Professional Documents
Culture Documents
WAH CANTT
Department of Mechanical Engineering
1. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the
delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
a) 1 bar b) 16 bar
c) 64 bar d) 256 bar
Answer: Option (c)
3. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the jet
velocity.
a) equal to b) one- half
c) double d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
7. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air takes
place in __________ of the piston.
a) one stroke b) two strokes
c) three strokes d) four strokes
Answer: Option (b)
8. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is
a) 10 bar b) 20 bar
c) 30 bar d) 50 bar
Answer: Option (a)
11. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
Answer: Option (d)
16. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of
a) blade camber b) blade camber and incidence angle
c) space-chord ratio d) blade camber and space-chord ratio
Answer: Option (b)
17. Rotary compressors are used for delivering
a) small quantities of air at high pressures b) large quantities of air at high pressures
c) small quantities of air at low pressures d) large quantities of air at low pressures
Answer: Option (d)
21. A closed cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine.
a) same b) lower
c) higher d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
24. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression with intercooler,
is __________ the original atmospheric air temperature, then the intercooling is known as perfect
or complete intercooling.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
25. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is
a) 4 b) 1
c) 9 d) 12
Answer: Option (b)
26. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is __________ as compared to I.C. engine.
a) equal b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
31. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as the ratio of static enthalpy rise
in the
a) rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator
b) stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
c) rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
d) stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
Answer: Option (c)
34. The mass of gas turbine per kW developed is about __________ as that of an I.C. engine.
a) same b) one-half
c) one-fourth d) one-sixth
Answer: Option (d)
35. In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the __________ to the blade velocity is called slip factor.
a) inlet whirl velocity b) outlet whirl velocity
c) inlet velocity of flow d) outlet velocity of flow
Answer: Option (d)
36. In a turbo jet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power output, the
working substance is expanded in
a) exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process
b) exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process
c) turbine blades, which is a constant volume process
d) turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process
Answer: Option (d)
37. The air is delivered __________ in one revolution in case of a three-lobbed rotor.
a) two times b) three times
c) four times d) six times
Answer: Option (d)
38. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be __________ as compared to that at
sea level.
a) same b) lower
c) higher d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
39. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid flow
occurs at
a) diffuser inlet radius b) diffuser outlet radius
c) impeller inlet radius d) impeller outlet radius
Answer: Option (b)
42. In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the compression of air may be
a) isothermal b) polytropic
c) isentropic d) any one of these
Answer: Option (d)
43. The axial flow compressor is preferred in air-craft gas turbines because of
a) low frontal area b) higher thrust
c) high pressure rise d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
44. The ratio of the network obtained from the gas turbine plant to the turbine work is known as
a) compression ratio b) work ratio
c) pressure ratio d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
45. The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the atmospheric
temperature.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
46. In open cycle turbo-jet engines used in military aircraft, reheating the exhaust gas from the turbine
by burning, more fuel is used to increase the
a) thrust and range of aircraft b) efficiency of the engine
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
51. A rocket engine uses __________ for the combustion of its fuel.
a) surrounding air b) compressed atmospheric air
c) its own oxygen d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
52. The efficiency of roots blower __________ with the increase in pressure ratio.
a) decreases b) increases
c) does not change
Answer: Option (a)
56. The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor being less than 100 percent is
a) pressure drop across the valves b) superheating in compressor
c) clearance volume and leakages d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
57. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
a) injecting water into the compressor b) injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
c) burning fuel after gas turbine d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
61. The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air compressor is __________ the
work required for each stage.
a) equal to b) double
c) three times d) six times
Answer: Option (c)
62. When the outlet angle from the rotor of a centrifugal compressor is more than 90°, then the blades
are said to be
a) forward curved b) backward curved
c) radial d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
64. In a centrifugal compressor, the flow of air is __________ to the axis of compressor.
a) parallel b) perpendicular
c) inclined d) none of these
Answer: Option (v)
65. For minimum work required to compress and deliver a quantity of air by multi-stage compression,
a) the intercooling should be perfect
b) the compression ratio in each stage should be same
c) the workdone in each stage should be same
d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
67. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its axis, then it is a
a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor
c) axial flow compressor d) turbo compressor
Answer: Option (b)
69. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
a) constant volume b) constant temperature
c) constant pressure d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
70. The compression ratio for the compressor is always __________ unity.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
72. The assumption made in two stage compression with intercooler is that
a) there is no pressure drop in the intercooler
b) the compression in both the cylinders is polytropic
c) the suction and delivery of air takes place at constant pressure
d) all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
73. The volume of air delivered in a medium capacity air compressor per unit time is
a) 0.1 to 1.2 m3/s b) 0.15 to 5 m3/s
c) above 5 m3/s d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
75. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance volume, the
workdone is minimum during
a) isothermal compression b) isentropic compression
c) polytropic compression d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
76. If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis, then the compressor is
a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor
c) axial flow compressor d) turbo-compressor
Answer: Option (c)
79. The degree of reaction is usually kept __________ for all types of axial flow compressors.
a) 0.2 b) 0.3
c) 0.4 d) 0.5
Answer: Option (d)
80. Standard air is the air at __________ and relative humidity of 36 percent.
a) 0.1 bar and 20° C b) 1 bar and 20° C
c) 0.1 bar and 40° C d) 1 bar and 40° C
Answer: Option (b)
81. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance volume, the
workdone is maximum during
a) isothermal compression b) isentropic compression
c) polytropic compression d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
83. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called
a) free air delivery b) compressor capacity
c) swept volume d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
87. Which one of the following is the effect of blade shape on performance of a centrifugal
compressor ?
a) Backward curved blades has poor efficiency
b) Backward curved blades lead to stable performance
c) Forward curved blades has higher efficiency
d) Forward curved blades produce lower pressure ratio
Answer: Option (d)
88. In a jet engine, the air-fuel ratio is
a) 30:1 b) 40:1
c) 50:1 d) 60:1
Answer: Option (d)
89. Which of the following bladings will give maximum pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor,
assuming the same overall dimensions, blade inlet angle and rotational speeds ?
a) Forward curved blades b) Backward curved blades
c) Radial blades d) all of these
Answer: Option (a)
90. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called
a) compression ratio b) expansion ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option (a)
94. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing through the gas turbine are
discharged into
a) atmosphere b) vacuum
c) discharge nozzle d) back to the compressor
Answer: Option (c)
95. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to
the direction of the blade motion.
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 270°
Answer: Option (b)
96. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
a) constant volume flow b) constant pressure flow
c) isothermal flow d) isentropic flow
Answer: Option (d)
97. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
a) stage efficiency b) internal efficiency
c) Rankine efficiency d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
98. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the
divergent portion of the nozzle)
a) remains constant b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
99. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually reduced
a) remains same b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
102. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop
in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
a) 0.4 b) 0.56
c) 0.67 d) 1.67
Answer: Option (b)
107. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of
nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
a) choked b) underdamping
c) overdamping d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
108. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
a) blading efficiency b) nozzle efficiency
c) gross or stage efficiency d) mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option (a)
110. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop
a) remains same b) decreases
c) increases d) is unpredictable
Answer: Option (c)
123. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure
is called
a) degree of supersaturation b) degree of superheat
c) degree of undercooling d) all of these
Answer: Option (c)
125. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
a) pressure and velocity both decreases b) pressure decreases while velocity increases
c) pressure and velocity both increases d) pressure increases while velocity decreases
Answer: Option (b)
128. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
a) equal to b) less than
c) more than d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
129. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
a) 0.528 b) 0.577
c) 0.582 d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
130. The critical pressure ratio for gases is
a) 0.528 b) 0.577
c) 0.582 d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
133. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
a) reheat factor b) stage efficiency
c) internal efficiency d) Rankine efficiency
Answer: Option (d)
139. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
a) same as b) 2 times
c) 4 times d) 8 times
Answer: Option (d)
141. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
a) velocity compounding b) pressure compounding
c) pressure-velocity compounding d) all of these
Answer: Option (d)
143. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of
moving blades,
a) velocity increases b) velocity decreases
c) velocity remains constant d) pressure remains constant
Answer: Option (b)
144. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and
using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the boiler
is known as
a) regenerative heating b) reheating of steam
c) bleeding d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
147. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine
require __________ number of stages
a) same b) less
c) more d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
148. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
a) no heat drop in moving blades b) maximum heat drop in moving blades
c) no heat drop in fixed blades d) maximum heat drop in fixed blades
Answer: Option (a)
149. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
a) has no effect on b) decreases
c) increases d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
150. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process
heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
a) back pressure turbine b) pass out turbine
c) low pressure turbine d) impulse turbine
Answer: Option (b)
152. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
a) low b) very low
c) high d) very high
Answer: Option (d)
153. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
a) fixed blades b) moving blades
c) both fixed and moving blades d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
154. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________
while it passes over the blades.
a) 10 to 15% b) 15 to 20%
c) 20 to 30% d) 30 to 40%
Answer: Option (a)
155. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to
a) water space also b) chimney
c) steam space d) superheater
Answer: Option (c)
157. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure,
is called
a) blow off cock b) fusible plug
c) superheater d) stop valve
Answer: Option (c)
158. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell.
a) one-fourth b) one-third
c) two-fifth d) three-fifth
Answer: Option (d)
160. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the
fire grate of the furnace is called
a) induced steam jet draught b) chimney draught
c) forced steam jet draught d) none of these
Answer: Option (c)
166. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is
known as
a) internally fired boiler b) externally fired boiler
c) natural circulation boiler d) forced circulation boiler
Answer: Option (d)
171. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ?
a) Locomotive boiler b) Lancashire boiler
c) Cornish boiler d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option (a)
172. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical draught.
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains constant d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
173. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air
before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as
a) superheater b) air preheater
c) economizer d) injector
Answer: Option (b)
176. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney is called
a) induced steam jet draught b) chimney draught
c) forced steam jet draught d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
179. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a
a) steam boiler b) steam turbine
c) steam condenser d) steam injector
Answer: Option (a)
181. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from
a) 1.5 to 2.5 m b) 2.5 to 3.5 m
c) 3.5 to 4.5 m d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)
183. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and
to shut off the steam completely when required, is known as
a) blow off cock b) fusible plug
c) superheater d) stop valve
Answer: Option (d)
187. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the previous stroke. This
steam left in the clearance space is called
a) cushion steam b) saturated steam
c) superheated steam d) wet steam
Answer: Option (a)
189. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in a steam pipe, which
regulates the pressure of steam entering the engine, then the governing is known as
a) throttle governing b) cut-off governing
c) by-pass governing d) none of these
Answer: Option (a)
190. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam,
in known as
a) jet condenser b) surface condenser
c) barometric condenser d) evaporative condenser
Answer: Option (b)
191. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in
a) Cochran boiler b) Cornish boiler
c) Locomotive boiler d) Lancashire boiler
Answer: Option (c)
195. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is
a) blow off cock b) feed check valve
c) steam stop valve d) none of these
Answer: Option (b)