Roll No.

: Test Date: 02/02/2014

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

TEST No. 6
PAPER - I

AK A S H TE
A ST
IA for
D

SE
IN

RI
JEE (Main) 2014
ALL

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
ES
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section – I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Test No. 6
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism & Matter, Electromagnetic

Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves

Organic Chemistry (Some Basic Principles and Techniques),

Chemistry Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Mathematics Application of Derivatives, Integrals, Applications of Integrals

Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

TEST - 6 (Paper-1)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

2. Figure shows a regular hexagon made of uniform

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
wire. If a battery is connected across the ends AB,
magnetic field at O is B0. If the same battery is
connected across A and C, the magnetic field at O
will be
E D

Choose the correct answer :

F O C
1. Which one of the following circulation is correct?

C3 A B
(1) Equal to B0
(2) Greater than B0
(3) Less than B0
i1 X i2 (4) May be less or greater than B0

C1 C2
3. Figure shows two coils carrying equal currents. The
ratio of magnetic field at P due to coil-1 to coil-2 is
R

  2R
(1) ∫ B.dl  0i1 i R

C1 i
P
 
(2) ∫ B.dl  0i 2 R
C2 2
1
 
(3) ∫ B.dl  0 (i 2  i1) 1
(1) (2) 1 : 2
C3 2
  1
(4) ∫ B.dl  0 (i1  i 2 ) 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞4
(3) (4) ⎜ ⎟
C3 4 ⎝ 2⎠
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

4. The arrangement shown here is a Faraday's disc of 6. A solenoid has an inductance L and a resistance R.
radius a which is rotating in a uniform magnetic field If the solenoid is connected to a battery, the time it
B perpendicular to the plane of disc. The current will take to reach half of its final equilibrium value is
passing through the resistance is
L 2L
2 (1) ln2 (2) ln3
B a 2R R
(1)
R B
L L
(3) ln 2 (4) ln3
Ba 2 R R
(2)
2R  7. A wire forms a closed circular loop of radius 2 m and
resistance 6 . The circle is centred on a long
B2a straight wire. (The straight wire is insulated). The
(3) current changes according to i = (5 – 2t 2 )A.
2R
The magnitude of current induced in the loop at
t = 1 s is
B a 2 R
(4)
R

5. In the cylindrical region shown, magnetic field is R

diminishing at the rate of (T/s). The force on the i
electron at a distance r along y-axis is

Y
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) Zero
B
  8. Wire AB is moved with a velocity 2 m/s. Wire is
e P 

  kept near a long current carrying conductor, as
 shown. Emf induced in the wire is
X
 
 0
 (1) ln3
  2 2 m/s

5A A B
5 0
(2) ln3
2 1m
r r
(1) e( iˆ) (2) e(iˆ) 3m
2 2
5 0
(3) ln3

r2 r2
(3) e(iˆ) (4) e(iˆ)
2 2 (4) Zero
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

9. EMF of the battery shown in the circuit varies with 12. If a direct current of value "a" ampere is
time, so that the current is given by i = 3 + 5t, superimposed on an ac i = bsint flowing through a
where i is in ampere and t is in second. The wire, the effective value of resulting current in the
expression for battery emf as a function of time is circuit is
b b
(1) (2) a 
2 2
R=4
b2 a2  b 2
(3) a2  (4)
E L=6H 2 2
13. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field and
follows a spiral path as shown in figure. Which of the
following statement is incorrect?

(1) 10t + 32
(2) 20t + 42
(3) 20t + 18
(4) 10t + 22
10. The current density J inside a long, solid cylindrical (1) Angular velocity of electron remains constant
wire of radius a is along central axis and its (2) Magnitude of velocity of electron decreases
r continuously
magnitude varies linearly with r as J  J0 . The
a (3) Net force on the particle is always perpendicular
to direction of motion
a
magnetic field at r  is (4) Magnitude of net force on the electron
2
decreases continuously
0 J 0 a 0J0a 14. A bar magnet is moved between two circular coils A
(1) (2)
3 6 and B with a constant velocity v as shown. Then the
coils
0 J 0 a 0 J 0 a A B
(3) (4)
9 12
v
11. An ideal choke takes a current of 8 A when
connected to an a.c. source of 100 V and 50 Hz. A
pure resistance under the same conditions takes a
current of 10 A. If two are connected in series to an
a.c. supply of 100 V and 40 Hz, then current in the (1) Repel each other
circuit is
(2) Attract each other
(1) 10 A (2) 8 A
(3) Neither attract nor repel each other
(3) 5 2 A (4) 10 2 A (4) May attract or repel depending upon size of coils
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

15. Slider of length 1 m moves with velocity 2 m/s in a 17. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from
uniform magnetic field of 2T. Resistance of the slider rest at the origin as shown in figure. The speed of
is 2 . The magnitude of external force required to the particle when it has travelled a distance d along
maintain the velocity is the z axis is given by
z
2qE0 d
(1)
×B m
E0 d E0
(2) B0
6  v 3 B0
y
m m, q
(3) qE0 d
x
2m
(1) 1 N (2) 2 N (4) qE0 d
(3) 4 N (4) 6 N 18. A magnetic needle of negligible width and thickness
16. A copper rod is bent into a semicircle of radius a and as compared to its length oscillates in horizontal
is being rotated with an angular velocity  in the plane with period T. If it is broken into n equal parts,
magnetic field shown. Resistance of the circuit is then the time period of each part in same field
negligible. Amplitude of current through the circuit is will be

(1) T n (2) nT

O a O T T
× (3) (4)
 n n
×B 19. Current in R3 just after closing the switch and in
steady state respectively, will be
E L
C

R1
1
(1) B a2C 2
2 R3
C R2
1
(2) Ba 2C2
4 S
E
1 (1) 0, 0 (2) R ,0
(3) Ba2C2
8 3

E
(4) 2Ba 2C2 (3) 0, (4) Indeterminate
R3
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

20. In the arrangement shown, maximum current that will 23. An E.M. wave going through vacuum is described by
flow in the circuit is E = E0sin(kx – t); B = B0sin(kx – t) then

6C (1) E0k = B0

(1) V0
L 4V0 V0 (2) E0B0 = k
– + + –
C S (3) E0 = B0k
(2) V0 2C C
L
(4) E0 = B0
V0 L 24. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field.
(3)
2 6C The field is increased till the magnetization becomes
L constant. If the temperature is now decreased, the
V0 6C magnetization
(4)
2 L
(1) Will increase
21. In the figure shown IL = 0.8 A and IC = 0.6 A. The
(2) Will decrease
current drawn from the source is
L (3) Remains constant

IL (4) May increase or decrease

C 20
25. A toroid has a mean radius R  cm and a total
IC 
of 400 turns of wire carrying a current of 2 A.
I
~ A metallic ring at 300 K inside the toroid provides
V the core. If the magnetization I = 4.8 × 10–2 A/m,
(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A the susceptibility of metal at this temperature is

(3) 0.6 A (4) 1 A (1) 2.4 × 10–5 (2) 4.2 × 10–5

22. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and (3) 2.4 × 10–4 (4) 4.2 × 10–4
separation between the plates d, is charged by a
constant current i. Consider a plane surface of area SECTION - II
A Assertion – Reason Type Questions
parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically
2
between plates. The displacement current through Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
this area is Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
i
(1) i (2) Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
2
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
i
(3) (4) Zero answer. You have to select the correct choice.
4
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
26. Statement-1 : Co-axial cable containing equal and
opposite current in wire and hollow conducting
cylinder is used to produce zero magnetic fields
outside the cable.
and
Statement-2 : Net current enclosed for the cable by
a concentric outer circular loop is zero.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : In an a.c. series circuit, the applied
instantaneous voltage is not equal to the algebraic
sum of instantaneous voltage across the different
elements of the circuit.
and
Statement-2 : The RMS voltage across different
elements are not in phase, only their phasor sum is
equal to the applied RMS voltage.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Consider two small elements of current carrying wire
as shown.
2 direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave.
1 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
i2
i1
Statement-1 : The force on 1 due to 2 is downwards
in the plane of paper but the force on 2 due to 1 is
zero.
and
Statement-2 : Electromagnetic waves carry
momentum with them.
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Paper-I)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. An inductor is connected to a battery through a
switch.
Statement-1 : The emf induced in the inductor is
much larger when the switch is opened as
compared to the emf induced when the switch is
closed.
and
Statement-2 : When the switch is opened, the current
suddenly tends to drop to zero. But when the switch
is closed, due to finite resistance of the circuit, the
current does not suddenly build up to the maximum
value.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : In electromagnetic waves energy is
equally shared between electric field and magnetic
field.
and  
Statement-2 : Unit vector of E  B gives the
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - I 33. CH3  CH  CH2 
HOCl
 (A) 
KOH
(B) 
C H ONa
2 5
in C H OH
 (C)
2 5

Straight Objective Type Questions

The product (C) formed in the given sequence of
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions reactions will be
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – OC2H5
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
OH
Cl (2) CH3 – CH – CH2


+
H3O OC2H5
+ OH
–
(X) (Y)
31.
OC2H5
NO2
(3) CH3 – CH – CH2

Identify the product (Y) OH

(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH = O
OH
Cl 34. Which of the following hydrocarbon gives the
following compounds on ozonolysis followed by
(1) (2) reductive hydrolysis?
O2N OH
I. CH3 – CO – CH3
NO2
II. CH3CHO
III. CH3 – CO – CHO
NO2
CH3
OH
(1) CH3 – CH = C – C = CH – CH3
(3) (4)
CH3
NO2 NO2
CH3
32. In which of the molecules all the effects namely (2) CH3 – C = C – CH = CH – CH3
inductive, resonance and hyperconjugation operate?
CH3
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2
(2) ClCH2CH2OH (3) CH3 – CH = C – CH = C – CH3
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO CH3 CH3
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (4) Both (2) & (3)
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

35. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing 18

order of their basic strength

O – CH2
(1) HOCH2 – CH
CH2
NH2 CH2
CH2 – O
C2H5 – NH – C2H5 18
N (2) CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2OH
N
H O18
(3)
I II III IV

O
(1) IV > I > III > II (4)
(2) II > III > IV > I
38. Find out the reagent (X) used in the following
(3) I > IV > II > III reaction
(4) IV > II > III > I Me Me
Baeyer's (X)
(A) OH
36. Consider the following base induced elimination Reagent
reactions O
(1) NaBH4 (2) (i) O3, (ii) Zn/H2O

B /
– (3) K2Cr2O7/H+ (4) NH2 – NH2/KOH
CH3 – CO – CH – CH3
(X)
39. Name the product formed in the following reaction
Br CH3 – CO – CH = CH2 CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
– (Z)
B /
CH3 – CO – CH2 – CH2 Cl Cl
(Y) 
Br + alcoholic Na2S
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
Which one of the following statements is true?
SH SH
(1) (X) reacts faster than (Y)
CH2 – CH2
(2) (Y) reacts faster than (X)
(2) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
(3) Both (X) and (Y) react at the same rate
(4) Both (X) and (Y) do not react CH2 – CH2

37. Identify the product (B) in the following reaction (3) CH3 – CH CH – CH3
18 S
HOCH2  C  C  CH2  CH2 OH  H2
(4) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
Lindlar 's H / 
 (A)  (B)
Catalyst SH Cl
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

40. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing 45. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
order of their acidic strength
(1) m-cresol when treated with Br 2(H 2O) gives
HCOOH CH3 – COOH C6H5 – COOH tribromoderivative
I II III (2) Picric acid and phenol can be distinguished by
(1) II < III < I (2) II < I < III FeCl3
(3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II (3) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile
41. (+) mandelic acid has a specific rotation of +158º. (4) Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be separated by
What would be the specific rotation of a solution NaOH
containing 35% of (–) mandelic acid and 65% of (+)
46. Identify the missing reactant in the following reaction
mandelic acid?
CH3CH2NH2 + (X) + KOH  CH3CH2NC + KCl + H2O
(1) (–) 55.3° (2) (+) 47.4°
(3) (+) 102.7° (4) (–) 102.7° (1) CH3Cl (2) CH2Cl2

42. Identify the reagent (X) in the following reaction (3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4
47. What is the major product formed in the following
(X) reaction?
CH3 CH3
OH
OH Br
–
(1) PBr3 (2) SOBr2 OH
+ K2S2O8 Major product
H2O
(3) HBr (4) Both (1) & (2)
OH OH
43. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing
order of their reactivity towards SN2 reaction OH SO3H
(1) (2)
I. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
II. CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
III. CH3 – CH = CH – Cl OH OH
(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III
(3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II (3) (4)
44. Which one of the following compounds is most
acidic? SO3 H OH
OH COOH
48. Pesticides consist of

(1) (2) (1) Insecticides (2) Herbicides

(3) Fungicides (4) All of these
O OH 49. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
O
(3) (4) C (1) CO2 (2) N2O
O OH HO OH (3) CO (4) CH4
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

50. Which of the following free radicals is most stable? 53. The decreasing order of stability of carbocations is

CH2 CH3 I. CH  CH CH
3 3
(1) (2)

II. CH  O  CH
3 2
CH3 CH3 
(3) (4) III. CH  S  CH
3 2

(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I

51. CH2  CH  C  CH  HBr  A(Major) , (3) I > III > II (4) I > II > III
54. Which one of the following compounds gives instant
The product 'A' is
precipitate with aqueous AgNO3?
(1) CH3 CH C CH Cl

Br
(1) Cl (2)

(2)
CH2 CH2 C CH
Br Cl

(3) CH2 CH C CH2 (3) CH2 = CH – Cl (4)

Br
55. Identify the major product formed in the following
(4) CH 2 CH CH CH reaction
Br
OH
52. The number of optically active isomers of the following H+
compound is Major product
O

H H
O
CH3 – C – CH = CH – C – CH3
Cl Cl (1) (2)
O
O
(1) 2
(2) 4 O
(3) 6
(3) (4)
(4) 8 O
O
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I)
SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : Neopentyl chloride undergoes
nucleophilic substitution by SN1 mechanism only.
and
Statement-2 : Neopentyl chloride is a primary alkyl
halide.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Dipole moment of CH3 – F is greater
than that of CH3 – Cl.
and
Statement-2 : C – F bond is more polar than C – Cl
bond.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
58. Statement-1 : Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol can be
differentiated by I2/NaOH.
and
Statement-2 : Butan-2-ol is more acidic than
butan-1-ol.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : If BOD level of water in a reservoir is
greater than 5 ppm, it is highly polluted.
and
Statement-2 : High biological oxygen demand
means low activity of bacteria in water.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : The nitro group of nitrobenzene is
deactivating and mata directing towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution.
and
Statement-2 : Nitrobenzene reacts with CH3 – Cl in
presence of AlCl3 to give m-nitrotoluene.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - I x y2
dy
Straight Objective Type Questions 64. If ∫
2
3  cos t dt  ∫ sin tdt  0, then 
dx
0
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions 3
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) 3  cos2 x
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
(2)
4 2
x 4 2y .sin( y 2 )
61. If ∫ x2
dx  log    , then
2
3  cos2 x
(1)  + 2 is irrational number (3)
2sin( y 2 )
(2)  = 2 (1 – )
(3) (, ) lies on x2 – 4y2 = 2(x – 1)   3  cos2 x 
(4)
2y sin( y 2 )
(4) (, ) lies on x2 – 4y2 = 4(x + 1)
65. Tangent to a curve xy = a2 at point P meets the
⎧
⎪3  x ,
2
x2 x-axis in A and y-axis in B. Then, the ratio AP : PB
62. If f ( x )  ⎨ is
⎩ a  14  x  48 , x  2
⎪
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
and f(x) has a local maxima at x = 2, then (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
(1) Least value of 'a' is 2011 66. For the curve y = a log(x2
– a2), where a is positive
(2) Greatest value of 'a' may be 2011 number. The algebraic sum of the tangent and
subtangent at any point on curve is
(3) a can not be determined
(4) The greatest value of 'a' may be 2345 xy 2xy
(1) (2)
a a
x  loge (1  e x )
63. If ∫ 1 e x
dx  f ( x )  c , then f(x) =
xy xy
(3) (4)
2a a
(1) –log(1 + ex)

x 67. On the interval [ 2, 2] , one of the value of 'c' in

(2)
1 ex Rolle's theorem for f(x) = 2x3 + x2 – 4x – 2 is

1
 
2 3 4
(3) log(1  e  x ) (1) (2)
2 5 5

1
  2
2
log(1  e x ) 2
(4) (3) (4)
2 3 3
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

68. The sum of an infinitely decreasing geometric dx

progression is equal to the least value of the function 73. If y(x – y)2 = x, then the value of ∫ x  3y equals

25
f ( x )  3 x2  x 
12
and the first term of the (1)
x
2

loge ( x  y )2  1  c 
progression is equal to the square of its common
ratio. Then, the common ratio is (2)
1
2

loge ( x  y )2  1  c 
(1) 2 1 (2) 3 1
2 2
1
2
2

(3) x  loge ( x  y )  1  c 
(3) 2  3 (4)
3  2
(4) loge ( x  y )  1  c 
⎡ 12 ⎤ sec x(2  sec x )
69. Let f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6|, x  ⎢0, ⎥ . Then, the sum
⎣ 5⎦ 74. The value of ∫
(1  2sec x )2
dx is equal to

⎡ 12 ⎤ (1) 2cosecx + cotx + c

of the maximum and minimum values of f on ⎢0, is
⎣ 5 ⎥⎦ (2) (2cotx + cosecx)–1 + c
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 2cosecx – cotx + c
13 11 (4) (2cosecx + cotx)–1 + c
(3) (4)
2 2 loge 5
ex ex  1

log x 75. The value of ∫ ex  3
dx is equal to
70. The value of ∫ x 2  2 dx is equal to 0
0
(1) 3 +  (2) 3 – 
(1) loge()2 (2) 
(3) 4 +  (4) 4 – 
(3) loge (  ) (4) 22 a 1
2
76. The maximum value of ∫ e ( x 1) dx , aR, is
71. The area bounded by x3 = 4(x – y)2 and x = 1 is a 1
attained at
4 2
(1) sq. units (2) sq. units (1) a = 2 (2) a = 1
5 5
(3) a = –1 (4) a = 0
(3) 1 sq. unit (4) 2 sq. unit
77. If [t] stands for the integral part of t, then the value of

x 
1/3
7 4
72. If ∫x 1 dx  k ( x 4  1)4/3 (4 x 4  3)  c , then 5 /12

the value of k is equal to

∫ [tan x ] dx equals
0

1 1 
(1) (2) (1) (2) 
112 28 2
3 1 
(3) (4) (3) (4) 2
112 56 4
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

82. The graph of y = f(x), where f(x)  0, meets x-axis

x
78. The function F ( x )  attains in two points (0, 0) and (2, 0) and encloses an area
∫ (4 sin t  3 cos t )dt
/6
3
of square units with the axes. Then the value of
4
⎡  3 ⎤
least value on ⎢ , ⎥ at x equals
⎣4 4 ⎦ 2

∫ xf ( x ) dx, equals to
0
 
(1) (2)
3 2
3 3
(1) (2)
3  2 4
(3) (4)
4 4
3
79. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x – x2 and the (3) (4) 1
straight line y = –x is 4

7 1 1 1
(1) 3 (2) 83. If Sn    .....  , then the
2 1 n 2  2n n  n2

9 value of lim Sn is equal to

(3) (4) 4 n
2
(1) loge2
80. The area bounded by the curve y2 = 4a(a – |x – a|),
a > 0, is (2) 2 + 2loge2
(3) 2 + loge2
8a 2 16a 2
(1) (2)
3 3 (4) 2loge2
84. The number of critical points for the function
19a 2 13a 2
(3) (4)
3 3 ⎛1 ⎞ 2
f ( x )  ⎜ sin  ⎟ tan3 x  (sin   1)tan x  ,
⎝3 ⎠ 8
81. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2,

y
1 1 where  <  < 2, x   2n  1 , where n is a integer, is
and x  is loge2 – p, then p equals to 2
x 2
(1) 4
5 5
(1) (2)  (2) 2
24 24
(3) 1
7 7
(3) (4) 
24 24 (4) 0
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

87. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = 2 – (x – 1) 2/3

2
⎛ 2  cos x ⎞ attains maximum value 2 at x = 1.
85. For x(0, ), the least value of f ( x )  ⎜ ⎟
⎝ sin x ⎠ and
is Statement-2 : If f   x  does not exist at a point x0
(1) 2 but f   x  exists in a neighbourhood of x 0 and
changes its sign at x0, then x0 may be a point of
(2) 3 local extremum for f(x).

(3) 4 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(4) Statement-1
3
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
SECTION - II Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and 88. Statement-1 : The function
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
⎧ 2⎛ 1⎞
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct ⎪2  x ⎜ 2  sin ⎟ , x 0
answer. You have to select the correct choice. f (x)  ⎨ ⎝ x ⎠
⎪2, x 0
⎩
86. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d,
where 0  b2 < 3c, is strictly increasing in (–, ). has local maximum at x = 0.
and
and
Statement-2 : If f(x) is a real valued function such
Statement-2 : If f is continuous on [a, b], that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) then
differentiable in (a, b) and f(x) > 0  x  (a, b),
2
then f is strictly increasing in (a, b).
∫  f  x   f   x   dx  4
2
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

89. Statement-1 : 90. Statement-1 : If [ ] represents the greatest integer

∫ e  x  tan x  sec x   tan x  dx  f  x   c,

x 2 
then ⎡ x x x⎤
function then ∫ ⎢⎣ 4 sin 4 cos 4 cos 2 ⎥⎦ dx  0
f(0) = 2 0

and and

⎛ ⎛ x  1⎞ ⎞ 20 
⎜  x  1  ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎟ dx  e f  x   c
x x
∫e
x x
Statement-2 :
⎝ ⎝ x ⎠⎠ Statement-2 :
10 
∫ 2 sin cos dx  30
2 2
then f(1) = 2.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  

Space for Rough Work

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 Test Booklet Code A

Test No. 5
Paper I

AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN

for
RI
ALL

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
Test - 5 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 5 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (4) 31. (2) 61. (1)
2. (3) 32. (4) 62. (4)
3. (1) 33. (2) 63. (3)
4. (1) 34. (2) 64. (4)
5. (2) 35. (1) 65. (3)
6. (2) 36. (3) 66. (2)
7. (3) 37. (4) 67. (1)
8. (3) 38. (4) 68. (4)
9. (4) 39. (1) 69. (2)
10. (2) 40. (4) 70. (1)
11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (2)
12. (2) 42. (3) 72. (1)
13. (2) 43. (2) 73. (4)
14. (1) 44. (1) 74. (2)
15. (1) 45. (4) 75. (2)
16. (2) 46. (2) 76. (1)
17. (1) 47. (4) 77. (4)
18. (2) 48. (3) 78. (3)
19. (2) 49. (3) 79. (3)
20. (3) 50. (3) 80. (2)
21. (4) 51. (4) 81. (3)
22. (3) 52. (3) 82. (4)
23. (3) 53. (2) 83. (2)
24. (2) 54. (1) 84. (3)
25. (2) 55. (4) 85. (1)
26. (1) 56. (3) 86. (2)
27. (1) 57. (1) 87. (2)
28. (1) 58. (1) 88. (4)
29. (3) 59. (2) 89. (3)
30. (1) 60. (1) 90. (3)
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