Test - 1 (Code E) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 1 (Code E)
Test Date : 28/10/2018

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146 (2)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (3) 117. (1) 153.deleted
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156.deleted
13. (3) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (4) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (4) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (1) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (1) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (1) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

7. Answer (4)
PHYSICS
Hint: If a physical quantity is unitless then it must
1. Answer (1) be dimensionless.
Hint: Ernest Rutherford proposed nuclear model of
atom. Sol.:     ds  [M0L0 T 0 ]
r2
Sol.: (1) Enrico Fermi – controlled nuclear fission.
Solid angle’s unit – steradian
(2) Rutherford – nuclear model of atom.
Reynolds number [R ] = [M 0L0T 0]
(3) Hahn and Meitner – neutron induced fission. [R ] is only a number has no unit.
2. Answer (4) 8. Answer (3)
Hint: Strong nuclear forces binds protons and Hint: Minimum error in a instrument is equal to its
neutrons in a nucleus. least count.
Sol.: Strong nuclear forces are short range force. Sol.: Minimum inaccuracy = L.C
They are charge independent.
 VSD 
3. Answer (4) L.C = MSD 1 – 
 MSD 
Hint: Classical physics deals mainly with
macroscopic phenomena.  38  2
= 1.2 1 –  10 –3 = 1.2   10 –3
40  40
Sol.: Microscopic domain includes phenomena at  
the laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical scale. = 6.0 × 10–5 = 0.06 mm
4. Answer (3) 9. Answer (1)
Hint: Maximum least count  least precise. Hint: Formula of power.
 n – 1 Sol.:  [P] = [FV]
Sol.: L.C of Vernier callipers = MSD 1 –
 n  So, [P] = [FVT0]
10. Answer (2)
 49  1  10 –3
= 1  10 –3 1 –  = = 2  10 – 5 m Hint: Barn is the unit of area, slug is unit of mass.
 50  50
1
L.C. of screw gauge  slug   M  1 –2 0
Sol.:  barn      [M L T ]
Pitch    L2 
= 11. Answer (1)
Number of divisions of circular scale
X
1  10 –3 Hint: Z =
= = 1  10– 5 m Y
100
Z X Y
L.C. of given scale 1 cm = 10 –2 m  
Z X Y
5. Answer (1)
Sol.:  = IR
Hint: In addition and subtraction, digits should be
round off least decimal point. 
R=
Sol.: a = 101.6, b = 100.7 I
a – b = 101.6 – 100.7 R  I
 100 =  100   100
a – b = 000.9 R  I
So number of significant figures is one. 1 0.5
=  100   100 = 6%
6. Answer (4) 100 10
Q Q  100
Hint: c = and L = R   10 
mT m I 10
Sol.: B = [M1L–1T–2]
R = [10  ± 6%]
Energy density u = [M1L–1T–2] 12. Answer (3)
Q [M1L2 T –2 ] Hint: In a physical relation, dimensions on both
latent heat = = = [L2T–2]
m [M1 ] sides are equal.

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Sol.: U  [M1L2 T –2 ] 16. Answer (4)

v t
C   t 2   [M0L0 T2 ] Hint: Equation of vt graph  1
v 0 t0
 B  B  –v 0
     U  [M L T ]
1 2 –2
 Sol.: v  t t  v 0
 C – t2   C  0
13. Answer (3)  –v 
ds   0 t  v 0  dt
1 2  t0 
Hint: SBA  uBA t  aBA t
2 s t
 –v 
Sol.: SBA = 750
 ds    t00 t  v 0  dt
1 0 0
750  50 10   aBA 10 
2
2 –v 0 2
s t  v 0 t Inverted parabola.
1 2t0
250   aBA 100 
2 17. Answer (2)
aB = 5 ms–2 Hint: x + d = v0t ...(i)
14. Answer (2) 1 2
x= at ...(ii)
Hint:  ds   vdt Sol.:
2
Sol.: a = bt2
u=0
dv = bt2dt a
t v0
v
t3 
 dv  b  3 
0  0 x
d
b For scooterist
v  t3
3 d + x = v0t ...(i)
s
b 1 2
3 x = 0  at
 ds  3  t dt 2
...(ii)
0 0
1
b 4 50   2t 2  15t
 s   t 2
12 t2 – 15t + 50 = 0
b
 108 
12
 6 4 t2 – 10t – 5t + 50 = 0
t=5s
b t = 10 s
 108   36  36
12 First scooter will overtake then bus will overtake.
 b = 1 ms–4 18. Answer (1)
15. Answer (2) Hint: At maximum velocity of a body, when
Hint: Body attains the velocity of frame of reference acceleration of body becomes zero.
when it is detached from frame of reference. Sol.: For maximum velocity
v=0 a = 0 = g – bv
g
–1
40 ms v  ...(i)
b
O a = g – bv
Sol.: dv
100 m  g – bv
dt
g
2b t
0 = (40)2 – 2 × 10 × h dv
 g – bv 0
 dt
40  40 0
h  80 m
2  10 loge 2
t
So total distance = 100 + 2 × 80 = 260 m b

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
19. Answer (2) 
 dr
Hint: Time taken in moving upward = Time taken in Sol.: (1) | v | dt , magnitude of velocity
moving downward under free fall. 
t=6s  dv
Sol.: (2) a  , magnitude of total acceleration
h5 h7 dt
t=5s t=7s 
d |v |
(3) , rate of change of speed .
t=4s t=8s dt
hmax 23. Answer (1)
t=3s t=9s
8h
Hint: g  2
T1 – T22
Sol.:
t=0 B
hB hA
1 2 A
hmax =  10  6 = 180 m
2 0 t
h5 = h7 T2
1 T1
 10 1
2
h5 = hmax –
2 1  T1  1
2

h5 = 180 – 5 = 175 m hA  g    gT12 ...(i)

2 2 8
20. Answer (3)
2
Hint: Displacement = The minimum distance 1  T2  1
hB  g    gT22 ...(ii)
between initial and final 2 2 8
positions. 1
hA – hB  g (T12 – T22 )
Solution: t=4s 2
5s 1  2
h g T1 – T22 
8 
24. Answer (4)
t=0 t=8s u sin 
S Hint: t 
g
100 m

t=9s

1 2 
S  ut  at
2
 is the angle with horizontal.
1
S  40  9  –  10  9  = – 45 m; |s| = 45 m
2
T
2 Sol.: t =
2
21. Answer (1)
2u cos53
Hint: v2 = u2 + 2as t
2  10
Sol.: 152 = (5)2 + 2a × 5
225 = 25 + 10a ...(i) 6
t= s
200 = 10a ...(ii) 5
25. Answer (1)
(ii) and (i)
a = 20 ms–2 2u sin 
Hint: T = for same level.
v2 = (25) + 2 × 20 × 1 g
Sol.: v
v  65 ms1
22. Answer (4) u 30°

A B
Hint: For uniform circular motion speed will be
constant. 60°

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

2v sin 30  = 30°

TAB   = 30° with vertical to east.
g
29. Answer (4)
 u cos 60 
2  sin30  v2
 cos30  ∵ u cos 60  v cos 30 Hint: ac  – rˆ
TAB 
g r
1 1
2  10 3  
TAB  2 2 = 1s v
3 ac
 10 Sol.:
2
26. Answer (4)
  
 dr  dv v  constant
Hint: v  and a 
dt dt
 30. Answer (2)
2 
Sol.: r  3 t i – 8 t j  10 k   
 Hint: v  v1 – v 2
 dr
v   6 t i – 8 j 
dt Sol.: v  v12  v 22 – 2v1v 2 cos 

 dv
a  6 i a = 125  125 – 2  125 cos127
dt
 3
at t = 1 s v  6 i – 8 j 53° = 250  2  125  = 20 ms–1
 v 5
a  6 i 31. Answer (2)
 = 53°  
Hint: r  bt 1 – t 
27. Answer (3) 
Hint: vx = ux + ax t  dr  
Sol.: v   b – 2bt
vy = uy + ay t dt
 
Sol.: vx = 0 = 8 – 2 t a  –2b constant
t = 4s 32. Answer (1)
  
1 Hint: V RM  V RG – V MG
x  ux t  ax t 2
2 Sol.: VMG = VRG sin 53°
1
x  8  4 –  2  4   16 m
2
2 VRG
VRM 53°
1
y   4  4   32 m
2
2
VMG
28. Answer (1)
  
Hint: V RS  V RG – V SG 4
   5 = VRG 
Sol.: V RS  V RG  –V SG   5
 VRG = (25/4) m/s
Vertical 33. Answer (1)

  a
E Hint: a 
W a
 
VRS 
VRG   
Sol.: A – B  i  2 j  k – 4i  j  2k 
 

–VSG A – B  –3i  j – k
V SG  
A – B   –3   1   –1 = 11
2 2 2
tan   
V RG  
 A–B –3i  j – k
1 n   
tan   A–B =
3 11

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
34. Answer (2) V2
dy
Hint: Slope =
dx V1

Sol.: r  at i  bt j
2 Sol.:
60°
x = at 2; y = bt 0 30°
vx = 2at
vy = b
  
  
V21  V2 – V1 = V0 cos60i  V0 sin60 – gt  j 
dy v y
 
b 
– V0 cos30i  V0 sin30 – gt  j 
dx v x 2at
35. Answer (3) = V0 cos 60 – cos 30 i   sin 60 – sin 30  j 

Hint: a  ax2  ay2 V21  V0  cos 60 – cos30    sin60 – sin30 
2 2

Sol.: x  6 cos t = 2V0 sin15°

2
d x 38. Answer (3)
ax   –62 cos t ...(i)
dt 2 1 2
Hint: y  uy t – gt
 y  1 – 4 cos 2t 2
Sol.:
ay  4  2  cos 2t
2
...(ii) Face of leader
At t = 1.5 s ax = 0 1.75 m
u
ay = 16 2cos3
= –16 2 m/s2 37°
anet = 16 2 m/s2 h
36. Answer (1) 2m
vy
Hint: tan   20 m
vx 20  u cos 37  1  u = 25 ms–1
Sol.: vx = ux = 30 cos37° 1
 10  1
2
(h + 1.75 – 2) = 25 sin 37  1 –
4 2
= 30   24
5 = 10
 3  h = 10.25 m
vy2 = uy2 + 2ayy uy  30 sin 37  30  5  18 m/s 
  39. Answer (1)
vy2 = (18)2 – 2 × 10(– 63.8) Hint: d = v sin.t
vy2 = 324 + 1276 = 1600 x = (v cos + vr)t
Sol.: d = v sin .t
s
m/

800 = 8 sin .t ...(i)

30

o  = 37° x = (v cos  + vr)t

800 = (8 cos  + 8).t ...(ii)
63.8 m

g 8 sin= 8 cos + 8

8 sin– 8 cos = 8
 1 1 1
sin  – cos  
vy = 1600 = 40 m/s 2 2 2
40   1 
tan  = sin   –    sin
24  4  2 4
 = tan–1(5/3)
37. Answer (2)  
– 
   4 4
Hint: V21  V2 – V1
  = 90°

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
40. Answer (4)  4v0 – 200  v0  20  125
2
1 gx v02 – 50v0 – 625 = 0
Hint: y  x tan  –
2 u 2 cos2 
v 0  25(1  2) m/s
4 1 2
Sol.: y  x – x 44. Answer (2)
3 3
Hint: Stone will attain the velocity of platform at the
4  x time of projection.
y  x 1– 
3  4 10 ms–1 y
Range R = 4 m
–1
4 V = 10 2 ms
Angle of projection   tan–1  
3 Sol.:
45° x
1 g 1 10 ms–1

2 u 2 cos2  3 a = 5 ms–2 Vy = 10 ms–1
u 2 cos2   15
u cos   15 m/s 10 ms–1
t=2s
R 4
T   s
u cos  15 h0 = 10 m
H tan  4
 H m t = 0, y = 0
R 4 3
41. Answer (3) v 2 sin2 
Hmax   h0
Hint: Horizontal components do not changes. 2g
Sol.: y 100  2  1 
2
  10  15 m
v 2  10  2 
 =
v0
45. Answer (2)
Hint: Multiplication of vectors.
  
Sol.: P  aQ

v0 sin  = v sin 
x 
4i  8 j  6k  a –2i – 4 j – 3k 
v = v0 sin  cosec  a = –2
42. Answer (2)
   CHEMISTRY
Hint: R  A – B
 46. Answer (2)
R  A2  B 2 – 2AB cos  Hint: One molecule of CO2 contains 22 electrons.
Sol.: Number of atoms = Number of molecules × 3
Sol.: R  A2  B 2 – 2 AB cos 
Number of electrons 4.4  1026
2 2 2
A  A  A – 2 A cos  2  3  3
22 22
–1 = –2 cos 
= 6 × 1025
1 47. Answer (4)
cos =
2 Hint: Polarising power is explained by Fajan rule.
= 60° Sol.: Cations having small size and more charge
43. Answer (1) have more polarising power.
Hint: x  v Rx .T 48. Answer (3)
Hint: 13th group elements do not follow regular trend
 2v 0 sin 37 
Sol.:  v 0 cos 37  20 – 60     60 of ionisation enthalpy.
 g  Sol.: Electron affinity : S > Se > Te > O
 4 6 v
 0  Electronegativity : F > O > N > P
v 0  – 40     60
 5   50  Ionic radii : H– > Br– > Cl– > F–

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
49. Answer (1) 1
Hint: Eq. weight of ionic compound = ECation + Total spin = ×4=2
2
EAnion. 56. Answer (2)
Sol.: g.eq. of carbonate = g.eq. of oxide Hint: Visible region transitions belongs to Balmer
1 0.6 transition.

 60  EM  8 Sol.: n2 = 6, 5, 4, 3 to n1 = 2 means 4 lines belong
EM    to visible region.
 2 
EM = 25 g 57. Answer (3)
50. Answer (2) Hint: Due to presence of lone pair of electrons,
molecule will not be symmetric.
Hint: Ethyne (C2H2) is a linear molecule.
Sol.: BrF5 : sp3d 2 hybridisation
Sol.: Ethyne : sp
Graphite : sp2 F
Diamond : sp3 F F
51. Answer (3) Br
h h F F
Hint:   
mv 2mKE
Due to lp-bp repulsions, no bond angle will be right
6.626  10 34 angled.
Sol.:  
2  9.1 10 31  4.55  10 23 58. Answer (2)
 = 72.81 × 10–9 m,  = 72.81 nm Hint: Number of nodal planes = l (except dz2)
52. Answer (4) Sol.: Orbital No. of nodal planes
Hint: C3O2 : O == C == C == C == O 4d 0
z2
-bonds 4
Sol.:   1: 1 3d x 2  y 2 2
-bonds 4
53. Answer (3) 3s 0
obs 3p 1
Hint: Percentage ionic character = × 100
 theo 59. Answer (3)
Sol.: Hint: Number of nucleons = n + Z
y
theo = q × d = 1.6 × 10–19 × 1.27 × 10–8 × 10–2 C-m Sol.: For element zX ,
= 2.032 × 10–29 C-m (Coulomb-meter) Number of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16
Number of nucleons = n + Z = y
2.032  10 29
 D = 6.1D 31 = 16 + Z
3.33  10 30
Z = 15
1.03 Z = 15 (i.e. phosphorous), period no. = 3
Percentage ionic character = × 100 = 16.88%
6.1 group no. = 15
Percent covalent character = 100 – 16.88 = 83.12%
60. Answer (2)
54. Answer (1)
Hint: CCl4 molecule has tetrahedral geometry.
Hint: Half filled and fully filled electronic
Sol.: Number of bond angles of 109.5° are 6
configurations are more stable.
Sol.: Electronic configuration of Be is 1s2, 2s2 Cl
Due to completely filled 2s2 configuration of Be,
energy is required to add an extra electron in Be C
atom. Cl Cl
55. Answer (1)
Cl
1
Hint: Total spin = × total unpaired electrons 61. Answer (1)
2
6
Hint: Orbitals lying on the same axis can overlap
3d with each other.
Sol.: Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d 6 : Sol.: px and p y orbitals are in different axis so
cannot overlap with each other.

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
62. Answer (2) 70. Answer (2)
Hint: CO : 1s2, *1s2, 2s 2, 2p2x = 2p2y, 2p2z, *2s2 Hint: For covalent bond, formal charge contribution
NO+ : 1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2pz2, 2px2 = 2py2 =0
10  4 For coordinate bond, formal charge contribution = +1
Sol.: CO : BO = =3 and –1
2
10  4 Sol.:  Formal charge on S-atom
NO+ : BO = 3
2  0
  0  (
1)
 ( 
1)   2
63. Answer (1) Covalent Coordinate
bond bond
Hint: H-bonding is observed when H-atom is directly
attached to O, F and N-atom. 71. Answer (4)
Sol.: In CH3F, F-atom is attached to carbon atom. Hint: In ionic solids, the sum of the electron gain
64. Answer (4) enthalpy and the ionization enthalpy may be positive
Hint: For shortest wavelength of any series, n2 = . but still the crystal structure gets stabilized due to
energy released in the formation of the crystal
1  1 1 
Sol.:    RZ2  2  2  lattice.
  
 n1 n2  Sol.: A qualitative measure of the stability of an ionic
1  1 1  compound is provided by its enthalpy of lattice
   R  (3)2   2  2 
 3   formation.
1 72. Answer (1)
   R  109677 cm1
 Weight of solute
65. Answer (3) Hint: ppm =  106
Weight of solution
nh
Hint: Angular momentum in nth shell = = n Weight of solute 6
2 Sol.: 15  Weight of solution  10
Sol.: Change in angular momentum = 5 – 3 = 2
66. Answer (4) Weight of solute
  15  106
Hint: Ba : [Xe]6s2 Weight of solution
Sol.: For valence electrons,
Weight of solute
1 1 Percentage by mass = Weight of solution × 100
n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, s =  or –
2 2
67. Answer (1) = 15 × 10–6 × 100 = 15 × 10–4
Hint: h = w0 + KE 73. Answer (4)
hc n2
Sol.: = w0 + 2 ...(1) Hint: rn  0.529  Å
 Z
4hc 12
= w0 + 10 ...(2) Sol.: rn  0.529   0.529  0.25 Å
 4
4(w0 + 2) = w0 + 10 74. Answer (1)
3w0 = 2 Hint: Find the mole of CO required for the reduction
2 of Fe2O3 by stoichiometry.
w0 = eV.
3 Sol.: Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
68. Answer (4)
nFe2O3 n
Hint: For H-atom, energy of electron does not   CO  nCO  3  nFe2O3
depend on the value of (l) in its ground state. 1 3
Sol.: 3s and 3p orbitals are degenerate for H-atom. 2C + O2  2CO
69. Answer (4) nO2nCO 3  nFe2O3
Hint: Octet rule is applicable to mainly the elements    nO2 
1 2 2
of second period of periodic table.
 Volume of O2 required at STP
Sol.: Octet rule does not account for the shape of
molecules and it does not explain the relative 3 1
=  × 22400 = 210 ml
stability of molecules. 2 160

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
75. Answer (2) 82. Answer (3)
Hint: Percentage of an element Hint: Photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons
Weight of element from metal surface when light of suitable energy falls
= × 100 on metal surface.
Weight of compound
Sol.: Stark effect and Zeeman effect are the splitting
Sol.: Percentage of Be
of spectral lines under the influence of electric field
Number of Be atom in 1 molecule  9 and magnetic field respectively.
= × 100
Molecular mass of compound 83. Answer (1)
x9 Hint: Electrons of outermost shell which take part in
15 = × 100
2700 hybridisation but do not form bond are called lone
x = 45 pair of electrons.
76. Answer (3) Sol.: I3+
Hint: Calculate moles of N and C in compound. Hybrid orbital = -bond + l.p. = 2 + 2 = 4  sp3
+
Sol.:
Element % Moles Simple mole
ratio I
C 46.2 46.2/12 = 3.85 1 I
N 53.8 53.8/14 = 3.84 1
I
 Empirical formula = CN
Number of lone pairs of electrons = 8
77. Answer (2)
84. Answer (1)
Hint: Mass percentage of oxygen
Hint: C2 contains two -bonds as per MOT.
Weight of oxygen Sol.: Al4C3  4Al3+ + 3C 4 –
= × 100
Weight of Compound
Sol.: Mass percentage of oxygen CaC2  Ca2+ +C22– (C C)
Weight of oxygen C2H4  CH2 = CH2
= × 100 85. Answer (2)
Weight of H2SO4
Hint: Species having no unpaired electron are
64
= × 100 = 65.31% diamagnetic in nature.
98
Sol.: O3 has no unpaired electron.
78. Answer (2)
86. Answer (4)
Hint: For dilution; M1V1 = M2V2
Hint: Symmetric molecule has zero dipole moment.
Sol.: M1V1 = M2V2
F H
 0.1 
0.5 × 20 =   × V2 Cl
 3  Sol.: F P C
V2 = 300 ml
Cl H Cl
 Volume of H2O required = 300 – 20 = 280 ml
F Cl
79. Answer (4)
Hint: NO, N2O and CO are neutral oxides ( 0) ( 0)
Sol.: BeO is an amphoteric oxide. F F
80. Answer (1) F F
Hint: In nth shell, Number of waves = n Xe B
Sol.: Two waves mean 2nd shell (n = 2) F F F F
13.6  (1) 2 F F
E2 = = – 3.4 eV
22 ( 0) ( = 0)
81. Answer (3) 87. Answer (3)
Hint: Cu (29) : [Ar]4s13d10 Hint: Ether (weakly-polar solvent) can dissolve non-
Sol.: Since 4s subshell is not completely filled but polar (covalent) solute.
3d subshell is completely filled in Cu-atom, so Sol.: Due to small size of Li + , LiCl have high
Aufbau’s principle is violated. covalent character (non-polar) among the given salts.

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

88. Answer (2) 93. Answer (1)

Hint: Resonating structures have identical Hint: Cells of onion peel are plant cells.
arrangements of atoms. Sol.: Both plant and animal cells have double
Sol.: Resonating structures differ only in the membrane bound nucleus, 70S and 80S ribosomes
distribution of electrons. which are not bound by any membrane. Cells of
89. Answer (1) higher plants lack centrioles which are also non-
Hint: membrane bound organelles but are present in
animal cells.
Total number of covalent bond
A plant cell has its outer boundary as cell wall which
between two atoms is absent in an animal cell.
Bond order =
Number of resonating structures 94. Answer (2)
–
O O Hint: Along with cellulose various other complex
modified carbohydrates are found in algal cell wall.
–
O Cl O O Cl O Sol.:
Sol.:
Middle lamella : Ca/Mg pectate
O O
Primary cell wall (plant) : Cellulose
O O Secondary cell wall (plant) : Cellulose,
– hemicellulose, lignin
O Cl O O Cl O
suberin etc.
–
O O 95. Answer (2)
Hint: The cell organelle was named after its
1 2  2  2 7
Bond order =   1.75 discoverer.
4 4
–
Sol.: SER is the site of lipid synthesis which are
O O O glycosidated in golgi & form glycolipids.
–
O N O N O N Since glycosidation is absent, it means golgi is not
–
O O O performing its function.
1 2  1 96. Answer (2)
Bond order = = 1.33 Hint: Given diagram shows longitudinal section of
3
mitochondria.
90. Answer (1)
Sol.: 'A' is outer membrane which is more
Hint: Group-14 and group-15 elements have 4 and 5
permeable than inner one and lacks cardiolipins.
electrons in their outermost shell respectively hence
can easily complete their octet by forming covalent 'B' is extension of inner membrane called crista &
bonds. has oxysomes or F1 particles.
Sol.: Boron has three electrons in its outermost 'C' is matrix which has circular dsDNA, 70S
shell hence B2H6 is an electron deficient species. ribosomes & enzymes for Kreb's cycle.
97. Answer (2)
BIOLOGY Hint: Both are bacterial endosymbionts of cells and
self duplicating.
91. Answer (3) Sol.: Oxidation of carbohydrates occurs in
Hint: These are eukaryotic cells. mitochondria, while storage of starch occurs in
Sol.: All of them bacteria, RBCs and protozoans chloroplast.
were observed by A.V. Leeuwenhoek but mature 98. Answer (2)
RBCs do not have nucleus at maturity in mammals. Hint: This organelle is a part of endomembrane
Bacterial cells also lack nucleus throughout their life system.
not at maturity as they are prokaryotes. Sol.: In plant cell vacuole can occupy more than
92. Answer (2) 90% volume of the cell.
Hint: Popularly they are known as suicidal bags. It contains water, sap & excretory products.
Sol.: Lysosomes are part of endomembrane system 99. Answer (3)
which can acquire various shapes & have enzymes Hint: Ribosomes are also known as ribonucleoprotein
to digest almost all types of biomolecules. particles.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: Ribosome is composed of rRNA + Protein.
Sometimes more than one ribosome attaches on a
single mRNA (chain of ribosomes) called
polyribosome or polysomes.
Ribosomes are found in cytoplasm, within or on
surface of cell organelles.
100. Answer (4)
Hint: Extrachromosomal DNA is known as plasmid.
Sol.: Plasmid is not considered as inclusion body of
prokaryotes.
It has some specific genes.
101. Answer (1)
Hint: This structure is analogous to chloroplast of
mesophyll cells.
Sol.: Chromatophores contain photosynthetic
pigments and are found in cyanobacteria.
102. Answer (1)
Hint: Exclusive features of living beings are not
present in non-living things.
Sol.: No non-living object can show consciousness
and metabolism. But they can show extrinsic growth.
Thus it cannot be a feature of living organisms.
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Bacterial and eukaryotic flagella are entirely
different in their structure and constituent proteins.
Sol.: Both types of flagella have functional similarity
only.
Bacterial flagella is made up of flagellin protein and
basal body does not have 9 + 0 arrangement of
microtubules.
Eukaryotic flagella are made up of tubulin protein &
has 9 + 2 arrangement. Centriole form basal body.
104. Answer (3)
Hint: Bacterial envelope consist of glycocalyx, cell
wall & plasma membrane.
Sol.: Plasma membrane of bacteria and eukaryotes
is similar.
It contains phosphoglycerides with hydrophilic head
and hydrophobic tail of saturated hydrocarbons.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Author or discoverer's name is not Latinised in
biological nomenclature.
Sol.: In binomial epithet, author name is not printed
in italics. Only genus and species names are
printed in italics to show their Latin origin.
106. Answer (2)
Hint: This structure lacks ribosomes on it.
Sol.: Lipid synthesis occurs in SER. Steroidal
hormones are lipid derivative.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Telocentric chromosomes have centromere at
one end.
12/16
Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: Metacentric chromosome V shaped
Submetacentric chromosome L shaped
Acrocentric chromosome J shaped
Telocentric chromosome I shaped
108. Answer (3)
Hint: Nucleolus is the site of active r-RNA synthesis.
Sol.: Prokaryotes lack nucleolus & nucleus thus it
will be absent in purple & green sulphur bacteria.
109. Answer (2)
Hint: These structures are present on sides of
centromere.
Sol.: Kinetochores are disc shaped structures
present on sides of centromere and directly attach
with spindle fibres.
110. Answer (2)
Hint: Those chromosomes which have small
fragments are known as SAT chromosomes.
Sol.: Chromosome fragment separated by
secondary constriction is called satellite.
111. Answer (2)
Hint: Such plastids are abundant in tomato & carrot.
Sol.: Plastids which impart different specific colour
to the plant organs are known as chromoplast.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: These structures are known as living
components in dead cell wall.
Sol.: Plasmodesmata connect symplast of two
neighbouring cells.
113. Answer (4)
Hint: This face is also known as trans or maturing
face.
Sol.: Materials to be secreted are released in the
form of vesicles via trans or maturing or concave
face.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: Lampbrush chromosomes are found in primary
oocytes of vertebrates and invertebrates in prophase I.
Sol.: Lampbrush chromosomes are bivalents that are
attached at chiasma in diplotene stage. They remain
in this stage for a longer time & form several loops
which are transcriptionally active.
115. Answer (3)
Hint: This cell organelle has peroxide producing
enzyme i.e. catalase.
Sol.: Peroxisome is single membrane bound &
participates in photorespiration along with chloroplast
& mitochondria.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: They are absent in prokaryotes.
Sol.: Cell shape maintaining proteinaceous
structures are microtubules which constitute
cytoskeleton.
Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
117. Answer (1)
Hint: Plasmids are circular dsDNA.
Sol.: Plasmids are smaller than genomic DNA.
118. Answer (2)
Hint: The scientific name of brinjal is Solanum
melongena
Sol.: The scientific name of potato is Solanum
tuberosum
Thus only specific epithets of brinjal and potato are
different.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Prophase is the first stage of M-Phase.
Sol.: Prophase begins with condensation of
chromatin material. Complete disintegration of nuclear
membrane marks the beginning of metaphase.
120. Answer (2)
Hint: A pair of homologous chromosomes is called
a bivalent.
Sol.: 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
Since there are 80 chromatids, thus number of
chromosomes is 40.
Number of bivalents
Total number of chromosome
= 130.
2
40
= = 20
2 material between non sister chromatids of
121. Answer (4)
Hint: G1 is gap phase between M and S phase.
Sol.: Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase
while rest all synthesize in G1 phase.
122. Answer (4)
Hint: The labelled herbarium sheet provides some
informations regarding the pasted specimen.
Sol.: Label does not provide the complete taxonomic
classification of a specimen. It contains botanical &
family names only.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Some diseased & old cells, bacteria and
protozoa show amitotic division.
Sol.: Prokaryotes do not divide mitotically.
124. Answer (2)
Hint: Homologous chromosomes begin to separate
towards opposite poles in Anaphase I.
Sol.: Since chromosoms recoil in M-II therefore they
do not extend extremely in telophase I.
Recombination completes at the end of pachytene
and two non sister chromatids are linked with each
other.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Meiosis is responsible for bringing variations in
cells.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: Four daughter cells (haploid) produced after
M-II are genetically dissimilar to each other as well
as with their parents.
126. Answer (1)
Hint: Desynapsis is separation of a homologous
chromosome pairs from each other after crossing over.
Sol.: Desynapsis Begins at diplotene
Chiasma formation Diplotene
Chiasma terminalisation Diakinesis
127. Answer (3)
Hint: Centromere splitting leads to chromatid
separation.
Sol.: At anaphase I homologous chromosomes get
separated while chromatids separate in anaphase II.
128. Answer (4)
Hint: Museum is a place used for storing,
preservation and exhibition of plants and animals.
Sol.: A museum does not contain photographs of
plants and animals.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: Given stage shows late prophase.
Sol.: At late prophase cells do not show golgi, ER,
intact nuclear membrane & nucleolus.
Answer (3)
Hint: Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process.
Sol.: Crossing over involves exchange of genetic
homologous chromosome pair.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: Cell cycle is regulated at check points by
cdck.
Sol.: G1  S is major check point
G2  M is minor check point
If the cell has completed replication of DNA but do
not enter in M then cell is arrested at G2  M
check point.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: Karyokinesis will form multiple nuclei in a
single cell if cytokinesis does not take place.
Sol.: This condition is called syncytium. Dyad of
cells is formed after telophase I.
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Synaptonemal complex stabilizes bivalents for
crossing over.
Sol.: Synaptonemal complex forms in zygotene and
dissolves in diplotene.
134. Answer (1)
Hint: Replicated DNA form sister chromatid of
chromosome.
Sol.: In meiosis I homologous chromosomes get
separated but have both the chromatids, thus during
interkinesis DNA do not duplicate.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
135. Answer (4) Sol.: Pepsinogen and mucus are secretion of chief
Hint: Non dividing cells enter from G1 to G0 phase. cells and goblet cells respectively. HCl & castle's
Sol.: G0 phase is found in those cells which remain intrinsic factor are secretions of parietal/oxyntic
in nondividing condition. They are metabolically active cells.
but do not proliferate. 144. Answer (3)
136. Answer (1) Hint: Identify a peptidase.
Hint: Related to defaecation. Sol.: Dipeptidases digest dipeptides into two amino
Sol.: Egestion is elimination of faecal waste through acids.
the anus while removal of nitrogenous waste (urea) 145. Answer (4)
through urethra is called excretion.
Hint: Select autocatalytic enzyme effective under
137. Answer (3) alkaline conditions.
Hint: Most abundant compound in human body in
Sol.: A- Can be pepsin not pepsinogen.
percentage.
B- Can be steapsin if it shows lipolytic activity at
Sol.: Maximum absorption of water occurs in small
pH 7.8
intestine (jejunum) and nearly 1300 ml water is
absorbed in colon. C- Can be rennin if it digests casein at pH 1.8
Lipids, carbohydrates and amino acids of dietary D- Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme
intake are absorbed largely in small intestine. 146 Answer (2)
138. Answer (4) Hint: Liver receives blood from intestine and heart.
Hint: Identify the source of production of brush border Sol.: Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood while
enzymes. hepatic portal vein brings nutrient loaded
Sol.: Nuclease enzyme is pancreatic in origin that deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver
digests nucleic acids which are further broken down (enterohepatic circulation); cystic duct is duct of gall
by nucleotidase and nucleosidase. bladder.
139. Answer (2) 147. Answer (1)
Hint: Name of sphincter that prevents release of bile Hint: Distal part of small intestine contains receptors
into duct of Wirsung. for vitamin B12- CIF complex.
Sol.: Opening of common bile duct is guarded by Sol.: Water reabsorption occurs in nephron but
sphincter of Boyden into main pancreatic duct called absorption occurs in intestine. Vitamin D is essential
duct of Wirsung. Sphincter of Oddi controls release for calcium reabsorption. Absorption of alcohol
of contents of hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum. occurs in stomach.
Pyloric sphincter is present at junction of terminal
148. Answer (2)
end of stomach and small intestine.
Hint: Bile salts promote micelle formation.
140. Answer (1)
Hint: Select the hormone that can target gall bladder Sol.: Chylomicrons are formed in enterocytes and
and pancreas. later they enter lacteals.
Sol.: Cholecystokinin (CCK) promotes release of bile 149. Answer (3)
from gall bladder. Gastrin promotes gastric juice Hint: Gross calorific value is higher than net calorific
secretion. Secretin decreases gastric acid secretion. value.
Enterogastrone targets stomach. Sol.:
141. Answer (2) Gross (Kcal/g) (Net Kcal/g)
Hint: Oral rehydration solution is given to patients Carbohydrates 4.1 4
suffering from increased frequency of watery stools. Protein 5.65 4
Sol.: GIT plays an important role in nutrition, Water 0 0
immunity, and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte
Fat 9.45 9
balance.
142. Answer (3) Roughage 0 0
Hint: Symptom associated with retention of water. Net calorific value
Sol.: Only protein deficiency results in kwashiorkor Butter: fat = 10 × 9 = 90
in children in age group of 1-5 years. Rice: Carbohydrates = 50 × 4 = 200
143. Answer (1) Lentil: Protein = 100 × 4 = 400
Hint: Non-parietal cells include goblet cells, chief
690
cells etc.

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Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
150. Answer (2)
Hint: Term lingual refers to tongue.
Sol.: Labial frenulum attaches lips to gums.
Falciform ligament is associated with liver.
151. Answer (3)
Hint: Some teeth erupt twice in life time of humans.
Sol.: 16 year old is a teenager whose dental formula
is 2122/2122 as wisdom teeth i.e. last molars are
absent. Human teeth can be described as
diphyodont, heterodont and thecodont.
152. Answer (1)
Hint: Mumps is also called parotiditis.
Sol.: In mumps, swelling of parotid glands is seen.
Villi & crypts of Lieberkuhn are found in small
intestine.
153. Deleted
154. Answer (1)
Hint: Filtrate fraction contains bio-micromolecules.
Sol.: Cytosine, a nitrogenous base is a small
molecular weight compound found in acid soluble
fraction. Collagen and Chitin are biomacromolecules
while cholesterol lipid is acid insoluble; hence these
occur in acid insoluble fraction.
155. Answer (2)
Hint: Fructose is called fruit sugar.
Sol.: Fruit sugar is a keto sugar. Blood sugar is
glucose (aldohexose); lactose is milk sugar
composed of glucose and galactose (aldohexoses)
and table sugar is another name for sucrose.
156. Deleted
157. Answer (2)
Hint: Adenylic acid is adenosine triphosphate i.e.
ATP.
Sol.: Deoxypentose is deoxyribose found in DNA.
ATP has pentose called ribose. Adenine is
heterocyclic with atoms of both N and C in the ring.
158. Answer (3)
Hint: Myoglobin is oxygen storing protein while
haemoglobin is oxygen transport protein.
Sol.: Myoglobin is a monomeric protein with tertiary
level of organisation and haemoglobin is a tetrameric
protein with quaternary level of organisation.
159. Answer (3)
Hint: Fats with double bonds have lower melting
points.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: Trihydroxypropane i.e. glycerol is backbone of
phospholipid lecithin. Higher the degree of
unsaturation lower the melting point of fat.
160. Answer (4)
Hint: Hydrolases require water for catalysis.
Sol.: Histidine decarboxylase is a lyase that
removes CO2 from histidine without involving water
molecule.
161. Answer (2)
Hint: Glycosidic bond is a property of sugars and
nucleic acids
Sol.: Loss of water by interaction between two
hydroxyl groups forms glycosidic bond.
162. Answer (2)
Hint: DNA is genetic material of bone cells.
Sol.: DNA lacks uracil as nitrogeneous base.
C5H10O4 is deoxyribose which is found in DNA.
163. Answer (1)
Hint: Inulin is a carbohydrates.
Sol.: Inulin is a polymer of fructose. Glucose has
free aldehyde group.
164. Answer (3)
Hint: Phosphodiester bonds form railing of the ladder
or staircase (DNA).
Sol.: Hydrogen bonds form steps/rungs of the ladder
when DNA is compared to staircase like structure.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Holoenzyme comprises of cofactor and
apoenzyme.
Sol.: Simple enzymes do not require cofactors. e.g.,
pepsin, trypsin etc.
166. Answer (2)
Hint: Carbonic anhydrase requires inorganic cofactor
for its optimal function.
Sol.: Cofactor can be organic or inorganic. Carbonic
anhydrase requires Zn2+ (metal ions) for their optimal
activity.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Structure providing positional information in a
protein determines its specificity.
Sol.: Primary structure of a protein provides
specificity. 'B' represents polynucleotide strands,
where monomers on opposite strand interact through
hydrogen bonds.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
168. Answer (3) Sol.: Ovaries and testes are lined by simple cuboidal
Hint: Rise per base pair in B-DNA is 3.4 Å. epithelium called germinal epithelium.
Total length of DNA 175. Answer (4)
Sol.:
3.4 Hint: Junctions that prevent leakage of substances.
170 Sol.: Gap junctions promote cytoplasmic continuity
= = 50 bp. (base pairs)
3.4 between cells.
169. Answer (4) Adhering junctions (Macula adherens)
Hint: Tissue that forms lining of hollow visceral
176. Answer (4)
organs.
Sol.: Neural tissue is ectodermal in origin except Hint: Identify cells that are structural and functional
microglial cells, muscular and connective tissue are units of neural tissue only.
mesodermal in origin. Sol.: Only neurons are excitable cells in neural
170. Answer (3) tissue and not the neuroglial cells.
Hint: Epithelial tissue is Avascular. 177. Answer (3)
Sol.: Bone, biceps and tendons are examples of Hint: Identify type of muscle with involuntary,
vascular connective tissues while epidermis is unstriated muscle fibres.
epithelial tissue which receives nourishment through
diffusion by blood vessels in dermis. Sol.: Visceral muscles are smooth muscles
171. Answer (1) associated with internal organs. Their fibres are
Hint: Surfaces meant for diffusion and filtration are fusiform in appearance.
lined by thin epithelium. 178. Answer (3)
Sol.: Simple squamous epithelium permits exchange Hint: Identify cells/fibres that are striated but
of gases in alveoli and lines lungs, heart and body involuntary.
cavity. Cilia push products in specific direction. Sol.: Cardiac muscle fibres are branched,
Stratified epithelium provides protection on external
involuntary, striated and excitable. Intercalated disc
surfaces.
function as boosters of cardiac impulse.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Fat storing tissue increases during weight gain. 179. Answer (3)
Sol.: Adipocytes increase in size in obesity. Blood Hint: Blast refers to formative ability of cell.
is 5 litres in body irrespective of obesity. Sol.: Chondroblasts are cartilage forming cells while
173. Answer (1) fibroblasts are fibre secreting cells.
Hint: Identify avascular, tissue that is considered 180. Answer (2)
largest organ of body. Hint: Tendons contain parallel bundles of fibres and
Sol.: Skin contains keratinised, stratified squamous cells.
epithelium. Pharynx, tongue and mucosa are lined
by non keratinised moist epithelial tissues. Sol.: Lamellae are exclusive to bones while lacunae
174. Answer (2) are found in both bones and cartilage. Tendons and
Hint: Tall cells with basal nuclei are located in ligaments are example of dense regular connective
intestinal mucosa. tissue.

‰ ‰ ‰

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 1 (Code F)
Test Date : 28/10/2018

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (1) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160.Deleted
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163.Deleted
20. (4) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (3) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (4) 176. (1)
33. (3) 69. (1) 105. (4) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (1)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

–1 = –2 cos 
PHYSICS
1
1. Answer (2) cos =
2
Hint: Multiplication of vectors. = 60°
 
Sol.: P  aQ 5. Answer (3)


4i  8 j  6k  a –2i – 4 j – 3k  Hint: Horizontal components do not changes.
Sol.: y
a = –2
 v
2. Answer (2) v0
Hint: Stone will attain the velocity of platform at the
time of projection. 
10 ms–1 y
V = 10 2 ms
–1
x
v0 sin  = v sin 
Sol.:
45° x v = v0 sin  cosec 
10 ms–1 6. Answer (4)
a = 5 ms–2 Vy = 10 ms–1 1 gx 2
Hint: y  x tan  –
2 u 2 cos2 
10 ms–1 4 1
t=2s Sol.: y  x – x2
3 3
h0 = 10 m 4  x
y  x 1 – 
3  4
t = 0, y = 0 Range R = 4 m
v 2 sin2  4
Hmax   h0 Angle of projection   tan–1  
2g 3
100  2  1 
2 1 g 1
  10  15 m 2 2

2  10  2  2 u cos  3
=

3. Answer (1) u 2 cos2   15

Hint: x  v Rx .T u cos   15 m/s
 2v 0 sin 37  R 4
Sol.:  v 0 cos 37  20 – 60     60 T 
u cos 

15
s
 g 
 4   6v 0  H tan  4
v 0  – 40     60  H m
 5   50  R 4 3
7. Answer (1)
 4v0 – 200  v0  20  125
Hint: d = v sin.t
v02 – 50v0 – 625 = 0 x = (v cos + vr)t
v 0  25(1  2) m/s Sol.: d = v sin .t
800 = 8 sin .t ...(i)
4. Answer (2)
   x = (v cos  + vr)t
Hint: R  A – B
800 = (8 cos  + 8).t ...(ii)

R  A2  B 2 – 2AB cos  8 sin= 8 cos + 8
8 sin– 8 cos = 8
Sol.: R  A2  B 2 – 2 AB cos  1 1 1
2 2 2 2
sin  – cos  
A  A  A – 2 A cos  2 2 2

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

  1  vy2 = (18)2 – 2 × 10(– 63.8)

sin   –    sin vy2 = 324 + 1276 = 1600
 4 2 4

s
m/
 
– 

30
4 4 o  = 37°
  = 90°

63.8 m
8. Answer (3) g
1 2
Hint: y  uy t – gt
2 
Sol.:
vy = 1600 = 40 m/s
Face of leader
1.75 m 40
tan  =
u 24
 = tan–1(5/3)
37° 11. Answer (3)
h
2m Hint: a  ax2  ay2
Sol.: x  6 cos t
20 m
20  u cos 37  1  u = 25 ms–1 d2x
ax   –62 cos t ...(i)
1 dt 2
(h + 1.75 – 2) = 25 sin 37  1 –  10  1
2
2  y  1 – 4 cos 2t
= 10
ay  4  2  cos 2t
2
...(ii)
h = 10.25 m
9. Answer (2) At t = 1.5 s ax = 0
   ay = 16 2cos3
Hint: V21  V2 – V1
= –16 2 m/s2
V2 anet = 16 2 m/s2
12. Answer (2)
V1 dy
Sol.: Hint: Slope =
dx
60° 
0 30° Sol.: r  at 2 i  bt j
  
  
V21  V2 – V1 = V0 cos60i  V0 sin60 – gt  j  x = at 2;
vx = 2at
y = bt


– V0 cos30i  V0 sin30 – gt  j  vy = b
dy v y b
= V0 cos 60 – cos 30 i   sin 60 – sin 30  j   
dx v x 2at

V21  V0  cos 60 – cos30    sin60 – sin30 
2 2 13. Answer (1)

 a
= 2V0 sin15° Hint: a 
10. Answer (1) a
 
Hint: tan  
vy   
Sol.: A – B  i  2 j  k – 4i  j  2k 
vx  
A – B  –3i  j – k
Sol.: vx = ux = 30 cos37°
 
A – B   –3   1   –1 = 11
2 2 2
4
= 30   24
5  
 A–B –3i  j – k
 3  n   
vy2 = uy2 + 2ayy uy  30 sin 37  30  5  18 m/s  A–B = 11
 

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
14. Answer (1) 1
   tan  
Hint: V RM  V RG – V MG 3
Sol.: VMG = VRG sin 53°  = 30°
 = 30° with vertical to east.
VRG 19. Answer (3)
VRM 53°
Hint: vx = ux + ax t
vy = uy + ay t
VMG
Sol.: vx = 0 = 8 – 2 t
4 t = 4s
5 = VRG 
5 1
 VRG = (25/4) m/s x  ux t  ax t 2
2
15. Answer (2) 1
x  8  4 –  2  4   16 m
2
 
Hint: r  bt 1 – t  2
 1
 dr   y   4  4   32 m
2
Sol.: v   b – 2bt 2
dt
  20. Answer (4)
a  –2b constant  
 dr  dv
16. Answer (2) Hint: v  and a 
   dt dt
Hint: v  v1 – v 2 
Sol.: r  3 t i – 8 t j  10 k
2 
 
Sol.: v  v12  v 22 – 2v1v 2 cos   dr
v   6 t i – 8 j
dt
= 125  125 – 2  125 cos127 
 dv
3 a  6 i a
= 250  2  125  = 20 ms–1 dt
5 
at t = 1 s v  6 i – 8 j 53°
17. Answer (4)  v
a  6 i
 v2
Hint: ac  – rˆ  = 53°
r
21. Answer (1)
2u sin 
v Hint: T = for same level.
g
Sol.: ac Sol.: v
u 30°

 A B
v  constant 60°
18. Answer (1)
   2v sin 30
Hint: V RS  V RG – V SG TAB 
   g
Sol.: V RS  V RG  –V SG    u cos 60 
2  sin30
Vertical cos30  ∵ u cos 60  v cos 30
TAB  
g
 1 1
W E 2  10 3  
TAB  2 2 = 1s
VRS  3
VRG  10
2
–VSG 22. Answer (4)

V SG u sin 
tan    Hint: t 
V RG g

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
26. Answer (3)
u Hint: Displacement = The minimum distance
between initial and final
 positions.
Solution: t = 4 s
 is the angle with horizontal.
5s
T
Sol.: t =
2
2u cos53 t=0
t t=8s
2  10 S

100 m
6 t=9s
t= s
5
23. Answer (1)
1 2
8h S  ut  at
Hint: g  2
T12 – T22 1
S  40  9  –  10  9  = – 45 m; |s| = 45 m
2
Sol.: 2
27. Answer (2)
B
hB hA Hint: Time taken in moving upward = Time taken in
A moving downward under free fall.
0 t t=6s
T2 Sol.:
h5 h7
T1
t=5s t=7s
2
1  T1  1
hA  g  gT12 ...(i) t=4s t=8s
2  2  8 hmax
2 t=3s t=9s
1  T2  1
hB  g  gT22 ...(ii)
2  2  8
1
hA – hB  g (T12 – T22 )
2
t=0
1
h  g T12 – T22  1 2
8 hmax =  10  6 = 180 m
2
24. Answer (4) h5 = h7
Hint: For uniform circular motion speed will be
1
h5 = hmax –  10 1
2
constant.
 2
 dr h5 = 180 – 5 = 175 m
Sol.: (1) | v |
dt , magnitude of velocity 28. Answer (1)
 Hint: At maximum velocity of a body, when
 dv
(2) a  , magnitude of total acceleration acceleration of body becomes zero.
dt Sol.: For maximum velocity
 a = 0 = g – bv
d |v |
(3) , rate of change of speed . g
dt v  ...(i)
25. Answer (1) b
Hint: v2 = u2 + 2as a = g – bv
Sol.: 152 = (5)2 + 2a × 5 dv
 g – bv
225 = 25 + 10a ...(i) dt
g
200 = 10a ...(ii) t
2b
dv
(ii) and (i)
a = 20 ms–2
 g – bv 0
 dt
0
v2 = (25) + 2 × 20 × 1 loge 2
1
t
v  65 ms b

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
29. Answer (2) 32. Answer (2)
Hint: x + d = v0t ...(i) Hint:  ds   vdt
1 2 Sol.: a = bt2
x = at ...(ii)
2 dv = bt2dt
Sol.: t
v
u=0 t3 
v0
a  dv  b  3 
0  0
b 3
v t
d x 3
s
For scooterist b 3
d + x = v0t ...(i)  ds  3  t dt
0 0
1 2
x = 0  at b 4
2
...(ii)  s   t
12
1
50   2t 2  15t b
2  108 
12
 6 4
t2 – 15t + 50 = 0
t2 – 10t – 5t + 50 = 0 b
 108   36  36
t=5s 12
 b = 1 ms–4
t = 10 s
33. Answer (3)
First scooter will overtake then bus will overtake.
1
30. Answer (4) Hint: SBA  uBA t  aBA t 2
v t 2
Hint: Equation of vt graph  1 Sol.: SBA = 750
v 0 t0
1
750  50 10   aBA 10 
2
–v 0
Sol.: v  t t  v 0 2
0
1
 –v  250   aBA 100 
ds   0 t  v 0  dt 2
 t0  aB = 5 ms–2
s t
 –v 0  34. Answer (3)
 ds    t 0
t  v 0  dt

Hint: In a physical relation, dimensions on both
0 0
sides are equal.
–v 0 2
s t  v 0 t Inverted parabola. Sol.: U  [M1L2 T –2 ]
2t0
31. Answer (2) C   t 2   [M0L0 T2 ]
Hint: Body attains the velocity of frame of reference
 B  B 
     U  [M L T ]
1 2 –2
when it is detached from frame of reference. 
 C – t2   C 
v=0
35. Answer (1)
X
40 ms–1 Hint: Z =
Y
O Z X Y
 
Sol.: Z X Y
100 m Sol.:  = IR

R=
0 = (40)2 – 2 × 10 × h I
R  I
40  40  100 =  100   100
h  80 m R  I
2  10
1 0.5
So total distance = 100 + 2 × 80 = 260 m =  100   100 = 6%
100 10

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

 100  49  1  10 –3
R   10  = 1  10 –3 1 – = = 2  10 – 5 m
I 10  50  50
R = [10  ± 6%] L.C. of screw gauge
36. Answer (2) Pitch
=
Hint: Barn is the unit of area, slug is unit of mass. Number of divisions of circular scale
slug   M1 
Sol.:  1 –2 0
   2   [M L T ] =
1  10 –3
= 1  10– 5 m
 barn   L  100
37. Answer (1) L.C. of given scale 1 cm = 10–2 m
Hint: Formula of power. 43. Answer (4)
Sol.:  [P] = [FV] Hint: Classical physics deals mainly with
So, [P] = [FVT0] macroscopic phenomena.
38. Answer (3) Sol.: Microscopic domain includes phenomena at
Hint: Minimum error in a instrument is equal to its the laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical scale.
least count. 44. Answer (4)
Sol.: Minimum inaccuracy = L.C Hint: Strong nuclear forces binds protons and
neutrons in a nucleus.
 VSD 
L.C = MSD 1 –
MSD 
Sol.: Strong nuclear forces are short range force.
 They are charge independent.
 38  2
= 1.2 1 –  10 –3 = 1.2   10 –3 45. Answer (1)

40  40
 Hint: Ernest Rutherford proposed nuclear model of
= 6.0 × 10–5 = 0.06 mm atom.
39. Answer (4) Sol.: (1) Enrico Fermi – controlled nuclear fission.
Hint: If a physical quantity is unitless then it must (2) Rutherford – nuclear model of atom.
be dimensionless. (3) Hahn and Meitner – neutron induced fission.
Sol.:     ds  [M0L0 T 0 ]
r2 CHEMISTRY
Solid angle’s unit – steradian 46. Answer (1)
Reynolds number [R ] = [M 0L0T 0] Hint: Group-14 and group-15 elements have 4 and 5
[R ] is only a number has no unit. electrons in their outermost shell respectively hence
40. Answer (4) can easily complete their octet by forming covalent
Q Q bonds.
Hint: c = and L = Sol.: Boron has three electrons in its outermost
mT m
Sol.: B = [M1L–1T–2] shell hence B2H6 is an electron deficient species.
Energy density u = [M1L–1T–2] 47. Answer (1)
Hint:
Q [M1L2 T –2 ]
Latent heat = = = [L2T–2] Total number of covalent bond
m [M1 ]
41. Answer (1) between two atoms
Bond order =
Hint: In addition and subtraction, digits should be Number of resonating structures
round off least decimal point. –
O O
Sol.: a = 101.6, b = 100.7
–
a – b = 101.6 – 100.7 O Cl O O Cl O
Sol.:
a – b = 000.9
O O
So, number of significant figures is one.
42. Answer (3) O O
Hint: Maximum least count  least precise. –
O Cl O O Cl O
 n – 1
Sol.: L.C of Vernier callipers = MSD 1 – –
 n  O O

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

1 2  2  2 7 Sol.: I3+
Bond order =   1.75 Hybrid orbital = -bond + l.p. = 2 + 2 = 4  sp3
4 4
– +
O O O
–
O N O N O N
– I
O O O
I
1 2  1
Bond order = = 1.33
3
I
48. Answer (2)
Hint: Resonating structures have identical Number of lone pairs of electrons = 8
arrangements of atoms. 54. Answer (3)
Sol.: Resonating structures differ only in the Hint: Photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons
from metal surface when light of suitable energy falls
distribution of electrons.
on metal surface.
49. Answer (3)
Sol.: Stark effect and Zeeman effect are the splitting
Hint: Ether (weakly-polar solvent) can dissolve of spectral lines under the influence of electric field
non-polar (covalent) solute. and magnetic field respectively.
Sol.: Due to small size of Li + , LiCl have high 55. Answer (3)
covalent character (non-polar) among the given salts. Hint: Cu (29) : [Ar]4s13d10
50. Answer (4) Sol.: Since 4s subshell is not completely filled but
Hint: Symmetric molecule has zero dipole moment. 3d subshell is completely filled in Cu-atom, so
Aufbau’s principle is violated.
F H 56. Answer (1)
Cl Hint: In nth shell, Number of waves = n
Sol.: F P C Sol.: Two waves mean 2nd shell (n = 2)
Cl H Cl
F Cl 13.6  (1)2
E2 = = – 3.4 eV
22
( 0) ( 0) 57. Answer (4)
Hint: NO, N2O and CO are neutral oxides
F F Sol.: BeO is an amphoteric oxide.
F F 58. Answer (2)
Xe B Hint: For dilution; M1V1 = M2V2
F F F F Sol.: M1V1 = M2V2
F F  0.1 
0.5 × 20 =   × V2
( 0) ( = 0)  3 
V2 = 300 ml
51. Answer (2)  Volume of H2O required = 300 – 20 = 280 ml
Hint: Species having no unpaired electron are
59. Answer (2)
diamagnetic in nature.
Hint: Mass percentage of oxygen
Sol.: O3 has no unpaired electron.
52. Answer (1) Weight of oxygen
= × 100
Hint: C2 contains two -bonds as per MOT. Weight of Compound
Sol.: Al4C3  4Al3+ + 3C 4 – Sol.: Mass percentage of oxygen
Weight of oxygen
CaC2  Ca2+ +C22– (C C) = × 100
Weight of H2SO4
C2H4  CH2 = CH2
53. Answer (1) 64
= × 100 = 65.31%
Hint: Electrons of outermost shell which take part in 98
hybridisation but do not form bond are called lone 60. Answer (3)
pair of electrons. Hint: Calculate moles of N and C in compound.

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: 65. Answer (4)
Element % Moles Simple mole Hint: In ionic solids, the sum of the electron gain
ratio enthalpy and the ionization enthalpy may be positive
C 46.2 46.2/12 = 3.85 1 but still the crystal structure gets stabilized due to
energy released in the formation of the crystal
N 53.8 53.8/14 = 3.84 1
lattice.
Sol.: A qualitative measure of the stability of an ionic
 Empirical formula = CN
compound is provided by its enthalpy of lattice
61. Answer (2)
formation.
Hint: Percentage of an element
66. Answer (2)
Weight of element
= × 100 Hint: For covalent bond, formal charge contribution
Weight of compound
=0
Sol.: Percentage of Be
For coordinate bond, formal charge contribution = +1
Number of Be atom in 1 molecule  9 and –1
= × 100
Molecular mass of compound Sol.:  Formal charge on S-atom
x9
15 = × 100  0
  0  (
1)
 ( 
1)   2
2700 Covalent Coordinate
x = 45 bond bond

62. Answer (1) 67. Answer (4)

Hint: Find the mole of CO required for the reduction Hint: Octet rule is applicable to mainly the elements
of Fe2O3 by stoichiometry. of second period of periodic table.
Sol.: Octet rule does not account for the shape of
Sol.: Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
molecules and it does not explain the relative
nFe2O3 n stability of molecules.
  CO  nCO  3  nFe2O3
1 3 68. Answer (4)
2C + O2  2CO Hint: For H-atom, energy of electron does not
depend on the value of (l) in its ground state.
nO2nCO 3  nFe2O3
   nO2  Sol.: 3s and 3p orbitals are degenerate for H-atom.
1 2 2 69. Answer (1)
 Volume of O2 required at STP Hint: h = w0 + KE
3 1 hc
=  × 22400 = 210 ml Sol.: = w0 + 2 ...(1)
2 160 
63. Answer (4) 4hc
= w0 + 10 ...(2)
n2 
Hint: rn  0.529  Å 4(w0 + 2) = w0 + 10
Z
3w0 = 2
12
Sol.: rn  0.529   0.529  0.25 Å 2
4 w0 = eV.
64. Answer (1) 3
70. Answer (4)
Weight of solute Hint: Ba : [Xe]6s2
Hint: ppm =  106
Weight of solution Sol.: For valence electrons,
Weight of solute 1 1
Sol.: 15  Weight of solution  10
6 n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, s =  or –
2 2
71. Answer (3)
Weight of solute
  15  106 nh
Weight of solution Hint: Angular momentum in nth shell = = n
2
Weight of solute Sol.: Change in angular momentum = 5 – 3 = 2
Percentage by mass = Weight of solution × 100 72. Answer (4)
= 15 × 10–6 × 100 = 15 × 10–4 Hint: For shortest wavelength of any series, n2 = .

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

 1 Sol.: BrF5 : sp3d 2 hybridisation

1 1 
Sol.:    RZ2   2 F
 n 2 
 1 n2  F
F
1  1 1  Br
 R  (3)2   2  2 
 3   F F
1
   R  109677 cm1 Due to lp-bp repulsions, no bond angle will be right

angled.
73. Answer (1)
Hint: H-bonding is observed when H-atom is directly 80. Answer (2)
attached to O, F and N-atom. Hint: Visible region transitions belongs to Balmer
Sol.: In CH3F, F-atom is attached to carbon atom. transition.
74. Answer (2) Sol.: n2 = 6, 5, 4, 3 to n1 = 2 means 4 lines belong
Hint: CO : 1s2, *1s2, 2s 2, 2p2x = 2p2y, 2p2z, *2s2 to visible region.
NO+ : 1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2pz2, 2px2 = 2py2 81. Answer (1)
1
10  4 Hint: Total spin = × total unpaired electrons
Sol.: CO : BO = =3 2
2 6
3d
10  4
NO+ : BO = 3
2 Sol.: Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d 6 :
75. Answer (1)
Hint: Orbitals lying on the same axis can overlap 1
Total spin = ×4=2
with each other. 2
Sol.: p x and p y orbitals are in different axis so 82. Answer (1)
cannot overlap with each other. Hint: Half filled and fully filled electronic
76. Answer (2) configurations are more stable.
Hint: CCl4 molecule has tetrahedral geometry. Sol.: Electronic configuration of Be is 1s2, 2s2
Sol.: Number of bond angles of 109.5° are 6 Due to completely filled 2s2 configuration of Be,
Cl energy is required to add an extra electron in Be
atom.
C 83. Answer (3)
Cl Cl obs
Hint: Percentage ionic character = × 100
Cl  theo
77. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: Number of nucleons = n + Z theo = q × d = 1.6 × 10–19 × 1.27 × 10–8 × 10–2 C-m
y
Sol.: For element zX , = 2.032 × 10–29 C-m (Coulomb-meter)
Number of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16
2.032  1029
Number of nucleons = n + Z = y  D = 6.1 D
3.33  1030
31 = 16 + Z
Z = 15 1.03
Percentage ionic character = × 100 = 16.88%
Z = 15 (i.e. phosphorous), period no. = 3 6.1
group no. = 15 Percent covalent character = 100 – 16.88 = 83.12%
78. Answer (2) 84. Answer (4)
Hint: Number of nodal planes = l (except dz2) Hint: C3O2 : O == C == C == C == O
Sol.: Orbital No. of nodal planes -bonds 4
Sol.:   1: 1
4d 2 0 -bonds 4
z
3d x 2  y 2 85. Answer (3)
2
h h
3s 0 Hint:   
mv 2mKE
3p 1
79. Answer (3) 6.626  1034
Sol.:  
Hint: Due to presence of lone pair of electrons, 2  9.1 1031  4.55  1023
molecule will not be symmetric.  = 72.81 × 10–9 m,  = 72.81 nm

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
86. Answer (2) Sol.: This condition is called syncytium. Dyad of
Hint: Ethyne (C2H2) is a linear molecule. cells is formed after telophase I.
Sol.: Ethyne : sp 95. Answer (2)
Graphite : sp2 Hint: Cell cycle is regulated at check points by
Diamond : sp3 cdck.
87. Answer (1) Sol.: G1  S is major check point
Hint: Eq. weight of ionic compound = ECation + G2  M is minor check point
EAnion. If the cell has completed replication of DNA but do
Sol.: g.eq. of carbonate = g.eq. of oxide not enter in M then cell is arrested at G2  M
1 0.6 check point.

 60  EM  8 96. Answer (3)
EM   
 2  Hint: Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process.
EM = 25 g Sol.: Crossing over involves exchange of genetic
88. Answer (3) material between non-sister chromatids of
Hint: 13th group elements do not follow regular trend homologous chromosome pair.
of ionisation enthalpy. 97. Answer (4)
Sol.: Electron affinity : S > Se > Te > O Hint: Given stage shows late prophase.
Electronegativity : F > O > N > P Sol.: At late prophase cells do not show golgi, ER,
Ionic radii : H– > Br– > Cl– > F– intact nuclear membrane & nucleolus.
89. Answer (4) 98. Answer (4)
Hint: Polarising power is explained by Fajan rule. Hint: Museum is a place used for storing,
Sol.: Cations having small size and more charge preservation and exhibition of plants and animals.
have more polarising power. Sol.: A museum does not contain photographs of
90. Answer (2) plants and animals.
Hint: One molecule of CO2 contains 22 electrons. 99. Answer (3)
Sol.: Number of atoms = Number of molecules × 3
Hint: Centromere splitting leads to chromatid
Number of electrons 4.4  1026 separation.
 3  3
22 22 Sol.: At anaphase I homologous chromosomes get
= 6 × 1025 separated while chromatids separate in anaphase II.
100. Answer (1)
BIOLOGY Hint: Desynapsis is separation of a homologous
91. Answer (4) chromosome pairs from each other after crossing over.
Hint: Non-dividing cells enter from G1 to G0 phase. Sol.: Desynapsis Begins at diplotene
Sol.: G0 phase is found in those cells which remain Chiasma formation Diplotene
in non-dividing condition. They are metabolically Chiasma terminalisation Diakinesis
active but do not proliferate. 101. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1)
Hint: Meiosis is responsible for bringing variations in
Hint: Replicated DNA form sister chromatid of cells.
chromosome.
Sol.: Four daughter cells (haploid) produced after
Sol.: In meiosis I homologous chromosomes get
M-II are genetically dissimilar to each other as well
separated but have both the chromatids, thus during
interkinesis DNA do not duplicate. as with their parents.
93. Answer (3) 102. Answer (2)
Hint: Synaptonemal complex stabilizes bivalents for Hint: Homologous chromosomes begin to separate
crossing over. towards opposite poles in Anaphase I.
Sol.: Synaptonemal complex forms in zygotene and Sol.: Since chromosoms recoil in M-II therefore they
dissolves in diplotene. do not extend extremely in telophase I.
94. Answer (4) Recombination completes at the end of pachytene
Hint: Karyokinesis will form multiple nuclei in a and two non sister chromatids are linked with each
single cell if cytokinesis does not take place. other.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Some diseased & old cells, bacteria and
protozoa show amitotic division.
Sol.: Prokaryotes do not divide mitotically.
104. Answer (4)
Hint: The labelled herbarium sheet provides some
informations regarding the pasted specimen.
Sol.: Label does not provide the complete taxonomic
classification of a specimen. It contains botanical &
family names only.
105. Answer (4)
Hint: G1 is gap phase between M and S phase.
Sol.: Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase
while rest all synthesize in G1 phase.
106. Answer (2)
Hint: A pair of homologous chromosomes is called
a bivalent.
Sol.: 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
Since there are 80 chromatids, thus number of
chromosomes is 40.
Number of bivalents
Total number of chromosome
= 116. Answer (2)
2
40
= = 20
2
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Prophase is the first stage of M-Phase.
Sol.: Prophase begins with condensation of
chromatin material. Complete disintegration of nuclear
membrane marks the beginning of metaphase.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: The scientific name of brinjal is Solanum
melongena
Sol.: The scientific name of potato is Solanum
tuberosum
Thus only specific epithets of brinjal and potato are
different.
109. Answer (1)
Hint: Plasmids are circular dsDNA.
Sol.: Plasmids are smaller than genomic DNA.
110. Answer (3)
Hint: They are absent in prokaryotes.
Sol.: Cell shape maintaining proteinaceous
structures are microtubules which constitute
cytoskeleton.
111. Answer (3)
Hint: This cell organelle has peroxide producing
enzyme i.e. catalase.
Sol.: Peroxisome is single membrane bound &
participates in photorespiration along with chloroplast
& mitochondria.
Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Lampbrush chromosomes are found in primary
oocytes of vertebrates and invertebrates in prophase I.
Sol.: Lampbrush chromosomes are bivalents that
are attached at chiasma in diplotene stage. They
remain in this stage for a longer time & form several
loops which are transcriptionally active.
113. Answer (4)
Hint: This face is also known as trans or maturing
face.
Sol.: Materials to be secreted are released in the
form of vesicles via trans or maturing or concave
face.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: These structures are known as living
components in dead cell wall.
Sol.: Plasmodesmata connect symplast of two
neighbouring cells.
115. Answer (2)
Hint: Such plastids are abundant in tomato & carrot.
Sol.: Plastids which impart different specific colour
to the plant organs are known as chromoplast.
Hint: Those chromosomes which have small
fragments are known as SAT chromosomes.
Sol.: Chromosome fragment separated by secondary
constriction is called satellite.
117. Answer (2)
Hint: These structures are present on sides of
centromere.
Sol.: Kinetochores are disc shaped structures
present on sides of centromere and directly attach
with spindle fibres.
118. Answer (3)
Hint: Nucleolus is the site of active r-RNA synthesis.
Sol.: Prokaryotes lack nucleolus & nucleus thus it
will be absent in purple & green sulphur bacteria.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Telocentric chromosomes have centromere at
one end.
Sol.: Metacentric chromosome V shaped
Submetacentric chromosome L shaped
Acrocentric chromosome J shaped
Telocentric chromosome I shaped
120. Answer (2)
Hint: This structure lacks ribosomes on it.
Sol.: Lipid synthesis occurs in SER. Steroidal
hormones are lipid derivative.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: Author or discoverer's name is not Latinised in
biological nomenclature.

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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: In binomial epithet, author name is not printed
in italics. Only genus and species names are
printed in italics to show their Latin origin.
122. Answer (3)
Hint: Bacterial envelope consist of glycocalyx, cell
wall & plasma membrane.
Sol.: Plasma membrane of bacteria and eukaryotes
is similar.
It contains phosphoglycerides with hydrophilic head
and hydrophobic tail of saturated hydrocarbons.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Bacterial and eukaryotic flagella are entirely
different in their structure and constituent proteins.
Sol.: Both types of flagella have functional similarity
only.
Bacterial flagella is made up of flagellin protein and
basal body does not have 9 + 0 arrangement of
microtubules.
Eukaryotic flagella are made up of tubulin protein &
has 9 + 2 arrangement. Centriole form basal body.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: Exclusive features of living beings are not
present in non-living things.
Sol.: No non-living object can show consciousness
and metabolism. But they can show extrinsic growth.
Thus it cannot be a feature of living organisms.
125. Answer (1)
Hint: This structure is analogous to chloroplast of
mesophyll cells.
Sol.: Chromatophores contain photosynthetic
pigments and are found in cyanobacteria.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: Extrachromosomal DNA is known as plasmid.
Sol.: Plasmid is not considered as inclusion body of
prokaryotes.
It has some specific genes.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: Ribosomes are also known as ribonucleoprotein
particles.
Sol.: Ribosome is composed of rRNA + Protein.
Sometimes more than one ribosome attaches on a
single mRNA (chain of ribosomes) called
polyribosome or polysomes.
Ribosomes are found in cytoplasm, within or on
surface of cell organelles.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: This organelle is a part of endomembrane
system.
Sol.: In plant cell vacuole can occupy more than
90% volume of the cell.
It contains water, sap & excretory products.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Both are bacterial endosymbionts of cells and
self duplicating.
Sol.: Oxidation of carbohydrates occurs in
mitochondria, while storage of starch occurs in
chloroplast.
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Given diagram shows longitudinal section of
mitochondria.
Sol.: 'A' is outer membrane which is more
permeable than inner one and lacks cardiolipins.
'B' is extension of inner membrane called crista &
has oxysomes or F1 particles.
'C' is matrix which has circular dsDNA, 70S
ribosomes & enzymes for Kreb's cycle.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: The cell organelle was named after its
discoverer.
Sol.: SER is the site of lipid synthesis which are
glycosidated in golgi & form glycolipids.
Since glycosidation is absent, it means golgi is not
performing its function.
132. Answer (2)
Hint: Along with cellulose various other complex
modified carbohydrates are found in algal cell wall.
Sol.:
Middle lamella : Ca/Mg pectate
Primary cell wall (plant) : Cellulose
Secondary cell wall (plant) : Cellulose,
hemicellulose, lignin
suberin etc.
133. Answer (1)
Hint: Cells of onion peel are plant cells.
Sol.: Both plant and animal cells have double
membrane bound nucleus, 70S and 80S ribosomes
which are not bound by any membrane. Cells of
higher plants lack centrioles which are also non-
membrane bound organelles but are present in
animal cells.
A plant cell has its outer boundary as cell wall which
is absent in an animal cell.
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Popularly they are known as suicidal bags.
Sol.: Lysosomes are part of endomembrane system
which can acquire various shapes & have enzymes
to digest almost all types of biomolecules.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
135. Answer (3)
Hint: These are eukaryotic cells.
Sol.: All of them bacteria, RBCs and protozoans
were observed by A.V. Leeuwenhoek but mature
RBCs do not have nucleus at maturity in mammals.
Bacterial cells also lack nucleus throughout their life
not at maturity as they are prokaryotes.
136. Answer (2)
Hint: Tendons contain parallel bundles of fibres and
cells.
Sol.: Lamellae are exclusive to bones while lacunae
are found in both bones and cartilage. Tendons and
ligaments are example of dense regular connective
tissue.
137. Answer (3)
Hint: Blast refers to formative ability of cell.
Sol.: Chondroblasts are cartilage forming cells while
fibroblasts are fibre secreting cells.
138. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify cells/fibres that are striated but
involuntary.
Sol.: Cardiac muscle fibres are branched,
involuntary, striated and excitable. Intercalated disc
function as boosters of cardiac impulse.
139. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify type of muscle with involuntary,
unstriated muscle fibres.
Sol.: Visceral muscles are smooth muscles
associated with internal organs. Their fibres are
fusiform in appearance.
140. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify cells that are structural and functional
units of neural tissue only.
Sol.: Only neurons are excitable cells in neural
tissue and not the neuroglial cells.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: Junctions that prevent leakage of substances.
Sol.: Gap junctions promote cytoplasmic continuity
between cells.
Adhering junctions (Macula adherens)
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Tall cells with basal nuclei are located in
intestinal mucosa.
Sol.: Ovaries and testes are lined by simple cuboidal
epithelium called germinal epithelium.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify avascular, tissue that is considered
largest organ of body.
Sol.: Skin contains keratinised, stratified squamous
epithelium. Pharynx, tongue and mucosa are lined
by non-keratinised moist epithelial tissues.
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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Fat storing tissue increases during weight gain.
Sol.: Adipocytes increase in size in obesity. Blood
is 5 litres in body irrespective of obesity.
145. Answer (1)
Hint: Surfaces meant for diffusion and filtration are
lined by thin epithelium.
Sol.: Simple squamous epithelium permits exchange
of gases in alveoli and lines lungs, heart and body
cavity. Cilia push products in specific direction.
Stratified epithelium provides protection on external
surfaces.
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Epithelial tissue is Avascular.
Sol.: Bone, biceps and tendons are examples of
vascular connective tissues while epidermis is
epithelial tissue which receives nourishment through
diffusion by blood vessels in dermis.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Tissue that forms lining of hollow visceral
organs.
Sol.: Neural tissue is ectodermal in origin except
microglial cells, muscular and connective tissue are
mesodermal in origin.
148. Answer (3)
Hint: Rise per base pair in B-DNA is 3.4 Å.
Total length of DNA
Sol.:
3.4
170
= = 50 bp. (base pairs)
3.4
149. Answer (2)
Hint: Structure providing positional information in a
protein determines its specificity.
Sol.: Primary structure of a protein provides
specificity. 'B' represents polynucleotide strands,
where monomers on opposite strand interact through
hydrogen bonds.
150. Answer (2)
Hint: Carbonic anhydrase requires inorganic cofactor
for its optimal function.
Sol.: Cofactor can be organic or inorganic. Carbonic
anhydrase requires Zn2+ (metal ions) for their optimal
activity.
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Holoenzyme comprises of cofactor and
apoenzyme.
Sol.: Simple enzymes do not require cofactors. e.g.,
pepsin, trypsin etc.
Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

152. Answer (3) Sol.: Fruit sugar is a keto sugar. Blood sugar is
Hint: Phosphodiester bonds form railing of the ladder glucose (aldohexose); lactose is milk sugar
or staircase (DNA). composed of glucose and galactose (aldohexoses)
Sol.: Hydrogen bonds form steps/rungs of the ladder and table sugar is another name for sucrose.
when DNA is compared to staircase like structure. 162. Answer (1)
153. Answer (1) Hint: Filtrate fraction contains bio-micromolecules.
Hint: Inulin is a carbohydrates. Sol.: Cytosine, a nitrogenous base is a small
molecular weight compound found in acid soluble
Sol.: Inulin is a polymer of fructose. Glucose has
fraction. Collagen and Chitin are biomacromolecules
free aldehyde group.
while cholesterol lipid is acid insoluble; hence these
154. Answer (2)
occur in acid insoluble fraction.
Hint: DNA is genetic material of bone cells.
163. Deleted
Sol.: DNA lacks uracil as nitrogeneous base. 164. Answer (1)
C5H10O4 is deoxyribose which is found in DNA.
Hint: Mumps is also called parotiditis.
155. Answer (2)
Sol.: In mumps, swelling of parotid glands is seen.
Hint: Glycosidic bond is a property of sugars and Villi & crypts of Lieberkuhn are found in small
nucleic acids intestine.
Sol.: Loss of water by interaction between two 165. Answer (3)
hydroxyl groups forms glycosidic bond. Hint: Some teeth erupt twice in life time of humans.
156. Answer (4) Sol.: 16 year old is a teenager whose dental formula
Hint: Hydrolases require water for catalysis. is 2122/2122 as wisdom teeth i.e. last molars are
Sol.: Histidine decarboxylase is a lyase that absent. Human teeth can be described as
removes CO2 from histidine without involving water diphyodont, heterodont and thecodont.
molecule. 166. Answer (2)
157. Answer (3) Hint: Term lingual refers to tongue.
Hint: Fats with double bonds have lower melting Sol.: Labial frenulum attaches lips to gums.
points. Falciform ligament is associated with liver.
Sol.: Trihydroxypropane i.e. glycerol is backbone of 167. Answer (3)
phospholipid lecithin. Higher the degree of Hint: Gross calorific value is higher than net calorific
unsaturation lower the melting point of fat. value.
158. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: Myoglobin is oxygen storing protein while Gross (Kcal/g) (Net Kcal/g)
haemoglobin is oxygen transport protein. Carbohydrates 4.1 4
Sol.: Myoglobin is a monomeric protein with tertiary Protein 5.65 4
level of organisation and haemoglobin is a tetrameric Water 0 0
protein with quaternary level of organisation. Fat 9.45 9
159. Answer (2) Roughage 0 0
Hint: Adenylic acid is adenosine triphosphate i.e. Net calorific value
ATP. Butter: fat = 10 × 9 = 90
Sol.: Deoxypentose is deoxyribose found in DNA. Rice: Carbohydrates = 50 × 4 = 200
ATP has pentose called ribose. Adenine is Lentil: Protein = 100 × 4 = 400
heterocyclic with atoms of both N and C in the ring.
690
160. Deleted
161. Answer (2) 168. Answer (2)
Hint: Fructose is called fruit sugar. Hint: Bile salts promote micelle formation.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: Chylomicrons are formed in enterocytes and
later they enter lacteals.
169. Answer (1)
Hint: Distal part of small intestine contains receptors
for vitamin B12- CIF complex.
Sol.: Water reabsorption occurs in nephron but
absorption occurs in intestine. Vitamin D is essential
for calcium reabsorption. Absorption of alcohol
occurs in stomach.
170 Answer (2)
Hint: Liver receives blood from intestine and heart.
Sol.: Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood while
hepatic portal vein brings nutrient loaded
deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver
(enterohepatic circulation); cystic duct is duct of gall
bladder.
171. Answer (4)
Hint: Select autocatalytic enzyme effective under
alkaline conditions.
Sol.: A- Can be pepsin not pepsinogen.
B- Can be steapsin if it shows lipolytic activity at
pH 7.8
C- Can be rennin if it digests casein at pH 1.8
D- Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a peptidase.
Sol.: Dipeptidases digest dipeptides into two amino
acids.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: Non-parietal cells include goblet cells, chief
cells etc.
Sol.: Pepsinogen and mucus are secretion of chief
cells and goblet cells respectively. HCl & castle's
intrinsic factor are secretions of parietal/oxyntic
cells.
174. Answer (3)
Hint: Symptom associated with retention of water.
Sol.: Only protein deficiency results in kwashiorkor
in children in age group of 1-5 years.
‰ ‰ ‰
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Test - 1 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
175. Answer (2)
Hint: Oral rehydration solution is given to patients
suffering from increased frequency of watery stools.
Sol.: GIT plays an important role in nutrition,
immunity, and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte
balance.
176. Answer (1)
Hint: Select the hormone that can target gall bladder
and pancreas.
Sol.: Cholecystokinin (CCK) promotes release of
bile from gall bladder. Gastrin promotes gastric juice
secretion. Secretin decreases gastric acid secretion.
Enterogastrone targets stomach.
177. Answer (2)
Hint: Name of sphincter that prevents release of bile
into duct of Wirsung.
Sol.: Opening of common bile duct is guarded by
sphincter of Boyden into main pancreatic duct called
duct of Wirsung. Sphincter of Oddi controls release
of contents of hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum.
Pyloric sphincter is present at junction of terminal
end of stomach and small intestine.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the source of production of brush border
enzymes.
Sol.: Nuclease enzyme is pancreatic in origin that
digests nucleic acids which are further broken down
by nucleotidase and nucleosidase.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: Most abundant compound in human body in
percentage.
Sol.: Maximum absorption of water occurs in small
intestine (jejunum) and nearly 1300 ml water is
absorbed in colon.
Lipids, carbohydrates and amino acids of dietary
intake are absorbed largely in small intestine.
180. Answer (1)
Hint: Related to defaecation.
Sol.: Egestion is elimination of faecal waste through
the anus while removal of nitrogenous waste (urea)
through urethra is called excretion.