1.

The most famous surviving memorials of early drugs with more than 800 formulas or prescriptions is
a. De Materia Medica
b. Galen’s Formula
c. Papyrus Ebers
d. Pharmacopeia
2. One of the Galen’s famous formula is known as:
a. Galen’s ointment
b. Galen’s cream
c. Galen’s suppository
d. Galen’s cerate
3. The label of OTC drugs contain
I. Pharmacologic category
II. Rx symbol
III. Dosage form
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I only
4. A _____ is defined as any agent intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment, or prevention of
disease in man or in other animals.
a. Substance
b. Article
c. Dosage form
d. Drug
5. Amount administered to a patient after exposure or contraction of the illness
a. Prophylactic dose
b. Therapeutic dose
c. Maintenance dose
d. Minimum effective concentration
6. The following are parts of the monograph EXCEPT
a. Pharmacologic category
b. Statement of chemical purity
c. Official title
d. CAS registry number
7. The following are drugs from plant sources EXCEPT
a. Reserpine
b. Paclitaxel
c. Insulin
d. Vincristine
8. Information found in the package insert include all the following EXCEPT
a. Contraindication
b. Warning
c. Clinical protocol
d. How supplied
9. The purpose of Phase 3 clinical trial is
a. Mainly for safety
b. For short term safety, but mainly effectiveness
c. For safety, effectiveness and dosage
d. Post-marketing surveillance
10. A chemical compound that has a fundamental desired biologic or pharmacologic activity is referred to as
a. Prodrug
b. Lead compound
c. Goal drug
 d. All of these
11. Which of the following is NOT a product of genetic engineering?
a. Human insulin
b. Home pregnancy testing kit
c. Interferon
d. Paclitaxel
12. It is used to gain approval to market a duplicate product to one that had been approved previously and marketed
by the pioneer
a. Supplemental New Drug Application
b. Abbreviated New Drug Abbreviation
c. “Treatment Investigational New Drug Application”
d. New Animal Drug Application
13. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. A drug product label includes package inserts
II. Phases I, II and III of clinical trials are conducted using animal subjects
III. Revision of USP/NF is every 5 years
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. III only
14. These substances are used to prevent the drying out of preparations due to the agent’s ability to retain moisture
a. Levigating agent
b. Humectants
c. Plasticizer
d. Antioxidant
e. Occluding agent
15. Cocoa butter is used as a base in the manufacture of
a. Capsule
b. Suppositories
c. Pills
d. Tablets
16. Parabens are used in syrups as:
a. Buffer
b. Thickener
c. Preservative
d. Sweetener
17. The bitter taste of drugs is best concealed by
a. Citrus flavor
b. Cocoa flavor
c. Raspberry flavor
d. Mint flavor
18. The disadvantage of Sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is:
a. Less sweet than sucrose
b. It has carcinogenic potential
c. Contraindicated to phenylketonurics
d. Bitter after-taste
19. Characteristics of Stevia powder include
I. A natural, non-toxic sweetener
II. Contraindicated to phenylketonurics
III. About 30 times sweeter than sucrose
a. Only I
b. I and II
 c. I and III
d. II and III
20. Which of the following dosage forms are designed to conceal the bitter, salty or offensive taste or odor of a drug
substance?
I. Capsules
II. Coated tablets
III. Flavored syrups
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
21. This chemical agent is used to render capsules opaque
a. Titanium dioxide
b. Sorbitol
c. Magnesium oxide
d. Silica
e. Lactose
22. FD&C yellow no. 5
I. Also known as tartrazine
II. Can cause hypersensitivity reaction
III. Now permitted as colorant for externally applied products
a. I and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
23. Products requiring colorants include
I. Ointments
II. Compressed tablets
III. Capsules
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
24. Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant?
a. Alphatocopherol
b. Butylhydroxyanisole
c. Benzoic acid
d. Ascorbic acid
25. Self-sterilizing preparations include
I. Tinctures
II. Spirits
III. Elixirs
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
26. The following are examples of single dose parenteral containers EXCEPT
a. Fusion-sealed ampuls
b. Pre-filled syringes
c. Cartridges
d. 30ml capacity vials
27. The release of an ingredient from the packaging component into the contents is best described by the term:
a. Sorption
b. Leaching
c. Permeation
d. Diffusion
28. Type II glass container is
I. Highly resistant borosilicate
II. Can be used as container for parenterals
III. Treated soda lime glass
a. I and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
29. Photodegradation can be prevented by packaging drugs in a light resistant container. Which of the following
containers is NOT light resistant?
a. Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil
b. Plastic container
c. Amber colored bottle
d. Bottle covered with carbon paper
30. This plastic material is rigid and has good clarity thus, is used in blister packaging of capsules and tablets is
a. PET
b. PVC
c. PETG
d. APET
31. Single dose parenteral container
I. Is a hermetic container
II. Ampul
III. Permits withdrawal of successive portions of the contents
a. I and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
32. The temperature of a cold place is
a. 8°C-15°C
b. Not exceeding 8°C
c. 15°C-30°C
d. 25°C
33. Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted
formulation) is
a. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the products’ expiration date or 6
months, whichever is earlier
b. Not later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures
c. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier
d. Maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and
the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier
34. ______ stability is important for selecting storage condition, proper container and for anticipating interactions
when mixing drugs.
a. Physical
b. Chemical
c. Microbiological
d. Therapeutic
35. An approach to stabilize preparations against hydrolytic decomposition EXCEPT
a. Removal of water
 b. Use of buffering agent
c. Use of anti-oxidant
d. Supplying the drug in dry form for reconstitution
36. Geometric dilution:
I. Is employed in comminuting powders
II. Is employed in mixing small amount of potent drug with a large amount of diluents
III. Can be performed when trituration method of mixing powder is used
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only I is correct
37. A comminution process where a suitable agent, usually a non-solvent, is added to the powder to form a paste
then rubbing or grinding the paste in a mortar.
a. Trituration
b. Pulverization with intervention
c. Levigation
d. Sieving
38. Powders disperse and dissolve more readily than compacted dosage forms because
a. They contain disintegrants
b. Are better lubricated
c. Have a greater surface area
d. Flow better
39. Divided powders are also known as
a. Parvules
b. Boluses
c. Chartula
d. Cachets
40. Statements concerning bulk powders
I. Oral powders are mixed with water or other beverages before swallowing
II. Douche powders are dissolved in warm water for vaginal use
III. Dusting powders include topical anti-infectives, antifungals and antiperspirants
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only II is correct
41. Finely divided powders introduced into the body cavities such as ears, nose, throat, tooth sockets and vagina.
I. Dusting powder
II. Douche powder
III. Insufflation
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
42. Effervescent granulated salts usually contain
a. Sodium bicarbonate, potassium citrate and sodium tartrate
b. Sodium bicarbonate, citric acid and tartaric acid
c. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate and tartaric acid
d. Carbonic acid, potassium citrate and potassium tartrate
43. The gas evolved when effervescent powders dissolve in water is
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
 d. Water vapor
44. Which of the following products are not classified as dispensed powder and granules?
a. Dentrifices
b. Douches
c. Insufflations
d. Lozenges
45. Which is a major advantage of powders and granules?
a. Bulk powder is easily carried by patients
b. They are more stable than liquid preparations
c. They can mask unpleasant tastes
d. They are good for dispensing hygroscopic and deliquescent drugs
46. Efflorescent powders when triturated or stored in low humidity release
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Dust
d. Bad smells
47. Triturations are dilutions of potent powdered drugs prepared by intimately mixing them with a suitable diluent in a
definite proportion by weight. The proportion of the potent drug to the diluent is
a. 1:20
b. 1:2
c. 1:10
d. 1:100
48. Soft gelatin capsules
I. Are used to hermetically seal and encapsulate liquids, suspensions, and pasty materials
II. Render elastic and plastic-like by adding titanium dioxide
III. Contain more moisture than hard gelatin capsule
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
49. This substance is added to soft gelatin capsule to render it elastic or plastic-like
a. Glycerin
b. Gelatin
c. Sugar
d. Water
50. Hard gelatin capsules are
I. Commonly employed in clinical trials
II. In small scale compounding, pharmacist uses “punch method”
III. Can be prepared by rotary die process
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
51. Characteristics of added substances to capsule formulation
I. Harmless in quantities used
II. Do not interfere with requisite compendial assays and tests
III. Do not impair product’s bioavailability, therapeutic efficacy or safety
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only I is correct
52. TRUE statements regarding capsule excipients include
I. Lactose is a common diluent
 II. Sodium lauryl sulfate is used as surface-active agent
III. Magnesium stearate is used as a disintegrant
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
53. When preparing hard gelatin capsules, the formulator is not generally concerned with
a. Powder blending and homogeneity
b. Powder flow
c. Powder lubrication
d. Powder compaction
54. Flavoring agents are usually added to
I. Buccal tablets
II. Film-coated tablets
III. Chewable tablets
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
55. A tablet which is 50% larger and heavier than the original uncoated one is
a. Sugar-coated tablet
b. Film-coated tablet
c. Enteric-coated tablet
d. Chocolate-coated tablet
56. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Claritin Reditabs – Instant disintegrating tablet
b. Minidiab-OD – Extended-release tablet
c. Nitrostat – Tablet for oral ingestion
d. Neozep – Multiple-compressed tablet
e. Bonamine – Chewable tablet
57. Disc-shaped solid dosage form containing a hard candy base to be dissolved slowly in the mouth
a. Cachet
b. Parvules
c. Pills
d. Lozenges
58. Which of the following is a troche?
a. Fentanyl Actiq
b. Dequadin
c. Alaxan-FR
d. Clusivol
e. Zantac-150
59. True statements about the function of excipients used in tablet formulation EXCEPT
a. Binders promote granulation
b. Glidants promote the flow of the tablet granulation
c. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet
d. Diluents make up the desired bulk of the tablet formulation
60. Dulcolax™ tablet is
a. Sugar-coated
b. Enteric-coated
c. Film-coated
d. Multiple-compressed
61. An excipient used in sugar-free chewable tablet is
a. Sucrose
 b. Mannitol
c. Glycerin
d. Xylitol
62. Tablet for oral ingestion
I. Acetaminophen tablet
II. Alkaselter
III. Poten-cee
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
63. Advantages of film-coating over sugar-coating include:
I. More durable
II. Less bulky
III. Less time consuming to apply
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only I is correct
64. This tablet is originally used by physician in extemporaneous preparation of parenteral solutions
a. Molded tablet
b. Hypodermic tablet
c. Dispensing tablet
d. Tablet triturate
65. Uncoated, bullet or ovoid-shaped tablets intended for localized effect
a. Sugar-coated tablet
b. Multiple-compressed tablet
c. Effervescent tablet
d. Vaginal tablet
66. Which method of tablet manufacture can be used to combine two incompatible substance in the same tablet
a. Sugar-coating
b. Film-coating
c. Enteric-coating
d. Multilayer compression
67. Increase amount of this capsule/tablet excipient reduces wetting of particles thus slowing dissolution
a. Surface-active agent
b. Disintegrant
c. Lubricant
d. Diluent
68. True statements for pills include:
I. Small, round, solid dosage forms containing medicinal agents and are orally administered
II. Replaced today by compressed tablets and capsules
III. Placed in the mouth, where they dissolve slowly for local effect
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. Only I
69. Solid dosage administered other than oral route
I. Pellets
II. Troches
III. Lollipops
a. Only I is correct
 b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
70. Lozenges usually do not contain the following tableting excipient
a. Sucrose
b. Cross-linked povidone
c. Lactose
d. Gelatin
71. Complete mixing of magnesium stearate with tablet granules will
a. Decrease the crushing strength of tablets
b. Increase tablet hardness
c. Increase tablet dissolution
d. Increase tablet disintegration
72. Which of the following factors does not influence the speed of drug dissolution from tablets?
a. Particle size of the drug
b. Solubility of the drug
c. Tablet hardness
d. Weight uniformity
73. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a
a. Controlled-release product
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Solution
d. Suspension
e. Compressed tablet
74. To what type of modified release formulation enteric coated tablet belongs?
a. Delayed-action
b. Controlled-release
c. Sustained-action
d. Extended-action
75. Dose dumping is
I. A problem in the formulation of modified release products
II. The abrupt, uncontrolled release of a large dose of drug from a controlled-release product
III. Prevented by chewing or cutting a controlled release tablet
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only II is correct
76. Characteristic of drug substances best suited for incorporation into an extended-release product include:
I. Uniformly absorbed from the GIT
II. Possess a good margin of safety
III. Used in the treatment of acute rather than chronic condition
a. Only I is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
77. Microencapsulation is
I. A process by which solids, liquids, or even gases maybe encapsulated into microscopic size
II. The technology employed in Micro-K Extencaps
III. Formed by applying a thin coating of “wall” material around the substance being encapsulated
a. Only I is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
78. Correct statements about repeat-action tablets include
I. The tablet may be prepared with immediate-release dose in the tablet’s outer shell
II. The tablet’s second dose is in the inner core
III. An example of this type of product is the GITS
a. Only I is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
79. Which of the following is NOT an oral osmotic pump delivery system?
a. Oramorph SR
b. Glucotrol XL
c. Procardia XL
d. Covera-HS
80. Spansule capsule is
I. An example of extended-release product prepared by embedding drug in a slowly eroding hydrophilic
matrix system
II. A capsule containing beads of different coating thickness
III. A half-colored, half-transparent hard gelatin capsule containing colored beads or granules
a. Only III is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
81. Which of the following extended-release dosage form is prepared by embedding the drug in an inert plastic
matrix?
a. Ferro-Gradumet
b. Tussionex Pennkinetic Suspension
c. Diamox Sequels
d. Oramorph SR tablet
82. Lacrisert is
I. An extended-release ocular insert
II. Used for the treatment of dry eyes
III. Release medication over a 7-day period
a. I and II are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
83. Osmotically controlled system include
I. Glucotrol XL
II. Feosol Spansule
III. Adalat GITS
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
84. Transdermal drug delivery systems (TDDS)
I. Facilitate the passage of therapeutic quantities of drug substances through the skin into the systemic
circulation
II. Often called “transdermal patches”
III. Avoid first-pass effect
a. Only I is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
 d. I, II and III are correct
85. Transderm-Nitro Therapeutic System
I. Is an example of monolithic system
II. Is used to treat and prevent angina
III. Delivers nitroglycerin for 24 hours after application
a. Only II is correct
b. II and III are correct
c. I and III are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
86. A TDDS used to prevent travel related motion sickness is
a. Transdermal Scopolamine
b. Transdermal Clonidine
c. Transdermal Nicotine
d. Transdermal Estradiol
87. Nicotine transdermal delivery system
a. Testoderm
b. Deponit
c. Habitrol
d. Transderm-Scop
88. Correct statement about Catapres TTs include
I. The first transdermal patch to receive FDA approval
II. Worn in a hairless area behind the ear
III. Provides controlled release of clonidine for 7 days
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. III only
89. The following statements are correct EXCEPT
a. Only potent drugs are suitable candidate for transdermal activity
b. Transdermal patches are controlled-release products
c. Repetab is a delayed-release tablet
d. Sustained-release parenteral systems are commonly administered by intramuscular injection
90. Drug readily absorbed in the skin and administered via transdermal route include
I. Nitroglycerin
II. Clonidine
III. Scopolamine
a. Only I is correct
b. I and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
91. A drug delivery system for the treatment of advanced prostatic cancer is
a. Depo-Provera
b. Zoladex implant
c. Physostigmine TDDS
d. Estring
e. Crinone gel
92. Clinical considerations in the use of TDDS include
I. Should be placed at a site that will subject it to being rubbed off by clothing or movement
II. Wet or moist skin can accelerate drug permeation beyond the intended rate
III. Use of skin lotions should be avoided at the application site because they affect skin hydration and can
also alter the partition coefficient between the drug in the TDDS and the skin
a. I only
b. III only
 c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
93. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding TDDS?
a. Ortho Evra is a testosterone transdermal system
b. Skin lotion may be used at the application site of transdermal patches to avoid irritation
c. Physical exercise and extreme ambient temperature (e.g. sauna) may increase the absorption of drug from
nitroglycerin patch
d. Absorption of drug from TDDS is greater if the patch is applied to a site with a thick horny layer
94. Ointment base classified as hydrocarbon base include
I. Petrolatum
II. White ointment
III. Polyethylene Glycol Ointment
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. III only
e. I, II and III
95. Ointment bases that resemble cream in appearance
a. Hydrocarbon bases
b. Water soluble base
c. Absorption base
d. Water removable base
e. Oleaginous base
96. True statements about levigation includes
I. Allows both particle size reduction and dispersion of the substance in vehicle
II. Glycerin is the levigating agent for bases where water is the external phase
III. The amount of the levigating agent should be about equal in volume to the solid material
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II only
e. I, II and III
97. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Vanishing cream is a without emulsion containing small amounts of water
II. Creams find primary application in topical skin products and in products used rectally and vaginally
III. Ointments are preferred more by patients due to ease of spreadability
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II only
d. I and III
e. I, II and III
98. Zinc oxide paste is
I. A very firm product used to protect the skin and absorbs serous secretions
II. Prepared by levigating and mixing 25% each of zinc oxide and starch with white petrolatum
III. Also known as Lassar’s Plain Zinc Paste
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
99. These are solid or semi-solid adhesive masses spread upon a backing material of paper, fabric, moleskin or
plastic
 a. Creams
b. Paste
c. Plasters
d. Lotion
100. Cold cream is
I. An O/W type cream
II. Petrolatum rose water ointment
III. An emulsion
a. Only I is correct
b. II and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
101. How many percent of ZnO is contained in Zinc glycerogelatin?
a. 15%
b. 35%
c. 40%
d. 5%
e. 10%
102. The following are advantages of pastes over ointments EXCEPT
a. More absorptive
b. Easier to spread and remove
c. Less greasy
d. Preferred for oozing lesions
103. Medicated plasters include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Corn plaster
b. Chili plaster
c. Salonpas
d. Micropore
e. Band-aid
104. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT
a. Cataplasms should be warmed before application and applied with a piece of cloth
b. Liquid petrolatum is used as levigating agent if solid substances are to be incorporated into hydrocarbon
bases
c. Corn plaster is also known as Chili plaster
d. Paraffin dressing is an air-excluding, soft, pliable, analgesic, splint-like covering for surfaces denuded by
wound
105. Referred to as “greaseless” base
a. Hydrocarbon base
b. Water-soluble base
c. Absorption base
d. Water-removable base
106. Medicated gels may be administered into the
a. Skin
b. Eye
c. Nose
d. Vagina and rectum
e. All of these
107. Based on the compendial requirement for ointments, what particular microbes should be absent from
dermatological products?
I. S. aureus
II. P. aureginosa
III. E. coli
a. I, II and III
 b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
108. Classes of dressings include
I. Primary wound dressing
II. Absorbents
III. Bandages and adhesive plasters
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. I, II and III
109. Type of ointment that must meet sterility test and requirements for metal particles
a. Ophthalmic ointment
b. Nasal ointment
c. Vaginal ointment
d. Rectal ointment
110. What type of dermatological preparations Procto-foam HC belongs?
a. Vaginal cream and foam
b. Nasal gel
c. Aura gel
d. Rectal foam
111. Cements are dental preparations employed as
I. Temporary protective coverings for exposed pulps
II. For holding medicinal agents in tooth cavities
III. Rebasing of dentures
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. III only
112. Numotizine is a medicated application classified as
a. Plaster
b. Glycerogelatin
c. Dressing
d. Cataplasm
113. Which of the following products is classified as dressing?
a. Salonpas
b. Zinc Gelatin Boot
c. KY Jelly
d. Sofra-Tulle
114. Ophthalmic ointments and jells
I. Must be package in collapsible ointment tubes having elongated narrow tip
II. Sterile preparation
III. Ointment bases should have a softening point close to body temperature, both for comfort and for drug
release
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III
115. Dermatologic products used to treat local conditions of anorectal pruritus, inflammation, and the pain and
discomfort associated with hemorrhoids
a. Nasal ointments and gels
b. Aural ointments and creams
c. Rectal ointments and creams
 d. Vaginal ointments, creams and gels
116. Suppositories
I. Are solid dosage forms of various weights and shapes, usually medicated, for insertion into the rectum,
vagina or urethra
II. Soften, melt, or dissolve in the cavity fluids after insertion
III. Provide local and systematic action
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
117. Rectal suppositories
I. Pediatric suppositories are more narrow and pencil-shaped than the typical bullet-shaped adult
suppository
II. Suppositories intended for females are about half the length and weight of the male counterpart
III. Examples include glycerin suppositories and Bisacodyl suppositories
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. I, II and III
118. Cocoa butter
I. Exhibits marked polymorphism
II. Phenol and chloral hydrate have a tendency to lower its melting point
III. Is a water-soluble or water-miscible base
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
119. MUSE
I. Indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction
II. Contains alprostadil
III. A urethral suppository
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. III only
120. Wecobee bases are derived from
a. Mineral oil
b. Coconut oil
c. Almond oil
d. Olive oil
e. Theobroma oil
121. TRUE statements about PEG-based suppositories include
I. Stored at room temperature
II. Leaks from the orifice
III. It dissolves in the body fluid to release the active drug
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I and II
e. I only
122. Cocoa butter is softened due to the addition of certain drugs, which of the following can be added as a solidifying
agent?
a. Gelatin
b. White petrolatum
c. Paraffin
d. Beeswax
123. When the word alcohol is used in pharmacy, it refers specially to
a. Isopropyl alcohol
b. Ethanol-water mixture 50% v/v
c. Ethyl alcohol
d. Methyl alcohol
124. Which of the following phrases describe the solution dosage form?
I. A homogenous system
II. The solute is in a monomolecular dispersion
III. The product contains at least two components
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I only
125. Purified water USP
I. Can be prepared by ion-exchange treatment
II. Used to manufacture parenterals solution
III. Sterile and pyrogen free
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. Only I is correct
126. The process of redistilling one or more fresh delicate drugs with small quantities of volatile products
a. Cohobation
b. Steam distillation
c. Maceration
d. Reflux distillation
127. Use of aromatic waters:
I. Flavored vehicle
II. Perfumed vehicle
III. Disinfectant
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I and III
128. Aromatic water should be free from empyreumatic odor. Empyreumatic odor means
a. Foul-smelling
b. Rancid odor
c. Smoke-like odor
d. Sweet odor
129. Which of the following is for external use only?
a. Lugol’s solution
b. Boric acid solution 2%
c. Magnesium citrate solution
d. Diphenhydramine elixir
130. The following solutions are administered topically EXCEPT
a. Hydrogen Peroxide solution
b. Aluminum Subacetate solution
 c. Povidone-Iodine solution
d. Magnesium Citrate solution
131. All of the preparations contain alcohol EXCEPT
a. Syrup NF
b. Phenobarbital Elixir
c. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia
d. Eriodictyon Fluidextract USP
132. Magnesium citrate solution is used as
a. Fungicide
b. Component of Calamine lotion
c. Saline laxative
d. Carminative
133. Strong Iodine solution is commonly known as
a. Lime water
b. Lemonada purgante
c. Lugol’s solution
d. Lysol
134. Lemonada purgante is prepared by
a. Simple solution
b. Distillation
c. Chemical reaction
d. Percolation
135. Which solution is used as an astringent?
a. Strong Iodine solution USP
b. Aluminum Acetate Topical solution USP
c. Acetic acid NF
d. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit USP
e. Benzalkonium Chloride solution USP
136. A colorless to slightly yellow, clear, effervescent liquid having a sweet, acidulous taste and a lemon flavor
a. Citric Acid syrup
b. Magnesium Citrate solution
c. Simple Syrup
d. Calcium Hydroxide solution
137. Which of the following statements is correct about Simple Syrup?
I. It is a highly viscous vehicle
II. It is 85% w/w
III. A sucrose-based syrup
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only III is correct
138. Medicated syrups have 3 or more component. Which of the following could be present?
I. A pharmacologically active chemical
II. Sucrose or artificial sweeteners
III. Flavoring agents
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
139. Characteristics of sugar-based syrup include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Cap-locking is a problem in manufacture of syrup
b. Non-glycogenetic
c. Imparts a characteristic “body” to the preparation
 d. Self-preserving at 85% w/v concentration
140. Oxymel is a preparation classified as
a. Mucilage
b. Juices
c. Dilute acid
d. Honey
141. Thick, viscid, adhesive liquid made by dispersing gums in water
a. Honeys
b. Mucilages
c. Syrup
d. Jellies
142. Acacia mucilage can produce colors with some organic compounds due to the presence of ____ in acacia
a. Bassorin
b. Peroxidase
c. Benzoic acid
d. Alcohol
143. True statements about acacia mucilage include
I. Used as demulcent and an excipient in making pills and troches
II. Prepared by solution with the aid of heat
III. A sweet vehicle for many flavored and medicated syrups
a. I only
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
144. Dilute acids have strength of
a. 10% w/w
b. 10% w/v
c. 12% w/v
d. 6% w/w
145. Evacuation enemas are used to
I. Promote evacuation of bowel
II. Cleanse the colon
III. Diagnose the GIT
a. I and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
146. 70% alcohol is
I. A disinfectant
II. A hydroalcoholic solvent
III. Antigoiterogenic
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
147. The label “Not to be swallowed” or “Do not swallow” is to be affixed to
I. Phenol Gargle
II. Magnesium Citrate solution
III. Alkaline mouthwash
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. Only III
148. Fleet® is a/an
a. Gargle
b. Enema
c. Douche
d. Liniment
e. Mouthwash
149. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Diapid nasal spray is used for the prevention and treatment of perennial allergic rhinitis
b. Lugol’s Solution is prepared by simple solution method
c. A bulb syringe is used to administer an enema
d. Calcium hydroxide topical solution is also known as Liquor Carbonis Detergens
150. Compared with syrups, elixirs are
I. Less sweet
II. Less effective in masking the taste of medicinal substances
III. More viscous
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. II only
e. I only
151. Which of the following phrases describe the elixir dosage form?
I. A homogenous one-phase system
II. The solute is ethyl alcohol
III. The product contains isopropyl alcohol as preservative
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
152. Phenobarbital Elixir is used as
a. Cardiotonic
b. Nasal decongestant
c. Antihistamine
d. Sedative/Hypnotic
153. Spirits are similar to elixirs as to
a. Solvent mixture
b. Solute
c. Sweetness
d. Suspending agent
154. Spirits can be prepared by
I. Solution with heat
II. Solution with Maceration
III. Distillation
a. I, II and III are correct
b. II and III are correct
c. I and II are correct
d. Only III is correct
155. Type of distilled spirit derived from cereal grains
a. Peppermint spirit
b. Brandy
c. Whisky
d. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia
156. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia is
I. A distilled spirit
 II. Administered by inhalation
III. A reflex stimulant
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only II is correct
157. Which of the following spirits is NOT administered orally?
a. Peppermint Spirit
b. Spiritus frumentis
c. Compound Orange Spirit
d. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia
158. Liniments are products generally applied with rubbing, so are called
a. Ethereal solution
b. Embrocations
c. Glycerite
d. Balsams
159. TRUE statements about White Liniment include
I. A solution
II. Used as a rubefacient and counterirritant
III. Intended for external application to the skin with rubbing
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. Only III
160. Collodions are prepared by dissolving pyroxillin in ____ solvent mixture
a. Propanol-chloroform
b. Alcohol-ether
c. Alcohol-glycerin
d. Ether-water
161. Salicylic acid collodion contains how many % of salicylic acid in Flexible Collodion USP?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
e. 1%
162. Flexible Collodion is prepared by adding castor oil and camphor to Collodion USP. How many % of castor oil is
required in this preparation?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 2%
d. 0.5%
e. 1%
163. Which is NOT a component of toothache drops?
a. Clove oil
b. Iodine
c. Phenol
d. Creosote
164. Oleovitamins generally consist of
a. Vit. A & D
b. Vit. B
c. Vit. A & B
d. Vit. A
165. Glycerites contain NLT ____ of glycerin
 a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 10%
d. 1%
e. 0.5%
166. This preparation is a topical protectant
a. Essence of peppermint
b. Starch Glycerite
c. White Embrocation
d. Fluidextract of Bittermelon
167. The following preparations can be used as flavored vehicle EXCEPT
a. Aromatic elixir
b. Compound orange syrup
c. Sweet orange peel tincture
d. Starch glycerite
168. Which of the following is a hydroalcoholic solution?
a. Aromatic elixir
b. Syrup of lemon
c. White liniment
d. Tragacanth mucilage
169. A tincture of non-potent drugs contains ____ of the crude drug per 100ml of the tincture
a. 50g
b. 10g
c. 20g
d. 1g
170. Tinctura Aurantii Dulcis is
a. Applied with rubbing as rubefacient
b. Lowers blood sugar level
c. Flavor for elixirs
d. Carminative in flatulence
171. Which of the following is NOT a flavoring tincture?
a. Vanilla tincture
b. Tolu balsam tincture
c. Belladonna tincture
d. Sweet orange peel tincture
172. Alcohol in fluidextract is used as
I. Solvent
II. Rubefacient
III. Preservative
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. Only I
173. Fluidextracts are often referred to as ____ % tinctures
a. 10
b. 100
c. 20
d. 50
174. This method of extraction is a process in which the soluble constituent of a comminuted drug is extracted by a
slow passage of a suitable solvent through a column of the drug
a. Percolation
b. Infusion
c. Decoction
 d. Maceration
175. In percolation, the rate of flow described as “percolate slowly” is
a. 5-10 ml/min
b. 1-3 ml/min
c. NMT 1ml/min
d. 3-5 ml/min
176. This is a form of extract which is of plastic consistency, prepared with nearly all of the menstruum removed
a. Pilular
b. Syrupy
c. Dry
d. Semiliquid
177. Correct statements include
I. An extractive referred to as 100% tincture is a fluidextract
II. Glycerites contains NLT 6% w/v of glycerin
III. Collodions are ethereal solution
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I only
e. III only
178. Ideal suspension
I. Particles are perfect spherical
II. No collision of particles
III. Settling of particles obey Stokes’ Law
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. III only
e. I and III
179. A technique of reducing particles size producing 10-50um particle diameter is
a. Dry milling
b. Micropulverization
c. Micronization
d. Spray drying
180. A 5% preparation of native, colloidal hydrated aluminum silicate, in purified water is
a. starch glycerite
b. Bentonite magma
c. Chalk mixture
d. Calamine lotion
181. The following are oral suspensions EXCEPT
a. Maalox suspension
b. Combantrin suspension
c. Mesalamine suspension
d. Amoxicillin suspension
182. Magnesium aluminum silicate is also known as
a. Kaolin
b. Acacia
c. Veegum
d. Bentonite
183. Which of the following properties is undesirable in pharmaceutical suspension?
a. Thixotropy
b. Caking
c. Cracking
 d. Bleeding
184. TRUE statements regarding packaging, labeling and storage of suspensions include
I. Packaged in an oversize container to facilitate thorough mixing
II. A “Shake well” label must be affixed
III. Must be protected from freezing, excessive heat and light
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. III only
e. I and III
185. Correct statements about Bentonite magma include
I. Exhibits sol-gel reversible transformation
II. Prepared by Simple Solution method
III. Used as suspending agent in Chalk Mixture
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. Only III
186. Acacia, as ____ % dispersion in water, is used as a suspending agent
a. 35
b. 10
c. 25
d. 50
187. The vehicle used in Calamine lotion is
a. Aluminum acetate solution
b. Lead acetate solution
c. Calcium hydroxide solution
d. Magnesium hydroxide solution
188. Which of the following can exhibit a reversible sol-to-gel or gel-to-sol transformation?
I. Gels
II. Magmas
III. Lotions
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, II and III
d. I and III
189. Benzalkonium chloride is
a. A non-ionic surfactant
b. A cationic surfactant
c. Anionic surfactant
d. Chelating agent
190. Single phase gels
I. Are made up of small inorganic particles
II. Exhibit thixotropy
III. Are those in which no apparent boundaries exist between the desired phase and the dispersion medium
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. III only
e. I and III
191. A “Shake well before use” label should be affixed to
I. Bentonite magma
II. Calamine lotion
 III. Cod liver oil emulsion
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. Only II is correct
192. Aluminum hydroxide gel is
I. Prepared by chemical reaction method
II. An antacid
III. Applied externally
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. III only
e. I, II and III
193. It is the taking up of a certain amount of liquid without a measurable increase in the size of a gel
a. Syneresis
b. Swelling
c. Imbibition
d. Thixotropy
194. A system consisting of at least one immiscible liquid intimately dispersed in another in the form of droplets
a. Emulsion
b. Suspension
c. Glycerites
d. Gels
195. Cod liver oil emulsion is used as
a. Carminative
b. Laxative
c. Source of Vitamins A and D
d. Lubricating cathartic
196. In preparing the primary nucleus of an emulsion, a 4:2:1 proportion of O:W:G is used in
I. Cod liver oil emulsion
II. Liquid petrolatum emulsion
III. Turpentine oil emulsion
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. Only III
197. Forbes-Bottle method is used in preparing
I. Mineral oil emulsion
II. Cod liver oil emulsion
III. Turpentine oil emulsion
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. Only III
198. Surfactants of HLB value 3 to 6 are employed as
a. O/W emulsifiers
b. W/O emulsifiers
c. Antifoaming agents
d. Wetting agents
199. This theory of emulsification assumes monomolecular layers of emulsifying agent curved around a droplet of the
internal phase
a. Surface tension theory
 b. Plastic-film theory
c. Oriented-wedge theory
d. Interfacial film theory
200. Which of the following preparations has a red label?
I. White liniment
II. Calamine lotion
III. Cod liver oil emulsion
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
201. Which of the following is not correct about HLB system?
a. It is used to classify surfactants
b. Hydrophilic surfactants form O/W emulsion
c. HLB values of about 8-18 are O/W emulsifiers
d. Tweens are lipophilic surfactants
202. Which of the following have liquid as continuous phase?
I. Emulsions
II. Aerosols
III. Suspensions
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. Only III
203. Microemulsions are
I. Thermodynamically unstable system
II. Optically transparent
III. O/W system stabilized by surfactant
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. Only I
204. An agent responsible for developing the pressure within an aerosol container and expelling the product when the
valve is opened
a. Concentrate
b. Propellant
c. Air displacement
d. Glidant
205. Space sprays include
I. Room deodorizers
II. Perfumes and colognes
III. Paint sprays
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I only
e. III only
206. Method of filling aerosols
I. Cold filling
II. Liquid filling
III. Pressure filling
a. I and III
b. II and III
 c. I, II and III
d. III only
e. I and II
207. Which of the following gases is NOT used as aerosol propellant?
a. CFC
b. CO₂
c. Helium
d. NO
208. Inhalational aerosols are commonly employed
a. As anti-infective
b. As contraceptive
c. In anorectal conditions
d. In asthma therapy
209. All of the following products are inhalational aerosols EXCEPT
a. Azmacort
b. Proctofoam
c. Ventolin aerosol
d. Intal inhaler
210. Metered-dose inhalers are classified as
a. Inhalations
b. Insufflations
c. Aerosols
d. Sprays
211. Correct statements regarding aerosols include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Room disinfectants belong to aerosols termed as surface sprays
b. An aerosol is commonly referred to as “pressurized package”
c. Dip tube is a part of the valve assembly in the aerosol system
d. Cold filling of aerosols require -34.5°C to -40°C
212. Aqueous vehicle for parenteral products include
I. Water for injection
II. Bacteriostatic water for injection
III. Sodium chloride injection
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
213. Large volume parenterals for maintenance therapy is employed for patients
I. Entering or recovering from surgery
II. Who are unconscious and unable to take fluids, electrolytes and nutrition orally
III. Who have suffered a heavy loss of fluids and electrolytes such as diarrhea
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I only
214. Propofol USP is a
a. Solution for injection
b. Dry solid for injection
c. Injectable emulsion
d. Injectable suspension
215. Method of sterilization conducted in an autoclave is
a. Steam sterilization
b. Dry heat sterilization
c. Sterilization by filtration
 d. Gas sterilization
216. The following sterile fluids are classified as large volume parenterals EXCEPT
a. Ringer’s injection
b. Total parenteral nutrition
c. Humulin R
d. Dextrose 5% injection
217. Parenteral drug products should possess the following characteristics EXCEPT
I. Sterilized using either autoclaving, dry heat or bacterial filtration
II. Isotonic
III. Colored
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. Only III
218. Intrathecal administration is the injection of drug into the
a. Joint fluid area
b. Spinal fluid
c. Heart
d. Under the skin
219. Irrigation solutions are
I. Sterile solutions
II. Intended to bathe or wash wounds, surgical incisions or body tissues
III. Injected into the vein
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. II only
220. Ringer’s injection USP contains
I. Sodium chloride
II. Potassium chloride
III. Calcium chloride
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. Only III
221. IV administration is needed when
I. An immediate action is required
II. An oral administration is ineffective
III. A prolonged action is required
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I and III
222. Method of sterilization employed for heat-labile enzyme preparations, catheters, needles and plastic disposable
syringes
a. Sterilization by ionizing radiation
b. Gas sterilization
c. Dry heat sterilization
d. Steam sterilization
223. Commonly used fixed oils in injections include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Corn oil
b. Peanut oil
 c. Sesame oil
d. Mineral oil
224. This is a long acting insulin
a. Insulin zinc ultralente
b. Isophane (NPH) insulin
c. Insulin lispro
d. Regular insulin
225. All of the following is true about LVP’s EXCEPT
a. Sterile
b. Do not require preservatives
c. Package in multiple dose containers
d. Container size has a maximum fill of 1 liter
226. All of the following statements are true regarding biologics EXCEPT
a. Biologic products must pass control requirements such as potency, sterility, pyrogens and constituent
material
b. Freezing is required in the storage of biologics
c. Biologics are generally administered by injection
d. Most biologics have an expiration date of a year or longer after the date of manufacture
227. This biologic product is also available in oral form as an enteric coated capsule
a. Measles vaccine
b. Rabies vaccine
c. Hepa B vaccine
d. Typhoid vaccine
228. Which of the following solutions should be sterile?
a. Douche
b. Enema
c. Ophthalmic solutions
d. Tinctures
229. Considerations in preparing ophthalmic preparations include the following EXCEPT
a. Sterility
b. Isotonicity
c. Colorant
d. Preservation
e. Buffering
230. Methylcellulose is used in ophthalmic solutions as
a. Buffer
b. Thickener
c. Isotonic agent
d. Preservative
231. Purposes of buffering of ophthalmic preparations include
I. For greater comfort to the eye
II. To enhance drug bioavailability
III. Aid in maintaining the drug in contact with the eye tissues
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. III only
232. All of the following otic preparations are indicated for bacterial infections of the ear EXCEPT
a. Auralgan otic solution
b. Cerumenex eardrops
c. Chloromycetin otic solution
d. Corticosporin otic solution
233. Drugs or combination of drugs that by virtue of their high vapor pressure can be carried by an air current to the
nasal passages where they exert their effect
a. Inhalant
b. Inhalation
c. Spray
d. Aerosol
234. An eyewash is also known as
a. Collyrium
b. Collutorium
c. Collunarium
d. Lavatio ori
235. Which of the following is an otic solution?
a. Bronkosol
b. Amyl nitrite
c. Eye-Mo
d. Cerumenex
236. Inhalation solutions are administered as fine mist of drug or vapors using the following EXCEPT
a. Inhaler
b. Vaporizer
c. Humidifier
d. Nebulizer
237. Which of the following is a nasal solution?
a. Cerumenex
b. Ocean mist
c. Benzedrex
d. Lugol’s solution
238. Nasal preparations are employed
I. As nasal decongestant for prevention and treatment of allergic rhinitis
II. To remove moisture and relieve dry, congested and inflamed nasal membranes
III. In the form of nose drops or sprays
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
239. Which of the following is NOT a radiopharmaceutical?
a. Co 57 capsules
b. I-131 solution injection
c. Rho (D) Immune globulin injection
d. Tc99m Albumin aggregated
240. Dispensing of radiopharmaceuticals
I. Typically in unit dose
II. Directly dispensed to the patient
III. With a special label such as “Caution – Radioactive Material”
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and II
e. III only
241. A nonradioactive pharmaceutical used in nuclear medicine as an alternative to a treadmill stress test prior to
cardiac imaging
a. Acetazolamide
b. Captopril
c. Dipyridamole
 d. Cimetidine
242. A drug antidote for radiation exposure is
a. Cs
b. Acetazolamide
c. Prussian blue
d. Captopril
243. A radiopharmaceutical used diagnostically to evaluate thyroid fraction and morphology
a. Samarium – 153
b. Sodium iodide – 123
c. Holmium – 166
d. Cobalt – 57
244. Which of the following is produced by Monoclonal Antibodies technology?
I. Adalimumab (Humira)
II. Hepatitis B vaccine recombinant (Engerix B)
III. Rutuximab (Rituxan)
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. II only
245. The delivery of fluoride to the teeth may be accomplished through
a. Sonophoresis
b. Phonophoresis
c. Iontophoresis
d. Ultrasound
246. A novel drug delivery system Cyanocobalamin (Nascobal Gel) used in the treatment of Vitamin B12 deficiency is
available as
a. A controlled release sublingual application
b. A nasal gel
c. Microspheres for injection
d. Automatic injectors
247. The following advanced dosage forms are intended for oral administration EXCEPT
a. Striant mucoadhesive system
b. Gliadel wafer implant
c. Osmotic pump
d. Chewable dispersible tablet
248. A technique used to produce bio-technologic products that focused on the study of fraction of specific proteins
and intracellular expression
a. Gene therapy
b. Recombinant DNA technology
c. Monoclonal antibodies
d. Nucleotide blockade/ antisense
249. The following are products of biotechnology EXCEPT
a. Yttrium-90 microspheres (Therasphere)
b. Fomiversen sodium (Vitravene)
c. Epoeitin alfa (Epogen)
d. Systemic antihemophilic factors (Kogenate)
250. Which of the following is NOT a biological product?
a. Serum
b. Toxoid
c. Pellets
d. Anti-toxin
251. Also known as hydrocarbon ointment bases
a. Oleaginous bases
 b. Water-removable bases
c. Absorption bases
d. Water-soluble bases
e. NOTA
252. These are solid or semi-solid adhesive spread upon a backing material or paper, fabric or plastic
a. Pastes
b. Creams
c. Glycerogelatins
d. Plasters
e. Cerates
253. The route used for insulin administration
a. Hypodermic
b. Intramuscular
c. Intradermal
d. Intravenous
e. Oral
254. The Z-track method is a technique for injection into which route?
a. Hypodermic
b. Intramuscular
c. Intradermal
d. Intravenous
e. Subcutaneous
255. The most widely used measure of the margin of a drug’s safety
a. Minimum effective concentration
b. TD 50
c. Therapeutic index
d. ED 50
e. LD50
256. The most optimal site for intramuscular injection for adults
a. Gluteal region
b. Deltoid muscle
c. Midlateral muscles of the thigh
d. Biceps brachii
e. Abdominal muscles
257. Propofol is an anesthetic agent which is packaged as a/an
a. Injectable emulsion
b. Injectable suspension
c. Drug for injection
d. Drug for injectable suspension
e. Enteral solution
258. Vehicle for injections that should contain in its label “Not for use in newborns”
a. Water for injection
b. Bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection
c. Sterile water for injection
d. Ringer’s injection
e. Saline for injection
259. The most commonly used antimicrobial agent for vehicles/solvents for injection
a. Benzyl alcohol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Propyl paraben
d. Methyl paraben
e. BHT
260. The usual volume for injection that can be comfortably injected subcutaneously
 a. 2ml
b. 0.1ml
c. 5ml
d. 1.3ml
e. A and C are correct
261. Ointment base made form yellow wax and petrolatum
a. Simple ointment
b. Hydrophilic ointment
c. Petroleum jelly
d. Yellow petrolatum
e. Cold cream
262. A gel mass consisting of floccules of small distinct particles
a. Single-phase gel
b. Paste
c. Magma
d. Vanishing cream
e. NOTA
263. Ointment base made from cholesterol, stearyl alcohol, white wax and petrolatum
a. White ointment
b. Lanolin
c. Hydrophilic petrolatum
d. White petrolatum
e. White wax
264. The substance which the material to be sterilized is exposed to during gas sterilization
a. Propyl alcohol
b. Fluorinated hydrocarbons
c. Propylene glycol
d. Ethylene oxide
e. Acetic acid
265. A process which uses autoclaving to sterilize parenterals
a. Autoclaving
b. Membrane filtration
c. Dry heat sterilization
d. Gas sterilization
e. NOTA
266. Tablets originally used by physicians in compounding parenteral solutions
a. Dispensing tablets
b. Hypodermic tablets
c. Tablet triturates
d. Buccal tablets
e. Effervescent granules
267. Method used or blending powders wherein the different ingredients are enclosed in a rotating container to effect
mixing
a. Tumbling
b. Trituration
c. Geometric dilution
d. Sifting
e. Levigation
268. This substance is used as an opaquant for gelatin capsule shells
a. Silicon dioxide
b. Titanium dioxide
c. Calcium stearate
d. Magnesium stearate
 e. Silicon oxide
269. The following are true about capsules EXCEPT
a. Calcium stearate can be used as a lubricant for the tablet and capsule powder formulation
b. Capsule sealing is done for all capsules
c. The largest capsule size is 000
d. Sorbitol is added to gelatin to make soft gelatin capsules
e. NOTA
270. These are semisolid dosage forms employed for the purpose of leaving a medication for long-term residence on
the skin
a. Pastes
b. Creams
c. Glycerogelatins
d. Plasters
e. Ointments
271. The usual volume of injection administered using the intradermal route
a. 2ml
b. 0.1ml
c. 5ml
d. 1.3ml
e. A and B are correct
272. Process used in the small-scale preparation of ointments to reduce the particle size and grittiness of added
powders
a. Trituration
b. Levigation
c. Geometric dilution
d. Spatulation
e. Fusion
273. The base most frequently used for chewable tablets
a. Sorbitol
b. Sucrose
c. Mannitol
d. Lactose
e. Glucose
274. Disc-shaped solid dosage forms containing a medicinal agent in a hard candy or sugar base
a. Pastilles
b. Effervescent tablets
c. Pills
d. Troches
e. Implant
275. Method used when blending a small amount of potent substance with a large amount of powdered diluents
a. Levigation
b. Trituration
c. Spatulation
d. Geometric dilution
e. Tumbling
276. These are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions of volatile substances
a. Elixirs
b. Liniments
c. Spirits
d. Aromatic waters
e. Syrups
277. Pyroxylin is obtained by the action of a mixture of these acids on cotton
a. Nitric and sulfuric acids
 b. Nitric and hydrochloric acids
c. Sulfuric and hydrochloric acids
d. Acetic and sulfuric acids
e. NOTA
278. Common ingredient (classification) imparting pharmacologic effect to antiseptic solution, NF and Mouthwash NF
a. Alkaloids
b. Volatile oils
c. Waxes
d. Gums
e. Resins
279. Precipitate formed when calcium hydroxide solution is exposed to the atmosphere
a. Calcium sulfate
b. Calcium phosphate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium chloride
e. Calcium borate
280. Stabilizing agent/reducing agent used in potassium iodide solution
a. Sodium sulfate
b. Sodium borate
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Sodium iodide
e. Sodium chloride
281. The order of mixing solutions containing combinations of alcohol and water as solvents
a. Alcohol to water
b. Water to alcohol
c. A and B can be done
d. NOTA
e. Salt is added
282. Syrup prepared by excessive heating undergoes the following changes EXCEPT
a. Caramelization
b. Sweeter taste
c. Fermentation
d. Clarification
e. Inversion
283. Flavored hydroalcoholic solutions to which glycerin is often added to enhance the solvent and preservative
properties
a. Elixirs
b. Spirits
c. Tinctures
d. Glycerites
e. Concentrates
284. The type of solute in tinctures
a. Volatile
b. Non volatile
c. A and B are correct
d. NOTA
e. Alcohol
285. Thick aqueous suspensions of freshly precipitate inorganic substances in a colloidal or very fine state of
subdivision generally intended for internal use
a. Magmas
b. Tinctures
c. Suspensions
d. Emulsions
 e. Lotions
286. The external phase of an emulsion is the
a. Dispersed phase
b. Continuous phase
c. Discontinuous phase
d. Globules
e. Surfactant
287. Chemical decomposition prevented by the use of amber colored containers
a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Polymerization
d. Complexation
e. Leaching
288. Which is NOT a property of invert sugar?
a. Subject to fermentation
b. Caramelizes
c. Sweeter than sucrose
d. Colorless than dextrose
e. Easily decomposed
289. Type of emulsion that requires the addition of preservative
a. W/O
b. O/W
c. Transparent emulsions
d. Seed emulsions
e. Microemulsions
290. Clear colloidal dispersions of one liquid dispersed in another and also known as transparent emulsions
a. Seed emulsions
b. Microemulsions
c. Gum-resin emulsion
d. Emulsions of volatile oils
e. In-situ emulsions
291. Routes of administration for emulsions EXCEPT
a. Parenteral
b. Oral
c. Topical
d. Intranasal
e. NOTA
292. Another terminology for ointment EXCEPT
a. Unguentum
b. Salve
c. Pessaries
d. Chrisma
e. Water
293. Order of melting ingredients in preparing ointment by fusion
a. From highest to lowest mpt
b. From lowest to highest mpt
c. All together
d. Separately with no particular order
e. AOTA
294. Apparatus used when a method calls for mechanical incorporation (extemporaneous preparation)
a. Erlenmeyer flask
b. Mortar and pestle
c. Beaker
 d. Crucible with cover
e. Ointment slab
295. Ointment like preparations which are usually stiffer, less greasy and more absorptive than ointments
a. Creams
b. Emulsions
c. Pastes
d. Cataplasms
e. Cerates
296. An ideal suppository should melt
a. Above body temperature
b. Within body temperature
c. At room temperature
d. At extreme temperature
e. A little above body temperature
297. The suppository base for vaginal administration
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. CMC
c. Gelatin
d. Waxes
e. Theobroma oil
298. Common preservatives of emulsions
a. Polysorbates
b. Sorbitans
c. Parabens
d. Acids
e. Alcohols
299. Which dosage form must meet requirements for sterility as set by official compendium?
a. Rectal suppositories
b. Ophthalmic ointments
c. Oral suspensions
d. Topical emulsions
e. Rectal emulsions
300. Instructions involving the proper route of administration of a drug is most significant for
a. Suspensions
b. Ointments
c. Suppositories
d. Tablets and capsules
e. Ophthalmic drops