General Radio – 21 August 2017

1) What 2 ground radio equipment frequencies is not used for ATIS broadcasts? (1 mark)
a. ILS Frequencies
b. ATC Transmissions
c. NDB Frequencies
d. VHF Communications
e. VOR Frequencies

2) How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre:
(1 mark)
a. Stopping
b. Abandoning take-off
c. Aborting take-off
d. Cancelling take-off

3) ATC has cleared an aircraft to descend to FL120, what is the correct radio telephony if ATC
needs the aircraft to descend quicker. (1 mark)
a. Descend faster, I say again descend faster
b. Expedite Descent to FL120
c. Increase Rate of Descent to FL120
d. Descend quicker please to FL120

4) The correct way to say "yes" on the RT is: (1 mark)

a. AFFIRMATIVE
b. AFFIRM
c. YES
d. ROGER

5) What is said in a mayday call (1 mark)

a. Mayday repeated 3 times, call sign, nature of emergency and position of aircraft
b. Call sign, nature of emergency and other relevant information
c. Mayday, call sign, intentions of the pilot and position

6) Pick 2 answers for mark allocated, What is the call out for Traffic straight ahead of you in an
Aircraft (1 mark)
a. Traffic Ahead
b. Forward Traffic
c. Traffic Straight Ahead
d. Gaining Fast
e. ?

7) What is the TIBA frequency used for? (1 mark)

a. General discussions from Pilot to Pilot
b. For safety among aircraft in uncontrolled areas
c. reports and relevant supplementary information of an advisory nature to be
transmitted by pilots
d. ?

8) Which region is IATA procedure (1 mark)

a. Brazzaville (Congo)
b. Washington (USA)
c. Cape Town (RSA)
d. Dakar (West Africa)

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 1

 9) With regards to the 5 Golden rules, what does the term "CONSERVE" mean? (1 mark)
a. slow down and select power for maximum endurance
b. turn off all unnecessary electrical equipment and conserve battery usage
c. conserve your energy for when you have to make an emergency landing

10) With regards to the 5 Golden rules, what does the term "COMMUNICATE" mean? (1 mark)
a. Give as much pertinent information as possible in the first call
b. Listen to and comply with ATC instructions and advice
c. Give credit to student input
d. Draw attention to obvious facts

11) A Pilot carries out a flight for agricultural purposes, in section 8 (Type of flight) of the flight
plan what would be indicated? (1 mark)
a. A
b. C
c. G
d. X

12) Transponder code 7600, indicates (1 mark)

a. Hijacking
b. Loss of Communication
c. Emergency
d. Navigation

13) A VFR inbound to uncontrolled aerodrome with a complete comms failure, what do you do?
(1 mark)
a. Fly at slowest speed so you are able to have a good lookout
b. Landing light on and join overhead
c. Fly as low as possible to avoid other traffic
d. Divert to a controlled aerodrome

14) On a VMC day at an aerodrome, in which case will Distresfa be established (1 mark)
a. A Helicopter having not making contact after leaving a boundary within 5 minutes
b. In Advisory airspace, an aircraft which hasn’t made communication 30 minutes after
ETA of a reporting point
c. A student pilot in the circuit with the door open

15) You are inbound to an aerodrome and you have a complete comms failure which procedure
do you follow? (1 mark)
a. Follow the comms failure procedure for that specific Aerodrome as stated in the AIP
b. Comply with standard comms failure procedure
c. Follow the comms failure procedure as stated in RSA CATS

16) With a higher radio frequency, the antenna will have to be ………, than the antenna for a
lower frequency. (1 mark)
a. Shorter
b. Thicker
c. Thinner
d. Longer

17) VHF waves are not affected by bad visibility, clouds and night effect (1 mark)
a. True
b. False

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 2

 18) Which of the following describes "pulse modulation" (1 mark)
a. the irregular transmission of a wave at a constant frequency
b. constantly transmitting data by varying the voltage and power
c. irregular transmission of data through constant voltage and power

19) What frequency band does ATC communications broadcast on? (1 mark)
a. 30 – 300 KHz
b. 3 – 30 MHz
c. 108 – 117.975 MHz
d. 117.975 – 136 MHz

20) Which two answer are most correct as to why Airspace categories are of advantage to
aviation. (1 mark)
a. Safe and orderly flow of traffic
b. Separation of All Global Traffic
c. Separation of all VFR traffic
d. Separation of commercial IFR traffic
e. ?

21) Which radio call has lowest priority (1 mark)

a. Aircraft requesting what fuel is available at aerodrome
b. Aircraft broadcasting undated position report
c. Pilot giving an update of Met conditions

22) What does the following figure indicate if found as an aerodrome ground signal? (1 mark)
a. Pilot to land/take-off at own discretion
b. Aerodrome not suitable for landing/take-off
c. Danger on the runway in use

23) What is the Morse code for the radio beacon at “C” (showing an approach plate), beacon
identifier was SMH. (1 mark)
a. … -- ….
b. .. -.- .—
c. -.-- ..-. …

24) What goes the term Go-Ahead mean? (1 mark)

a. Proceed with your message.
b. Go ahead and line up on the runway
c. Proceed with Taxi
d. Clear for take-off

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 3

 25) The western area of cape, has an ATSU providing information to aircraft, what will the call
sign be? (1 mark)
a. Cape Town Radio
b. Cape Town Approach
c. Cape Town Information
d. Cape Town Tower
e. Cape Town Radar

26) When is it allowed, that an aircraft can enter controlled airspace without establishing 2-way
communication? (1 mark)
a. Never
b. Following a Radio Communication Failure Procedure
c. Squawking 7600
d. When the aircraft is an approved homebuilt aircraft and has approval from the
Director

27) An initial call to ATC must include “aeroplane” or “helicopter” to signify what type of aircraft
you are. (1 mark)
a. False, this is for helicopters only
b. True, ATC needs to establish your aircraft type
c. False, this is indicated on you flight plan
d. True, as this allows ATC to plan for different speeds

***Note (AIC 41.3.21)

Pilots of helicopters are to indicate in the initial transmission "Helicopter ZS-XXJ ... " to ensure that
the controller is aware of the type of aircraft that is being dealt with.

28) Which airspace would you require prior authorities’ permission before entering? (1 mark)
a. FAR
b. FAP
c. General Flying Areas
d. Training Areas

29) A PIREP provides: (1 mark)

a. Statistics to IATA and ICAO about pre-flight delays
b. Routine information about the navigation progress of a flight
c. Weather data regarding upper air conditions
d. A pilot report about aerodrome and navigation infrastructure defects during
operations

30) Which radio frequency band is most susceptible to static interference? (1 mark)
a. EHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. HF
e. LF

31) Which requirement is not considered during SVFR? (1 mark)

a. Clear of cloud
b. Always have sight of ground
c. Low level altitude limits
d. Always follow ATC instructions
e. Remain on local ONH within 25nm of the aerodrome

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 4

 32) What is the correct way to broadcast 119.5 MHz? (1 mark)
a. WUN WUN NINER DAY SEE MAL FIFE
b. NINETEEN POINT FIVE
c. ONE ONE NINE FIVE
d. WUN WUN NINER POINT FIFE

33) ZS-XYZ, a Piper Cherokee is 5nm inbound to aerodrome “Jube” which had ATIS, for
landing. The aircraft is arriving from the northwest. What is the correct radio call to make to
the ATC (1 mark)
a. Jube Tower, Cherokee ZS-XYZ, 5nm Northwest, FL75, Information Juliet for landing
b. Good Day Jube, Cherokee ZS-XYZ, 5nm Northwest, FL75, request for landing
c. Jube Tower, ZS-XYZ, Northwest FL75 5nm, Negative Touch and Go

34) Select the two correct options for one mark. For a light aircraft, which of the following
scenarios would most likely compel compliance with the radio communications failure
procedure? (1 mark)
a. arrival at an aerodrome outside control hours of service
b. a congested ATC frequency
c. Electrical Fire on board
d. Alternator failure early in cross country flight
e. Monitoring ATSU Frequency

35) What is meant by ATC “Procedural Separation”? (1 mark)

a. Radar Based ATC steering without provision of terrain clear
b. Vectoring of IFR flight onto final approach
c. Shuttle method in holding patterns
d. Control of traffic by non-radar standards
e. Radar Control

36) When approaching an unmanned field when should the pilot make a TIBA call? (1 mark)
a. 10 mins flying time inbound
b. 5nm
c. 10 nm inbound
d. 3 mins of flying time

37) The read back for: ZS-XYZ, CAN YOU ACCOMODATE FOR IMMEDIATE TAKE-OFF
RUNWAY 03 is: (1 mark)
a. Affirmative, ZS-XYZ
b. Yes, ZS-XYZ
c. Confirm, ZS-XYZ
d. Affirm, ZS-XYZ

38) All TMA's in South Africa are classed as: (1 mark)

a. Class C
b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class G

39) Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: (1 mark)
a. Technical difficulties
b. Urgency communication
c. Overload of the frequency
d. Distress traffic

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 5

 40) What is the minimum time before a flight must a flight plan be filed for a domestic flight?
(1 mark)
a. 60 minutes
b. 24 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 10 minutes

41) A flight plan for an ………….., must be filed at least 60 minutes before departure. (1 mark)
a. A domestic flight
b. An international flight
c. A Medical flight
d. A VIP Flight

42) The “Q” code, QNH indicates what? (1 mark)

a. If QNH is entered into the subscale setting the instrument would indicate the
aerodrome elevation when on the ground
b. Your sub-scale being set to 1013.2hpa indicating Flight Levels
c. If QNH is entered into the subscale setting the instrument would indicate its height
above aerodrome elevation
d. ?

Extra Questions I couldn’t remember in detail

What must be said when relaying a message from Johannesburg FIR to aircraft asking the aircraft
to change to 127.4? (1 mark)
Marshall hand signal for Engine Start (1 mark)
Electromagnetic Waves (1 mark)
HF Frequencies of Johannesburg Oceanic ***given on chart (2 marks)

MICROSOFT OFFICE USER 6