1. A screening interview typically ends the selection process.

A. True
B. False

2. Comprehensive interviews are expensive and not very reliable.

A. True
B. False

3. The key element in a realistic job preview is holding the interview in the
actual work space.

A. True
B. False

4. If a selection device has high reliability it has low validity.

A. True
B. False

5. Background investigations are performed, in part, to protect employers

from negligent hiring liability.

A. True
B. False

6. Which of these steps in the selection typically comes after the conditional
job offer?

A. Application form is completed.

B. Employment tests are taken.
C. Initial screening is performed.
D. Comprehensive interview is conducted.
E. Medical examination is performed.

7. Which of the following is likely to remove an applicant from the pool

during the initial screening?
 A. Performance test data.
B. Personality test data.
C. Medical exam results.
D. Gaps in the applicant's job history.
E. Faulty comprehensive interview.

8. Dion wants to decrease turnover for his customer service representatives.

He examined work application forms for the last five years and learned the
following: 60% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had no prior
work experience; 90% of employees who stayed more than a year had more
than 2 previous jobs. 25% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had a
high school diploma; 30% of employees who stayed more than a year had a
high school diploma. 80% of the employees who stayed less than 90 days
spoke more than 1 language; 75% of the employees who stayed longer than
1 year spoke two languages. What should he do?

A. Lower work experience requirements for the job.

B. Raise education requirements for the job.
C. Weigh work experience more heavily than language skills.
D. Weigh language skills more heavily than education levels.
E. Raise language skill requirements to three or more languages.

9. Minnie is interviewing for a job as a cheese tester. She is taken to the

production line, and asked to taste and smell four different kinds of cheese
coming from the conveyors. What stage of the selection process is
involved?

A. Comprehensive interview.
B. Literacy test.
C. Work sampling.
D. Coaching.
E. This is just a break, not part of the process.

10. What kind of interview is the most reliable?

A. Panel
B. Valid
C. Stress
D. Situational
E. Structured
11. Why do realistic job previews result in lower turnover rates?

A. More committed employees are hired.

B. Fewer job offers are made.
C. Higher salaries are offered.
D. Better benefits are provided.
E. They do not.

12. A conditional job offer has been rescinded after a former employer alerted
the new employer to public records of criminal activity. Is this legal?

A. Yes, under qualified privilege.

B. No, under qualified privilege.
C. Yes, under bona fide occupational qualification.
D. No, under reasonable accommodation.
E. Yes, under reasonable accommodation.

13. Why is concurrent validity challenged in court more often than predictive
validity?

A. It is not. Predictive validity is more challenged.

B. Concurrent validity has no content validity.
C. Applicants are more similar to applicants.
D. Interview consistency.
E. Predictive validity is an older technique.

14. Minna wants to increase the size of the applicant pool for entry level
customer service representatives. This job requires an employment test on
basic clerical and communication skills. What should Minna do?

A. Lower the cut score on the employment test.

B. Raise the cut score on the employment test.
C. Increase the validity of the employment test.
D. Increase the reliability of the employment test.
E. Make the test shorter.

15. Why is it now legal to use the same screening test for a variety of jobs in
an organization?

A. Griggs v. Duke Power

B. Cut scores
 C. BFOQ
D. Reasonable accommodation
E. Validity generalization

CH 8

1. The first stage of orientation occurs when an employee begins the actual
job.

A. True
B. False

2. New employee orientation programs are often conducted by HR staff, line

management, or a combination of the two.

A. True
 B. False

3. The goal of employee training is to provide a relatively permanent change

in employees that improves their job performance.

A. True
B. False

4. Committee assignments are a type of off-the-job training.

A. True
B. False

5. In OD, intergroup development is used to build cohesion within work

groups.

A. True
B. False

6. Socialization rests on which of the following assumptions?

A. Information obtained during recruitment is accurate and complete.

B. Information obtained during selection is usually complete.
C. Most people enter an organization with low anxiety levels.
D. Most workers alter their work roles rather than their understanding of
them.
E. Subtle statements and behaviors by coworkers are an important part of
the socialization process.

7. Lydia quit her new job on the second day, saying that the job was not at all
what she was willing to do. Which socialization stage is completed?

A. This is not socialization.

B. Encounter.
C. Prearrival.
D. Metamorphosis.
E. Reality.
8. What is the benefit of involving the CEO in the orientation process?

A. HRM is freed up from tedious activity.

B. It assures a systematic, thorough process.
C. A CEO welcome can encourage newcomers, like a pep rally.
D. It replaces the visioning function of an organization.
E. CEOs are no longer involved in the orientation process due to work
process engineering.

9. Which of the following is an example of employee training?

A. A law degree.
B. Food preparation workshop for an accountant.
C. Food preparation workshop for cafeteria workers.
D. Executive coaching for line managers
E. Work process engineering

10. Training should be performed in which of these situations?

A. The worker is not motivated.

B. Training is cheap; there are extra seats in a scheduled class.
C. The worker has been disciplined for poor behavior before.
D. Performance deficits have been identified.
E. Performance increase will justify the training expense.

11. Matt owns a Boston investment house. He just dropped 5 of senior

managers off in the Appalachian foothills with camping gear and food and
told them to meet him in 5 days at a designated spot. What kind of
employee development is this?

A. Survival training
B. Vestibule
C. Packing
D. Simulation
E. Job rotation

12. Your text describes OD based on an organizational reality that includes

rapid and uncertain change as which of the following?

A. White-water rapids
B. Garbage can
 C. Washing machine
D. Worm hole
E. Job morphing

13. Why does a learning organization have a competitive advantage over other
types of organizations? For all of these reasons except

A. All members take an active role in identifying and solving work-

related problems.
B. Information is shared across different functional specialties.
C. Fierce competition lets the best rise to the top.
D. It has the capacity to continuously adapt and change.
E. Information is freely shared across different organizational levels.

14. Just suppose you took your “final exam” for a course the day before the
semester started. Then you took it again as the final at the end of the
semester. Then, the department chair compared the scores to see how
much you learned. This activity would be an example of what kind of
training evaluation method?

A. Student-teacher interaction opinions

B. Testing
C. Pre-post training performance with control group
D. Outcome assessment
E. Pre-post training performance

15. Overseas assignments are especially difficult for teenage children because

A. They no longer care about local styles and jargon.

B. They have more family time.
C. Foods are different in other countries.
D. Exposure to another culture limits them.
E. They return more mature than their local friends.
CH 9

1. Your immediate supervisor has primary responsibility for managing your

career.

A. True
B. False

2. Career success is often defined in terms of promotions and advancement.

A. True
B. False

3. A well-designed career development helps manage employee expectations.

A. True
B. False

4. Holland's Vocational Preference Theory identifies six themes of

occupational preference.

A. True
B. False
5. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator identifies five themes of occupational
preference.

A. True
B. False

6. Duffy, a recent graduate, wants to work for a firm that will support his
career development. He can expect all of the following except

A. Time to learn.
B. Clear communication about where the organization is headed.
C. Promotions for each course taken.
D. Tuition reimbursement.
E. Growth opportunities at work.

7. Lynne is a puppy nanny. She works for minimum wage at a shelter, playing
with strays until they are friendly enough to be “adopted.” She goes home at
night and tells her 5 dogs about what a difference she makes in the lives of
dogs and their future owners. She has pictures of 430 such pairings on her
walls. How can her career success be defined?

A. objectively
B. intermittently
C. intentionally
D. subjectively
E. psychologically

8. Dyan attended a workshop on long term career goals and decided to get
another college degree. What kind of activity was the workshop?

A. orientation
B. employee training
C. individual career development
D. organizational career development
E. organizational development

9. Rob has worked for the same manufacturing firm for 20 years. Last week he
attended a workshop where he learned new coaching and mentoring
practices for managers and supervisors. He is in line for a promotion next
year, and this session will enhance his opportunity for that job. What kind
 of session did Rob attend?

A. Career development
B. Sigma management modification
C. Employee development
D. Employee training
E. Retirement planning

10. Rob has worked for the same manufacturing firm for 20 years. Last week
he attended a workshop where he learned new software systems for
production control. What kind of session did Rob attend?

A. Career development
B. Sigma management modification
C. Employee development
D. Employee training
E. Career outsourcing

11. Which of the following statements are accurate about a company that has a
well-designed career development program?

A. Employee frustration is reduced.

B. Outside hires tend to be of lower quality.
C. More outside talent needs to be recruited.
D. The glass ceiling is protected.
E. Workers get time off for courses.

12. Myron attended a retirement planning workshop last week. He is moving

to the south to be with the grandkids. Identify Myron's career stage.

A. Decline
B. Exploration
C. Establishment
D. Late career
E. Transition

13. Asad is a research scientist. He likes to work in the lab, with the
equipment and no people. He discovers new coating materials for plastics.
What is his Holland type?

A. ENTP
 B. Managerial-technical
C. Realistic-Investigative-Artistic
D. Social-Investigative-Antigonous
E. Conventional-Realistic-Social

14. Moshe works in an art gallery as a guide. He likes working with the
visitors to the gallery and being around the beautiful artwork. He explains
meanings and nuances, and is delighted to hear new interpretations from
other people What is his MBTI classification?

A. INFP
B. ENTJ
C. ESPN
D. IRCA
E. ESFP

15. Which of the following is a good suggestion for career success?

A. Keep your accomplishments low key and hidden.

B. Don't do an internship related to your major.
C. Set a specific job target and don't settle for less.
D. Refuse help from parents or other successful professionals who want
to introduce you to workers in your area.
E. Know your strengths and weaknesses.
CH 10

1. Performance management systems provide feedback, development, and

documentation.

A. True
B. False

2. Relative standard appraisal methods compare the work of employees to

each other.

A. True
B. False

3. Performance appraisals can be distorted by inflationary pressures.

A. True
B. False

4. 360-degree appraisals may include information from supervisors, peers,

subordinates, and customers.

A. True
B. False

5. Which of the following indicates that maximum benefit is being derived

from the performance appraisal process?

A. Raises are kept to a minimum.

B. Incentives are provided to workers.
C. Employees are openly compared to other employees.
D. EEO no longer requires documentation of the process.
E. Employees are satisfied with the process.

6. Don, a fast food supervisor, is talking to a new employee, Lydia, about the
job. He explains to Lydia that she is expected to take 3 orders per minute,
 take care of the fryer when the buzzer sounds, and smile at everyone. What
part of the performance appraisal process is he performing?

A. This is not part of performance appraisal.

B. Initiating corrective action.
C. Discussing the appraisal with the employee.
D. Setting measurable goals.
E. Measure actual performance.

7. Don, manager of a fast food restaurant, is evaluating Lydia, an employee.

He has a sheet of paper with a number of questions, such as “Does
employee smile at everyone?” and “Does employee burn french fries?” He
checks off a “Yes” or “No” for each question. Which method is Don using?

A. BARS.
B. Forced-choice comparison.
C. Checklist appraisal.
D. Graphical rating scale.
E. Critical incident.

8. Don, manager of a fast food restaurant, is evaluating Lydia, an employee.

He has a sheet of paper with a number of grouped statements. He has to
pick one of the statements. For instance, Employee greets customers with
“smile and eye contact” or “distracted frown.” What method is Don using?

A. BARS.
B. Forced-choice comparison.
C. Adjective Rating Scale.
D. Ranking
E. Checklist appraisal.

9. Don, a fast food manager, is evaluating Lydia, an employee. He has just

reported that she is 4th out of 9 employees. What performance evaluation
technique did Don use?

A. That is not performance evaluation.

B. BARS.
C. Forced-choice comparison.
D. Group order ranking.
E. Individual ranking.
10. Don, a fast food manager, has decided to improve customer satisfaction on
his shift by 10% and to reduce employee turnover by 15%. What MBO
step is Don performing?
A. Goal setting.
B. Monitoring.
C. Formal review.
D. Performance evaluation.
E. BARS

11. Don, a fast food manager, evaluated Lydia, a long time employee,
“Excellent” on her performance for the year. Lydia had been rated
“Excellent” in all prior years, but this year she had lots of customer
complaints and lots of burned food. What rating error is evident?

A. Halo effect
B. Central tendency
C. MBO
D. BARS
E. Similarity error

12. Which of the following will improve performance appraisals?

A. Use trait-based measures.

B. Use relative standards.
C. Have multiple raters.
D. Find a measure you like and stick with it.
E. Use new measures each year.

13. Team performance appraisals can be proved by which of the following

suggestions?

A. Tie team results to organizational goals.

B. Start with process steps and efficiency.
C. Measure team only, not individual performance.
D. Let managers define team measures.
E. Start with relationships between teams.

14. Give some advice to your friend who is taking an overseas assignment for
a large global organization.

A. Let the host country manager do your performance appraisal if the

culture is similar to yours.
B. Insist that the parent company do your performance evaluations,
even though there is little information available about the overseas
office.
C. Make sure your performance evaluation is done with simple indices,
such as gross sales.
D. Make sure the evaluation forms are filled out in English.
E. Try to have a third-country national on your performance evaluation
team.