2 d) Oxygen

49. The management tool that focuses on optimizing the effectiveness of manufacturing
equipment is
a) 5S b) TQM c) TPM d) Kaizen

50. The following industry/establishment is not covered in the notified list of nine designated
consumers under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
a) chlor alkali b) fertilizer c) paper and pulp d) hydel power station
_______________________

FOR
o All questions are compulsory

S-1 Give a short description about primary and secondary energy with example.
Ans:
Primary energy refers to all types of energy extracted or captured directly from
natural resources.
Primary energy is further divided into two distinctive groups:
i) Renewable (solar energy, wind energy, geothermal, tidal, biomass)

ii) Non-renewable (coal, oil, natural gas and uranium)
Primary energy is transformed in energy conversion process to more convenient

forms of energy such as electricity, steam etc. These forms of energy are called
secondary energy.
S-2 Explain what is meant by Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO).
Ans:
Electricity Act 2003 has made a significant regulatory impact on the use of
renewable energy by RPO.
By this, each retail seller of electricity is obligated to include in their resource

portfolio a certain proportion of power from renewable energy sources, such as
wind, solar, small hydro, bio mass etc. The retailer can meet this obligation either
by owning a renewable energy facility or purchasing renewable energy from
someone’s facility.
_______________________
S-3 An Energy Manager in a factory has gathered following data to arrive at the Plant
Energy Performance.
Reference Year (2009) energy use : 12 million kCal

Production Factor (PF) for the current year (2010) : 0.9
Current year’s energy : 11 million kCal
What is the Plant energy Performance (PEP) of the factory for the year 2010?
State your inference.
Ans:
Reference year equivalent energy = Reference year energy use * P.F

= 12 * 0.9 = 10.8 MkCal
Plant Energy Performance = (Reference year equivalent – current year’s

energy)*100
----------------------------------------------------------
Reference Year equivalent
= (10.8 – 11) / 10.8

= - 1.85 %
Inference: Plant energy performance is marginally negative. Energy

manager/plant manger has to take action to improve the performance.
S-4 An energy saving proposal involves an investment of Rs. 25 lakhs in an industry

and is expected to yield an average annual net saving of Rs. 5 lakhs/annum. The
cost of borrowing of the investment is 14%. Compute the return on investment for
this proposal and state with reason whether the investment is justified
Also, state the limitations of ROI.
Ans:
The Return On Investment (ROI) = 5/25 *100 = 20%
The cost of borrowing = 14%
Since ROI is higher than interest rate, the proposal is justified.
Limitations of ROI:
1) ROI does not take into account for the time value of the money over the period
of cash flow.
_______________________
2) It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flows. The 20%
return indicated would be economically valid only if the return is occurring in
perpetuity .
S-5 Estimate the expected power output for the following 150 kW rated wind turbine:
Wind turbine blade diameter : 20 m

Average wind speed : 15 m/s
Generator efficiency : 95%
Gear box efficiency : 90%
Assume: air density : 1.2 kg/m3

Coefficient of performance of the blade : 0.3
Ans:
Expected power output (P) = ½ * density * A* Cp* Egr * Egb * V^3 Watts
P = 0.5 *1.2 * 3.14/4 * 202 *0.3*0.95*0.90 * 153

= 163095 Watts
= 163 kW.
S-6 What is the need for standards and labeling programme for energy consuming
equipment and appliances? Write a short note on star rating programme of BEE
for energy consuming equipment and appliances
Ans:
There is a wide variation in energy consumption of similar products by various

manufacturers. Also information on energy consumption is often not easily
available. This leads to continued manufacture and purchase of inefficient
equipment and appliances. Hence the need for standards and labeling.
Star Ratings: Star rating is a system initiated by BEE to determine energy

efficiency of an appliance like air conditioner. Depending upon their energy
efficiency, they are rated on a scale of 1-5 stars. Star ratings starts from one star
(which is the least energy efficient and hence the least money saved) to 5 stars
(which is the most energy efficient). Star ratings are affixed on appliances after
testing in BEE accredited laboratories. A manufacturer has to register with BEE
to get the star ratings, and get their products tested in laboratories. Label
indicates the energy efficiency levels through the number of stars highlighted in
colour on the label. It is being applied to many products such as refrigerators,
TVs, ACs and so on.
_______________________
S-7 List five measures for achieving energy security of a country
Ans:
Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future energy requirements include:
o Reducing energy requirements
- Improving the efficiency of extraction of fossil fuels
- Improving fuel efficiency of new coal-fired power plants by adopting new
technology (i.e. super critical pulverized fuel fired boilers)
- Adopting energy efficiency and demand side management
- Promotion of public transport / mass transport (e.g. metro rail, light rail,
monorail etc.) in urban areas
- Developing renewable energy sources especially solar and wind
o Substituting imported oil/gas with domestic alternatives

- Ethanol / Biodiesel as substitute for petrol / diesel
- Biomass gasification for heat or power as alternative to gas / coal
- Coal-to-oil technology as done in South Africa
o Diversifying energy supply sources

- Mix of fuel comprising of coal, gas, nuclear, hydro and renewables with no
dependence on any particular fuel
- Sourcing oil / LNG from different countries
- Importing gas through pipelines passing through countries who also benefit
o Expanding energy resource and developing alternative energy sources

- Improved Oil Recovery (IOR) and Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR) for
improving exploitation of reserves
- Recovery of oil and gas from abandoned or marginal fields
- In-situ coal gasification
- Capturing Coal Bed Methane (CBM) which escapes from coal seams during
mining
- Conversion of coal to oil
- Gas to Liquid (GTL)
- Stepping up exploration to find new reserves (only one-third of oil bearing
area explored so far)
- Equity oil, gas, coal from other countries
- Setting up energy intensive units (i.e. fertilizer plants) abroad
- New domestic sources (nuclear –fast breeder reactor, thorium reactors, gas
hydrates etc.)
- Promoting Community Biogas Plants
- Energy plantations
S-8 What are the qualifications required for an accredited energy auditor under the
Bureau of Energy Efficiency Regulations (Qualifications for Accredited Energy
Auditors and Maintenance of their list), Regulations 2010 notified under EC Act,
2001?
Ans:
_______________________
An Energy auditor shall be qualified to become an accredited energy auditor if he

/ she-
(a) is a certified energy manager and has passed the examination in “Energy
Performance for Equipment and Utility Systems” conducted by Bureau
(b) has an experience of five years in energy audit out of which atleast three
years shall be in any of energy intensive industries
(c) has been granted a certificate of accreditation by the Bureau of Energy

Efficiency.
Accreditation Advisory Committee constituted by BEE for the purpose of grant of

certificate of accreditation shall assess the energy audit experience and
competence of energy auditor who has applied for certification of accreditation on
the basis of an oral interview.
……. End of Section – II …….

L-1 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently
operating at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying,
the Energy Manager measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet
of the paper drying machine, and are found to be 60% and 95% respectively.
The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm2 , having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The
evaporated moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640
kCal/kg.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated/hr.

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hour.
Ans:
i) Estimation of moisture quantity to be evaporated/hr:
Production rate = 480/24 = 20 TPH

Inlet dryness to the paper machine : 60%
Outlet dryness from the machine : 95%
Paper weight in the final product = 20* 0.95 = 19 TPH
Weight of moisture after dryer = 1 TPH
Weight of moisture before dryer
_______________________
= (19/ 0.60) -19
= 12.66 TPH
Evaporated moisture quantity = 12.66-1= 11.66 TPH
ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation/Hour
Evaporated moisture temperature = 100 deg C

Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 640 kCal/.kg
Total Heat available in evaporated moisture (sensible &latent)

= 640 * 11,660
= 7.46 MkCal/h
3.5 kg/cm2 steam requirement = heat in the evaporated moisture

--------------------------------------
Latent heat of steam (3.5 kg/cm2)
= 7,462,400 / 513
= 14.546 TPH
L-2 Explain briefly any two of the following
a) 5S
b) Kaizen
c) TPM
d) TQM
Ans:
a)
5S: ‘5S’ is acronym formed by the first letters ‘S’ of five Japanese words,
meaning, respectively, Housekeeping, workplace organization, clean up, maintain
cleanliness and discipline. Implementing 5S method in the work place would help
reduce wastes, improve the levels of quality and safety, reduce the lead time and
cost and thus helps to increase the profitability of the organization.
b) Kaizen: ‘Kaizen‘is a practice developed by Japanese for increasing the

productivity of a manufacturing plant. KAIZEN means Change (KAI) for Good
(ZEN)
This technique relies on the axiom that there is always scope for improvement
involving everyone in the plant right from the Plant Managers down to shop floor
workmen. It emphasizes improvement on working standard through small and
gradual improvement.
c) TPM:
_______________________
Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) is the method that focuses
on optimizing the effectiveness of manufacturing equipment. TPM builds upon
established best practices and focuses on team -based maintenance that
involves employees at every level and function. TPM addresses the entire
production system lifecycle and builds a concrete , shop floor-based system to
prevent all losses, to eliminate all accidents, defects and breakdowns.
d) TQM
Total Quality Management (TQM) is a process for managing quality. It is

associated with the maxim- “ doing the right things right, the first time”. Better
management of quality complements an Energy Management Program.
TQM involves all people in the organization right from top executive down to
bottom level workers. TQM stresses on “Document what you do; then do what
you have documented”. TQM requires that Mission and vision statements be
written and displayed everywhere to serve as guiding rules for all employees. As
per TQM, long-term needs, rather than short-term must be given more emphasis
to derive major benefits.
L-3 In a fertilizer plant, the off-site boiler was revamped to improve the efficiency by
spending Rs. 200 lakhs. The discount rate for the company is 15%. The
projected cost of saving of fuel was Rs. 40 lakhs/ year. Find out the NPV at the
end of 10 years of the operation of the boiler. State your opinion about the
usefulness of this investment.
Ans:
NPV = - CFo/ (1+k)^0 + CF1/ (1+k)^1 +-------------+ CF10/ (1+k)^10
Where, CF0 = cash out flow at the beginning

CF1—CF10 = cash flow (inward) at the end of each year specified
K = discount rate
For the given project,
CF0 = Rs. 200 lakhs

Yearly cash inflow= Rs.40 lakhs
Discount rate = 15%
NPV= - 200 + 40 [ 1/ (1+0.15)^1 + ---------------------+ 1/ (1+0.15)^10 ]
-200 + 40 [ 0.869+0.756+0.657+0.0.571 +0.497+0.432+0.376+

0.326+ 0.284+0.247]
-200 + 40* 5.015

-200+ 200.6
0.6 lakh
_______________________
Opinion: As the NPV is positive, the project is found to be a viable one. As the
fuel price is found to be on increasing trend, the project proves to be even more
viable in its course.
L-4 In a food processing plant the monthly production related (variable) energy
consumption was 1.8 times the production and non-production related (fixed)
energy consumption was 15,000 kWh per month up to May 2010. In the month of
June 2010 a series of energy conservation measures were implemented. Use
CUMSUM technique to develop a table and calculate energy savings for the
subsequent 6 months period from the data given below
Actual Energy
Month Production (kg)
Consumption (kWh)
Jul’ 10 62000 113600
Aug’ 10 71000 139000
Sep’ 10 75000 158000
Oct’ 10 59000 119300
Nov’ 10 62000 123700
Dec’ 10 73000 143600
Ans:
Predicted
Actual energy
Month Production energy
consumption
Consumption
Jul 62000 126600 113600 -13000

Aug 71000 142800 139000 -3800
Sep 75000 150000 158000 8000
Oct 59000 121200 119300 -1900
Nov 62000 126600 123700 -2900
Dec 73000 146400 143600 -2800
-16400
Savings for six month period = 16,400 kWh
L-5 Construct a PERT Diagram for the following project and find out the critical path.
Duration
Activity Precedent
in weeks
A 7 Start
B 3 A
C 1 B
D 8 A
_______________________
E 2 D,C
F 1 D,C
G 1 D,C
H 3 F
I 2 H
J 1 E,G,I
i) Draw the PERT network,

ii) What is the critical path?
iii) What is the total duration required to complete the project?
iv) What is the available slack in each of the activity?
Ans:
i) PERT network
ii) The critical path is A-D-F-H-I-J.
iii) The project duration is 22 weeks.
iv)
Float or
Earliest Earliest Latest Latest Slack
Expected
Activity Start Finish Start Finish LS-ES
Time
ES EF LS LF or
LF-EF
A 7 0 7 0 7 0
B 3 7 10 11 14 4
C 1 10 11 14 15 4
D 8 7 15 7 15 0
E 2 15 17 19 21 4
F 1 15 16 15 16 0
G 1 15 16 20 21 1
H 3 16 19 16 19 0
I 2 19 21 19 21 0
J 1 21 22 21 22 0
_______________________
a) Biomethanation of biomass
b) Fuel cells
c) Geothermal energy
Ans:
a) Biomass can also be converted into bio-methane gas which is composed mainly
of methane and carbon dioxide. The process is based on biological digestion /
anaerobic digestion (biomethanation) of biomass. This is the only process giving
additional advantage of high grade manure as the by-product. The raw materials
for biomethanation process include manure, sewage sludge, municipal solid
waste, fruit and vegetable waste, food waste, distillery wastes and other
biodegradable wastes. Bio-methane can completely replace natural gas for
applications using natural gas such as boilers, furnaces, IC engines etc.
b) Input to a Fuel Cell is hydrogen. Hydrogen combines with oxygen to produce

electricity through an electrochemical process with water and heat as by-
products.
A Fuel Cell consists of two catalyst coated electrodes surrounding an electrolyte.

One electrode is an anode and the other is a cathode. The process begins when
hydrogen molecules enter the anode. The catalyst coating separates hydrogen’s
negatively charged electrons from the positively charged protons. The electrolyte
allows the protons to pass through to the cathode, but not the electrons. Instead
the electrons are directed through an external circuit which creates electrical
current. While the electrons pass through the external circuit, oxygen molecules
pass through the cathode. The oxygen and the protons combine with the
electrons after they have passed through the external circuit producing water and
heat.
c) For every 100 meters you go below ground, the temperature of the rock
increases about 3oC. So, at a depth of about 3000 metres below ground, the
temperature of the rock would be hot enough to boil water. Deep under the
surface, water sometimes makes its way close to the hot rock and turns into
boiling hot water or into steam. The hot water can reach temperatures of more
than 148oC. When this hot water comes up through a crack in the earth, it is
known as hot spring.
Some of the areas have so much steam and hot water that it can be used to
generate electricity. Holes are drilled into the ground and pipes lowered into the
hot water. The hot steam or water comes up through these pipes from below
ground. A geothermal power plant is like in a regular power plant except that no
fuel is burned to heat water into steam.
_______________________
……. End of Section – III …….
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set B Key
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________

FOR
(i) Answer all 50 questions.

(ii) Each question carries one mark.
pencil, as per instructions.
1. Wind speed for commercial exploitation

4 for electricity production has to be :
3
a) Up to 15 km/hr b) 15- 18 km/hr c) 25-30 km/hr d) no limit , whatsoever

3. Which of the following is the least
2 predominant loss in oil fired boiler?
5
a) dry flue gas losses b) heat loss due to moisture in air
c) heat loss due to hydrogen in fuel d) none of the above
4. Which of the following is not true of natural gas?
a) it is denser than air b) contains mainly methane

c) can be transported through pipelines d) compressed natural gas can be used in IC engines
5. Which of the following is not a part of the definition of energy audit as per the Energy
Conservation Act 2001?
a) verification of energy use b) implementation of energy saving measures
_______________________
c) submission of technical report d) monitoring of energy use
6. Which of the following is not a national
4 mission under the Prime Minister’s National Action Plan
on Climate Change 5
a) national solar mission b) national mission for enhanced energy efficiency

c) national mission on CFC alternatives d) national mission for green India
7. Which of the following is not a commercial
2 form of energy
4
a) Oil b) Lignite c) Electricity d) Solar energy
8. Which4 of the following is a renewable energy source?
9
a) bitumen b) wood c) nuclear fuels d) lignite
a) CO2 b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)

10. Which among the following renewable
4 energy routes accounts for the maximum contribution to
power generation in India 7
a) wind b) geothermal c) solar thermal d) solar PV

11. Which among the following raw 4materials is used for bio-diesel production
0
a) leaves b) coal c) light diesel oil (LDO) d) jatropha seeds
12. Which among the following is not a typical performance contract?
a) fixed fee b) liquidation for damage c) shared savings d) guaranteed savings

13. What is the load factor of a continuously operating facility that consumed 400,000 kWh of energy
during a 30-day billing period and established a peak demand of 1000 kW?
a) 0.55 b) 0.40 c) 0.65 d) 0.50

14. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the project manager must consider:

15. The reagent used to absorb CO32 in a fyrite is
5
a) chromous chloride b) potassium hydroxide
c) potassium permanganate d) pyrogallol
16. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 deg. C is
known as:

17. The proposed ISO standard for Energy Management System is:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
19. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of 4000
kCal/kg is
_______________________
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
20. The management tool that focuses on optimizing the effectiveness of manufacturing equipment is
a) 5S b) TQM c) TPM d) Kaizen

21. The Government of India levies Clean Energy Cess on which of the following
a) electricity b) coal c) Diesel d) biodiesel

22. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of sulfur hexafluoride is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 22,000
23. The following industry/establishment is not covered in the notified list of nine designated
consumers under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
a) chlor alkali b) fertilizer c) paper and pulp d) hydel power station

24. The exhaust from a fuel cell would contain
a) Hydrogen b) Water vapour c) CO2 d) Oxygen

a) solar energy insolation b) inverter c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power output
26. The Energy Conservation Act, 32001 requires that all the notified designated consumers to get
mandatory energy audits conducted
7 by
a) a certified energy manager b) an accredited energy auditor

c) a certified energy auditor d) a state designated agency
27. The Critical Path in PERT indicates
3 _____.
6
c) maximum time required for the completion of the project
28. The component of electric power
2 which yields useful mechanical power output is known as
6
29. The annual energy consumption2 of a plant was 2.00 Lakh GJ in the reference year 2008/2009. In
the next year 2009/2010, it was9 2.20 Lakh GJ. The plant energy performance (PEP), assuming
no change in product mix and output quantity is ____
a) 10% b) - 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above

30. The amount of solar energy that strikes a square meter of the earth’s surface in a single day is
called
a) solar window b) solar constant c) solar insolation d) solar radiation

31. ROI must always be ________ 3
borrowing interest rate for economic feasibility of any project
4
a) lower than b) higher than
c) equal to d) no relation
_______________________
32. Producer gas is basically : 4
8
a) Only CH4 b) CO and CH4 c) CO, H2 and CH4 d) only CO and H2
33. Network diagrams show logic clearly but does not have -------- like Gantt chart.
a) nodes b) arrows c) time scale d) events

34. Input to Fuel Cell is 4
2
a) bio-gas b) hydrogen c) oil –gas mix d) oxygen
35. In force field analysis of energy 3action planning, one of the actions below does not fall under
positive force? 0
a) high price of energy b) availability of energy efficient technology

c) commitment of top management d) lack of awareness
36. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production - 1200
pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy consumption - 950
kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month is -------

37. If a feed of 100 tonnes per hour2at 9% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product obtained
at 36% concentration is equal to8 ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 27 b) 25 c) 36 d) 45
38. Identify the wrong statement 2
7
b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption
39. Doppler effect principle is used 3
in which of the following instrument
3
40. Availability Based Tariff (ABT) is applicable to pricing of :
a) oil b) coal c) natural gas d) electricity

41. As per Energy Conservation Act,
3 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manager is
mandatory for all 9
a) industrial units b) commercial buildings

c) notified designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
42. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to3fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency drops from 82%
to 70%. What will be the percentage 1 change in energy consumption to generate the same output


44. An activity in a project has an optimistic time of 10 days, a most likely time of 15 days and a
pessimistic time of 20 days. Its expected time of completion is-------
_______________________
a) 10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 35 days.

45. A three phase induction motor is3 drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power factor of
the motor is 0.90 and the motor8efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft power output of the
motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
46. A solution of common salt in water is prepared by adding 20 kg of salt to 80 kg of water. The
concentration of salt as w/w fraction is:
a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.8 d) 0.6


48. A single CFC molecule can destroy about ------------ ozone molecules.
a) 10,000 b) 100,000 c) 1 million d) 10 million

49. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while operating at
440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply voltage is reduced to
220 V.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
50. A chart in Scatter Diagram shows a low degree of scatter. It is indicative of------
a) good fit b) poor fit c) skewed fit d) normal fit
_______________________

FOR
o All questions in are compulsory

S-1 What are the qualifications required for an accredited energy auditor under the
Bureau of Energy Efficiency Regulations (Qualifications for Accredited Energy
Auditors and Maintenance of their list), Regulations 2010 notified under EC Act,
2001?
Ans:
An Energy auditor shall be qualified to become an accredited energy auditor if he /

she-
(a) is a certified energy manager and has passed the examination in “Energy
Performance for Equipment and Utility Systems” conducted by Bureau
(b) has an experience of five years in energy audit out of which atleast three years
shall be in any of energy intensive industries
(c) has been granted a certificate of accreditation by the Bureau of Energy

Efficiency.
Accreditation Advisory Committee constituted by BEE for the purpose of grant of

certificate of accreditation shall assess the energy audit experience and competence
of energy auditor who has applied for certification of accreditation on the basis of an
oral interview.
S-2 List five measures for achieving energy security of a country
Ans:
_______________________
Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future energy requirements include:
o Reducing energy requirements
- Improving the efficiency of extraction of fossil fuels
- Improving fuel efficiency of new coal-fired power plants by adopting new
technology (i.e. super critical pulverized fuel fired boilers)
- Adopting energy efficiency and demand side management
- Promotion of public transport / mass transport (e.g. metro rail, light rail, monorail
etc.) in urban areas
- Developing renewable energy sources especially solar and wind
o Substituting imported oil/gas with domestic alternatives

- Ethanol / Biodiesel as substitute for petrol / diesel
- Biomass gasification for heat or power as alternative to gas / coal
- Coal-to-oil technology as done in South Africa
o Diversifying energy supply sources

- Mix of fuel comprising of coal, gas, nuclear, hydro and renewables with no
dependence on any particular fuel
- Sourcing oil / LNG from different countries
- Importing gas through pipelines passing through countries who also benefit
o Expanding energy resource and developing alternative energy sources

- Improved Oil Recovery (IOR) and Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR) for improving
exploitation of reserves
- Recovery of oil and gas from abandoned or marginal fields
- In-situ coal gasification
- Capturing Coal Bed Methane (CBM) which escapes from coal seams during
mining
- Conversion of coal to oil
- Gas to Liquid (GTL)
- Stepping up exploration to find new reserves (only one-third of oil bearing area
explored so far)
- Equity oil, gas, coal from other countries
- Setting up energy intensive units (i.e. fertilizer plants) abroad
- New domestic sources (nuclear –fast breeder reactor, thorium reactors, gas
hydrates etc.)
- Promoting Community Biogas Plants
- Energy plantations
S-3 What is the need for standards and labeling programme for energy consuming
equipment and appliances? Write a short note on star rating programme of BEE for
energy consuming equipment and appliances
Ans:
There is a wide variation in energy consumption of similar products by various

manufacturers. Also information on energy consumption is often not easily available.
This leads to continued manufacture and purchase of inefficient equipment and
appliances. Hence the need for standards and labeling.
_______________________
Star Ratings: Star rating is a system initiated by BEE to determine energy efficiency
of an appliance like air conditioner. Depending upon their energy efficiency, they are
rated on a scale of 1-5 stars. Star ratings starts from one star (which is the least
energy efficient and hence the least money saved) to 5 stars (which is the most
energy efficient). Star ratings are affixed on appliances after testing in BEE
accredited laboratories. A manufacturer has to register with BEE to get the star
ratings, and get their products tested in laboratories. Label indicates the energy
efficiency levels through the number of stars highlighted in colour on the label. It is
being applied to many products such as refrigerators, TVs, ACs and so on.
S-4 Estimate the expected power output for the following 150 kW rated wind turbine:
Wind turbine blade diameter : 20 m

Average wind speed : 15 m/s
Generator efficiency : 95%
Gear box efficiency : 90%
Assume: air density : 1.15 kg/m3

Coefficient of performance of the blade : 0.3
Ans:
Expected power output (P) = ½ * density * A* Cp* Egr * Egb * V^3 Watts
P = 0.5 *1.15 * 3.14/4 * 202 *0.3*0.95*0.90 * 153

= 156208 Watts
= 156.2 kW.
S-5 An energy saving proposal involves an investment of Rs. 20 lakhs in an industry and
is expected to yield an average annual net saving of Rs. 5 lakhs/annum. The cost of
borrowing of the investment is 14%. Compute the return on investment for this
proposal and state with reason whether the investment is justified
Also, state the limitations of ROI.
Ans:
The Return On Investment (ROI) = 5/20 *100 = 25%
The cost of borrowing = 14%
Since ROI is higher than interest rate, the proposal is justified.
Limitations of ROI:
1) ROI does not take into account for the time value of the money over the period of
cash flow.
_______________________
2) It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flows. The 20%
return indicated would be economically valid only if the return is occurring in
perpetuity .
S-6 An Energy Manager in a factory has gathered following data to arrive at the Plant
Energy Performance.
Reference Year (2009) energy use : 12 million kCal

Production Factor (PF) for the current year (2010) : 0.9
Current year’s energy : 10.8 million kCal
What is the Plant energy Performance (PEP) of the factory for the year 2010? State
your inference.
Ans:
Reference year equivalent energy = Reference year energy use * P.F

= 12 * 0.9 = 10.8 MkCal
Plant Energy Performance = (Reference year equivalent – current year’s

energy)*100
----------------------------------------------------------
Reference Year equivalent
= (10.8 – 10.8) / 10.8

= 0%
Inference: No change in plant energy performance. Energy manager/plant manger

has to take action to improve the performance.
S-7 Explain what is meant by Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO).
Ans:
Electricity Act 2003 has made a significant regulatory impact on the use of renewable
energy by RPO.
By this, each retail seller of electricity is obligated to include in their resource portfolio
a certain proportion of power from renewable energy sources, such as wind, solar,
small hydro, bio mass etc. The retailer can meet this obligation either by owning a
renewable energy facility or purchasing renewable energy from someone’s facility.
S-8 Give a short description about primary and secondary energy with example.
Ans:
_______________________
Primary energy refers to all types of energy extracted or captured directly from
natural resources.
Primary energy is further divided into two distinctive groups:
i) Renewable (solar energy, wind energy, geothermal, tidal, biomass)

ii) Non-renewable (coal, oil, natural gas and uranium)
Primary energy is transformed in energy conversion process to more convenient

forms of energy such as electricity, steam etc. These forms of energy are called
secondary energy.
……. End of Section – II …….

a) Biomethanation of biomass
b) Fuel cells
c) Geothermal energy
Ans:
a) Biomass can also be converted into bio-methane gas which is composed mainly of
methane and carbon dioxide. The process is based on biological digestion /
anaerobic digestion (biomethanation) of biomass. This is the only process giving
additional advantage of high grade manure as the by-product. The raw materials for
biomethanation process include manure, sewage sludge, municipal solid waste, fruit
and vegetable waste, food waste, distillery wastes and other biodegradable wastes.
Bio-methane can completely replace natural gas for applications using natural gas
such as boilers, furnaces, IC engines etc.
b) Input to a Fuel Cell is hydrogen. Hydrogen combines with oxygen to produce

electricity through an electrochemical process with water and heat as by-products.
A Fuel Cell consists of two catalyst coated electrodes surrounding an electrolyte.

One electrode is an anode and the other is a cathode. The process begins when
hydrogen molecules enter the anode. The catalyst coating separates hydrogen’s
negatively charged electrons from the positively charged protons. The electrolyte
allows the protons to pass through to the cathode, but not the electrons. Instead the
electrons are directed through an external circuit which creates electrical current.
While the electrons pass through the external circuit, oxygen molecules pass through
_______________________
the cathode. The oxygen and the protons combine with the electrons after they have
passed through the external circuit producing water and heat.
c) For every 100 meters you go below ground, the temperature of the rock increases
about 3oC. So, at a depth of about 3000 metres below ground, the temperature of the
rock would be hot enough to boil water. Deep under the surface, water sometimes
makes its way close to the hot rock and turns into boiling hot water or into steam.
The hot water can reach temperatures of more than 148oC. When this hot water
comes up through a crack in the earth, it is known as hot spring.
Some of the areas have so much steam and hot water that it can be used to
generate electricity. Holes are drilled into the ground and pipes lowered into the hot
water. The hot steam or water comes up through these pipes from below ground. A
geothermal power plant is like in a regular power plant except that no fuel is burned
to heat water into steam.
L-2 Construct a PERT Diagram for the following project and find out the critical path.
Duration
Activity Precedent
in weeks
A 7 Start
B 3 A
C 1 B
D 8 A
E 2 D,C
F 1 D,C
G 1 D,C
H 3 F
I 2 H
J 1 E,G,I
i) Draw the PERT network,

ii) What is the critical path?
iii) What is the total duration required to complete the project?
iv) What is the available slack in each of the activity?
Ans:
i) PERT network
_______________________
ii) The critical path is A-D-F-H-I-J.
iii) The project duration is 22 weeks.
iv)
Float or
Earliest Earliest Latest Latest Slack
Expected
Activity Start Finish Start Finish LS-ES
Time
L-3 ES EF LS LF or
LF-EF
A 7 0 7 0 7 0
B 3 7 10 11 14 4
C 1 10 11 14 15 4
D 8 7 15 7 15 0
E 2 15 17 19 21 4
F 1 15 16 15 16 0
G 1 15 16 20 21 1
H 3 16 19 16 19 0
I 2 19 21 19 21 0
J 1 21 22 21 22 0
In a food processing plant the monthly production related (variable) energy
consumption was 1.8 times the production and non-production related (fixed) energy
consumption was 15,000 kWh per month up to May 2010. In the month of June 2010
a series of energy conservation measures were implemented. Use CUMSUM
technique to develop a table and calculate energy savings for the subsequent 6
months period from the data given below
Actual Energy
Month Production (kg)
Consumption (kWh)
Jul’ 10 62000 113600
Aug’ 10 71000 139000
Sep’ 10 75000 158000
Oct’ 10 59000 119300
Nov’ 10 62000 123700
Dec’ 10 73000 148600
_______________________
Ans:
Predicted
Actual energy
Month Production energy
consumption
Consumption
Jul 62000 126600 113600 -13000

Aug 71000 142800 139000 -3800
Sep 75000 150000 158000 8000
Oct 59000 121200 119300 -1900
Nov 62000 126600 123700 -2900
Dec 73000 146400 148600 -2200
-15800
Savings for six month period = 11,400 kWh
L-4 In a fertilizer plant, the off-site boiler was revamped to improve the efficiency by
spending Rs. 250 lakhs. The discount rate for the company is 15%. The projected
cost of saving of fuel was Rs. 40 lakhs/ year. Find out the NPV at the end of 10 years
of the operation of the boiler. State your opinion about the usefulness of this
investment.
Ans:
NPV = - CFo/ (1+k)^0 + CF1/ (1+k)^1 +-------------+ CF10/ (1+k)^10
Where, CF0 = cash out flow at the beginning

CF1—CF10 = cash flow (inward) at the end of each year specified
K = discount rate
For the given project,
CF0 = Rs. 250 lakhs

Yearly cash inflow= Rs.40 lakhs
Discount rate = 15%
NPV= - 250 + 40 [ 1/ (1+0.15)^1 + ---------------------+ 1/ (1+0.15)^10 ]
-250 + 40 [ 0.869+0.756+0.657+0.0.571 +0.497+0.432+0.376+

0.326+ 0.284+0.247]
-250 + 40* 5.015

-250+ 200.6
- 49.4 lakh
Opinion: As the NPV is negative, the project is found to be unviable one.
L-5 Explain briefly any two of the following
_______________________
a) 5S
b) Kaizen
c) TPM
d) TQM
Ans:
a)
5S: ‘5S’ is acronym formed by the first letters ‘S’ of five Japanese words, meaning,
respectively, Housekeeping, workplace organization, clean up, maintain cleanliness
and discipline. Implementing 5S method in the work place would help reduce wastes,
improve the levels of quality and safety, reduce the lead time and cost and thus helps
to increase the profitability of the organization.
b) Kaizen: ‘Kaizen‘is a practice developed by Japanese for increasing the productivity

of a manufacturing plant. KAIZEN means Change (KAI) for Good (ZEN)
This technique relies on the axiom that there is always scope for improvement
involving everyone in the plant right from the Plant Managers down to shop floor
workmen. It emphasizes improvement on working standard through small and
gradual improvement.
c) TPM:
Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) is the method that focuses on optimizing the
effectiveness of manufacturing equipment. TPM builds upon established best
practices and focuses on team -based maintenance that involves employees at
every level and function. TPM addresses the entire production system lifecycle and
builds a concrete , shop floor-based system to prevent all losses, to eliminate all
accidents, defects and breakdowns.
d) TQM
Total Quality Management (TQM) is a process for managing quality. It is associated

with the maxim- “ doing the right things right, the first time”. Better management of
quality complements an Energy Management Program.
TQM involves all people in the organization right from top executive down to bottom
level workers. TQM stresses on “Document what you do; then do what you have
documented”. TQM requires that Mission and vision statements be written and
displayed everywhere to serve as guiding rules for all employees. As per TQM, long-
term needs, rather than short-term must be given more emphasis to derive major
benefits.
L-6 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently
operating at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the
Energy Manager measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the
paper drying machine, and are found to be 60% and 95% respectively.
_______________________
The steam is supplied at 5 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 500 kCal/kg. The
evaporated moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated/hr.

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hour.
Ans:
i) Estimation of moisture quantity to be evaporated/hr:
Production rate = 480/24 = 20 TPH

Inlet dryness to the paper machine : 60%
Outlet dryness from the machine : 95%
Paper weight in the final product = 20* 0.95 = 19 TPH
Weight of moisture after dryer = 1 TPH
Weight of moisture before dryer
= (19/ 0.60) -19
= 12.66 TPH
Evaporated moisture quantity = 12.66-1= 11.66 TPH
ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation/Hour
Evaporated moisture temperature = 100 deg C

Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 640 kCal/.kg
Total Heat available in evaporated moisture (sensible &latent)

= 640 * 11,660
= 7.46 MkCal/h
5 kg/cm2 steam requirement = heat in the evaporated moisture

--------------------------------------
Latent heat of steam (5 kg/cm2)
= 7,62,400 / 500
= 14.925 TPH
……. End of Section – III …….
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – October, 2011

S-1 List any five clip-on / portable instruments used in energy auditing.
Ans Power analyser, flue gas analyser, non-contact flow meter, lux meter, thermocouples,
hygrometer, psychrometer, anemometer, tachometer, stroboscope, infrared
thermometer etc
Calculate:
a) Rated current
Ans a)Rated Current of the Geyser, I = P/V= 2300/230 = 10 Ampere
b)Resistance Value , R = V/I = 230/10 = 23 Ohms
c)Actual Power drawn at 210 Volts = (V/R)*V = (210/23)*210

= 1917 Watt
OR (210/230)*(210/230)*2300 = 1917 Watt
1
_______________________
savings of Rs 40,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is 16%.
Ans
30,000 40,000 40,000
NPV = - 50,000 - + +
1.16 1.162 1.163
= - 50,000 – 25,862 + 29,727 + 25,626 = - Rs. 20,509
S-4 In a heat exchanger the inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling water are
300C and 360C. The flow rate of cooling water is 400 litres/hr. The process fluid
enters the heat exchanger at 600C and leaves at 450C. Find out the flow rate of
the process fluid?(Cp of process fluid is 0.8 kCal/kg0C).
ANS Heat transferred to cooling water = m cp t

= 400 x 1 x (36-30)
= 2400 kcal/hour
Flow rate of process fluid =2400/(60-45)*(0.8)

=200 kgs/hr
S-5 Briefly explain the differences between preliminary and detailed energy audit
Preliminary energy audit, which is also known as Walk-Through Audit and Diagnostic
ANS
Audit, is a relatively quick exercise and uses existing, or easily obtained data. The
scope of preliminary energy audit is to:
▪ Establish energy consumption in the organization (sources: energy bills and

invoices)
▪ Obtain related data such as production for relating with energy consumption
▪ Estimate the scope for energy savings
▪ Identify the most likely and the easiest areas for attention (e.g. unnecessary
lighting, higher temperature settings, leakage etc.)
▪ Identify immediate (especially no-/low-cost) improvements/ savings
▪ Set up a baseline or reference point for energy consumption
▪ Identify areas for more detailed study/measurement
Detailed energy audit is a comprehensive audit and results in a detailed energy project
implementation plan for a facility, since it accounts for the energy use of all major
equipment. It considers the interactive effects of various projects and offers the most
2
_______________________
accurate estimate of energy savings and cost. It includes detailed energy cost saving
calculations and project implementation costs.
One of the key elements in a detailed energy audit is the energy balance. This is based
on an inventory of energy-using systems, assumptions of current operating conditions,
measurements and calculations of energy use.
Detailed energy auditing is carried out in three phases: a) Pre Audit Phase b) Audit
Phase and c) Post Audit Phase.
S-6 A cotton mill dries 1200 kg of wet fabric in a drier from 54% initial moisture to 9%
final moisture. How many kilograms of water are removed during drying
operation?
ANS Basis: 1200 kg/hr of wet fabric

Dry fabric = 1200 x 0.46 = 552 kg
Weight of final fabric = 552/0.91

= 606.6 kg
Water removed = 1200 – 606.6

= 593.4 kg
S-7 What is Demand Side Management (DSM)? Briefly list down the benefits of DSM with
examples
ANS
Demand Side Management (DSM) means managing of the demand for power, by
utilities / Distribution companies, among some or all its customers to meet current or
future needs.
DSM programs result in energy and / or demand reduction.
DSM also enables end-users to better manage their load curve and thus improves the
profitability.
Potential energy saving through DSM is treated same as new additions on the supply
side in MWs.
Examples:
3
_______________________
Replacement of inefficient pumps by star rated pumps under agricultural DSM

Using time of the day tariff to shift the demand from peak to off peak hours
Etc
Net Present Value

ANS
positive value. The sum of all the present value is known as the net present value
(NPV). The higher the net present value, the more attractive the proposed project. The
net present value takes into account the time value of money and it considers the cash
flow stream in entire project life.
Internal Rate of Return Method
By setting the net present value of an investment to zero (the minimum value that would
make the investment worthwhile), the discount rate can be computed. The internal rate
of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net present value
(NPV) equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:
CF0 CF1 CFn n CFt

0 = __
------------- + -------------- + - - - + ------------- =  -----------
(1 +  )0 ( 1 +  )1 ( 1 +  )n t = 0 ( 1 +  )t
Where, CFt = cash flow at the end of year “t”

 = discount rate
n = life of the project.
------- End of Section - II ---------

4
_______________________
L-1 Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below
Find out:
i. critical Path
Task Predecessors Tasks
(Dependencies) Expected Time as
Calculated
(Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
ANS
For drawing the network diagram 6 MARKS

I. The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J
II. The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)
L-2 A paper mill has two investment options for energy saving projects:
Option : A Investment envisaged Rs.40 lakhs , annual return is Rs.8 lakhs, life of
the project is 10 years, discount rate 10% .
5
_______________________
Option : B Investment envisaged Rs.24 lakhs, annual return Rs.5 lakhs, life of the
project is 8 years, discount rate is 10%.
Calculate IRR of both the options and suggest which option the paper mill should
select considering the risk is same for both the options.
ANS
Option A
8 x 105 8 x 105
-40 x 105 = + -------------- + - - - + -------------
( 1 + X )1 ( 1 + X )10
IRR = 15.10 %
Option B
5 x 105 5 x 105
-24 x 105 = + -------------- + - - - + -------------
( 1 + X )1 ( 1 + X )8
IRR = 13 %
Based on IRR, Option A has higher IRR and the mill may opt for option A
L-3 Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for first 6 months of 2011 for those
energy saving measures implemented by a plant prior to January,2011.
The average production for the period Jan-Jun 2011 is 1000 MT/Month
Predicted Specific
Actual Specific Energy Energy Consumption,
2011-Month Consumption, kWh/MT kWh/MT
Jan 1203 1121
Feb 1187 1278
Mar 1401 1571
Apr 1450 1550
May 1324 1284
Jun 1233 1233
ANS The table above gives values of Specific energy consumption monitored Vs predicted for each
month. The variations are calculated and the Cumulative sum of differences is calculated from
Jan-June-2011.
6
_______________________
Actual - Predicted
2011- SEC, SEC- Difference=
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Actual-Predicted CUSUM
Jan 1203 1121 82 82
Feb 1187 1278 -91 -9
Mar 1401 1571 -170 -179
Apr 1450 1550 -100 -279
May 1324 1284 40 -239
Jun 1233 1233 0 -239
= 239 kWh/MT x 1000 MT x 6 months
Energy Savings for six months = -239,000 kWh
L-4 In a textile plant the average monthly energy consumption is 7,00,000 kWh of
purchased electricity from grid, 40 kL of furnace oil ( specific gravity=0.92) for
thermic fluid heater, 60 tonne of coal for steam boiler, and 10 kL of HSD ( sp.gravity=
0.885) for material handling equipment.
Given data:
(1 kWh = 860 kcal, GCV of coal= 3450 kCal/kg, GCV of furnace oil= 10,000 kCal/kg,
GCV of HSD= 10,500 kCal/kg, 1kg oil equivalent = 10,000 kCal)
a) Calculate the energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent
(MTOE) for the plant.
b) Calculate the percentage share of energy sources used based on consumption in
MTOE basis.
c) Comment whether this textile plant qualifies as a notified designated consumer
under the Energy Conservation Act?
ANS a)
(40000 x0.92x 10000) + (60000 x 3450) + (7,00,000 x 860) + (10,000x 0.885 x 10,500)
MTOE = (36.8 x 107) + (20.7 x 107) + (60.2 x 107)+ (9.2925 x 107)

107
= 127 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per month
b) Electricity %= 47.4, Furnace oil%=29.0 , Coal % =16.3, HSD% =7.3
c) Annual energy consumption of the textile plant = 127 x 12 = 1524 MTOE which is less
than 3000 MTOE cut off limit as notified under the EC act. Therefore this textile plant is not
a designated consumer for the present energy consumption levels.
7
_______________________
L-5 Write short notes on any two

• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
• ISO 50001
• Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency
ANS
National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
It is one of the eight national missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC). To enhance energy efficiency four new initiatives will be put in place. These are:
• A market based mechanism to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in

energy efficiency in energy intensive large industries and facilities, through
certification of energy savings that could be traded.
• Accelerating the shift to energy efficient appliances in designated sectors through
innovative measures to make the products more affordable.
• Creation of mechanisms that would help finance the demand side management
programmes in all sectors by capturing future energy savings.
• Developing fiscal instruments to promote energy efficiency.
ISO 50001
The future ISO 50001 standard for energy management was recently approved as a
Draft International Standard (DIS). ISO 50001 is expected to be published as an
International Standard by early 2011.
organizations to manage energy. Targeting broad applicability across national economic
sectors, it is estimated that the standard could influence up to 60% of the world’s energy
use.
The document is based on the common elements found in all of ISO’s management system
standards, assuring a high level of compatibility with ISO 9001 (quality management) and
ISO 14001 (environmental management). ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits:
Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency

Energy Conservation and Energy Efficiency are separate, but related concepts. Energy
conservation is achieved when growth of energy consumption is reduced in physical terms.
Energy Conservation can, therefore, is the result of several processes or developments,
such as productivity increase or technological progress. On the other hand Energy
efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product, process or area of
production or consumption is reduced without affecting output, consumption or comfort
levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will contribute to energy conservation and is therefore
8
_______________________
L-6 An evaporator is to be fed with 10,000 kg/hr of a solution having 1 % solids. The feed
is at 38oC. It is to be concentrated to 2% solids. Steam is entering at a total enthalpy
of 640 kCal/kg and the condensate leaves at 100oC. Enthalpies of feed are 38.1
kcal/kg, product solution is 100.8 kCal/kg and that of the vapour is 640 kCal/kg. Find
the mass of vapour formed per hour and the mass of steam used per hour.
ANS Mass of vapour
Feed = 10,000 kg/hr @ 1 % solids
Solids = 10,000 x 1/100
= 100 kg/hr
Massout x 2/100 = 100

Massout = 10,000/2 = 5000 kg/hr
Vapour formed = 10,000 – 5000

= 5000 kg/hr
Thick liquor = 5000 kg/hr
Steam consumption:
Enthalpy of feed = 10,000 x 38.1 = 38.1 x 104 kCal
Enthalpy of the thick liquor = 100.8 x 5000 = 5,04,000 kCal
Enthalpy of the vapour = 640 x 5000 = 32,00,000 kCal
Heat Balance
Heat input by steam + heat in feed = heat out in vapour + Heat out in thick liquor
[M x (640-100) + 38.1 x 10,000] = (32,00,000 + 5,04,000)
M x 540 = 33,23,000
Mass of steam required = 33,23,000/540
= 6153.7 kg/hr
9
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set B Solutions
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – October, 2011

S-1 List any five clip-on / portable instruments used in energy auditing.
Ans Power analyser, flue gas analyser, non-contact flow meter, lux meter, thermocouples,
hygrometer, psychrometer, anemometer, tachometer, stroboscope, infrared
thermometer etc
Note: Evaluator may look into any five instruments
Calculate:
a) Rated current
Ans a)Rated Current of the Geyser, I = P/V= 2000/230 = 8.7 Ampere
b)Resistance Value , R = V/I = 230/8.7 = 26.4 Ohms
c)Actual Power drawn at 210 Volts = (V/R)*V = (210/26.4)*210

= 1670 Watt
OR (210/230)*(210/230)*2000 = 1670 Watt
1
_______________________
savings of Rs 40,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is 14%.
Ans
30,000 40,000 40,000
NPV = - 50,000 - + +
1.14 1.142 1.143
= - 50,000 – 26,316 + 30,779 + 26,999 = - Rs. 18,538
S-4 In a heat exchanger the inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling water are
300C and 360C. The flow rate of cooling water is 500 litres/hr. The process fluid
enters the heat exchanger at 600C and leaves at 450C.Find out the flow rate of the
process fluid?(Cp of process fluid is 0.8 kCal/kg0C).
ANS Heat transferred to cooling water = m cp t

= 500 x 1 x (36-30)
= 3000 kcal/hour
Flow rate of process fluid =3000/(60-45)*(.8)

=250 kgs/hr
S-5 Briefly explain the differences between preliminary and detailed energy audit
Preliminary energy audit, which is also known as Walk-Through Audit and Diagnostic
ANS
Audit, is a relatively quick exercise and uses existing, or easily obtained data. The
scope of preliminary energy audit is to:
▪ Establish energy consumption in the organization (sources: energy bills and

invoices)
▪ Obtain related data such as production for relating with energy consumption
▪ Estimate the scope for energy savings
▪ Identify the most likely and the easiest areas for attention (e.g. unnecessary
lighting, higher temperature settings, leakage etc.)
▪ Identify immediate (especially no-/low-cost) improvements/ savings
▪ Set up a baseline or reference point for energy consumption
▪ Identify areas for more detailed study/measurement
Detailed energy audit is a comprehensive audit and results in a detailed energy project
implementation plan for a facility, since it accounts for the energy use of all major
equipment. It considers the interactive effects of various projects and offers the most
accurate estimate of energy savings and cost. It includes detailed energy cost saving
calculations and project implementation costs.
One of the key elements in a detailed energy audit is the energy balance. This is based
2
_______________________
on an inventory of energy-using systems, assumptions of current operating conditions,

measurements and calculations of energy use.
Detailed energy auditing is carried out in three phases: a) Pre Audit Phase b) Audit
Phase and c) Post Audit Phase.
S-6 A cotton mill dries 2000 kg of wet fabric in a drier from 54% initial moisture to 9%
final moisture. How many kilograms of water are removed during drying
operation?
ANS Basis: 2000 kg/hr of wet fabric

Dry fabric = 2000 x 0.46 = 920 kg
Weight of final fabric = 920/0.91
= 1011 kg
Water removed = 2000 – 1011
= 989 kg
S-7 What is Demand Side Management (DSM)? Briefly list down the benefits of DSM with
examples
ANS
Demand Side Management (DSM) means managing of the demand for power, by
utilities / Distribution companies, among some or all its customers to meet current or
future needs.
DSM programs result in energy and / or demand reduction.
DSM also enables end-users to better manage their load curve and thus improves the
profitability.
Potential energy saving through DSM is treated same as new additions on the supply
side in MWs.
Examples:
Replacement of inefficient pumps by star rated pumps under agricultural DSM
Using time of the day tariff to shift the demand from peak to off peak hours
Etc
3
_______________________

Net Present Value
ANS
positive value. The sum of all the present value is known as the net present value
(NPV). The higher the net present value, the more attractive the proposed project. The
net present value takes into account the time value of money and it considers the cash
flow stream in entire project life.
CF0 CF1 CFn n CFt

NPV = __ ------------- + -------------- + - - - + ------------- =  -----------
(1 +  )0 ( 1 +  )1 ( 1 +  )n t = 0 ( 1 +  )t
For covering briefly the concept of NPV 2.5 Marks
(Equation is not a must)
Internal Rate of Return Method
By setting the net present value of an investment to zero (the minimum value that would
make the investment worthwhile), the discount rate can be computed. The internal rate
of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net present value (NPV)
equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:
CF0 CF1 CFn n CFt

0 = __
------------- + -------------- + - - - + ------------- =  -----------
(1 +  )0 ( 1 +  )1 ( 1 +  )n t = 0 ( 1 +  )t
Where, CFt = cash flow at the end of year “t”

 = discount rate
n = life of the project.
------- End of Section - II ---------
4
_______________________

L-1 An evaporator is to be fed with 6000 kg/hr of a solution having 1 % solids. The feed is
at 38oC. It is to be concentrated to 2% solids. Steam is entering at a total enthalpy of
640 kCal/kg and the condensate leaves at 100oC. Enthalpies of feed are 38.1 kcal/kg,
product solution is 100.8 kCal/kg and that of the vapour is 640 kCal/kg. Find the mass
of vapour formed per hour and the mass of steam used per hour.
ANS Mass of vapour
Feed = 6000 kg/hr @ 1 % solids
Solids = 6000 x 1/100
= 60 kg/hr
Massout x 2/100 = 60
Massout = 6000/2 = 3000 kg/hr
Vapour formed = 6000 – 3000

= 3000 kg/hr
Thick liquor = 3000 kg/hr
Steam consumption:
Enthalpy of feed = 6000 x 38.1 = 22.8 x 104 kCal
Enthalpy of the thick liquor = 100.8 x 3000 = 3,02,400 kCal
Enthalpy of the vapour = 640 x 3000 = 19,20,000 kCal
Heat Balance
Heat input by steam + heat in feed = heat out in vapour + Heat out in thick liquor
[M x (640-100) + 38.1 x 6000] = (19,20,000 + 3,02,400)
M x 540 = 21,99,540
Mass of steam required = 21,99,540/540
= 4073 kg/hr
5
_______________________
L-2 A paper mill has two investment options for energy saving projects:
Option : A Investment envisaged Rs.40 lakhs , annual return is Rs.5 lakhs, life of
the project is 10 years, discount rate 10% .
Option : B Investment envisaged Rs.24 lakhs, annual return Rs.8 lakhs, life of the
project is 8 years, discount rate is 10%.
Calculate IRR of both the options and suggest which option the paper mill should
select considering the risk is same for both the options.
ANS
Option A
5 x 105 5 x 105
5
-40 x 10 = + -------------- + - - - + -------------
( 1 + X )1 ( 1 + X )10
IRR = 4.28 %
Option B
8 x 105 8 x 105
5
-24 x 10 = + -------------- + - - - + -------------
( 1 + X )1 ( 1 + X )8
IRR = 28.98 %
Based on IRR, Option A has higher IRR and the mill may opt for option B
6
_______________________
L-3 Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for first 6 months of 2011 for those
energy saving measures implemented by a plant prior to January,2011.
The average production for the period Jan-Jun 2011 is 1000 MT/Month
Predicted Specific
Actual Specific Energy Energy Consumption,
2011-Month Consumption, kWh/MT kWh/MT
Jan 1203 1021
Feb 1187 1178
Mar 1401 1471
Apr 1450 1450
May 1324 1184
Jun 1233 1133
ANS Answer:
The table above gives values of Specific energy consumption monitored Vs predicted for each
month. The variations are calculated and the Cumulative sum of differences is calculated from
Jan-June-2011.
Actual - Predicted
2011- SEC, SEC- Difference=
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Actual-Predicted CUSUM
Jan 1203 1021 182 182
Feb 1187 1178 9 191
Mar 1401 1471 -70 121
Apr 1450 1450 0 121
May 1324 1184 140 261
Jun 1233 1133 100 361
Since the Cumulative sum is positive, the plant has consumed more energy than it should have by
prediction (calculated)
Energy loss = 361 kWh/MT x 1000 MT
Energy loss for six months = 361 kWh/MTx1000 MT
L-4 In a textile plant the average monthly energy consumption is 5,00,000 kWh of
purchased electricity from grid, 40 kL of furnace oil ( specific gravity=0.92) for
thermic fluid heater, 60 tonne of coal for steam boiler, and 10 kL of HSD ( sp.gravity=
0.885) for material handling equipment.
Given data:
(1 kWh = 860 kcal, GCV of coal= 3450 kCal/kg, GCV of furnace oil= 10,000 kCal/kg,
GCV of HSD= 10,500 kCal/kg, 1kg oil equivalent = 10,000 kCal)
a) Calculate the energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent
7
_______________________
(MTOE) for the plant.

b) Calculate the percentage share of energy sources used based on consumption in
MTOE basis.
c) Comment whether this textile plant qualifies as a notified designated consumer
under the Energy Conservation Act?
ANS a)
(40000 x0.92x 10000) + (60000 x 3450) + (5,00,000 x 860) + (10,000x 0.885 x 10,500)
MTOE = (36.8 x 107) + (20.7 x 107) + (43 x 107)+ (9.2925 x 107)

107
= 109.8 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per month
b) Electricity %= 39.2, Furnace oil%=33.5 , Coal % =18.85 , HSD% =8.46
c) Annual energy consumption of the textile plant = 109.8 x 12 = 1317.6 MTOE which is
less than 3000 MTOE cut off limit as notified under the EC act. Therefore this textile plant is
not a designated consumer for the present energy consumption levels.
L-5 Write short notes on any two

• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
• ISO 50001
• Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency
ANS National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
It is one of the eight national missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC). To enhance energy efficiency four new initiatives will be put in place. These are:
• A market based mechanism to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in

energy efficiency in energy intensive large industries and facilities, through
certification of energy savings that could be traded.
• Accelerating the shift to energy efficient appliances in designated sectors through
innovative measures to make the products more affordable.
• Creation of mechanisms that would help finance the demand side management
programmes in all sectors by capturing future energy savings.
• Developing fiscal instruments to promote energy efficiency.
ISO 50001
The future ISO 50001 standard for energy management was recently approved as a
Draft International Standard (DIS). ISO 50001 is expected to be published as an
8
_______________________
International Standard by early 2011.
organizations to manage energy. Targeting broad applicability across national economic
sectors, it is estimated that the standard could influence up to 60% of the world’s energy
use.
The document is based on the common elements found in all of ISO’s management system
standards, assuring a high level of compatibility with ISO 9001 (quality management) and
ISO 14001 (environmental management). ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits:
Distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency

Energy Conservation and Energy Efficiency are separate, but related concepts. Energy
conservation is achieved when growth of energy consumption is reduced in physical terms.
Energy Conservation can, therefore, is the result of several processes or developments,
such as productivity increase or technological progress. On the other hand Energy
efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product, process or area of
production or consumption is reduced without affecting output, consumption or comfort
levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will contribute to energy conservation and is therefore
L-6 Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below
Find out:
i. critical Path
Task Predecessors Tasks
(Dependencies) Expected Time as
Calculated
(Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
9
_______________________
ANS
I. The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J
II. The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)
10
_______________________

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Paper-1 Set A Key

Regn No: ____ _____________

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions

1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves

a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%

a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation

a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings

a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies

c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees

a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof

a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh

a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery

a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above

a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs

a) increases with increasing capacity utilization

a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives

a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant

a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters

a) positive forces only b) negative forces only

a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660

a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J

a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms

a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV + (1 – i)n c) NPV (1 + i)n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n

a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions

a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR

a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation

a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000

a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT

a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above

a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above

a) poor process control b) many forced outages

a) nothing can be said

a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency

a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000

a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning

a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022

a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible

a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground

a) Carbon Emission Reduction b) Clean Environment Rating

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)

ANS NPV = -100,000 + (75000-50000)/(1+0.15) + 75000/(1+0.15)2 + 75000/(1+0.15)3

= -100,000 + 21,739 + 56,710 + 49, 313

ANS Latent heat of steam = 540 kCal/kg

b) Cost of power = 100 * 4 = Rs.400/day

ANS Specific coal consumption of conventional power plant = 0.7 kg/kWh

= 224910 tonnes per annum

ANS Energy consumption = √ 3 x 0.430 (kV) x 25(A) x 0.80(PF) x 6(hours)

ANS 1. Joint implementation

CDM is applicable to India. It is a mechanism by which the developed countries

Regn No: _________

Regn No: _________