Chapter 22

The Chemistry of the Transition Elements

1. Which of the following groups of metals occur in nature as the free elements?
a) Na, K, Rb b) Mg, Ca, Ba c) Fe, Co, Ni d) Cu, Ag, Au e) Zn, Cd, Hg

Answer: d

2. Which of the following transition metal compounds is used as white paint pigment?
a) Mn3 (PO4 )2 b) TiO 2 c) Fe2 O3 d) Co2 O3 e) CdS

Answer: b

3. Which transition metal has the highest melting point?

a) W b) Hg c) Fe d) Pt e) Cu

Answer: a

4. What is the electron configuration of Cr?

a) [Ar]3d6 b) [Ar]3d5 4s1 c) [Ar]3d4 4s2 d) [Ar]4s24p4 e) [Ar]4s1 4p5

Answer: b

5. What is the identity of the element with the ground state electron configuration [Kr]4d7 5s2 ?
a) Tc b) Ru c) Rh d) Pd e) Ag

Answer: c

6. What is the maximum oxidation state for manganese?

a) 0 b) +1 c) +3 d) +5 e) +7

Answer: e

7. All of the following first transition series elements form compounds with +4 oxidation states
EXCEPT
a) scandium. b) titanium. c) vanadium. d) chromium. e) manganese.

Answer: a

8. All of the following elements from the first transition series react with hydrochloric acid
EXCEPT
a) scandium. b) titanium. c) iron. d) copper. e) zinc.

Answer: d

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9. Given the following standard reduction potentials,
Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+(aq) E° = +0.771 V
Fe2+(aq) + 2 e- → Fe(s) E° = -0.44 V
2 H (aq) + 2 e → H2 (g)
+ -
E° = 0.000 V
predict which one of the following reactions will occur.
a) Fe2+(aq) + H2 (g) → Fe(s) + 2 H+ (aq)
b) 2 Fe3+(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 2 Fe(s) + 3 H2 (g)
c) Fe2+(aq) + 2 H+ (aq) → Fe3+(aq) + H2 (g)
d) Fe(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + H2 (g)
e) 2 Fe(s) + 6 H+(aq) → Fe3+(aq) + 3 H2 (g)

Answer: d

10. If an element can be obtained profitably from a mineral, the mineral is called a(n) ________.
a) ore b) gangue c) slag d) roast e) precipitate

Answer: a

11. What element or compound is used to reduce Fe2 O3 to Fe in a blast furnace?

a) H2 b) H2 O c) CO d) CO2 e) CaO

Answer: c

12. Copper ores are enriched to increase the percentage of copper by a process called ________.
a) gangue b) roasting c) pyrometallurgy d) tempering e) flotation

Answer: e

13. All of the properties listed below are characteristic of transition element compounds
EXCEPT
a) many of them are paramagnetic.
b) many of them are colored.
c) most of the metals exhibit multiple oxidation states.
d) most of the metals upon ionizing lose the d electrons first.
e) most of the elements form many complexes.

Answer: d

14. Ions such as [Ni(H2 O)6 ]2+ and [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+ are called
a) ligands.
b) coordination complexes.
c) che lates.
d) polydentates.
e) Lewis bases.

Answer: b

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15. All of the following molecules or ions are ligands EXCEPT
a) H2 O. b) NH4 +. c) Cl-. d) CO. e) CN-.

Answer: b

16. All of the following molecules or ions are chelating agents EXCEPT
a) acetate ion (CH3 CO2-).
b) ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion (EDTA4-).
c) oxalate ion (C 2 O4 2-).
d) ethylenediamine (en).
e) phenanthroline (phen).

Answer: a

17. What is the coordination number of K3 [CoCl6 ]?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 6 d) 9 e) 10

Answer: c

18. What is the oxidation state of the iron in K4 [Fe(CN)6 ]?

a) 0 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4 e) +6

Answer: b

19. What is the oxidation state of the chromium in [Cr(NH3 )2 (H2 O)4 ]Cl3 ?
a) 0 b) +2 c) +3 d) +6 e) +9

Answer: c

20. What is the name of the compound with the formula Na3 [CrCl6 ]?
a) sodium chlorochromate(III)
b) trisodium hexachlorochromate(III)
c) chromium hexachlorosodium(III)
d) hexachlorotrisodiumchromate(III)
e) sodium hexachlorochromate(III)

Answer: e

21. What is the name of the compound with the formula [Pt(en) 2 (CN)2 ]SO4 ?
a) dicyanodiethlyenediamineplatinum(II) sulfate
b) bis(ethylenediamine)dicyanoplatinate(IV) sulfate
c) dicyanobis(ethylenediamine)platinum(IV) sulfate
d) dicyanobis(ethylenediamine)sulfatoplatinate(II)
e) dicyanobis(ethylenediamine)sulfatoplatinate(IV)

Answer: c

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22. What is the name of the compound with the formula (NH4 )2 [Cu(CN)4 ]?
a) tetracyanodiammoniumcuprate(II)
b) diammoniumtetracyanocuprate(I)
c) diamminetetracyanocuprate(II)
d) ammonium tetracyanocuprate(II)
e) tetracyanocuprate(II) ammonia

Answer: d

23. What is the name of the compound with the formula [Ti(H2 O)4 Cl2 ](NO3 )2 ?
a) tetraaquadichlorotitanium(IV) nitrate
b) tetraaquadichlorodinitritotitanate(IV)
c) tetraaquadichlorodinitritotitanium(IV)
d) titaniumtetraaquadichloro nitrate
e) titaniumtetraaqualdichloro(IV) nitrate

Answer: a

24. What is the formula for potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)?

a) K3 [Fe(CN3 )](CN)3
b) K3 [Fe(CN)6 ]
c) [Fe(CN)6 ]K 4
d) K4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
e) K4 [Fe(CN4 )](CN)2

Answer: b

25.What is the formula for dibromobis(ethylenediamine)vanadium(III) bromide?

a) [VBr2 (en)]Br2
b) Br[VBr2 (en)]
c) [VBr3 (en) 2 ]
d) [VBr(en) 2 ]Br2
e) [VBr2 (en) 2 ]Br

Answer: e

26. Which one of the following complex ions has geometric isomers?
a) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+
b) [Ni(NH3 )5 Br]+
c) [Ni(NH3 )4 en]2+
d) [Ni(NH3 )2 (en) 2 ]2+
e) [NiBr6 ]4-

Answer: d

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27. Which of the following compounds is a coordination isomer of [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]SO4 ?
a) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl3
b) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]SO4
c) [Cr(H2 O)5 SO4 ]Cl
d) [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl2
e) [Cr(H2 O)4 Cl2 ]Cl

Answer: c

28. Which one of the following complex ions has an optical isomer?
a) [Zn(en) 3 ]2+
b) [ZnCl4 en] 2-
c) [Cu(NH3 )2 en]2+
d) [Cu(en) 2 ]2+
e) [CuCl4 ]2-

Answer: a

29. How many isomers are possible for the square planar complex ion [Pt(NH3 )2 Cl2 ]2-?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6

Answer: a

30. What is the geometry of a me tal complex with a coordination number of 4?

1. square planar
2. tetrahedral
3. octahedral
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: d

31. All of the following are correct d-orbital designations EXCEPT

a) d xy b) d yz c) d z 2 d) d x 2 -y 2 e) d x+y

Answer: e

32. Electrons in d z 2 and d x 2 -y 2 orbitals experience a greater repulsion from the lone pairs of
electrons on ligands because the d z 2 and d x 2 -y 2 orbitals
a) contain more electrons than the other three d-orbitals.
b) are oriented directly toward the incoming ligand electron pairs.
c) contain only unpaired electrons.
d) are the same shape as the orbitals on the ligands.
e) are roughly spherical in shape, much as an s-orbital.

Answer: b

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33. All of the following statements concerning crystal field theory are true EXCEPT
a) in low-spin complexes, electrons are concentrated in the d xy , d yz , and d xz orbitals.
b) high-spin complexes contain the maximum number of unpaired orbitals.
c) ligand- metal bonding is covalent.
d) in low-spin complexes, the crystal field splitting is large.
e) the energy difference between d-orbitals often corresponds to the energy of visible light.

Answer: c

34. Determine the number of unpaired electrons in an octahedral, low-spin iron(II) complex.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4

Answer: a

35. Determine the number of unpaired electrons in an octahedral, high-spin Mn(II) complex.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

Answer: e

36. If [CoCl6 ]3- is paramagnetic, which of following sets of conditions best describes the
complex?
a) low-spin, D0 large
b) low-spin, D0 small
c) high-spin, D0 large
d) high-spin, D0 small
e) none of the above

Answer: d

37. Which of the following ligands causes the smallest splitting of d-orbitals?
a) NH3 b) H2 O c) F- d) en e) CN-

Answer: c

38. Determine the number of unpaired electrons in the tetrahedral complex ion [NiF 4 ]2-.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4

Answer: c

39. Determine the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar complex ion [Pt(en) 2 ]2+.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4

Answer: a

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40. All of the following complexes will be colored EXCEPT
a) [Ni(H2 O)6 ]2+ b) [Zn(en) 3 ]2+ c) [Fe(CN)6 ]4- d) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+ e) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+

Answer: b

41. Which of the following complex ions contains the largest number of unpaired electrons?
a) [Zn(H2 O)6 ]2+ b) [TiF 6 ]2- c) [Ti(CN)6 ]2- d) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+ e) [NiCl6 ]4-

Answer: d

42. The complex [Fe(NH3 )6 ]2+ is diamagnetic. Which set of terms best describes the complex?
a) high-spin, D0 large, octahedral
b) high-spin D0 small, octahedral
c) low-spin, D0 small, tetrahedral
d) low-spin, D0 large, octahedral
e) low spin, D0 large, tetrahedral

Answer: d

43. The spectrochemical series

a) relates the oxidation state of a metal to its color.
b) lists ligands in order of their tendency to split d-orbitals.
c) lists coordination compounds in order of their color.
d) lists complex ions in order of their color.
e) lists ligands in the order of their color.

Answer: b

44. The radii of the period 6 transition metals are similar to those of the period 5 transition
metals. An explanation concerns the 4f-orbitals, which are filled with electrons just prior to
the 5d-orbitals. As the 4f-orbitals are filled, the radii of the elements decrease. This decrease
compensates for the increase in size that accompanies adding a new shell of electrons. The
decrease in size is referred to as the ________ contraction.

Answer: Lanthanide

45. The process of reheating and cooling carbon steel to improve its characteristics is called
________.

Answer: tempering

46. Ethylenediamine can bind to a metal ion using both its amine groups. It is referred to as a
________ ligand, meaning it is “two-toothed.”

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 Answer: bidentate

47. EDTA is most effective as a ligand when the solution pH is greater than 12. At high pH,
EDTA is completely deprotona ted. The charge on the deprotonated form of EDTA is
________.

Answer: -4

48. Often, the number of d electrons in metal cations that form square planar complexes equals
________.

Answer: eight

49. Explain why the densities of the period 6 transition metals are generally higher than those of
other elements.

Answer: The period 6 transition metals have greater masses than the period 5 metals. In
addition, the period 6 metals have similar radii to their counterparts in period 5. The increase
in size that accompanies the adding of another shell is offset by the contraction in size that
occurs during the filling of the 4f-orbitals. Since the period 6 elements have a greater mass,
but occupy a similar volume to the period 5 elements, their densities are greater.

50. The complex [CuCl4 ]2- is paramagnetic, but the complex [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ is diamagnetic. Why
do the magnetic properties of these two copper complexes differ?

Answer: [CuCl4 ]2- must have a tetrahedral geometry. In this geometry, the d-orbitals are split
into two energies, with 3 orbitals ( d xy , d yz , and d xz ) higher than the other two orbitals ( d z 2
and d x 2 -y 2 ). Two of copper’s 8 d-electrons are unpaired. The amine complex must be square
planar. In this geometry, the d-orbitals split into four energy levels. The highest energy
orbital is unoccupied. The lower orbitals are filled.

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 Chapter 23
Nuclear Chemistry

1. The least penetrating type of radiation can be stopped by clothing or a few pieces of paper.
This type of radiation is a(n)
a) alpha particle.
b) beta particle.
c) gamma particle.
d) positron.
e) cathode ray.

Answer: a

2. Which one of the following symbols is used to represent gamma ray emission?
a) +10 e b) −10 β c) 01 n d) 42 He e) 00γ

Answer: e

3. Which one of the following symbols is used to represent positron emission?

a) +10 β b) −10 β c) 01 n d) 42 He e) 00γ

Answer: a

4. Which of the following reactions is an example of beta particle emission?

a) 23290Th → 228 4
88 Ra + 2 He

b) 74 Be + 0
-1 e → 7
3 Li
c) 82
35 Br → 82
36 Kr + 0
-1 β
d) 40
19 K → 40
18 Ar + 0
+1 β
e) 58
26 Fe + 1
0 n → 59
26 Fe

Answer: c

5. Which of the following reactions is an example of electron capture?

a) 146 C → 147 N + -10 β
b) 227
89 Ac → 223
87 Fr + 4
2 He
c) 58
26 Fe + 1
0 n → 59
26 Fe
d) 82
37 Rb + 0
-1 e → 82
36 Kr
e) 40
19 K → 40
18 Ar + 0
+1 β

Answer: d

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6. The atomic number of a nucleus that undergoes electron capture will
a) decrease by two units.
b) decrease by one unit.
c) remain the same.
d) increase by one unit.
e) increase by two units.

Answer: b

7. The mass number of a nucleus that emits an alpha particle will

a) decrease by four units.
b) decrease by two units.
c) remain the same.
d) increase by two units.
e) increase by two units.

Answer: a

8. The atomic number of a nucleus that undergoes beta emission will

a) decrease by two units.
b) decrease by one unit.
c) remain the same.
d) increase by one unit.
e) increase by two units.

Answer: d

9. If a nucleus decays by successive b, b, a emissions, the atomic number will

a) decrease by two units.
b) decrease by one unit.
c) remain the same.
d) increase by one unit.
e) increase by two units.

Answer: c

10. Plutonium-244 decays by successive a, b, b, a emissions. What nucleus is produced?

236 236 234 240 236
a) 88 Ra b) 90 Th c) 90 Th d) 92 U e) 92 U

Answer: e

11. Radon-222 decays by successive a, a, b, b, a emissions. What nucleus is produced?

218 210 214 210 208
a) 74 W b) 82 Pb c) 82 Pb d) 80 Hg e) 80 Hg
Answer: b

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 203
12. 83 Bi decays by electron capture. What is the product?
199 203 202 203 204
a) 81 Tl b) 82 Pb c) 83 Bi d) 84 Po e) 84 Po

Answer: b

197
13. What element is produced by the beta decay of 79 Au ?
193 197 196 197 196
a) 77 Ir b) 78 Pt c) 79 Au d) 80 Hg e) 80 Hg

Answer: d

14. Complete the following reaction.

12 Mg → +1 β + ___
23 0

a) 23
11 Na b) 22
12 Mg c) 24
12 Mg d) 22
13 Al e) 23
13 Al

Answer: a

15. Complete the following fusion reaction.

2 He + ___ →
4 1 12
0n + 6C

a) 0
+1 β b) 42 He c) 63 Li d) 74 Be e) 94 Be

Answer: e

16. Complete the following fission reaction.

92 U →
1 235 146 1
0n + 57 La + ___ + 3 0 n
85 87 87 93 87
a) 35 Br b) 35 Br c) 36 Kr d) 36 Kr e) 37 Rb

Answer: b

17. What particle is produced in the following reaction?

8O →
238 16 250
92 U + 100 Fm + ___

a) 24α b) 2 0
−1 β c) 4 0
+1 β d) 2 42 He e) 4 01 n

Answer: e

18. By what (single step) process does bromine-82 decay to krypton-82?

a) a particle emission
b) b particle emission
c) positron emission
d) electron capture
e) neutron capture

Answer: b

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19. By what (single step) process does plutonium-239 decay to uranium-235?
a) a particle emission
b) b particle emission
c) positron emission
d) electron capture
e) neutron capture

Answer: a

20. A plot of the number of neutrons versus the number of protons in nuclei shows a narrow
band of stable isotopes. Elements above this narrow line attain stability by
a) beta emission.
b) positron emission.
c) electron capture.
d) gamma ray emission.
e) alpha particle capture.

Answer: a

21. All of the following statements concerning nuclei are true EXCEPT
a) only hydrogen-1 and helium-3 have more protons than neutrons.
b) from He to Ca, stable nuclei have roughly equal numbers of protons and neutrons.
c) the neutron to proton ratio in stable nuclei increases as mass increases.
d) most stable isotopes have odd numbers of both protons and neutrons.
e) all elements beyond bismuth are radioactive.

Answer: d

22. The point of maximum stability in the binding energy curve occurs in the vicinity of which
one of the following isotopes?
a) 42 He b) 131
54 Xe c) 56
26 Fe d) 209
83 Bi e) 238
92 U

Answer: c

23. Which of the following elements undergoes nuclear fusion reactions to provide the primary
source of energy from the sun?
a) hydrogen b) helium c) carbon d) uranium e) plutonium

Answer: a

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24. The mass of beryllium-9 is 9.012182 g/mol. The mass of a proton is 1.007825 g/mol. The
mass of a neutron is 1.008665 g/mol. Calculate the binding energy of Be-9. (c = 3.00 × 108
m/s)
a) 2.93 × 1011 J/mol
b) 8.12 × 1011 J/mol
c) 3.08 × 1012 J/mol
d) 5.54 × 1012 J/mol
e) 5.62 × 1012 J/mol

Answer: e

25. Calculate the energy release (per mole of tritium consumed) for the fusion reaction of tritium
and deuterium,
1H + 1H →
3 2 4 1
2 He + 0 n

given the following masses of nucleons and nuclei. (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)
particle mass (g/mol)
proton 1.007825
neutron 1.008665
deuterium 2.0140
tritium 3.01605
helium 4.00260
a) 7.91 × 10 J/mol
11

b) 1.69 × 1012 J/mol

c) 4.21 × 1012 J/mol
d) 1.09 × 1013 J/mol
e) 9.03 × 1013 J/mol

Answer: b

26. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

a) nuclear fission involves the release of more energy than ordinary chemical reactions.
b) nuclear fusion involves the release of more energy than fission.
c) the mass of a nucleus equals the combined masses of the protons and neutrons.
d) the difference in mass between the nucleus and the nucleons is called the mass defect.
e) the process in which two or more nuclei combine to form a heavier nuclei is called fusion.

Answer: c

27. Strontium-90 has a half- life of 28.1 years. Starting with 3.2 mg of this isotope, how much
would remain after 112.4 years?
a) 0.1 mg b) 0.2 mg c) 0.4 mg d) 0.8 mg e) 1.6 mg

Answer: b

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28. The decay constant for the spontaneous decay of iodine-131 is 9.98 × 10-7 s-1 . How much of
a 1.00 g sample of this isotope remains after 25.0 days?
a) 0.12 g b) 0.18 g c) 0.22 g d) 0.86 g e) 0.88 g

Answer: a

29. The half- life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. What percentage of carbon-14 remains in a sample
after 25,000 years?
a) 0.0% b) 4.9% c) 8.3% d) 23% e) 29%

Answer: b

30. The half- life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. What percentage of carbon-14 remains in a sample
after 8.0 half- lives?
a) 0.39% b) 0.78% c) 1.56% d) 3.13% e) 6.25%

Answer: a

31. Uranium-235 has a half- life of 7.04 × 108 years. How many years will it take for 85.0% of a
U-235 sample to decay?
a) 7.91 × 107 yr b) 1.65 × 108 yr c) 1.18 × 109 yr d) 1.93 × 109 yr e) 3.92 × 1010 yr

Answer: d

32. What is the half- life of an isotope if the decay constant is 0.087 s-1 ?
a) 0.13 s b) 0.49 s c) 3.1 s d) 6.1 s e) 8.0 s

Answer: e

241
33. 95Am is used in many home smoke alarms. If 35.0 % of the americium in a smoke detector
decays in 269 years, what is the half- life of this isotope?
a) 99.0 yr b) 178 yr c) 327 yr d) 389 yr e) 433 yr

Answer: e

34. Carbon-14 dating is only accurate for samples less than 4.0 × 104 years old. If a sample
initially contains 1.0 mg C-14, what mass remains after 4.0 × 104 years? The half- life of
carbon-14 is 5730 years.
a) 9.1 × 10-7 g b) 7.9 × 10-6 g c) 5.0 × 10-5 g d) 8.8 × 10-5 g e) 8.7 × 10-4 g

Answer: b

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35. A sample of strontium-90 is found to have an activity of 530 disintegration per second (dps).
After 1.0 years the activity has decreased to 517 dps. What is the half- life, in years, for the
decay of strontium-90?
a) 2.5 × 10-2 yr b) 3.6 × 10-2 yr c) 12 yr d) 28 yr e) 41 yr

Answer: d

36. What do scientists call the sequence of rapidly occurring reactions that results when a nuclear
fission reaction produces enough neutrons to produce more fission reactions?
a) nuclear fusion
b) nuclear fission
c) chain reaction
d) neutron emission
e) bind ing energy

Answer: c

37. At the high temperatures necessary for fusion, matter exists as a plasma, which is
a) a liquid form of a radioactive element.
b) a gaseous cloud of electrons and positrons.
c) an equal mixture of matter and anti- matter.
d) a mixture of unbound nuclei and electrons.
e) a cloud of positrons.

Answer: d

38. Which elements are in greatest abundance in the sun?

a) hydrogen and deuterium
b) hydrogen and helium
c) hydrogen and oxygen
d) helium and tritium
e) helium and deuterium

Answer: b

39. Artificial radioactive isotopes of many elements used in medical treatments

1. emit gamma radiation.
2. have short half- lives.
3. are made in fusion reactors.
Which of the statements above are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 2 and 3

Answer: d

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40. The major problem in exploiting nuclear fusion as an energy source is
a) the high activation energy for nuclear fusion.
b) obtaining permission from local governments to build the plants in their neighborhoods.
c) the high radioactivity of the fusion products.
d) the high radioactivity of the fusion reactants.
e) the high cost and low availability of the fusion reactants.

Answer: a

41. Enriched uranium is uranium that has a greater proportion of

a) lead-207. b) radium-226. c) uranium-235. d) uranium-238. e) plutonium-248.

Answer: c

42. What role do the cadmium control rods play in a fission reactor?
a) They emit electrons which initiate the fission reaction.
b) The cadmium combines with spent uranium fuel to produce a non-radioactive product.
c) They focus the neutrons toward the center of the reactor.
d) The cadmium acts as a catalyst, enabling fission to occur at lower temperatures.
e) They control the rate of fission by absorbing neutrons.

Answer: e

43. For an average person, which of the following is likely to be the least significant source of
exposure to radiation?
a) cosmic radiation
b) naturally occurring radioactive isotopes, such as potassium-40
c) emissions from nuclear power plants
d) diagnostic x-rays
e) fall-out from nuclear testing

Answer: c

44. All isotopes of atomic number greater than that of the element ________ are radioactive.

Answer: bismuth

45. The nuclear ________ energy is defined as the energy required to separate the protons and
neutrons in a nucleus.

Answer: binding

46. In the United States, radioactivity is often measured in ________, a unit equal to 3.7 × 1010
decompositions per second.

Answer: curies

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47. Neutron ________ analysis is a non-destructive process in which a sample is irradiated with
neutrons. The neutrons react with nuclei to form isotopes with masses one unit higher than
the original nuclei. The nuclei are formed in excited states and they emit gamma radiation
that can be used to identify the element.

Answer: activation

48. Potassium-40 decays to argon-40 through the process of ________ emission.

Answer: positron

49. Explain the difference between 1 rad of 1 rem of radiation.

Answer: One radiation absorbed dose (rad) equals 0.01 J of energy absorbed per kilogram of
tissue. One roentgen equivalent man (rem) equals one ram multiplied by the quality factor
for the type of radiation. The quality factor accounts for variations in damaging power of
different types of radiation.

50. Oxygen-15 decays by positron emission. The positron is quickly annihilated in a matter-
antimatter reaction with an electron. Describe the medical imaging technique that utilizes
these reactions. Write balanced nuclear equations for these reactions.

Answer: In positron emission tomography (PET), a patient inhales O2 that contains oxygen-
15. The decay of oxygen-15 ultimately leads to the emission of gamma radiation that can be
detected. The gamma radiation is emitted from oxygen rich areas of the patient, such as the
brain and arteries.

15
8 O → 14
7 N + 0
+1 β
0
+1 β + 0
+1 β → 2γ

232