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SWEDISH COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY,

WAH CANTT
Department of Mechanical Engineering

1. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the
delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
a) 1 bar b) 16 bar
c) 64 bar d) 256 bar
Answer: Option (c)

2. The compressed air may be used


a) in gas turbine plants b) in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
c) for operating pneumatic drills d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)

3. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the jet
velocity.
a) equal to b) one- half
c) double d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

4. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about


a) 10 to 40% b) 40 to 60%
c) 60 t0 70% d) 70 to 90%
Answer: Option (d)

5. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine


a) 200 oC b) 500 oC
c) 700 oC d) 1000 oC
Answer: Option (c)

6. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes place….


a) in the diffuser only b) in the impeller only
c) in the diffuser and impeller d) in the inlet guide vanes only
Answer: Option (c)

7. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air takes
place in __________ of the piston.
a) one stroke b) two strokes
c) three strokes d) four strokes
Answer: Option (b)
8. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is
a) 10 bar b) 20 bar
c) 30 bar d) 50 bar
Answer: Option (a)

9. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in


a) kg/m2 b) kg/m3
3
c) m /min d) m3/kg
Answer: Option (c)

10. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done


a) to cool the air during compression b) to cool the air at delivery
c) to enable compression in two stages d) to minimise the work of compression
Answer: Option (d)

11. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
Answer: Option (d)

12. The inlet pressure is always __________ the discharge pressure.


a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

13. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of


a) centrifugal type b) axial flow type
c) radial flow type d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

14. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called


a) free air delivery b) compressor capacity
c) swept volume d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

15. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at


a) low speeds b) high speeds
c) low altitudes d) high altitudes
Answer: Option (d)

16. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of
a) blade camber b) blade camber and incidence angle
c) space-chord ratio d) blade camber and space-chord ratio
Answer: Option (b)
17. Rotary compressors are used for delivering
a) small quantities of air at high pressures b) large quantities of air at high pressures
c) small quantities of air at low pressures d) large quantities of air at low pressures
Answer: Option (d)

18. A rotary compressor is driven by an


a) electric motor b) engine
c) either (a) or (b) d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

19. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes


a) increase in flow b) decrease in flow
c) increase in efficiency d) increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
Answer: Option (d)

20. A large clearance Volume in a reciprocating compressor results in


a) reduced volume flow rate b) increased volume flow rate
c) lower suction pressure d) lower delivery pressure
Answer: Option (a)

21. A closed cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine.
a) same b) lower
c) higher d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

22. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine


a) requires less space for installation b) has compressor and combustion chamber
c) has less efficiency d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

23. Intercooling in gas turbines


a) decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
b) increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
c) decreases net output and thermal efficiency both
d) increases net output and thermal efficiency both
Answer: Option (b)

24. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression with intercooler,
is __________ the original atmospheric air temperature, then the intercooling is known as perfect
or complete intercooling.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
25. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is
a) 4 b) 1
c) 9 d) 12
Answer: Option (b)

26. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is __________ as compared to I.C. engine.
a) equal b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

27. An aftercooler is used to


a) remove impurities from air b) reduce volume of air
c) cool the air d) cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
Answer: Option (d)

28. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines


a) increases power output b) improves thermal efficiency
c) reduces exhaust temperature d) do not damage turbine blades
Answer: Option (c)

29. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of


a) centrifugal type b) axial flow type
c) radial flow type d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

30. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression work per kg of air


a) increases as clearance volume increases
b) decreases as clearance volume increases
c) is independent of clearance volume
d) increases as clearance volume decreases
Answer: Option (c)

31. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as the ratio of static enthalpy rise
in the
a) rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator
b) stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
c) rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
d) stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
Answer: Option (c)

32. Reheating in a gas turbine


a) increases the thermal efficiency b) increases the compressor work
c) increases the turbine work d) decreases the thermal efficiency
Answer: Option (a)
33. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the workdone on
the air during isentropic compression is __________ the heat required to raise the temperature of
air from T1 to T2 at a constant pressure.
a) equal to b) less than
c) greater than d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

34. The mass of gas turbine per kW developed is about __________ as that of an I.C. engine.
a) same b) one-half
c) one-fourth d) one-sixth
Answer: Option (d)

35. In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the __________ to the blade velocity is called slip factor.
a) inlet whirl velocity b) outlet whirl velocity
c) inlet velocity of flow d) outlet velocity of flow
Answer: Option (d)

36. In a turbo jet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power output, the
working substance is expanded in
a) exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process
b) exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process
c) turbine blades, which is a constant volume process
d) turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process
Answer: Option (d)

37. The air is delivered __________ in one revolution in case of a three-lobbed rotor.
a) two times b) three times
c) four times d) six times
Answer: Option (d)

38. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be __________ as compared to that at
sea level.
a) same b) lower
c) higher d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

39. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid flow
occurs at
a) diffuser inlet radius b) diffuser outlet radius
c) impeller inlet radius d) impeller outlet radius
Answer: Option (b)

40. A machine used to raise the pressure of air is called


a) gas turbine b) I.C engine
c) compressor d) air motor
Answer: Option (c)
41. The overall efficiency of the compressed air system is the
a) ratio of shaft output of the air motor to the shaft input to the compressor
b) ratio of shaft input to the compressor to the shaft output of air motor
c) product of shaft output of air motor and shaft input to the compressor
d) none of the above
Answer: Option (a)

42. In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the compression of air may be
a) isothermal b) polytropic
c) isentropic d) any one of these
Answer: Option (d)

43. The axial flow compressor is preferred in air-craft gas turbines because of
a) low frontal area b) higher thrust
c) high pressure rise d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

44. The ratio of the network obtained from the gas turbine plant to the turbine work is known as
a) compression ratio b) work ratio
c) pressure ratio d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

45. The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the atmospheric
temperature.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

46. In open cycle turbo-jet engines used in military aircraft, reheating the exhaust gas from the turbine
by burning, more fuel is used to increase the
a) thrust and range of aircraft b) efficiency of the engine
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

47. Gas turbine as compared to internal combustion engine


a) can be driven at a very high speed b) produces uniform torque
c) has more efficiency d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

48. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a


a) compressor b) heating chamber
c) cooling chamber d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
49. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
a) Carnot cycle b) Rankine cycle
c) Ericsson cycle d) Joule cycle
Answer: Option (d)

50. Euler's equation can be used for


a) radial flow compressors b) axial flow compressors
c) pumps d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

51. A rocket engine uses __________ for the combustion of its fuel.
a) surrounding air b) compressed atmospheric air
c) its own oxygen d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

52. The efficiency of roots blower __________ with the increase in pressure ratio.
a) decreases b) increases
c) does not change
Answer: Option (a)

53. A jet engine has


a) no propeller b) propeller at back
c) propeller in front d) propeller on the top
Answer: Option (a)

54. A compressor at high altitudes will require __________ power.


a) same b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

55. The mean effective pressure of the compressor is the


a) actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal temperature and
. pressure conditions
b) volume of air delivered by the compressor
c) volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
d) none of the above
Answer: Option (d)

56. The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor being less than 100 percent is
a) pressure drop across the valves b) superheating in compressor
c) clearance volume and leakages d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
57. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
a) injecting water into the compressor b) injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
c) burning fuel after gas turbine d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)

58. A turbo-prop is preferred to turbo-jet because


a) it can fly at high elevations b) it has high propulsive efficiency at high speeds
c) it has high power for take off d) it can fly at supersonic speeds
Answer: Option (c)

59. The air power of the compressor is also known as


a) indicated power b) brake power
c) frictional power d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

60. In a high pressure compressor, the delivery pressure is


a) 1 to 5 bar b) 5 to 8 bar
c) 8 to 10 bar d) 10 to 15 bar
Answer: Option (c)

61. The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air compressor is __________ the
work required for each stage.
a) equal to b) double
c) three times d) six times
Answer: Option (c)

62. When the outlet angle from the rotor of a centrifugal compressor is more than 90°, then the blades
are said to be
a) forward curved b) backward curved
c) radial d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

63. In a double acting compressor, the air is compressed


a) in one cylinder b) in a single cylinder on both sides of the piston
c) in two cylinders d) in two cylinders on both sides of the piston
Answer: Option (c)

64. In a centrifugal compressor, the flow of air is __________ to the axis of compressor.
a) parallel b) perpendicular
c) inclined d) none of these
Answer: Option (v)

65. For minimum work required to compress and deliver a quantity of air by multi-stage compression,
a) the intercooling should be perfect
b) the compression ratio in each stage should be same
c) the workdone in each stage should be same
d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)

66. Separators are generally used in air compressor installations


a) before the intercooler b) between the aftercooler and receive
c) after the intercooler d) before first stage suction
Answer: Option (b)

67. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its axis, then it is a
a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor
c) axial flow compressor d) turbo compressor
Answer: Option (b)

68. In air compressors, free air delivery means the


a) actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal temperature and
. pressure conditions
b) volume of air delivered by the compressor
c) volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
d) none of the above
Answer: Option (a)

69. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
a) constant volume b) constant temperature
c) constant pressure d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

70. The compression ratio for the compressor is always __________ unity.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

71. A 3 m3/min compressor means that it


a) compresses 3 m3/min of standard air
b) compresses 3 m3/ min of free air
c) delivers 3 m3/ min of compressed air
d) delivers 3 m3/ min of compressed air at delivery pressure
Answer: Option (b)

72. The assumption made in two stage compression with intercooler is that
a) there is no pressure drop in the intercooler
b) the compression in both the cylinders is polytropic
c) the suction and delivery of air takes place at constant pressure
d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
73. The volume of air delivered in a medium capacity air compressor per unit time is
a) 0.1 to 1.2 m3/s b) 0.15 to 5 m3/s
c) above 5 m3/s d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

74. In a closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed


a) isothermally b) polytropically
c) isentropically d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

75. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance volume, the
workdone is minimum during
a) isothermal compression b) isentropic compression
c) polytropic compression d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

76. If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis, then the compressor is
a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor
c) axial flow compressor d) turbo-compressor
Answer: Option (c)

77. When air is to be compressed at a high pressure, then it is advantageous to use


a) single stage compression without intercooling
b) single stage compression with intercooling
c) multi-stage compression without intercooling
d) multi-stage compression with intercooling
Answer: Option (d)

78. The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called


a) back pressure b) critical pressure
c) discharge pressure d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

79. The degree of reaction is usually kept __________ for all types of axial flow compressors.
a) 0.2 b) 0.3
c) 0.4 d) 0.5
Answer: Option (d)

80. Standard air is the air at __________ and relative humidity of 36 percent.
a) 0.1 bar and 20° C b) 1 bar and 20° C
c) 0.1 bar and 40° C d) 1 bar and 40° C
Answer: Option (b)
81. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance volume, the
workdone is maximum during
a) isothermal compression b) isentropic compression
c) polytropic compression d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

82. The compressor capacity is defined as the


a) actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal temperature and
. pressure conditions
b) volume of air delivered by the compressor
c) volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
d) none of the above
Answer: Option (b)

83. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called
a) free air delivery b) compressor capacity
c) swept volume d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

84. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor


a) increases with decrease in compression ratio
b) decreases with decrease in compression ratio
c) increases with increase in compression ratio
d) decreases with increase in compression ratio
Answer: Option (d)

85. Reheating in a multi-stage expansion gas turbine __________ compressor work.


a) has no effect on b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

86. The multi-stage compression of air as compared to single stage compression


a) improves volumetric efficiency for the given pressure ratio
b) reduces workdone per kg of air
c) gives more uniform torque
d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

87. Which one of the following is the effect of blade shape on performance of a centrifugal
compressor ?
a) Backward curved blades has poor efficiency
b) Backward curved blades lead to stable performance
c) Forward curved blades has higher efficiency
d) Forward curved blades produce lower pressure ratio
Answer: Option (d)
88. In a jet engine, the air-fuel ratio is
a) 30:1 b) 40:1
c) 50:1 d) 60:1
Answer: Option (d)

89. Which of the following bladings will give maximum pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor,
assuming the same overall dimensions, blade inlet angle and rotational speeds ?
a) Forward curved blades b) Backward curved blades
c) Radial blades d) all of these
Answer: Option (a)

90. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called
a) compression ratio b) expansion ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option (a)

91. The velocity of air entering in a rocket is __________ as compared to an aircraft.


a) zero b) less
c) more d) same
Answer: Option (a)

92. A compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines is


a) radial flow compressor b) axial flow compressor
c) roots blower d) reciprocating compressor
Answer: Option (a)

93. The workdone on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken from


a) the atmosphere b) a source at 0° C
c) a source of low temperature air d) a source of high temperature air
Answer: Option (c)

94. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing through the gas turbine are
discharged into
a) atmosphere b) vacuum
c) discharge nozzle d) back to the compressor
Answer: Option (c)

95. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to
the direction of the blade motion.
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 270°
Answer: Option (b)
96. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
a) constant volume flow b) constant pressure flow
c) isothermal flow d) isentropic flow
Answer: Option (d)

97. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
a) stage efficiency b) internal efficiency
c) Rankine efficiency d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

98. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the
divergent portion of the nozzle)
a) remains constant b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

99. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually reduced
a) remains same b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

100. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between


a) inlet and throat b) inlet and outlet
c) throat and exit d) all of these
Answer: Option (c)

101. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is


a) 0.546 b) 0.577
c) 0.582 d) 0.601
Answer: Option (c)

102. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop
in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
a) 0.4 b) 0.56
c) 0.67 d) 1.67
Answer: Option (b)

103. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force


a) as an impulsive force b) partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
c) as a reaction force d) none of the above
Answer: Option (b)
104. A regenerative steam cycle renders
a) increased work output per unit mass of steam
b) decreased work output per unit mass of steam
c) increased thermal efficiency
d) decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: Option (d)

105. De-Laval turbine is a


a) single rotor impulse turbine b) multi-rotor impulse turbine
c) impulse reaction turbine d) none of the above
Answer: Option (a)

106. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is


a) isothermal b) isentropic
c) hyperbolic d) polytropic
Answer: Option (b)

107. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of
nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
a) choked b) underdamping
c) overdamping d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

108. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
a) blading efficiency b) nozzle efficiency
c) gross or stage efficiency d) mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option (a)

109. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.


a) zero b) minimum
c) maximum d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

110. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop
a) remains same b) decreases
c) increases d) is unpredictable
Answer: Option (c)

111. The steam leaves the nozzle at a


a) high pressure and a low velocity b) high pressure and a high velocity
c) low pressure and a low velocity d) low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option (d)
112. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
a) equal to the velocity of sound b) less than the velocity of sound
c) more than the velocity of sound d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

113. The Parson's reaction turbine has


a) only moving blades b) identical fixed and moving blades
c) only fixed blades d) fixed and moving blades of different shape
Answer: Option (b)
114. The action of steam in a steam turbine is
a) static b) dynamic
c) static and dynamic d) neither static nor dynamic
Answer: Option (b)

115. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the


a) velocity compounded type b) reaction type
c) pressure compounded type d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

116. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to


a) pressure drop across the rotor b) change in axial velocity
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

117. A binary vapour plant consists of


a) steam turbine b) steam condenser
c) steam condenser d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

118. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.


a) 40 percent b) 50 percent
c) 60 percent d) 70 percent
Answer: Option (b)

119. The turbine blades are


a) straight b) circular
c) curved d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

120. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon


a) velocity of steam b) specific volume of steam
c) dryness fraction of steam d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
121. Steam turbines are used for
a) large marine propulsion b) direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
c) electric power generation d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

122. Parson's turbine is a


a) simple impulse turbine b) simple reaction turbine
c) impulse-reaction turbine d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

123. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure
is called
a) degree of supersaturation b) degree of superheat
c) degree of undercooling d) all of these
Answer: Option (c)

124. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by


a) reheating of steam b) regenerative feed heating
c) binary vapour plant d) any one of these
Answer: Option (d)

125. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
a) pressure and velocity both decreases b) pressure decreases while velocity increases
c) pressure and velocity both increases d) pressure increases while velocity decreases
Answer: Option (b)

126. Rateau turbine is


a) simple reaction turbine b) velocity compounded turbine
c) pressure compounded turbine d) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: Option (c)

127. Curtis turbine is a


a) simple reaction turbine b) velocity compounded turbine
c) pressure compounded turbine d) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: Option (d)

128. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

129. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
a) 0.528 b) 0.577
c) 0.582 d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
130. The critical pressure ratio for gases is
a) 0.528 b) 0.577
c) 0.582 d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

131. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine is __________ as


compared to pressure compounded impulse turbine.
a) same b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
132. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to
a) decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
b) increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
c) decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
d) increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
Answer: Option (c)

133. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
a) reheat factor b) stage efficiency
c) internal efficiency d) Rankine efficiency
Answer: Option (d)

134. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to


a) maintain the speed of the turbine b) reheat the steam and improve its quality
c) reduce the effective heat drop d) completely balance against end thrust
Answer: Option (a)

135. De-Laval turbines are mostly used


a) where low speeds are required b) for small power purposes and low speeds
c) for large power purposes d) for small power purposes and high speeds
Answer: Option (d)

136. The reheat factor depends upon


a) initial pressure and superheat b) exit pressure
c) turbine stage efficiency d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

137. The compounding of turbines is done in order to


a) reduce speed of rotor b) improve efficiency
c) reduce exit losses d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
138. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions,
is known as
a) bleeding b) reheating
c) governing d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

139. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
a) same as b) 2 times
c) 4 times d) 8 times
Answer: Option (d)

140. Blading efficiency is also known as


a) stage efficiency b) diagram efficiency
c) nozzle efficiency d) none of these
Answer: Option (d)

141. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
a) velocity compounding b) pressure compounding
c) pressure-velocity compounding d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)

142. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by


a) number of casing b) number of entries of steam
c) each row of blades d) number of exits of steam
Answer: Option (c)

143. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of
moving blades,
a) velocity increases b) velocity decreases
c) velocity remains constant d) pressure remains constant
Answer: Option (b)

144. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and
using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the boiler
is known as
a) regenerative heating b) reheating of steam
c) bleeding d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

145. In a nozzle, the effect of supersaturation is to


a) increase the entropy b) decrease dryness fraction of steam
c) increase the heat drop d) decrease specific volume of steam
Answer: Option (a)
146. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially
a) wet steam b) dry saturated steam
c) superheated steam d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

147. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine
require __________ number of stages
a) same b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

148. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
a) no heat drop in moving blades b) maximum heat drop in moving blades
c) no heat drop in fixed blades d) maximum heat drop in fixed blades
Answer: Option (a)

149. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
a) has no effect on b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

150. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process
heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
a) back pressure turbine b) pass out turbine
c) low pressure turbine d) impulse turbine
Answer: Option (b)

151. Stage efficiency is also known as


a) diagram efficiency b) nozzle efficiency
c) gross efficiency d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

152. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
a) low b) very low
c) high d) very high
Answer: Option (d)

153. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
a) fixed blades b) moving blades
c) both fixed and moving blades d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
154. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________
while it passes over the blades.
a) 10 to 15% b) 15 to 20%
c) 20 to 30% d) 30 to 40%
Answer: Option (a)

155. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to
a) water space also b) chimney
c) steam space d) superheater
Answer: Option (c)

156. The natural draught is produced by


a) steam jet b) chimney
c) centrifugal fan d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option (b)

157. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure,
is called
a) blow off cock b) fusible plug
c) superheater d) stop valve
Answer: Option (c)

158. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell.
a) one-fourth b) one-third
c) two-fifth d) three-fifth
Answer: Option (d)

159. An economizer __________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler


a) increases b) decreases
c) has no effect on d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

160. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the
fire grate of the furnace is called
a) induced steam jet draught b) chimney draught
c) forced steam jet draught d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)

161. An air preheater is installed


a) before the economizer b) before the superheater
c) between the economizer and chimney d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
162. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is
a) 1 m b) 2 m
c) 3 m d) 4 m
Answer: Option (d)

163. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is


a) 0.5 m b) 1.5 m
c) 2.5 m d) 3.5 m
Answer: Option (b)

164. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are


a) horizontal b) vertical
c) inclined d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option (a)

165. The power of a boiler may be defined as


a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
b) the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
c) the amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam
d) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C
Answer: Option (b)

166. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is
known as
a) internally fired boiler b) externally fired boiler
c) natural circulation boiler d) forced circulation boiler
Answer: Option (d)

167. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is


a) 50 bar b) 150 bar
c) 250 bar d) 350 bar
Answer: Option (c)

168. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from


a) 0.5 to 1 m b) 1 to 2 m
c) 1.25 to 2.5 m d) 2 to 3 m
Answer: Option (b)

169. The function of a flywheel is


a) to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion.
b) to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
c) to prevent fluctuation of speed
d) to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
Answer: Option (c)
170. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is
a) 65 tonnes/h b) 100 tonnes/h
c) 135 tonnes/h d) 170 tonnes/h
Answer: Option (c)

171. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ?
a) Locomotive boiler b) Lancashire boiler
c) Cornish boiler d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option (a)

172. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical draught.
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains constant d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

173. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air
before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as
a) superheater b) air preheater
c) economizer d) injector
Answer: Option (b)

174. Which of the following is a water tube boiler ?


a) Locomotive boiler b) Lancashire boiler
c) Cornish boiler d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option (d)

175. The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are


a) 75 b) 115
c) 165 d) 225
Answer: Option (c)

176. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney is called
a) induced steam jet draught b) chimney draught
c) forced steam jet draught d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

177. Lancashire boiler has __________ internal flue tubes.


a) one b) two
c) three d) four
Answer: Option (b)
178. Locomotive boiler is a
a) single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler.
b) single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler
c) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler
d) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler
Answer: Option (c)

179. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a
a) steam boiler b) steam turbine
c) steam condenser d) steam injector
Answer: Option (a)

180. An economizer is installed in a boiler primarily to


a) superheat the steam b) reduce fuel consumption
c) increase steam pressure d) all of these
Answer: Option (b)

181. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from
a) 1.5 to 2.5 m b) 2.5 to 3.5 m
c) 3.5 to 4.5 m d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

182. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to


a) moisture in fuel b) dry flue gases
c) steam formation d) unburnt carbon
Answer: Option (b)

183. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and
to shut off the steam completely when required, is known as
a) blow off cock b) fusible plug
c) superheater d) stop valve
Answer: Option (d)

184. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to


a) 0.18 MN/m2 b) 1.8 MN/m2
c) 18 MN/m2 d) 180 MN/m2
Answer: Option (b)

185. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting?


a) Blow off cock b) Feed check valve
c) Economizer d) Fusible plug
Answer: Option (c)
186. A __________ in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level
of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit.
a) Blow off cock b) Feed check valve
c) stop valve d) Fusible plug
Answer: Option (d)

187. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the previous stroke. This
steam left in the clearance space is called
a) cushion steam b) saturated steam
c) superheated steam d) wet steam
Answer: Option (a)

188. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from


a) 1 to 2 m b) 1.25 to 2.25 m
c) 1.5 to 2.5 m d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
Answer: Option (d)

189. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in a steam pipe, which
regulates the pressure of steam entering the engine, then the governing is known as
a) throttle governing b) cut-off governing
c) by-pass governing d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)

190. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam,
in known as
a) jet condenser b) surface condenser
c) barometric condenser d) evaporative condenser
Answer: Option (b)

191. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in
a) Cochran boiler b) Cornish boiler
c) Locomotive boiler d) Lancashire boiler
Answer: Option (c)

192. The working pressure range for a La-Mont boiler is


a) 0.5 to 10 MN/m2 b) 1 to 15 MN/m2
2
c) 2.5 to 15 MN/m d) 3.5 to 20 MN/m2
Answer: Option (d)

193. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a


a) chimney b) centrifugal fan
c) steam jet d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
194. The ratio of the temperature rise of cooling water to the vacuum temperature minus inlet
cooling water temperature is called
a) condenser efficiency b) vacuum efficiency
c) nozzle efficiency d) boiler efficiency
Answer: Option (a)

195. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is
a) blow off cock b) feed check valve
c) steam stop valve d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)

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