MCQ On Post Office PDF

(12000 MCQ)
MOST USEFUL MCQ ON POSTAL DEPARTMENT FOR LDCE LGO EXAM/INSPECTOR OF

POST/POSTMASTER GRADE-I
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INDEX:
1. PLI
2. PO GUIDE -1
3. PO GUIDE-2
4. POSTAL VOLUME 1
5. POSTAL VOLUME 2
6. POSTAL VOLUME 3
7. POSTAL VOLUME 4-1
9. POSTAL VOLUME 5
13. POSTAL VOLUME 7
14. POSTAL VOLUME 8
15. Saving Bank Manual Vol I
16. Saving Bank Manual Vol II
17. CCS Conduct Rules
18. FHB FRSR MCQ
19. GDS (C&E) Rules 2001
20. LEAVEMCQ
21. LTC
22. Pension Rules
23. Consumer Protection Act
24. Constitution
25. CPC
26. CrPC
27. Indian Evidence Act
28. Indian Penal Code
29. RTI Act
30. Most useful for LDCE LGO EXAM
POSTAL LIFE INSURANCE
1. Postal life insurance scheme started in
a) 01-02-1882 b) 01-02-1892
c) 01-02-1882 d) None of these Ans: c
2. Who are eligible for obtaining a PLI Policy of the following
a) Central/Stage Govt employees b) Defense services

c) Nationalized banks/RBI d) All the above Ans:d
3. Postal life insurance slogan is
a) Jindagi ka saath bi jindagika baad bi

b) Insuring lives ensuring future
c) Ensuring life insuring future
d) None of these Ans: c
4. What is the max PLI policy limit for a person
a) 300000/- b) 500000/-
c) 2000000/- d) No limit Ans:c
5. Postal life insurance policy available in
a) 5 types b) 6 types
c) 7 types d) 4 types Ans:b
6. Mark the correct option relating to age limit
a) For WLI & EA policies the insurant should not be less than 19 year an not more
than 55 year on the date of next birthday
b) For CWLA the upper age limit is 50 year
c) The max age limit for 15 and 20 year AEA is 45 and 40 respectively
d) Under Ugal suraksha policy age at entry of both the spouses should not be less
than 21 year and not more than 45 year.
e) All the above Ans:e
7. For children policy the child should be
a) Between 1 to 18 year age b) Between 5 to 18 year age

c) Between 5 to 18 year age d) Between 5 to 20 year age Ans: d
8. Under non medical scheme the age at entry of proponent should not exceed
a) 35 years b) 40 years
c) 45 years d) No limit Ans:a
9. What is the min amount AEA policy for GP D and others

a) 10000/- ,20000/- b) 20000,/- 30000/-
c) 5000/-, 10000/- d) None of these Ans:a
10. What is the rebate allowed in advance paid premium for half year & one year?
a) 1% & 2% b) 2% & 3%
c) 2%&4% d) None of these Ans:a
11. When the PLI policy treated as lapsed
a) Policy is less than two year old and if due installment are not paid within 6
month the policy may be treated as lapsed
b) Policy is less than five year old and if due installment are not paid within 12
c) Policy is less than three year old and if due installment are not paid within 6
d) None of these Ans:c
12. In case the policy three year old and if premium is not paid for 12 month and more
then the permission form the ______ is necessary
a) DDG PLI b) DG Post

c) Head of the Circle d) SSP/SP Ans:c
13. Mark the correct option
a) The WLA policy can be converted into EA after one year

b) The EA policy can be altered and value can be reduced after one year of issue and
before one year of maturity
c) CWL policy cant be converted into EA policy at the end of the 5 year.
d) All the above Ans:d
14. In the event of policy holder committing suicide
a) The full maturity benefit will be paid

b) No claim will be entertained in suicide cases
c) Within two year from the date of policy, the policy will be treated as void and no
claim will be entertained
d) The premium will be returned a/w SB interest Ans:c
15. How can we revive the lapsed PLI policy?
a) Lapsed PLI cannot be revived

b) Lapsed PLI can be revived after the sanction of the DG Post
c) Lapsed PLI can be revived with the order of the CPMG and on paying all the
installment due along with 12% interest and also producing medical fitness
certificate
d) Lapsed PLI can be revived getting another policy Ans:c
16. Mark the incorrect option
Limit of death claim benefit under non medical scheme is if death occurs within
a) 1 year 35%of sum assured a/w accrued bonus

b) 2 years 60% of sum assured a/w accrued bonus
c) 3 years 90% of sum assured a/w accrued bonus
d) 4 years 100 % of sum assured a/w accrued bonus Ans:d
( It is desirable to opt for policy medical scheme to get full benefit)
17. Mark the correct option relating to the loan on PLI policy (WLA)
a) Exceeding 4 years but not exceeding 7 years 60%

b) Exceeding 7 years but not exceeding 12 years 80%
c) Exceeding 12 years 90%
18. Mark the correct option relating to the loan on PLI policy (EA)
e) Exceeding 3 years but not exceeding 5 years 60%

f) Exceeding 5 years but not exceeding 10 years 80%
g) Exceeding 10 years 90%
h) All the above Ans:d
a) Interest at 10% per annum is charged on the loan compounded half yearly b)
Second loan is not admissible until first loan is cleared.
c) Loan are not available on AEA policies
d) The risk is covered on the PLI policy by dept only from the date of acceptance
of the proposal by the CPMG
21. Nomination fee for changing/altering of PLI policy is
a) Rs 1/- b) Rs2/-
c) Rs 5/- d) Free Ans:d
22. The children policy in PLI and RPLI was introduced in
a) 24 Mar 1995 b) 20 Jan 2006

c) 01 Apr 2004 d) None of these Ans:b
23. What is the latest bonus rate from 31 Mar 2006?
a) WLA continuing Rs 90/- per thousand rupees of sum assured

b) EA continuing policies Rs 70/- per thousand rupees of sum assured
c) AEA continuing Rs 65/- per thousand rupees of sum assured

a) EA & Yugal suraksha policies may be surrendered or made paid up after 3
years.
b) WL and CWL policies may be surrendered or made paid up after 4 years
c) AEA policy may be surrendered after 3 year
d) All the above Ans:c
( AEA policy cannot be surrendered)
25. As per revised Govt policy the insurant will get approximately
a) Less than 40% of total premia paid by him, if surrendered before completion of
5 years
b) 75% after completion of 5 years but before 10 years
c) Full recovered amount after 10 year
CENTRAL CIVIL SERVICES (CONDUCT) RULES 1964
1. CCS Conduct Rules come into force on
a) 1965 b) 1964
c) 1956 d) None of these Ans:d
2. CCS Conduct Rules apply to
a) Every person appointed to a civil service

b) Every civilian in defense service
c) Both A & B
3. CCS conduct Rules not apply to
a) A member of All India Service

b) A holder of any post in respect of which the president has, by a general or special
order
c) A Railway servant as defined in Section 3 of the Indian Railways act 1890
4. Short title, commencement and application defined in _____ of CCS conduct rules.
a) Sec 2. b) Sec 3.
c) Sec 1 d) Sec 4 Ans:c
5. Definitions defined in ______of CCS Conduct rules
a) Sec 2. b) Sec 3.
c) Sec 1 d) Sec 4 Ans:a
6. Government means in CCS Conduct Rules
a) State government b) Central government

c) Both A & B d) None of these Ans:b(2)
7. Every government servant shall at all times-
a) Maintain absolute integrity

b) Maintain devotion to duty
c) Do nothing which is unbecoming of a government servant
d) All the above Ans:d(3)
8. In sec 3-A of CCS Conduct rules explained
a) Observance o Government’s policies

b) Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women
c) Promptness and Courtesy
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9. No Government servant shall-
a) In the performance of his official duties, act in a discourteous manner

b) In his official dealings with the public or otherwise adopt dilatory tactics or
willfully cause delays in disposal of the work assigned to him
c) Both the A & B
d) None of these Ans:c(3-A)
10. Observance of Government’s policies defined in ____of CCS Conduct rules
a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B

c) Sec 3-C d) Sec 3-D Ans: b
11. Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in __of CCS Conduct
rules
a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B

c) Sec 3-C d) Sec 3-D Ans: c
12. For the purpose of Sec 3-C of these rule “sexual harassment” includes such
unwelcome sexually determined behavior whether directly or otherwise as:-
a) Physical contact as advances

b) Demand or request for sexual favors
c) Sexually colored remarks
d) Showing any pornography; or any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal
conduct of a sexual nature
e) All the above Ans:e(3-C)

a) Govt servant who may be convicted in a criminal court to inform his official
superiors of the fact of his conviction and the circumstances
b) Failure ton the part of any Govt servant so to inform his official superiors will
render him liable to disciplinary action on this ground alone
c) Govt servant who may arrested for any reason to intimate the fact of his arrest and
the circumstances connected therewith to his official superior promptly even
though he might have subsequently been released on bail.
d) All the above Ans:d(3Govt decisions1-
2)
a) To joining educational institution by Govt servants outside normal office hours

should be take prior permission before joining educational institutions or courses
of studies for universities degree
b) Participation in Shramadan organized by govt department or the Bharath sevak
samaj can be permitted
c) Participation in shramadan or bharat sevak samaj such activity does not interfere
with the performance of this official duties
d) None of these Ans:d(3Govt decisions4-6)
-3-
15. The following activities are requiring permission/sanction
a) To enroll as member of St. John Ambulance brigade

b) To join territorial Army
c) To join foreign language classes conducted by indo-foreign cultural organization
16. The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to
misconduct:-
a) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the

master or to the reputation of the master
b) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful
discharge of his duty to his master
c) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in
service
17. The following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-
a) Willful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with

others, to any lawful and reasonable order of a superior
b) Habitual late attendance
c) Habitual absence without permission and overstaying leave
d) Conviction by a criminal court
18. Employment of near relatives of Government servants in companies or firms

defined in ____of CCS Conduct rules.
a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4
c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6 And:b
a) No Govt. servant shall use his position or influence directly or indirectly to secure
employment for any member of his family in any company.
b) A Govt. servant shall, as soon as he becomes aware of the acceptance by a member
of his family o an employment in any company or firm, intimate such acceptance
to the prescribed authority.
c) Both A & B
d) None of these Ans:c(4)
20. Elections defined in _____of CCS Conduct rules
a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4
c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6 And:c
-4-
a) A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.
b) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in
connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only
c) Govt servant endeavour to prevent any member of his family form taking part in
elections.
d) None of these Ans:b
22. The following action by a Govt servant does not amount of contravention of rule
5(4)
a) Making normal arrangement during election tours o ministers to enable them to

carry out their responsibilities as ministers.
b) Arrangements by district officer for affording normal courtesies and security to
Ministers on their visits connected with election campaign.
c) A only
a) Prior permission is required to join Bharat sevak samaj

b) Participation of Govt servants in the Indo-Foreign cultural organizations to be
avoided
c) Mere intimation sufficient to join samyukta sadachar samiti
d) Prior permission necessary to join foreign language classes conducted by Indo-
foreign cultural organizations.
24. Joining of Associations by Government servants defined in _____of CCS Conducts
rules
a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4
c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6 And:d
25. Demonstration and Strikes defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules
a) Sec 7 b) Sec 4
c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6 And:a
26. Strikes includes
a) Mass abstention from work without permission

b) Refusal to work overtime where such overtime work is necessary in the public
interest
c) Resort to practices or conduct which is likely to result in or results in the cessation
or substantial retardation o work in any organization. What are called go-slow, sit-
down, pen-down, stay-in etc
-5-
27. Connection with press or other media defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules
a) Sec 8 b) Sec 7
c) Sec 9 d) Sec 10 And:a
28. Criticism of Government defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules
a) Sec 8 b) Sec 7
c) Sec 9 d) Sec 10 And:c
29. Criticism of Govt means and includes
a) Which has the effect of an adverse criticism of any current or recent policy or
action of the Central Government or a State Government
b) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the Central Govt. and the
Government of any State
c) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the central government
and the Government o any foreign state
30. Evidence before committee defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules
a) Sec 8 b) Sec 7
c) Sec 9 d) Sec 10 And:d
31. Rule 10 of CCS Conduct rules not apply to:-
a) Evidence given at an enquiry before an quthority appinted by the Govt, Parliament

or a State Legislature
b) Evidence given in any judicial enquiry
c) Evidence given at any departmental enquiry ordered by authorities subordinate to
the government
32 Rule 11 of CCS Conduct rules explained
a) Evidence before committee

b) Unauthorized communication of information
c) Election
d) Gift Ans:b
33. Unauthorized communication of information means and include:-
a) To which he is not authorized to have access.

b) Which he is not authorized to keep in his personal custody
c) Both A & B
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34. Subscription includes
a) Contributions b) Funds
c) Collection in cash d) All the above Ans:d(12)
35. Gift defined defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules
a) Sec 11 b) Sec 12
c) Sec 10 d) Sec 13 And:d(13)
Model questions for IPO Examination Based on Financial Hand Book Part I
Q1 From ----------- the accounts work relating to the postal branch of the P& T department was
separated from P& T audit
a. 01.04.1977 b.01.04.1976 c. 01.08.1980
Q2 The bifurcation of Posts and telegraph department was happened
a. 1985 b. 1976 c. 1990
Q3 The business performed by telecommunication was transferred to ----------- on 01.10.2000
a. VSNL b. BSNL c. P& T department
Q4 The telephones General manager, Telecom stores is included in --------- category
a. Director – General b. Head of department c. Head of Circle
Q5 what is the usage of form LI-37?
a. repayment of loans of PLI b. voucher for any payment c None
Q6 All cheques , Bills etc preferable at a treasury for payment being non-
negotiable instruments can be endorsed only once .
The above said statement is
a. True b. False
Q7 For What purpose the Specimen signature of AD in charge of PLI is circulated to whole
circle concerned?
a. To enable Payment of government Securities at any post office. b. to Limit the payment
of PLI selected offices C. None of these
Q8. What is the purpose of special metallic embossing seal ?
a. Stamping the voucher of final payment of GPF b. Stamping the any type of
payment voucher c. None of these
Q9 . ---------------- is necessary to draw the pay and allowance when a staff transferred from one
place to another.
a. LPC b Pay slip c . Service Book
Q10 The right of government servant to TA including Daily allowance is forfeited or deemed to
have been relinquished within ------------- from the date on which it becomes due.
a. Six month b. One year c. 18 months
Q11 The government employee must submit his claim within -------- for reimbursement of the
expenditure incurred on the Journey , if the advance has been drawn for availing LTC
a. Three month b. Two month c. One month
Q12 The term over charge and is related with ------------
a. LTC b. Claim of LTC c .Railway fares and freight for calculating claim
Q13 . When a specific approval from Director general for investigation is needed for a
claims to arrears of pay to Government official ?
a. Claims more than six year b. Claims more than one year c. Claims more than two year
Q14 The Indian stamp Act
a. 1898 b.1850 c.1899

Q15 In case advance not drawn for LTC , the officials are liable to submit their claim within
a. One month b. three month c. One year
Q16 No Government officer may issue duplicates or copies of receipts granted for money
received
The above said statement is a. true b. false

Q17 In post offices defalcations or losses, should be charged in the schedule of --------------- and
payments and recoveries of losses should be credited in the schedule of ---------------
a. UCP, UCR b UCR, UCP, c. receipts , payments
Q18 When a term serious loss occurring to immovable property of department
a. all loss exceeding Rs 1000/- b. all loss exceeding Rs 5000/- c. all loss exceeding RS 10000/-
Q19 A register of destruction of records in form ------------should be maintained in each office
and prepared preserved permanently
a. ACG 91 b.ACG 7 c ACG 67

Q20 Charges against two or more major heads should be included in one bill
a. True b False
IPO Examination - Model Questions part II
Q21 The transaction relating to the business managed by the department on behalf of the
government are included in --------------------
a. Major account heads b. remittance and debt sections of the account c. None of these
Q22 The capital accounts concepts created on the basis the department of Posts are
recognized as ---------------------- department
a. Government b. non commercial department c. Commercial
Q23 The capital accounts of the Posts and Telecommunication departments on a commercial
basis with effect from -----------
a. 01.04.1925 b. 01.01.2000 c.04.05.2002
Q23 P & T Revenue fund was instituted with effect from ----------------
a. 01.04.1925 b. 01.04.1960 c.03.05.1960
Q24 If a government servant from whom a recovery is ordered , is transferred to the

jurisdiction of disbursing officer
a. recovery should be completed before his transfer . b. order of recovery should be passed
on to that disbursing officer c. None of these
Q25 Representations against recovery should be submitted by aggrieved Government servant

within a -------------
a. One Month b. Two month c. Three Month
Q26 The objections statements are prepared by the accounts offices in ---------------
a. Duplicate b. Triplicate c. Single Copy
Q27 The account records against which audit objections are pending should not be destroyed
until final settlement of audit objections

a. True b. False
Q28 The second part of audit inspection reports is ------------------------
a. Schedule of Persistent irregularities b. Outstanding objections from previous reports in

brief
c. Introductory
Q29 Audited bills , Vouchers can be resend by audit office after a requisition submitted
through ------- to Circle account office
a. Head of the Division b. Head of the Circle c. Disbursing officer
Q30 Credit challans and pay orders should be treated as -----------------
a. Cheque b. Credit certificate c. None of these
Q31 A cheque drawn on any bank located at the same station as that of the head post office and
accepted at any of its sub offices will also be regarded as-----------
a. Local Cheque b . Outstation Cheque
Q32 Cheque payment of Postage from the holders of Franking machine licenses can be
accepted with bank guarantee.

a. True b. False
Q33 ACG 28 denotes -----------
a. Register of dishonoured Cheque b. Register of cheques received and cleared c. None of

these
Q34 The transaction is entered in cash book on the basis of ----------
a. Occurrence b. amount c None of these
35 Tr 29 denotes
a. cash Book b . Contingent register c. HO Summary

Q36 From the following allowance , which is exempted from court attachment
a. Basic Pay b all kinds of travelling allowance c. DP .
Q37 Net amount attachable = X-Y-1000/3 then y represent
a. Total Gross emoluments b. net emoluments c. Subsistence Allowance
Q38 The period for which the officer has been declared temporarily unfit should be intimated
to the ---------------
a. Circle Account office b. Head of the Region c. Head of the Circle
Q39 Withdrawal for claim for travelling allowance of government Servants may be allowed
even without Surrender of LPC
The above said stamen is
a. True b. False
Q40 Arrear of Pay, fixed allowance or leave salary shall be drawn in ----------- Bill
A Separate Bill b. Monthly Bill c. None of these
Q41 Form No C P W A -52 is used for
A Register of certificate b. Register of Cheque Book c. Register of issued cheque

Q42 The pay and allowance for the Month of March will be paid on the ----------------- of April
a. First working day b. Second working day of April c. First working day of April
Q43 If Pay or allowances be due in India to government servant absent outside then
Government will make arrangement to pay the due amount to him
a. true b. False
Q44 Form No ACG 17 is used to record the payments to ---------------
a. honoraria granted to person not in Government Service b. . honoraria granted to person

in Government Service c. none of these
A45 Claims to honoraria granted to officials of the department should be drawn in the pay bill
form No--------------
a. Form ACG 7 b. form ACG 67 c. ACG No 20
Q46 ACG 19 is related with

a. Building b. Establishment c. Over Payment
Q48 The service books should be kept arranged -----------
a. alphabetically b on the basis of cadre c. None of these
Q49 Preservation period for keeping service Books after death, resigns and discharge of
employee is -------
a. 10 years b. 2 Years c. 5 Years
Q50 The descriptive particulars on the --------- of a government servant’s service book should be
reattested every five year by the supervising officer .
a. Last Page b. Second Page c. None of these
Q51 Form ACG 20 is denote -----
a. Monthly Bills b. Arrear Bills c . Bonus Bills
Q52 The Period of Joining time should be shown separately in absentee Statement
The above said statement is - a. True b. False
Q53 When will prepare monthly absentee statement at Sub office

a. 30th of Month b. 10th day of Month c. 20th day of Month
Q54 From the following document , which is the supporting document for submission of TA
Bills
a. GAR 14 –C b TA-14 C. GPR-23
Q55 The outstation allowance is sanctioned for ----------

a. all officials b. sorters and mail Guards c. None of these
Q56 Abstract Bill is prepared in form ---------

a. ACG 19 (1) b. ACG 19 c. ACG10
Q57 The undisbursed pay and allowance should be kept in a register
a. ACG 7 b. ACG 67 c. ACG 54
Q58 Acquittance rolls and offices of the bills are not to submitted to the circle office
The above said stamen is -a. True b False
Q59 The amount paid against advance from GPF ----------- by service money order
a. Can be transmitted b. Cannot be transmitted
Q60 The amount of subsistence allowance in respect of officials under suspension who cannot
Q63 The policy regarding engagement of casual workers reviewed by government as per the
judgment of Supreme Court delivered on --------
attend personally the due amount to the officials forwarded by service money order to the
concerned officials
The above action is
a. Correct b. Not correct
Q61 Special Contingencies can be incurred without the previous sanction of Superior authority
The above said statement is -a. True b false

a. 17th Jan 1970 b. 17th Feb 1989 c. 17th Jan 1986
Q64 When did minimum wages act formed
a. 1956 b. 1982 c. 1948
Q65 The National Holiday is also considered for calculating the pay for contingent staff is it
correct procedure ?
a. Yes b. No
Q66 what is the time limit for completing the review in connection with appointment of casual
workers in postal department
a. 5 Year b. 1 year c. 6 Months

Q67 The amount received on account of premium of PLI , repayment of loan should be
accounted under ---------------------- head
a. PLI Annuity Fund b. Postal Insurance and Life Annuity Fund Receipts c. PLI receipts
account
Q68 The financial Powers delegated by the President of India to Various officers of the
department is called as
a. Rules of financial power b. Schedule of financial Powers c. None of these
b.
Q69 What is mentioned in rules 42-A , General Financial Rules ?
a. Creation of Temporary Posts b. Retrospective Sanction for revision of Pay and grant of
Concessions c. Lapse of Sanction
Q70 The appointing authority can create posts on the basis of anticipation
The above said action
a. incorrect b. Correct
Q71 Government promissory notes received for safe Custody must record at -------------- in a
register in Form Sec 19
a. Once b. Twice c Once in a month
Q72 Security deposits of Government Servants are --------------- from commission

a. not exempted b. exempted
Q73 Fidelity bond in form GPR -34 has been accepted from
a. Public b Government Servants c. Both
b.
Q74 What is the purpose of Preparation of Form ACG 69 ?
a. Register of all Assets b. Register of Land and building c. Register of expenditure
b.
Q75 What is the purpose of preparation of correction slip and when it will prepared ?
a. record revenue and capital , Quarterly
b intimation of addition /modification of land and building to circle office , end of the
year
c record the asset details , monthly preparation
Q76 When will Pre Audit of Estimates is applicable

a . on estimates of work of Government department executed through
Civil wing
b . The amount incurred for work is very high
c Both cases
Q77 While making the payment of amount which is due for civil work to government agencies
, the full amount can be paid
The above statement is
a. True b. False
c. Subject condition and considering the circumstance , the advance payment of full
amount shall be drawn
Q78 When will stop the recovery of GPF concerned the official due to retire on
superannuation ?
a. One month before retirement b. Two month before retirement
c. Three month before retirement
Q79 Recovery of Cooperative Society Dues are mentioned in

a. Rule 561 of FHB 1 b Rule 559 of FHB I c. None of these
Q80 From the following official records which have more preservation period
a. Cash Books b. Arrear Claims c. Service Books
( 10 years )
Q81 What is the preservation period of Pay Bill Register ?
a. 10 years b . 20 Years c. 35 years

Q82 From the following records , which record is permanent One ?
a. Service Book
b. Stock Book
c. Register of particulars of accounts records destroyed
Q83 From the following records special sanction is needed for destruction from Head of circle
a. Bill Register b. Memo of Disbursement c. Sub Office Saving Bank Journal

Q84 When subscriber dies while in service and nominee is minor
Then who will collect due amount from GPF ?
a. minor b natural guardian of minor c None of these

Q85 The Procurement officer is belong from ------------ department
a. Central Purchase organization b. Telecom department b Postal Department

Q86 The Term FRAC is related with -----------------
a. Rent assessment of PO building

b. Maintenance of departmental Building
c. Audit department
Q87 who will fix the maximum value of stamp to be kept in stock in non Gaztted Postmaster’s
Office
a. Postmaster b. Divisional Heads c. PMG

Q88 Consolidated schedule of stamp should be sent along with--------- to DAP
a. Cash Book b.Cash Account c. Treasures Cash Book
Q89 The Commemorative stamps are Supplied by-----------
a. Circle Stamp Depo B. Philatelic Department c. Nasik Security Press

Q90 International Bureau at Berne has given exclusive right to DOP to hold stock of --------------
article
A. Aerogramme b. international Reply Coupons c. Foreign Speed Post

Q91 The spoilt reply coupons should be dispatched to
a. Circle stamp depo

b. Circle account office
c. General Manager (Postal Accounts & Finance) Kolkata
Q92 Who will issue license for Registered News Paper
a. Head of Circle/Region b . DPS c . Divisional Heads

Q93 Who is the responsible person to collect the amount of unpaid postage from insufficiently
paid letters and newspapers?
a. Supervisor of Mail Branch b. Supervisor of delivery Branch c. Postmaster

Q94 From the following classes of receipts , which receipt is treated as receipt from other
department?
a. UCR b. Custom Duty c. RPLI receipts

Q95 From the following duties , which is not entrusted as duty of treasurer
a. Drawing cheque b . supply fund from the office cash c. receive cash from postman
Q96 On what basis the transaction recorded in treasures cash Book
a. on the basis of amount b. on the basis of time they occur c. None of these
Q97 The Postmaster of HO should verify the cash by checking footer entries of --------
a. HO summary b. Treasures Cash Book c. Hand to Hand Book from all counter
Q98 From which month the disbursement of Pay and advance is not done on last working day
of the month?
a. April b. March c. December

Q99 Where does the Postmaster has exempted from daily verification of cash and cash?
a. Presidency Post office b. Head Post office c. None of these

Q100 The ACG1 is denotes --------------
a. Treasure’s Cash book b. Cash account c. HO Summary

Q101 Who is the custodian of HO summary ?
a. Postmaster b. Treasurer c Deputy Postmaster

Q102 Subsidiary Account is related with --------- office
a. Night Post office b. GPO c. Field Post Office

Q103 What is the object of Postmaster ‘s Balance Sheet ?
a. Reconciliation of Daily Cash Book b. Reconciliation of HO Summary c. Reconciliation
between HO Cash Book and TCB
Q104 The schedule of Void Money Order should be prepared in ----------
a. Single Copy b . Duplicate c. Triplicate

Q105 From the following schedule which one is not submitted to postal accounts on 1st and 16th
of every month?
a. Schedule of UCR b. Cash account c. Schedule of Bills Paid

Q106 The reason for keeping excess cash should be recorded in -------------
a. HO Summary b. Treasure’s Cash Book c Cash Account

Q107 what is the purpose of preparation of supplementary Cash Book
a. record the transaction of closing days of March from sub office

b record the transaction of closing days of March from Head Office
c. record the transaction of closing days of March and first working day from sub
office.
Q108 When will forward the schedule of schedule of bills Paid from HO to Director of Accounts
Postal
a. 1st of every month b. 10th of every month c. 1st and 16th of every month
Q109 From the following who have right to forward the returns relating Indian postal order to
DAP not later than 5th of every month?
a. GPO b. Presidency Post office c. None of these

Q110 Who will responsible for all the monetary transactions of the divisions and for the
correctness of the accounts in RMS
a. SRO b.SA c. Head Record Officer

Q111 Form ACG 33 is related with
a. Cash Abstract in head Record b. HO Summary c. TCB

Q112 What is purpose of preparation of ACG40 in RMS?
a. record the receipt and payment b. record the advance details c. None of these
Q113 When will a sender of outward foreign parcel get customs duty as refund from
department?
a. Parcel is returned as undeliverable

b. Parcel is in a damaged condition
c. Never refunded the customs duty
Q114 Payment of account of international and commonwealth reply coupons has to be credited
---------------- account head
a. UCP b. Bills Paid c. Payment of refund

Q115 Payment related with Compensation for registered articles should be credited ----------
account head
a. Bills Paid b. refund of article c. UCP

Q116 Service pensions payable in India under pensions Act ---------- of civil service
regulations
a. 1871 b. 1898 c. 1902
Q117 The gratuity payment can be made through the branch Office
a. True b. False
Q118 Form No pension 7 is related with ---------
a. PPO register b. Pension Payment Voucher c. Pension Payment Order

Q119 Who will prepare separate file in respect of pension payment order by the Postal
Accounts
a. Postmaster b. DPM Accounts Branch c. DPM SB Branch

Q120 Who will issue duplicate PPO when the PPO is lost in transit?
a. Postmaster of Head office b. Divisional Heads c. Director of Accounts

Q121 In which post office the duties related with pension payment is entrusted with Deputy
Postmaster ?
a. Presidency Post office b GPO c Selected HOs

Q122 pensioner can be exempted from personal appearance for payment , if he produce life
certificate from a Group A or B government Servants
The Above said statement is
a. True b. False
Q123 Pensioner can entrust a person who posses power of attorney to receive pension . when
it will possible ?
a. Pensioner is out of India

b . Pensioner is not in home station
c payment is not possible to power of attorney
Q124 Declaration in form TR 40 should be collected from recipients of family pension should
be collected ------------
a. monthly b. quarterly c. Half yearly

Q125 Provisional payment of Pension is made through --------
a. ACG 40 b. ACG 108 c. ACG 101

Q126 Gratuity can paid by
a. single sum b. installment

Q127 The claim of payment of any arrears due in respect of a deceased pensioner should be
within -------------
a. One month b. Six Month c. One Year

Q128 When indemnity Bond is needed for getting arrear payment due in respect of deceased
pensioner
a. arrear amount exceeds ` 1000/-

b arrear amount exceeds ` 5000/-
c. None of these
Q129 On which rule is supported for payment of arrears of arrears of pensions will be made
to the nominees
a. Payment of Arrears of pension (Nomination) Rules 1983

b. Payment of Arrears of pension (Nomination) Rules 1985
c. Payment of Arrears of pension (Nomination) Rules 1987
Q130 A six monthly statement is prepared for cases of failure to draw pensions shall be
prepared by the head Postmaster . Then how many parts in the six monthly statement?
a. One b. Two c. Three

Q131 Payment on account of pensions and commuted value of pensions made by Head and Sub
Post offices will be entered in a separate schedule
a. True b. False
Q132 The facility of payment of pension to Railway pensioners through
POSB has been introduced from ------------------
a. 1987 b.1976 c. 1977

Q133 The reduction in the amount on account of commutation shall become operative within --
------- months after issue of letter by the competent authority
a. Five b. Two c. Three

Q134 Date of credit in the SB ( Pension ) account may be taken as the date of receipt of
commuted value of the pension
The above said statement
a. True b. False
Q135 Duration of life certificate which is submitted by pensioner
a. Six Month b . One Year c. Every Month

Q136 Who handle the transfer of pension from one head Post office to another within the
jurisdiction of another Postal Accounts Office
a. Head Postmaster
b. Head Postmaster and Postal Accounts Office
c. Postal Account Office
Q137 The revenue stamp shall be printed ------------------
a. Security press Nasik b. Central Stamp store . c. Central Philatelic Centre

Q138 Who will keep reserve stock of stamp and stationery
a. PSD b. Security Press Nasik c. Central Stamp Store

Q139 Who will submit forecasts and indents for central excise revenue stamps
a. Superintendent of CSD
b. Head of Central excise department
c. Collector of Central Boards
Q140 From the following which official can forward indent direct on
The Central Stamp store?
a. Postmaster of GPO b. Senior Postmaster c. Postmaster of Presidency Post offices

Q141 Government officials authorized to obtain service postage stamps from local depots may
exchange such stamps either for service stamps
a. True b. False
Q142 Damaged and obsolete Postage stamps that can counted and identified shall sent once in
a--------------- to -----------
a. month, PSD
b . quarter, CSD
c. year, Security Press
Q143 The stock verification in CSD can be done by a team which is determined by
a. Head of circle
b . Ministry of Finance
c. Ministry of Communication
Q144 Which is the most convenient date for changing the status of Head Post office
a. 1st January b. 1st April 31st December

Q145 Haulage charges is related with --------
a. Conveyance of mails
b . Charges payable to Railway on account of conveyance of mails
c. None of these
FR SR
Q146 What is meant by FRSR
a. Financial Rule and Service Rule

b. Fundamental Rules and Service Rules
c. Fundamental Rules and Supplementary Rules
Q147 The Fundamental rules shall come into force with effect from -----------------
a. 1st January 1970 b. 1st January 1922 c. 1st January 1975

Q148 The fundamental Rules apply subject to the provisions of Rule
3 to all ------------
a. Government officials b. Citizen of India

Q149 what option was given by president of India to the government service from 1st July
1976
a. option to continue to be governed by provision of civil services regulations or come

over to fundamental rules
b option to continue to be governed by provision of civil services regulations
c . None of the above
Q150 The option in respect of fundamental rules which was selected by non –gazetted
staff may be recorded in -----------
a. option may be recorded in service Book

b. option may be forwarded to account officer
c . Both
Q151 GPF rules 1960 can be amended time to time
a. true b. false
Q152 From the following action , which action is not re delegate to subordinate authorities ?
a . action related with creation of Post.

b. appointing a government servant
c. issue order related with changes of allowance
Q153 --------------- of the constitution is based for appointing administrator of union territory
a. article 239 b . article 240 c. article 241

Q 154 Travelling allowance may be considered as -------------
a. Special allowance b. Compensatory Allowance c. Both

Q154 A government servant is under training then it will considered
as he is under duty
a. The statement is correct b. the statement is incorrect

Q155 For departmental promotion examination a government official is granted leave.
Then leave period is calculated on what basis?
a. duration of examination
b. duration of examination plus minimum period required for journey to and
from the examination centre nearest to headquarters station
c. duration of examination plus minimum period required for journey to and from the
examination centre to candidate’s home
Q156 A Government servant attend in departmental examination may considered as
duty then the official should report his/her office
after the examination
a. True b . False
Q157 Halts necessitated by breakdown of communication while government servant is on
transfer or training Is it possible to grant all such halts considered as duty
a. No b Yes
Q158 From the following allowance which is considered as recurring Honorarium?
a. Over time allowance b. TA c. Honorarium for examination

Q159 Number of persons so entitled is more than the posts available
then lien will be given on------------ basis
a. Junior most person in the grade will be liable to be reverted

b . Senior most person in the grade will be liable to reverted
c . None of the above
Q160 If A performs the duties of post on which another person holds a lien then it will be
treated as ---------
a. A is working under probation period

b. A is working under training period
c. A is officiating
Q161 When will a Government get overseas Pay?
a. Officials who have working away from his Parent department
b. Officials in consideration of the fact that he is serving in a country other than
the country of his domicile
c. None of these
Q162 if a Government servant holds a posts carrying definite rate of pay sanctioned without
limit of time
Then it may be treated as
a. Post under probation period

b. Post may be treated as Permanent
c. Post may be treated as provisional
Q163 if person hold a temporary post then which of the following statement equivalent for
temporary post
a. Post carrying a definite rate of pay sanctioned for a limited time

b. posts carrying definite rate of pay sanctioned without limit of time
c. None of these
Q164 ----------------- is very important document for appointment of a post in government
service
a. Health card
b. Fitness Certificate from any Hospital
c. Medical certificate of fitness from competent authority
Q165 The drawal of pay and allowance for a period not exceeding --------------- in respect of
fresh recruits to government service without a medical certificate of health
a One Month b . Two Month c. Five Month

Q166 In the case of quasi permanent Government Servants who wish to revert to parent
department /Office within a period of two years then the government servant will be appointed
to the post of --------------
a. the post held by him prior to his joining the new department
b the present post he occupied
c. None of these
Q167 When Government servants refuse to work overtime where such overtime work is
necessary in the Public interest
Then it will considered as
a. Strike b. unauthorized absent from service c. None of these

Q168 The break in service should affect promotion through normal DPC
a. True b. False
Q169 The period of absence not covered by grant of leave shall have to be treated as -------------
a unauthorized absent from service b. Break in service c. Dies non

Q170 Home town deceleration under LTC Sceheme to be kept in ---------------------
a. PF of official .b. Service Book of Official c. None of these

Q171 The Head of department should verified service books of each official by -----------------
a Every year b. Every Quarter c. Every month

Q172 The allotment of Post attached quarters to official may be cancelled on the basis of --
----------- months notice
a. One b. Two c. Three

Q173 A Female officer who has been allotted residential accommodation free of rent may be
permitted to enjoy the rent free concession during the entire period of maternity leave
a. True b. False
Q174 In what time is allowed a Government official to continue his occupation in rent free
quarter after his retirement ?
a. One Month b. Two Month c. Six Month

Q175 Permissible period for the retention of the residence while the officials are temporary
transfer in India or transfer to a place outside India
a. One Month b. Two Month c. Four Month

Q176 Honorarium can be paid for the works related with calculation of Tax
a. True b. false
Q177 if a Government servants accepts honorarium in respect of broadcast on all India
Radio Then whether prior sanction is required or not ?
a. Not Required b. Required

Q178 When a government servant working as an arbitrator
in a dispute between his department and private party he --------
granted honorarium
a. should not be b. Should be

Q179 When a government servant working as an arbitrator
in a dispute between Ministry/department other than the one in which he is working can
receive ---------------
a. Honorarium b. Special Allowance c. None of these

Q180 The official Languages Act was formed
a. 1963 b. 1976 c. 1954

Q181 If enquiry officer is not submit or handed over the case records and inquiry report to
disciplinary authority then payment of honorarium can be made .
a. True b. False
Q182 From the following duties which are not entitled for honorarium ?
a. Valuation of Examination
b. Duties related with calculation of interest .
c. Duties related with extra time
Q183 If a Government servant is coming and delivering the lectures/talks in training
programmes, Then in what condition is applicable for getting honorarium to that official
a. Government servant claim only TA

b. Government Servant claim TA and DA
c. No honorarium granted for such work
Q184 Whether it was justifiable to grant deputation allowance when the officer held only the
additional charge of the ex cadre post
a. No b. Yes .
Q185 When an officer holds additional charge of a sanctioned post , the administrative
Ministries may grant additional remuneration as prescribed for a maximum period of ----------
--- months
a. Six b One c. Three

Q186 Subsistence Allowance is related with ----------
a. Pay and allowance to governments servant who have under Suspension

b Special Allowance to government servant who have removed from service
c. Remove from Service
Q187 The amount of subsistence allowance may increased or decreased subject to some
condition

a. True b. False
Q188 From the following situation which is applicable to with held the subsistence allowance
a. Suspension period exceeding three months

b. specific order from appointing authority
c. The Government Servant does not furnish certificate that he is not engaged
in any other employment
Q189 Contribution under health scheme can be reduced from subsistence allowance Then it
is called as
a. Compulsory deduction b. Optional Deduction c. None of these

Q190 From the following deduction , which deduction from subsistence allowance is needed
prior consent from suspended employee
a. Deduction related with income tax

b. Repayment of loans and advance taken from government
c. Deduction related with PLI premium
Q191 From Subsistence allowance the employer can deduct GPF subscription
The above mentioned statement is
a. True b,False
Q192 The government servant is under suspension and he is not vacate free quarter . What
action should be taken in such condition
a. issue order to vacate from licence fee free accommodation

b issue order to charge the licence fee for free accommodation
c. None of these
Q193 From the following situation which is considered as deemed to suspension of
government servant
a. A Government Employee is under police custody on a Criminal charge

exceeds 48 Hours
b A Government Employee is under police custody on a Criminal charge exceeds 24
Hours
c A Government Employee is under police custody on a Criminal charge exceeds 12
Hours
Q194 if a Government Servant granted extension of service , then he is ---- to promoted to
another post during the period of extension
a. Not Eligible b. Eligible

Q195 From which department obtain sanction to change of date of Birth of a Government
Servant who are working in the Indian Audit and Accounts
a. Audit Department b. Concerned Ministry c. Comptroller and Audit - General

196 is any specific order is necessary for retirement of due date
a. No b. Yes
Q197 Loss of one eye is not disqualification for non Gazatted services.
a. True b. False
Q198 Indian Medical Council Act was formed
a. 1955 b.1956 c. 1949

Q199 If a candidate employed in a temporary capacity continuously , then is it need for
produce medical certificate if so mention period
a. Yes , Period exceeding three months b. yes Period exceeding One month c No
Q200 if a government servant re appoint after break in service , then it should be treated as in
continuous service for medical examination for fitness checking
Considering the above ruling please select the condition of break in service period
a. more than one month b. more than two month c. within one year
Q201 If a Government Servant continous service but in different post , then what is the ruling
for considering fresh medical examination ?
a. There is no need of fresh medical examination

b for every appointment fresh medical examination is needed
c. None of these
Q202 A candidates or Government servant can appeal against adverse of findings of medical
Board . is it possible ?
a. Possible when error of judgment happened and it is proved with evidence

b. Not possible
Q203 what is the fee for re medical examination for Gazatted Post
a. 500/- b. 200/- c. 100/-

Q204 When a medical board declared that a candidate or government servant as unfit , then
what is time limit for submitting appeal?
a. One month b. Two month c. Six month

Q205 Medical Board declared that a temporary servant as unfit
and he submit appeal for second medical . In such situation is it possible the he can continues
his service
a. No b. Yes
Q206 From the following , which amount is not credited to Government treasury fully or
partially by a Government Servant
a. Dividend received from security

b. Medical Examination fee
c. any type of fee received by government Servant
Q207 Government Servant official life should be recorded in ------- and every ------------
government servant shall get copy of this book
a. PF, month b. Service Book , Year c. CR, Year

Q208 Post office Accountants in the selection grade can attest the entries in service book
a. True b. False
Q208 Where will record the GPF account no in service Book
a. on the right hand top of first page of service Book

b. on the right hand top of last page of service
c. GPF account no is not recorded in service book
Q209 What is the purpose of declaration of Home Town and where it will kept ?
a for LTC and it will kept in service Book

b. For any type of journey of Government servants and it will kept separate file
Q210 Service Book should be maintained in -------
a. Duplicate b. Triplicate c. None of these

Q211 Declaration and pay fixation memos should be kept in -----------
a. Separate file b. Bill Book c. Service Book
Q1. Casual leave is limited to a maximum of ----------- days in a calendar year by department
of Post
Eight
Q2 The casual leave can be granted for more than five days continuously .
False
Q3 Casual leave need not be reported nor recorded in absentee statements, in service books
or service rollsThe above said statement is
True
Q4 Mention the name of form for recording the casual leave
form Est.-50
Q5 Conversion of one kind of leave into leave of different kind in permissible only when -
------------------
The official while in service

Q5 If a Government servant overstay of leave without proper sanction
Then whether the leave salary is admissible or not for that period .
No Leave salary is admissible for the entire period of overstayal

Q6 How many days can be taken for Earned leave at a time .
180 Days
Q7 How many days can be allowed as joining time for transfer within the same station.
One day
Q8 Half pay leave can be availed only with medical certificate
False
Q9 If a government servant granted commuted leave and he quit services voluntarily
without returning to his duty . Then what is the action taken by department ?
The commuted leave shall be treated as half pay leave and excess leave salary
recovered .
Q10 What is meant by LND
Leave Not Due

Q11 In continuation of maternity leave , the Leave Not Due may be granted -----------
medical certificate
Without
Q12 Mention the main factor for granting Extraordinary leave
When no other leave is admissible

Q13 The paternity leave is allowed for -------- days
Fifteen
Q14 In which leave may not be combined for paternity leave ?

Casual Leave
Q15 What is the maximum period for child care leave ?
730 Days
Q16 The LTC can be availed during casual leave
The above said statements is True

Q17 How many days is admissible as special casual leave in a year?
30 Days
Q18 The study leave is granted to the government servant who have
Not Less than --------- service
Five year’s
Q19 if the distance between the old and new headquarters then how many
days is permissible as joining time
10 Days
Q20 Extension of joining time can be granted up to maximum of ------days
30
RURAL POSTAL LIFE INSURANCE
26. Rural postal life insurance started in

a) 24 Mar 1995 b) 23 Feb 1995
c) 24 Mar 1994 d) 25 Mar 2006 Ans:a
27. The max limit of RPLI is
a) 500000/- b) 300000/-
c) 1000000/- d) 100000/- Ans:b
28. PLI services tax and edncess has been withdrawn form
a) 1 Nov 07 b) 01 Mar 2005

c) 1 May 95 d) None of these Ans:a
29. Rebate is allowed on advance deposit of premium on RPLI for Qtly/Half year/year
is
a) 1%, 2%,3% b) 0.50%,1%,2%

b) 0%, 1%,2% d) No rebate in RPLI Ans:b
30. An extra departmental agents group insurance scheme started in
a) 01 Apr 1994 b) 01 Apr 1996

c) 01 Apr 1992 d) None of these Ans:c
(Sum assured to Rs 50000/- and the subscription to Rs 50/-)
a) SDI/ASPDs shall be entitled to an incentive equal to 10% of the commission

paid to the agents
b) A policy holder of WLA PLI/RPLI shall be eligible for tacking Children policy to
his/her child
c) Mail overseer should have min 10th standard qualification for doing this job.
32. Payment of incentive to Dos(PLI)
a) Up to Rs 4 crores of sum assured Nil

b) Above Rs 4 crores and up to Rs 6 crores of sum assured Rs 25/- per 10000/-
c) Above Rs 6 crores of sum assured Rs 20/- per 10000/-
33. The decision of competent authority that DO(PLI) procuring effective business to
the tune of ____ or more shall no be eligible for automatic extension of tenure for the next
___ year. Such extension will be granted by ______subject to good work,conduct &
satisfactory record in the year.
a) 10 crores, 1 year, Head of the circle,

b) 20 crores, 2 year, DG Post
c) 25 crores, 1 year, Head of the circle
d) 25 cores. 1 years, SSP/SP Ans: c
a) In RPLI policies with non standard proof or age is Rs 1 lac

b) The 5% extra premium on non standard proof of age policies
c) In non standard proof or age policies the age of the insurant should not be exceed
45 years
35. Mark correct option relating to the mail overseers to procure RPLI business
a) The mail overseer will first complete their assigned work correctly before
attending to the RPLI business
b) No TA/DA will be admissible or canvassing RPLI business except on RPLI
mela organized by the circles
c) They should have min 10th standard qualification for doing this job
36. The min RPLI policy limit is
a) 20000/- b) 25000/-
c) 10000/- c) 15000/- Ans:c
37. The system of payment of honorarium to staff (including supervisors) of divisional

office for procuring of PLI/RPLI proposal is Rs
a) 5000/- b) 4000/-
c) 1000/- d) No honorarium
Ans:b
38. The max PLI policy limit for a physically handicapped persons is
a) 300000/- b) 500000/-
c) 100000/- d) None of these Ans:c
a) Not more than one policy will be allowed for one child. The policy can be
taken by insured for his/her own child only
b) Not more than two children in a family shall be covered under this policy.
The same child should not be covered under more than one policy
c) The insured of main policy shall not be aged 45 years and above at the time
of taking of children policy
d) The age of the child note more than 18 year at the time of issue of children
policy Ans:d
40. Mark the incorrect option relating to Children Policy
a) The minimum limit for insurance under this scheme shall be Rs2000/-
b) Agency commission not available in this scheme
c) No loan shall be applicable to children policies.
d) The outstanding term of main policy shall not be less than the premium paying
period of children policy.
e) In the event of the death of the insured before the expiry of the children policy
no further premium shall be payable for the balance period of the policy.
Ans:c
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME V

(PO & RMS GENERAL REGULATIONS)
1. The first class HO situated at the HQ of the Head of the circle or, where there are
more than one such HO, the one is attached to HQ is called as
a) Head post office b) First Class Post office

c) General Post Office d) None of the above Ans: c(6)
2. The service responsible for the carriage of mails by rail, road, river and air and for
the collection and distribution of mails received form Post offices by mail offices and
section
a) Army postal service b) Mobile post office service

c) Railway Mail Service d) None of the above Ans: c(2)
3. A main office of group of post offices consisting of itself and a number of smaller
offices called sub and branch office which have been placed under its Account
jurisdictions is called as
a) Head Post Office b) First class post office

c) General Post Office c) None of these Ans: a(5)
4. Post office which is situated on a line of through mail communication receive &
sorts bags intended for office in advance, without opening them is
a) TMO b) SO
c) Transit office d) None of the above Ans: c(9a)
5. A branch of RMS where closed bags are received and dispatched sorting of letter is
not done in this unit mail agent or mail guard is in charge of this unit is a
a) Transit office b) Head office

c) Transit mail office d) None of the above Ans: c(9b)
6. Mark correct option
a) Sorting mail office charged with the duty of opening the sorting mail bags received
by it and deposing of their contents.
b) AMPC mean automatic mail processing centre sorting is done by machine.
c) CRC mean computerized Registration centre. Regn work is done by computer
d) All of these. Ans: d(9-
10)

a) Sorting sub office are situated near the junction of several mail lines
b) Nodal Post office is working in important cities some post office are authorized to
receive letters from neighboring PO and sort the mail as per sorting diagram.
c) Central bagging unit is branch of RMS office .
8. An office is established at HQ of a Postal circle and deal with unclaimed and refused
articles and articles without address or incomplete address is called as
a) Nodal Post office b) Head post office

c) Returned letter office d) None of the above Ans:c(12)
9. Mark correct options
a) A post office or Sorting office or section which exchanges mails with offices in
foreign countries is known as ‘Office of exchange”.
b) A Foreign post office is an office of exchange in which the work of assessment of
customs duty on foreign mail is also carried out.
c) A Sub foreign Post office is does not close and receive any bags but in which the
work of customs examination, assessment and accounting of custom duty is
carried out.
d) All the above Ans: d(13)
10. Railway Mail service working on Railway or river streamer lines is called
a) Mail Office b) Bag Office

c) Transit section d) Transit mail office Ans: c(14)
11. The mail office deals with contents of mail bags addressed to them and with closed
forward bags is called as
a) Transit Mail Office b) Sorting mail office

c) Transit Section d) Record office Ans:b(15)
12. The mail office deals only with closed bags is called as
a) Transit Mail Office b) Sorting mail office
c) Transit Section d) Record office Ans:a(15)
a) Mail office are two kind one is Sorting mail office another is Transit mail office
b) Mail agent incharge of Sorting mail office and HAS is incharge TMO
c) Mass mailing centreis help to customer who are regularly posting max number
of letters, as help him to writing the address, affix stamp etc
d) Press Sorting office is situated on promises of the newspaper. All the
expenditure is borne by the publisher.
e) All the above Ans: e(15)
14. Mark incorrect option
a) RO is a stationary office of the RMS where work paper of the sections attached to it
are prepared, checked and placed on record, all forms & bags.
b) HRO is stationary office situated at the HQ of RMS Dn
c) SRO is situated at the same station as a Mail office.
d) None of these Ans:d(16-18)
a) Every PO is Unit Bag office other than BO and EDSO

b) Every HRO/SRO in RMS is identified ad District Bag office
c) The PSD situated at the HQ of Postal circle is identified as Circle Bag Office
d) D section of Postal directorate works as Central Bag office. This is not deal with
any bags but only deals with the correspondence relating distributions of bags
e) All the above Ans:e(18)
16. Journey performed by a set of Section traveling on duty from one end to the
another end of its beat is called
a) Section b) Beat
c) Trip d) None of these Ans: c(22)
a) Station articles are intended for delivery from a PO to which they are sent
b) Sorting articles are articles that are to be sorted by the Poor Mail Office to which
they are sent, and fwd to office of final destination or to other sorting offices
c) Label bundle are two type express bundle and differed bundle
d) Express bundle require to sort immediately & Differed bundle may be disposed
later.
e) All the above Ans: e(23,24)
a) Pink check slip for ordinary paid and unpaid bundle

b) Blue check slip for Airmail
c) White check slip for both express & differed bundle
d) Marked 2 diagonal line green for local article, yellow for rajdhani & blue for
metro bundle
a) The weight of TB should not be exceed 30 Kg weight

b) MO check slip printed in red in on white or badami paper
c) Registered bundle prepared there are three or more uninsured letter.
d) Regd bag may contain cash bag, ordinary and VP regd article, insured
envelope, regd bundle, ins bundle, ordinary &VP MO
20. A bag is used to enclose several bags sent to the same office or section thereby
affording protection to them called
a) Packet Bag b) Insured Bag
c) Transit Bag d) None of these Ans: c(33)
21. A bag is used to enclosed correspondence of the high officer of Govt called as
a) Camp bag b) Special bag

c) Transit bag d) None of these Ans: b(37)
a) An account bag is used between a SO to HO vice versa

b) SO to HO account bag contain SO daily account
c) HO to SO account bag contain SO Slip
d) Account bag are due bag
23. A and B order is issued by
a) Supdt of RMS b) PMG

c) Supdt of Post office c) HRO Ans: a(46,47)
24. A order contain
a) Proposed changes in the sorting list

b) Performance of SA duties in mail offices
c) Disposal of camp articles
d) None of the above Ans: a(46)
25. B order contain
a) Proposed changes in the sorting list

b) Performance of SA duties in mail offices
c) Disposal of camp articles
d) None of the above Ans: b(46)
27. The list showing the details of bags to be received and dispatched by a mail
office/transit section is
a) Sorting list b) Due mail list

c) A order d) B order Ans: b(52a)
28. The list showing the manner in which the articles must be dispatched is
a) Sorting list b) Due mail list

c) A order d) B order Ans:a(52a)
29. mail comprised of The articles and documents which must be dispatched every day
or at regular intervals is termed as
a) Due mails b) Unusual mails
c) Bulk mails d) None of the above Ans: a(53)
30. Letter posted after the prescribed hours of closing the mails but within the time
permitted for posting and with prescribed late fee (in addition to the postage) are
called
a) Too late letters b) Late letters

c) Missent letters d) Non of the above Ans: b(56a)
31. Letter posted after the prescribed hours of closing the mails but within the time
permitted for posting and without affixing prescribed postage and late fee are called
a) Too late letters b) Late letters

c) Missent letters d) Non of the above Ans: a(56a)
32. An article which has been erroneously forwarded by an office to an office other
than the office of destination and an article is a vernacular article on which the incorrect
destination are
a) Mis-sent & mis directed article b) Too late letter

c) Late letters d) Non of the above Ans: a(57)
33. Mark incorrect correct option
a) Trial card used for the purpose of determining the relative advantage of
alternative mail routes or the cause of detention to articles
b) Trial cards are red colour
c) Trial card should not be included in any station bundle
d) All of these Ans:d(57)
34. The timing of clearance of letter at railway station is fixed by
a) SSPOs b) SSRM/SRM
c) Sub Divisional Inspector of Posts d) IRM Ans: b(58)
35. The registered newspaper addressed to foreign countries must have
a) Separate license for posting

b) License to post without prepayment
c) License to post only on prepayment of postage
d) None of these Ans:a(58a)
36. The min number of copies of Regd newspaper posted at a time
a) 100 b) 50
c) 75 d) 60 Ans: a(58a)
a) Bill of franking machine used is prepared in form MS10

b) In RMS offices, letter box key should be kept in custody of Sorting Assistant
c) Greeting cards are treated as first class mails in sorting. During the greeting
season they are given air lift also without air surcharge otherwise surface mode.
d) Label bundle should not contain more than 50 to 60 letters & post cards.
e) All of the above Ans:e
a) Territorial bundle prepared for foreign when not less than 5 articles
b) Bulk bag system is not available for Srilanka, Nepal, Buthan & Pakistan
c) Ordinary circumstances the bulk of the correspondence for any office is more
a single mailbag than can contain called as plural mail bags
d) When extra mail bag(unusual mail) is closed for PO or Mail office the registered
bag should be place in the due mail list.
e) All of the above Ans: e
39. Normally mail list prepared in
a) Triplicate b) Duplicate
c) Single copy d) Quadruplicate Ans: b(76b)
40. Air mail bags dispatched to each port of call is accompanied with
a) Window delivery ticket b) Inland airmail delivery bill

c) Mail list d) None of these. Ans: b(76)
41. Face of the article mean
a) Back side of the article b) The side on which sender address written
c) The side on which addressee address written d) None of these Ans: c(54)
42. Letter posted in the Night post office without payment of late feed will be
a) Impressed with the remarks ‘Detained late fee not paid’ and included on the next
day dispatch
b) Returned to the sender with the remarks ‘late fee not paid’
c) Detained without any remarks
d) None of these Ans: a(56a)
43. The incharge of a RMS division is called
a) Senior/Superintendent of RMS b) Sub Divisional ASRM

c) HRO d) SRO Ans: a(4)
44. The lowest unit of post office is
a) Head Post Office b) Sub post office

c) EDSO b) BO Ans:d(8)
45. Monthly sorting order is issued by
a) PMG b) SSP/SP
c) DG Posts d) CPMG Ans: d(9)
46. The officer incharge of a Head Record office is designated as
a) Head Postmaster b) Record officer

c) Head record officer d) Head sorter Ans: c(17)
47. Territorial regd bundle are prepared when the number of registered article is
a) 25 or more b) 5 or more
c) 10 or more d) 50 or more Ans: a(24)
48. The keys and changeable hour plate of a letter box must be kept in the custody of
a) Postmaster b) APM
c) Postal Assistant d) Treasurer Ans: c
49. Station bundle are prepared only when the no of article either paid of unpaid of
any PO
a) 5 b) 7
b) 3 d) 14 Ans: d(24)
50. The mail posted BO are sent to
a) Directly to RMS mail office b) HO

c) AO for inclusion into bag to the mail office d) None of these Ans: c(8)
51. Transcription centre is a cell established in
a) All administrative offices b) All HOs c) All ROs

d) A sorting mail office situated at HQ of the circle or at any convenient sorting
office in the circle. Ans: d(12)
52. The number of office exchange established by the dept of posts
a) 5 b) 4
c) 6 d) 3 Ans: b(13)
53. The unit bag office will send its daily bag balance report to
a) The local HO b) The SPOs office

c) The SRM office d) The district bag office Ans:d(18a)
54. The DBO is inspected by
a) The SRM b) The HRO

c) The SPOs d) The circle Bag office Ans: d(18a)
55. Each set of section will have

a) Different working hours b) Different establishment
c) Different mail arrangements
d) Same working hours,same establishment and same mail arrangement
Ans: d(21a)
56. When there are no air articles for an airmail bag prescribed
a) A suitable remarks should be made in the delivery bill concerned

b) A bag with ‘Nil’ contents is to be closed
c) It is enough if a remark is made in the office record
d) None of the above Ans: a(28a)
a) When the airmail bag contain less than 50 articles and there is no insured article
or air parcel an airmail cover of suitable size should be used instead of a
bag
b) When an air parcel is sent inside of airmail bag the label should bear “CAP”
c) The weight of airmail bag or TB should not exceed 30 KG weight.
d) Separate ins letter bag closed when more than 10 ins article for any office.
e) All the above Ans: e
58. When an insured letter bag is prescribed as a due bag it should be
a) Dispatched inside the regd bag with remarks in the regd list.
b) Sent loose duly advised in the mail list
c) Sent duly included in the mail bag closed
d) Closed as a separate D bag Ans: a(29)
a) Changing station is a Railway station is where the beats of two transit sections join
and where the mails brought by one of them are handed over to the other
b) A connecting station is an RMS section working in a train in immediate connection
with another train in which another RMS section works
c) Regn of newspaper, renewal or canceling any registration will be issued by Head
of the department
d) All the above Ans: d
60. The copies of the newspaper without prepayment will be handed over to window
along with an invoice which should be
a) In triplicate b) In duplicate
c) In quadruplicate d Single copy Ans: b(58a)
61. The minimum limit fixed for posting Regd. News paper without prepayment at a
time for foreign destination is
a) 500 b) 200
c) 100 d) 100 Ans:d(58a)
62. On checking the entries in the invoice (tendered along with the Regd. News paper
without prepayment ) if there by any discrepancy noticed.
a) The posting should be refused b) The PM can use his discretion
c) The o/o posting should make the requisite correction under the initial of the HO
d) None of these Ans: c(58A)
63. The payment due in connection with posting of Regd News paper without
prepayment is to be made
a) Quarterly b) Monthly
c) Weekly d) fortnightly Ans:d(58a)
64. The posting of the Regd. Newspaper without prepayment should be stopped and
license deemed to be cancelled in the event of non payment of a bill
a) Within one week following the fortnight to which the bill relates.
b) Within one month following the fortnight to which the bill relates.
c) Within fortnight following the fortnight to which the bill relates.
d) None of these Ans: c(58A)
65. Machine franked article can be posted not more than
a) Three offices b) Two offices

c) only one office d) None of these Ans b(58b)
66. At the office of posting the officer responsible for seeing that the article have been
franked in the prescribed manner and that systematic under payment is not going on is
a) The Inspector posts b) The counter PA

c) The Postmaster d) None of these Ans:c(58b)
67. Daily docket in the prescribed form is used by
a) The licensee along with his last posting of franked article at the prescribed office
b) The supervisor of a mail office to submit his report to the divisional Head
c) The PRI(P) to send hi dairy to the SPOs
d) None of these Ans: a(58b)
68. Whenever, owing to the unusual bulk mail for an office extra transit bags are
closed
a) The word ‘extra bag’ should be written on the label

b) The number of extra transit bags closed should be entered in the mail list
c) Each extra transit bag closed should contain its separate mail list showing the
particulars of bags enclosed
d) All the above Ans:d (78)

a) The resetting of the credit meter of the franking machine will be done at the PO
b) Cut out labels with frank impression on them for prepayment of postage cannot
be used for insured articles
c) The 2nd class articles treated as 1st class mail in sorting are Greetins/ Regd
Newspapers/ Wedding invitations
d) The duty of taxing postage on foreign articles rest entirely with the office of
foreign exchange of the country of posting
e) All the above Ans: e)
70. When a cash bag enclosed in a Regd. Bag is forwarded in a mail bag the symble
to be written on label of the mail bag is
a) Cash bag b) F
c) C d) A/C Ans b(73)
a) Incharge of Head post office is Head Post Master

b) Incharge of Sub post office is Sub Post Master
c) Incharge of Branch post office is Branch post master
d) Incharge of transit mail office is Mail agent/mail guard
e) All the above Ans; e)
72. Sub office is authorized to receive
a) Articles all kinds in sorting b) Fully pre-paid articles

c) Regd articles d) None of these Ans: a(11)
73. Pre mailing activities are done at
a) Business Post centre b) Press sorting office

c) Head post office d) None of these Ans: b(15b)
74. The head office is the main office of account
a) For itself b) For all SO kept under it

c) For all BO kept under it d) All the above Ans: d(5)
75. The post office seal for sealing the franking machine must be kept
a) In the personnel custody of the PRI(P)

b) In the personnel custody of the Postmaster
c) In the Divisional office
d) None of these Ans:b(58c)
76. Mark incorrect option
a) Complaint and enquiries relating to foreign mail the postage stamp equivalent to
the fee prescribed is charged
b) The sender of foreign article should be written ‘RENVOI PAR AVION’(return by
air mail) for get back the acknowledge ment
c) Parcel shall not contain more than one written communication but this rule shall
not apply to an official parcel.
d) All the above are correct Ans:d
77. The Postmaster or_______personal duties prescribed in this rule may, under the
order of_________, be delegated to the _________, Assistant Postmaster, Supervisor or office
supervisor of the _______ as the case may be.
a) Head Sorting Assistant , Head of the Circle, Deputy postmaster, office

b) Sorting assistant , Supdt of Rms, Deputy postmaster, office
c) Postal assistant , Head of the Circle, Deputy postmaster, office
d) Record officer , Head of the Circle, Deputy postmaster, office Ans: a
78. In sorting Mail offices, the ______________should maintain___________showing the

number of _________articles received. ______________ will tick off these entries in check sheet.
a) Postmaster, abstract, insured, HPM

b) MO cleark, check sheet, MO, HSA/ Supervisor
c) Registration/parcel Sorting assistant, check sheet, insured, HSA/ Supervisor
d) Registration/parcel Sorting assistant, check sheet, MO, HSA/ Supervisor
Ans: c
79. The book of postmarks should be maintain
a) All Post office b) Mail office & Transit section

c) Record offie d) All the above Ans: d(103)
80. The fact of cleaning of seals and stamps should every time be recorded in
postmaster ____ in Head offices in the _________ in Sub offices in the__________of the HAS, the
mail agent or the Record assistant which will be examined by the ____at the time of
inspection
a) Daily a/c, Error book, dairy, inspecting officer

b) Order book, Error book, rough note, inspecting officer
c) Order book, dairy, rough note, postmaster
d) Order book, Error book, dairy, inspecting officer Ans: b
81 Article marked ‘By parcel post’ found in letter box
a) The official detecting the irregularity should be make a not of it in his error book.
b) In POs the article should be transferred to the parcel assistant and treated and
charged with postage as a registered parcel,
c) In RMS, the article should be marked ‘found in letter box’ transferred to Parcel
Sorting Assistant
82. OIGS/FOAS mean

a) On India Government Service / Free on active service
b) On insured guarantee service/ Free on acknowledge service
c) Any one of the above d) None of these Ans: a
83. Tin Seal used for closing
a) All insured bags b) Heavy/large bags of letter/parcel mails.

c) All the above d) None of these Ans: c(132)
84. Mark correct option relating to limit of weigh of mails
a) The weight to be carried by mail runner on a man should not exceed 14 Kg

b) When it is carried by each man should not exceed 28 Kg
c) When it is carried by trolley the weight of the parcel should not exceed 37 Kg
d) The weight of postal articles including parcel and cash to be carried by a
postman or village postman should not exceed 10 kg
e) All the above Ans: e)(135)
85. Important irregularities to be reported by telegraph /fax
a) A due bag not received, or left behind

b) A due mail, regd or parcel list not received or received missent
c) A daily a/c, or SO Slip not received
d) Absence of mail carrie
e) All the above Ans: e)(144)
86. The application for recall/redelivery of letter should be dispatch by
a) Regd Post b) ordinary

c) Speed Post d) Service Regd post Ans: d(148)
87. Application of recall of articles should be kept or record
a) two year (inland article), eighteen month(foreign articles)

b) one year (inland article), two year (foreign articles)
c) one year (inland article), eighteen month(foreign articles)
d) Six month (inland article), twelve month(foreign articles) Ans: c(148)
a) Director General’s circular are issue once in a month

b) Each set of circulars should be kept in a guard book .
c) In sub offices circular are signed by SPM and other official also
89. Ordinary postage stamps, coins and other articles of valued found in letter boxes or
on a counter the action taken by postmaster is
a) When ordinary stamp are found in letter box will have been defaced and the entry
will be made in error book
b) If unused Postcard other than private manufacture, empty envelope , stamp sheet
currency note found in letter box or counter its value credited to UCR.
c) In the RMS such items will be fwd to Record officer duly advised in daily report
The Record officer should transfer to local postmaster
d) Application received from public for the return of articles mentioned above the
refund value should be submitted for order of HOD.
a) Half yearly enumeration returns will be submitted during the second week of the
months of February and August of each ear 8th to 14th both day inclusive.
b) An enumeration return must be made of the number of ordinary UR articles of the
letter mail and UR parcel given out for delivery to Postman and window.
c) All the above d) None of these Ans: c(155)
a) The camp bag booked as parcel will be sent by surface route and will be charged
with the postage payable on a parcel weighting 10 Kg plus registration fee and
incidental charges .
b) The camp bag booked as letter mail will not be charge with any additional postage
other than Registration fee.
c) The camp bag is due to be collected on any day including Sunday & Holiday.
d) All of these Ans: d(159)
92. Mark correct option related to preservation period
a) All records of mail department except due mail & sorting list 1 year
b) Book of post marks(MS 18) & Postman book (MS-27) 1 ½ year
c) Enumeration returns (MS-6) 2 years
d) All monthly statistical registers 3 years
e) All of the above Ans: e
a) Nominal roll cum attendance & destruction of record register is permanent

b) All records of registration and parcel dept except foreign article is 1 year
c) All records of registration and parcel dept related fo foreign articles is 1 ½ year
d) All records of MO is 1 ½ year, IPO 42 months, Book of MO receipt is 2 years
e) All the above Ans:e)
94. The cases of losses of mails due to Road accident, railways accident, air crash
should always be reported to
a) Head of the Region b) Postmaster of HO

c) Sub divisional Head d) None of these Ans:a(170)
95. Cash & insured articles should not be dispatched through

a) MMS b) Transit section
c) Sorting Section d) Weighment system Ans d(227)
96. The payment of weighment system is made to the railway authorities
a) Annually b) Quarterly
c) Half Yearly d) Monthly Ans: c(225)
97. The payment of occasional dispatch is made to the Railway authorities
a) Annually b) Quarterly
c) Half Yearly d) Monthly Ans: b(226)
98. Any irregularity that comes to the notice of Head of the office shall be entered in
a) Error book b) Hand to Hand receipt

c) Office order book d) Book of postmark Ans:a (145)
99. The weight of mails that can be carried by a mail carrier in hilly area is
a) 14 Kg b) 15 Kg
c) 16 Kg d) 20 Kg Ans:b(135)
100. An article addressed in a language not known to the office of posting should be sent
to
a) RLO b) Sender
c) RMS d) Transcription center Ans:c(109)
101. An unpaid letter addressed to a place of in foreign should be
a) Returned to sender b) Send to RLO

c) Forwarded to the office of exchange in separate bundle
d) None of these Ans: d(110a)
102. Book of postmark used for taking the impression of round MO, oblong MO and
unpaid stamps should be kept
a) In the personal custody of the postmaster

b) In the custody of the Assistant Postmaster(Mails)
c) In the custody of Mails PA
d) In the custody of treasurer Ans:a(103)
103. Insufficiently paid outward foreing letter can be taxed only by
a) Office of Posting b) Sorting PA of the office

c) Office of foreign exchange d) RMS office Ans:c(110a)
104. If an UR article is received in open and torn condition at the office of delivery,
a) Returned to RLO
b) Returned to the sender
c) Entrusted to postman for delivery enclosed in a protected cover
d) None of these Ans: c(114)
105. At the office of delivery, an unregistered article of the letter mail addressed to
more than on person is
a) Delivered to any one of the addresses

b) Returned to Sender
c) Delivered to any one of the addresses but in the order in which the name
appear on the cover
106. Sanction of ‘recall of article’ to return the article to the sender or to alter/correct
the address will be issued by
a) Divisional Superindent b) PMG

c) Sub divisional Head d) Head/Sub Postmaster Ans: a(148)
107. Weighment System bags are carried through
a) By bus b) By train
c) By mail Runner d) None of these Ans: b(226)
108. If the Regd article is insufficiently paid , the difference of postage will be collected
from
a) The addressee b) The sender

c) The regn counter PA of o/o booking d) PM of o/o booking Ans: c(99)
109. When the addressee of a damaged insured article refuses to take delivery
a) The article should be returned to the sender duly protected in a pro bag
b) Police complaint to be lodged
c) Reported to Divisional office for further order
d) Returned to RLO Ans: a(196)
110. Facsimile impression of signature on an acknowledgement
a) Can be accepted b) Cannot be accepted

c) Discretion of the PM d) None of these Ans:a(146)
111. Due mail and sorting list a particular PO is issued by
a) The PM of the concerned PO b) Sub divisional Inspector

c) The supdt of Post office concerned d) ASP Ans: c(136)
112. If in course of transmission of parcel it is noticed that the parcel contains more
than one written communication of the nature of a letter of having the character of a
personnel communication the parcel should be
a) Returned to sender with suitable remarks

b) Taxed as I class and sent to the destination
c) Endorsed ‘for open delivery’ and fwd to destination for arrangement open
delivery
113. Articles registered in a PO for delivery from the office itself should be
a) Entered in a station registered list and kept for following days delivery
b) Dispatched to the local RMS mail office for further delivery
c) Dispatched to HO for further disposal
d) The letter should not booked. Ans: a(90)
114. A direct parcel bag is to be closed a delivery PO where the number of Regd. Insured
parcel is
a) Three or more b) Severn or more

c) Ten or more d) Five or more Ans: d(91)
115 Maintenance of insured check sheet by sorting mail office may be relaxed by
. a) The Supdt of RMS b) Head of the circle

c) By the D section of the directorate d) None of these Ans: b(96)
116. In the case of redirected parcels on which redirection fee is recoverable from the
addressee if any incorrect fee had been made entry
a) The parcel should be returned to the sender with remarks

b) The parcel Assistant who noticed the irregularity can make necessary
correction and send the parcel for onward submission
c) The parcel assistant should bring the fact to the notice of the postmaster who
should correct it under his initial
117. Suspected cases of reuse of used stamps on the article received in transmission
from BO should be reported to
a) The supdt of Post office b) The Head Post offices

c) The sub divisional Inspector d) None of these Ans: c(99)
a) In case of inward Foreign article if postage stamps which are not cancelled by the
o/o origin received, it should be cancelled by a thick stroke in ink.
b) UR articles of the letter mail posted bearing no postage stamp should be
impressed on the back with the stamp
c) Late letters posted in RMS letter boxes on which a late fee has not been paid
should be impressed on back with the ‘Detained – late fee not paid stamp’
d) In HOs the station articles of the letter mail received on which postage due
should be impressed on the back with the PMs unpaid stamp only
a) If an article the registrationn of which is compulsory if found in a letter box after

the closing of the counter, it should be kept in deposit till the office is next open for
registration
b) Unpaid article addressed to officials of postal dept, it should be taxed with the
postage in the usual way, treated as refused and sent to RLO.
c) If an UR article found open in sorting should be protected by enclosing an
envelope with a remarks written on a cover ‘ received open’ and dispatched to
destination
d) The article posted in India having affixed with foreign postage should not be
recognized in payment of postage or other postal charges.
120. Unpaid and insufficiently paid article other than letter and postcard for foreign
countries received in posting
a) Should be forwarded to RLO

b) Should be forwarded to the office of exchange .
c) Should be returned to the sender for delivery on recovery of an amount equal
to double the deficiency at inland rate.
121. Postcard manufactured privately which are either thicker or less flexible than the
departmental inland postal card.
a) Should be allowed to pass unchallenged

b) Should be refused transmission
c) Should be returned to RLO
d) None of these Ans: a(112)
a) Any goods transmission through inland post is prohibited found in PO should be

detained and an immediate report submitted to Head of the Circle/Region.
b) If a leaky parcel is detected in a PO or transferred to it by a section or a mail office
should be detained and a report should be made to the SPOs/Istclass PM for order
c) If in a PO article being opened are found to contain opium or allied drugs should
be made over its all contents to the nearest Excise officer for further proceeding
d) Any article passing through the PO suspected that the article contain any thing is
prohibited by inland post should be forwarded in a cover and marked ‘doubtful’
addressed to the Postmaster of destination
e) All the above Ans:e(122,123)
a) The due mail and sorting list for PO and mail offices in communication with offices
in more than one RMS Dn are prepared and supplied by the Head of the
circle
b) The due mail and sorting list for PO in direct communication with a mail office in
one RMS Dn will be issued by the Supdt of RMS concerned
c) Village sorting lists are prepared and supplied to Head, Sub and Branch office by
Sub divisional Inspectors.
124. If an article is found franked by a person who is not entitled to the privilege
a) Returned to sender with remarks b) Article detained & Report to SPO

c) The frank should be ignored and the article should be taxed with the postage
125. In the event of an error in a mail list and when a revised or corrected mail list is
received
a) The revised document can be kept safely in the correspondence file

b) The revised document can be substituted by removing the earlier one
c) Both the list s should be retained on record attached to each other a note being
added on the original
d) The error mail list should be returned to sender Ans:c(128)
126. The maximum weight limit for a bag conveyed by the railway mail service is
a) 28 Kg b) 30 Kg
c) 14 Kg d) 37 Kg Ans: d(135)
127. The very purpose of posting trial cards will be defeated if the following columns
are not properly filled in by the supervisor of the receiving unit
a) Column (1) & Column(2) b) Column (3) & Column(4)

c) Column (1) & Column(3) d) None of these Ans: a(139)
128. The office of delivery after making necessary entries in the trial card received will
return the trail card it by
a) Ordinary post as unregistered article

b) Keep it for its office record
c) Including it in a service cover addressed to the officer who posted it
d) Regd. Post duly enclosed in a service cover Ans: c(139)
129. Records of a PO or a mail office should be produced to a Police officer who is

making an investigation in a cognizable case under CRPC
a) After getting the approval of Head of the circle

b) After approval of the divisional Head
c) After getting written order form the police concerned
130. The addressee can be allowed to use facsimile impression for getting delivery of
a) Registered letter b) Money order
c) Insured article d) None of these Ans: a(146)
131. If any correction is made in the total of entries in regd. list

a) It should be attested by the initials Sorting Assistant concerned
b) It should be attested by the PM/SPM or Head sorting assistant
c) It should be destroyed and a fresh one prepared
d) It can be sent with corrections Ans: c(90)
132. The ascertained weight of the insured article noted against the entry in the regd
/parcel list.
a) Should be initialed by the PA/SA b) Initial is not necessary

c) Initialed by both PA & PM d) None of these Ans:a(97)
133. While closing of insured bag the parcel sorting assistant should
a) Show all the insured parcel entered in the list to the HSA
b) Include all the Insured parcel entered in insured bag in the presence of the
HSA
c) Close the insured bag in the presence of the HSA
134. The Postal Index Number (PIN) must contain: -

(a) 5 digits (b) 4 digits
(c) 7 digits (d) 6 digits Ans:d(107)
135. Minimum amount taxed on unpaid / insufficiently paid articles posted in post is: -
(a) Re. 1/- (b) Rs. 2/-

(c) Rs.5/- (d) Rs. 6/- Ans: - (a)
136. Undelivered Acknowledgements cards are to be destroyed after: -
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month

(c) 4 months (d) None of the above. Ans: - (c)
137. Advertisement of products and services can be done through post office by using
the
facility of _____ post.
a). Business b). Media

c). Direct d) None of these Ans a
138. Statement of half yearly weighment system in form No M-105 of prepared in
a) Duplicate b) Triplicate
c) Quadruplicate c) None of these Ans: c(234)
139. A object for trace a bag or value payable or insured article mail during its course
from the office of dispatch to the office of final destination is a
a) Complaint b) Search Bill

c) Delivery note d) None of these Ans:b(210)
140. Mark correct option relating to robbery
a) When a robbery of the mail is committed on the high road, the postal official of
whatever grade first receives information should be communicate to local police
and to his immediate superior.
b) The supdt of post should communicate this info to magistrate , the police and
Head of the region/circle.
c) A inventory should be prepared in duplicate of recovered items of robbery.
d) At the close of the investigation the final report should be sent to Head of the
circle
141. Mark the correct option related to submission of robbery report to DG Posts
a) Case of highway robbery of mail involving loss of cash/valuables above Rs 50000

b) The attacks on offices by dacoits causing injury to the staff/losses over Rs50000
c) Cases of loss of damage to or tampering with ins article which the amount of
compensation payable exceed Rs 10000
d) Cases of fraud and loss or misappropriation of public money exceeds Rs 50000
142. Rate of single post card is
a) 0.25 paise b) 0.50 paise

c) 0.75 paise d) None of these Ans: b
143. Rate of reply post card is

c) 0.75 paise d) Rs 1/- Ans: d
144. Rate of printed post card is
a) Rs 1 b) Rs 2/-
c) Rs 5/- d) Rs 6/- Ans: d
145. Rate of competition post card is
a) Rs 10 b) Rs 12/-
c) Rs 5/- d) Rs 6/- Ans: a
146. Speed post of one India one rate up to 50 gm is Rs
a) 12/- b) 15
c) 22 d) 25 Ans: d
147. Cost of VPMO form is

c) 0.75 paise d) Rs 1/- Ans: a
148. Aircraft mail divided into
a) Two category b) Three category

c) Four category d) Five category Ans: d(142)
149. UR letter in found office of deliver as unpaid should be charged Rs
a) 1 & postage b) 2 & postage

c) 5 & postage d) None of these Ans: c
150. Duty is performed by officials after the prescribed term of duty is called
a) Extra duty b) Essential duty

c) Over time duty d) None of these Ans: c(42)
151. The treatment given to an international parcel in the event of non-delivery is

dependent upon:
(A) Sender’s instructions (B) Weight of parcel

(C) Condition of parcel (D) All the above Ans:a
152. Documentation in Form CN-23 accompanying international mail articles serves the
purpose of:
(A) Despatch Note (B) Customs declaration (C)

Statement of charges (D) Report in respect of irregularities
Ans: b
153. Mark the incorrect option:
(A) The special registration envelopes provided by the Post Office cannot be used for
the transmission of unregistered article
(B) Reuse of a stamp that has already been used for payment of postage or postal fee
is an offence under the Indian Penal Code
(C) Manufacture and use of fictitious postage stamps for any purpose whatsoever is
an offence under Indian Penal Code
(D) Postage stamps which have been cut and separated from embossed envelopes or
postcards can be used in payment of postage Ans:d
154. Mark the correct option:
(A) The weight of privately manufactured letter card should not exceed 3 gram
(B) The weight of letter should not exceed 4 kg
(C) The weight of registered parcel should not exceed 35 kg
(D) The weight of book packet should not exceed 2 kg Ans;a
155. What is the main function of a Sub Foreign Post Office?:

(A) To send direct bags to foreign countries
(B) To enable senders/addressees to present documents etc for the dispatch or
release of their international articles
(C) To function as an intermediary office for closed surface transit bags
(D) To expedite the transmission of international mail Ans:b
156. The loss of a Speed Post article should be reported to the Police through FIR if the
value of the contents of the article is:
(A) 2500/- or more (B) 4,000/- or more

(C) 5,000/- or more (D) 10,000/- or more Ans:c
157. The Inward Correspondence Register concerning Public Complaints maintained in

Record Offices in the Selection Grade should be checked personally by the Record Officer
or the Officer authorized in this behalf:
(A) Daily (B) One in a week (C)

Once in a fortnight (D) Once in a month Ans:b
158. No person shall send by post:
(A) Any postal article having thereon, or on the cover thereof any words, marks
(B) Any postal article having thereon designs of an indecent, obscene, seditious
character
(C) Any postal article having thereon scurrilous, threatening or grossly offensive
character
(D) The options under (B) & (C) above are correct Ans:d
159. A Press Sorting Office is:
(A) A RMS Office where the articles received from the various Presses and publishers
are only sorted
(B) A RMS office situated on the premises of a newspaper publisher
(C) (B) above, plus where the articles received from the newspaper publisher is
sorted and despatched and where the entire expenditure of the establishment of
the office is borne by the newspaper publisher
(D) A branch of a Sorting Mail Office dealing with articles from Press / Publishers and
Registered newspapers Ans:c
160. The advantage of a Transit Post Office is that the Post Office:
(A) Carries out the work of sorting in advance for other offices
(B) Reduces the weight of mails carried on mail lines
(C) Reduces the number of loose bags
(D) All three i.e. (A), (B) & (C) above Ans:c
161. On receipt of information of highway robbery of mails, the Superintendent should

take steps to obtain:
(A) The place from where the mail was last despatched
(B) List of bags prepared in that office at (A) and particulars of their contents
(C) Particulars and contents of other registered articles, cash etc., included in the bags
from the offices of posting or dispatch
(D) All information noted at (A), (B) and (C) Ans:d
162. While closing a Registered bag containing cash bag it should be sealed with:
(A) Date seal (B) Registration seal

(C) Insurance seal (D) Cash seal Ans:c
163. If an article the registration of which is compulsory but which has not been
registered is received for delivery in a PO, the addressee will be required to pay:
(A) Double the deficiency in registration fee and postage

(B) Double the deficiency in registration fee plus any postage due on the article
(C) Amount equal to the deficiency in registration fee and postage
(D) Amount equal to the deficiency in registration fee plus double the postage due
Ans:b
164. When an article, on being opened in the office of delivery is found to contain any
intoxicating drugs, the importation of which is prohibited, it should be:
(A) Sent with all its contents to the nearest Collector of Customs
(B) Forwarded to the RLO
(C) Retained in office and report made to Divisional Office for orders
(D) Made over to the police for further action And:a
165. A damaged article should be returned to the sender duly protected if its addressee
does not attend the Post office to take its delivery within:
(A) 2days of the date of notice (B) 3 days of the date of notice
(C) 7 days of the date of notice (D) 10 days of the date of notice Ans:c
166. If an article posted in a Sub Post Office and addressed to a foreign country is found
to contain anything the export of which is prohibited, it should be forwarded with remark
“contains prohibited ........” to the:
(A) Office of exchange (B) R.L.O

(C) R.M.S (D) Head Post Office Ans:d
167. A bulk bag is defined as:
(A) A special bag of printed papers to/from addressees/senders in foreign countries

(B) A bag containing the mail posted by the senders in bulk
(C) A bag containing seasonal mail
(D) None of the above Ans:a
168. The printed papers enclosed in a bulk bag:

(A) Should be of the same addressee at the same address (B)
May be of the same addressee with different addresses
(C) May be of different addresses at the same station
(D) May be of different addressees at different stations Ans:a
169. Speed Post Pass Port service was launched
a) 5th Mar 2001 b) Jun 2005

c) 1st Apr 2001 d) Aug 2002 Ans:a
170 Direct Post was introduced
a) Mar 2005 b) June 2005

c) 1st Apr 2001 d) Aug 2002 Ans:b
171. Express parcel Post was re launched
a) Mar 1999 b) Jun 2005

172. Logistic Post services was introduced
a) 12th Aug 2004 b) 13th

c) 13th Aug 2004 d) None of these Ans:c
173. E post service was introduced
a) Mar 1999 b) Jan 2004

174. Bill mail service was introduced
a) Mar 1999 b) Jan 2004

c) Sep 2003 d) Aug 2002 Ans:c
175. Business Development Group was formed in Postal Department
a) 1st April 1999 b) Jun 2005

176. Pin code system was introduced
a) Mar 1999 b) Jan 2004 c)

15th Aug 1972 d) Aug 2002 Ans:c
177. E Post Service Commenced
a) 2nd Aug 2001 b) Jun 2005

178. The Surface Airlifted (SAL) was introduced
a) Mar 1999 b) Jan 2004

c) 1st Apr1999 d) Aug 2002 Ans:c
179. Speed Post service launched
a) 1st Apr 1999 b) 1st Aug 1986

180. One India one rate service in speed Post was introduced on
a) 21 Aug 2006 b) Jun 2005

181. When was sorting of letters in rail brought into operation
a) During 1837 b) During 1937

c) During 1737 d) None of these Ans: a
182. When was the first automatic Telephone Exchange established in
a) 1915 b) 1916
c) 1914 d) None of these Ans: c
183. When was the first mail motor van brought in to service
a) 1905 in England b) 1837 in England

c) 1905 in India d) 1905 in Mannilla Ans: a
184. When did the first Air Mail service started1911
a) 1915 b) 1916
c) 1914 d) 1911 Ans: d
185. When did the VP system introduced
a) 1877 b) 1882
c) 1880 d) None of these Ans:a
186. The RMS service was started
a) 1907 b) 1916
c) 1914 d) 1911 Ans: a
187. Meghdoot Award in postal department was introduced
a) 2000 b) 1984
c) 1998 d) 2005 Ans:b
188. Retail Post was introduced
a) 2nd Aug 2001 b) Aug 2000

189. Greeting Post was introduced
a) 6th September 2000 b) Aug 2000

190 QMS was introduced in India
a) 1975 b) 1984
c) 1996 d) 1911 Ans:a
191. Compensation of speed post is
a) 500/- b) 1000/-
c) The double rate of speed post charge d) Whichever is less of the
B&C
Ans: d
192. Proof of delivery of speed post is Rs
a) 3/- b) 5/-
c) 10/- d) Free Ans:c
193. The rate of ePost is
a) Rs 5 per page A4 size b) Rs 6 per page A4 size

c) Rs 10 per page A4 size d) Free Ans:c
194. ITC Card den is
a) Three b) Two
c) Five d) Four Ans:a
( 100/-, 200/-, 500/-, issued by BSNL)
195. Mark the correct option relating to Insurance fee is
a) The Value of insurance not exceeding Rs 200/- is Rs 10

b) The value above Rs 200/- for every additional Rs 100 is 6/-
c) Both the above
d) None of the above Ans: c
196. Flat rate parcel rates
Flat Rate Dimension of Weight Tariff

Parcel Boxes boxes (in mm) (in Kg.) (in Rs.)
size
Small - S 250*50*300 0 to 1 125
Medium - M 250*100*300 Above 1 to 2.5 200
Large - L 300*250*200 Above 2.5 to 5 400
197. AML means
a) Authorized monitory limitation b) Advance Mail Line

c) Anti money laundering d) None of these Ans:c
198. Order stamp and the unpaid stamps should be taken
a) In a piece of paper which in turn should be kept in Guard file

b) in the same book of postmarks in which impressions of all the stamps and seals
are taken
c) In a separate book of post marks to be kept in the personal custody of the
postmaster
d) In the book of postmarks maintained by the delivery assistant Ans:c(103)
199. Mail bag is
a) A due bag b) Not a due bag

c) An unusual bag d) None of these Ans:a(28)
200. Unpaid letters which are posted open or insecurely closed
a) Should be sent to RLO

b) Should be returned to the sender duly enclosed in a service cover
c) Should be securely closed and forwarded to its destination in a service cover
d) Should be securely closed and forwarded to its destination. Ans:d(111)
201. If a customer booking speed article for Rs 50,000/‐ to 1,00,000/‐ in a

month then what is the rate of discount applicable for the speed booking ?
a) 5% b) 3%
c) 4% d) None of these Ans:a
202. What is the main criteria to consider a customer as Bulk customer in speednet ?
a) Anyone who provides Rs.10,000 worth of Speed Post business in a month

b) Anyone who provides Rs 5000 worth of Speed post business in a month
c) Anyone who provides 5000 article in a month
d) None of these Ans:a
203. Who is the designated authority to enter into agreement on behalf of the
Department for providing BNPL facility for Speed Post service at Head Post Office ?
a) Head of the Circle b) Divisional head

c) DG Post d) None of these Ans:b
The Indian Post Office Act, 1898 (6 of 1898) ,THE GOVERNMENT SAVING BANK ACT, 1873
& THE GOVERNMENT SAVING CERTIFICATES ACT 1959
1. In 1866 the Post Office Act was enacted in
a) 1st Jun 1988 b) 2nd Jul 1878

c) 1st Jul 1898 d) None of these Ans: c
a) The expression “postage” means the duty chargeable for the transmission by post
of postal articles
b) The expression “postage stamps” means any stamp provided by the [Central
Government] for denoting postage or other fees or sums payable in respect of
postal articles under this Act
c) The expression “post office” includes every house, building, room, carriage or
place used for the purposes of the Post Office.
3. Meanings of “in course of transmission by post” and “delivery”for the purposes of

this Act
a) A postal article shall be deemed to be in course of transmission by the post from

the time of its being delivered to a post office to the time of its being delivered to
the addressee or of its being returned to the sender or otherwise disposed.
b) The delivery of a postal article of any description to a postman or other person
authorized to receive postal articles of that description for the post shall be
deemed to be a delivery to a post office
c) The delivery of a postal article at the house or office of the addressee, or to the
addressee or his servant or agent or other person considered to be authorized to
receive the article
a) Common carriers of passengers or goods, and their servants or agents, except as

regards letters solely concerning goods in their carts or carriages are forbidden to
convey letter.
b) Owners and masters of vessels sailing or passing on any river or canal in [India],
or between any ports or places in [India] and their servants or agents are
forbidden to convey of letter
c) Exemption from liability for loss, misdelivery, delay or damage.-The [Government]
shall not incur any liability by reason of the loss, misdelivery or delay of, or
damage to, any postal article in course of transmission by post
d) No officer of the Post Office shall incur any liability by reason of any such loss,
misdelivery, delay or damage, unless he has caused the same fraudulently or by
his willful act or default
e) All the above Ans: e (5-6)
5. The Central Government may fix the inland rate published in
a) DG orders b) By letter
c) Gazette notification d) None of the above Ans: c(7)
6. For the purpose of such registration, every publication, consisting wholly or in

great part of political or other news, or of articles relating thereto or to other current
topics, with or without advertisements, shall be deemed a newspaper, subject to the
following conditions, namely
a) That it is published in numbers at intervals of not more than thirty one days;
b) That it has a bona fide list of subscribers
c) All of the above d) None of these Ans: c(9)
a) If any postal article on which postage or any other sum chargeable is refused or
returned as aforesaid, or if the addressee is dead or cannot be found, then the
sender shall be bound to pay the postage or sum due thereon
b) If any person refuses to pay any postage or other sum due to be recovered from
the person as imposed a fine under this Act.
c) The official mark of the Post Office denoting that the article has been refused, or
that the addressee is dead or cannot be found, shall be prima facie evidence of the
fact so denoted
d) The official mark on a postal article denoting that any postage or other sum is due
in respect thereof
8. Transmission by post of anything injurious post of tickets, proposals, etc., relating

to unauthorized lotteries prohibited is explained in
a) Section 18 b) Section 19,19A

c) Section 20 d) None of these Ans: b
9. Where the dispatch or delivery from a post office of letters would be delayed by the
dispatch or delivery there from at the same time of book, pattern or sample packets and
parcels explained in
a) Section 18 b) Section 22
c) Section 20 d) None of these Ans: b
10. Prohibition of transmission by post of certain newspapers & Power to detain

newspapers explained in
c) Section 27 A,B,C d) None of these Ans: c
11. Liability in respect of postal articles insured hall be liable to pay compensation, not
exceeding the amount for which a postal article has been insured, to the sender thereof
for the loss of the postal article or its contents, or for any damage caused to it in course of
transmission by post explained in
c) Section 20 d) None of these Ans:b
12. Transmission by post of value-payable postal articles explained in
c) Section 20 d) None of these Ans:a
13. Final disposal of undelivered postal articles
a) Letters and postcards shall be destroyed

b) Money or saleable property, not being of a perishable nature, found in any
undelivered postal article, shall be detained for a period of one year in the office of
the Post Master General
c) On the expiration of that period no person has established his right thereto, shall,
if money, be credited to the Post Office
d) If saleable property, be sold, the sale-proceeds being credited to the Post Office.
14. The rules related to MO in IPO act explained in section
a) 43 to 48 b) 38 to 42
c) 49 to 53 c) None of these Ans: a
15. Penalty for misconduct of person employed to carry or deliver mail bags or postal
articles.-Whoever, being employed to carry or deliver any mail bag or any postal article in
course of transmission by post
a) Punishable with fine which may extend to hundred rupees and 1 month
imprisonment
b) Punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees
c) Punishable with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees
d) None of these Ans: b(49)
16. Whoever, being employed to carry or deliver any mail bag or any postal article in
course of transmission by post, voluntarily withdraws from the duties of his office
without permission or without having given one month's previous notice in writing
a) Punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees
b) Punishable with imprisonment which may extend to one month, or with fine
which may extend to hundred rupees, or with both.
c) Punishable with imprisonment which may extend to one month, or with fine
which may extend to fifty rupees, or with both.
d) None of the above Ans: c(50)
17. Whoever, being employed to carry or deliver any postal article made any false
entry in the register with intent to induce the belief that he has visited a place, or
delivered a postal article, which he has not visited or delivered
a) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with
fine which may extend to one hundred rupees, or with both.
b) Punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees or with fine which may
extend to one hundred rupees, or with both.
18. Whoever, being an officer of the post office, commits theft in respect of or
dishonestly misappropriates, or for any purpose whatsoever, secretes, destroys or
throws away, any postal article in course of transmission by post or anything contained
therein, shall be punishable
b) Punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees or with fine which may
extend to one hundred rupees, or with both.
c) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years, and
shall also be punishable with fine
19. Whoever, being an officer of the Post Office, contrary to this duty, opens, or causes
or suffers to be opened, any postal article in course of transmission by post, or willfully
details or delays
b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine or both..
20. Whoever, being an officer of the PO fraudulently puts any wrong official mark on a
postal article or fraudulently alters, removes or causes to disappear an official mark
which is on a postal article
b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine or both..
c) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and
21. Penalty for fraudulently preparing, altering, secreting or destroying Post Office
documents
imprisonment
b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and
d) None of these Ans:b(55)
22. Whoever being appointed to selling postage stamp and sold excess rate
a) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 6 months/with

fine which may extend to two hundred rupees, or with both; or
b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and
23. Whoever places in or against any letter box provided by the post office for the
reception of postal articles any fire, match or light, any explosive, dangerous, filthy,
noxious or deleterious substance
imprisonment
b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with
fine or with both.
24. Whoever, without due authority, affixes any placard, advertisement, notice, list,
document, board or other thing in or on, or paints, tars or in any way disfigures any post
office
a) Shall be punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees.

b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with
fine or with both.
25. Whoever, being required by this Act to make a declaration in respect of any postal
article to be sent by post or the contents or value thereof, makes in his declaration any
statement which he knows, or has reason to believe, to be false, or does not believe to be
true

b) Punishable with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees, and, if the false
declaration is made for the purpose of defrauding the Government, with fine
which may extend to five hundred rupees.
26. Penalty for detention of letters on board vessel arriving in port

b) Punishable with fine which may extend to fifty rupees for every such postal article
as aforesaid
27. Penalty for detaining mails or opening mail bag

b) Shall be punishable with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees :
28. Whoever fraudulently retains or willfully secretes or makes away with, or keeps or
detains, or when required by an officer of the post office, neglects or refuses to deliver up
a) Punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and
b) Shall be punishable with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees :
29. The Saving bank act 1873 does not apply to
a) 5 Year RD accounts b) TD accounts

c) Account opened through agents d) Sanchaya ka accounts Ans: d(2)
30. Payment on death of depositor
a) The deposit shall be paid to nominee

b) In case nominee is the minor the deposit shall paid to person appointed to receive
c) Where no such person is authorized, to the guardian of the minor for the use of
minor.
d) Where the deposit is payable to two or more nominees and either or any of them
is dead, the deposit shall be paid to the surviving nominees or nominees.
e) All the above Ans:e(4a)
31. Where the amount of the deposit belonging to the estate of a deceased depositor
does not exceed_________ such amount shall be excluded in computing the fee chargeable,
a) Twenty five thousand b) Fifty thousand

c) Three thousand d) Five thousand Ans: c(8)
32. Payment of deposits to minor or guarding explained in section

a) 10 b) 12
c) 11 d) 9 Ans: a
33. Government saving certificates act enacted in
a) 18th Sep 1959 b) 27th Sep 1959

c) 12 Jun 1959 d) 15 Jun 1959 Ans:a
34. Mark correct option relating to payment of certificate is held by or behalf of minor
a) To him personally, if he himself applied for the savings certificate,

b) For the use of the minor to any person, being a parent of minor or guardian of his
property, as may be specified in that behalf in the form of application
c) If no such person has been specified, to any guardian of the property of the minor
appointed by a competent court, or where no such guardian has been so appointed
to either parent of the minor, or where neither parent is alive, to any other
guardian of the minor
35. If a person dies and is at time of death the holder of a saving certificate and there is
no nomination in force _____should be produced within 3 month for payment
a) Death and probate of his will
b) Letter of administration of his estate
c) A succession certificate granted under the Indian succession act 1925,
d) Any one of the above
e) None of these Ans: d
36. The central government may published the rule by
a) Internet b) DG Orders
c) Notification in the official gazette d) Circular Ans:c
37. Whoever, being required by IPO Act 1898 to make a declaration in respect of any
postal article to be sent by post or the content or value thereof, make in his declaration
any statement which he knows, or has reason to believe, to be false, or does not believe to
be true, shall be punishable under Section 64 of the said act:
(A) With fine which may extend to two hundred rupees

(B) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months
(C) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which
may extend to one hundred rupees
(D) None of the above option is correct Ans:A
38. In proceedings under IPO Act 1898 for recovery of any postage or other sum
alleged to be due in respect of a postal article:
(A) The presence of an officer of the Post office concerned shall be prima facie
evidence under the said Act
(B) The presence of an official of the Post Office concerned shall be prima facie
evidence under the said Act
(C) The production of the postal article, having thereon the official mark of the post
office denoting that the article has been refused or that the addressee is dead or
cannot be found, shall be prima facie evidence under the said Act
(D) The statement under (A) & (B) above is correct Ans:c
39. Any postal article sent by post in contravention of the provision of Section 19 or 19-A
of Indian Post Office Act 1898 may be opened and destroyed if necessary under the
authority of –
(A) The officer incharge of the Post office

(B) The Divisional Superintendent
(C) The Postmaster General
(D) None of the authorities mentioned in (A) (B) or (C) above Ans:C
40. Any postal article suspected to contain any goods of which the transmission by post is
prohibited by or under any enactment for the time being in force is received for delivery
at a post office:
(A) That post office will deliver the article to the addressee without any interference
(B) The officer incharge of the post office will issue notice to the addressee inviting
him to attend post office and shall in his presence open and examine the postal
articles
(C) The officer incharge of the post office will open and examine the postal article in
presence of the postal staff
(D) The officer incharge shall send the postal article to RLO for disposal Ans:B
POST OFFICE GUIDE PART I

(RULE &REGULATION RELATING TO INLAND POST)
1. Night Post Office may extend up to and by
a) 0830 pm ,DG posts b) 0700pm,HOC

c) 1000pm, PMG d) 0600pm,SSP Ans: a
2. Franking machine has
a) Value die b) License die

c) Both a&b c) None of this Ans :c
3. Franking article can be posted by

a) Any post office b) Only two post office
c) Head office d) All sub offices Ans :b
4. Franking machine license is issued by
a) Head of the cirlcle b) Head of the division

c) DG posts d) Any of these Ans :b
5. Window delivery ticket is a
a) Daily docket b) The receipt given by po

c) ID of Franking machine licensee’s representative d) None of these Ans :c
6. Rebate available at the time of reset of meter is
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) none of these Ans :b
7. Error on franking impression the refund will be claimed by firm/institute

within_____ and ___ of less deduction.
a) two month, 2% b) three month, 4%
c) one month, 5% d) six month, 1% Ans: c
8. Franking meter reset will be made by
a) PA b) Postman
c) LSG postmaster d) PRI and above status Ans : d
9. More than one impression of value die but not more than 1 licensee die allowed.
a) Correct b) Incorrect Ans :a
10 Prepayment of postage on cash facility is authorized by and how much letter may
be posted to have these facility.
a) HOC, UR-500 big city and 250 small city, Reg -50
b) DG post, UR-1000 big city and 500 small city, Reg -100
c) Head of the division UR-5000 big city and 1000 small city, Reg -500
d) None of these Ans :a
11. Recall of postal article fee for each article is
a) 9/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) Free of cost Ans :b
(in shape of postage)
12 Window delivery will be made in case of insured article vale is more than
a) 500 b) 100
c) 200 d) No limit Ans :a
13. Limit of detain article in post office which are received for delivery inland &
foreign article
a) 15 days and 30 days b) 7 and 15 days

c) 30 days and 45 days d) None of these Ans :b
14. Fee for availing post box facility is
a) 150 per year and 50 per quarterly, b) 250 per year / 100 quarterly
c) 100 per year / 50 quarterly d) None of these Ans :a
15. Fee for availing facility of box and post bag is combine is
a) 150 per year and 50 per quarterly, b) 250 per year / 80 quarterly
c) 100 per year / 50 quarterly d) None of these Ans :b
16. Cost of window delivery ticket is
a) 9/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) Free of cost Ans :d
17. Cost of Identity card is
a) 9/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) Free of cost Ans :a
18. Validity period of ID card is
a) 1 Year b) 2 Year
c) Six month d) 3 year Ans: d
19. Postal Restante article can be detained in post office
a) 7 days b) 1 month
c) 15 days d) Cann not be detain Ans :b
20. Redirection fee of parcels within delivery area /original address and sender in
case of unclaimed parcel is
a) 9/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) free of cost Ans: d
21. Redirection fee of parcels except delivery area /original address is
a) Postage plus registration fee b) Full postage

c) Half the prepaid rate d) Free of cost Ans: d
22. Suggestion & complaint book are maintained by
a) HO b) BO
c) Circle office d) All post office Ans: d
23. Size limit of ID card is
a) 88mmX 63mm a) 100mmX 70mm

c) 11mmX 22mm d) None of these Ans: a
24. Instruction regarding change of residence is valid for
a) 1 month b) 1 year
c) 3 month d) 5 year Ans: c
25. Authority to whom complaint should be addressed
a) Local Supdt.and PM in case first class PO. b) HOC

c) DG Posts d) PMG Ans: a
26. Circle complaint officer is

a) Vigilance officer b) CPMG
c) PMg d) Head of division Ans: a
(Vigilance officer has attachéd to the HQ of each circle)
27. Period within complaints should be prepared in case of VP, loss /damage of regd&
ins article, other complaint related to inland post, miscarriage /destruction of postal
order & SP is
a) 12 month, 3 month, 6 month, 12 month, 1 month

b) 24 month, 6 month, 9 month, 1 month, 2 month
c) 36 month, 1 month, 6 month, 9 month, 2 month
d) 6 month, 3 month3 month, 9 month, 1 month Ans: a
28. legal responsibility of post office is exempted from
a) Any fault by induvidual

b) Loss, mis delivery or delay of , or damage to, any postal article in course of
transmission by post
c) wrong payment or delay in payment by foreign postal administration of money
order issued in India.
d) All the above Ans : d
29. Article addressed to deceased person
a) Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied
for them in case uninsured article.
b) Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied
for them in case do not appear to contain any valuable property
c) Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied
for them in case no counter –claimant or likelihood of dispute.
d) All the above Ans; d
30. Size limit of letter and roll is
a) Min11X7cm & max 60X90cm, min 10X17cm & max 88X100cm

b) Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
c) Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d) None of these Ans : a
31. Size limit of Inland letter card folded and unfolded is
a) Min15.2X9cm & max 21X10cm, min 28.2X18.2cm max 30X21cm

b) Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
d) None of these Ans : a
32. Post card of private manufacture size limit is
a) Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm

b) Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm min 10X7 cm
d) None of these Ans: b
33. Recorded delivery fee and intimation fee is
a) 3, 4 b) 5,6
c) 2,1 d) None of these Ans: c
34. Complaint can be made in case of recorded delivery is within
a) One month b) Six month

b) Two month d) Cannot be made Ans: b
35. Fee for availing business reply service
a) Apr to Jun -100, Jul to Sep-75, Oct to Dec-50, Jan to Mar -25
b) Apr to Jun -200, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-100, Jan to Mar -50
c) Apr to Jun -250, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-75, Jan to Mar -50
d) Free of cost Ans: b
36. Book packet may contain
a) News papers, publications of all kinds,

b) Printed books, paper, parchment
c) Cardboard either blank or printed
37. Size limit of book packet roll and other than roll is
a) Min 10X17 cm & max 80X100, 10X7 cm & 60X30X30 cm

b) Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm min 10X7 cm
d) None of these Ans: a
38. The weight limit of book packet is
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
c) 20 kg d) 5 kg Ans; d
39. The weight limit of book packet containing periodicals is
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
39. The weight limit of book pattern and sample packets is
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
c) 20 kg d) 5 kg Ans; b
40. The weight limit blind literature packet is
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
41. The following charge are exempted to blind literature packet
a) Registration b) Fee for ackn

c) Fee for the attested copy of receipt d) All the above Ans :d
42. License for Registered newspaper is issued by
a) DG Posts b) Head of the circle

c) SSP/SP d) PMG Ans: c
43. Security fee for availing registered newspaper facility is daily newspaper- 1 month
cost, weekly- 10 week cost, fortnightly- 21/2 moth cost, monthly- 2 month cost.
a) Above statement is true b) Above statement is false Ans: a
44. Late fee for renewal of regd news paper is
. a) 5/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) Free of cost Ans :a
45. Renewal charge of reg news paper is
a) 5/- b) 6/-
c) 3/- d) Free of cost Ans :d
46. Parcel can be sent by UR up to
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
c) 20 kg d) 5 kg Ans :a
47. Parcel can be booked at BO is
a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
c) 20 kg d) 10 kg Ans:d
48 Parcel can be booked at SO is
. a) 4 Kg b) 2 Kg
c) 20 kg d) 10 kg Ans:c
49. Max size limit of parcel is
a) Length 1 mtr and length and girth is 1.80mtr

a) None of these Ans:a
50. No compensation will be payable in case

a) For loss or damage caused by the fault or negligence of the sender
b) Article is prohibited by transmission by post
c) For damage in case in which the contents of the registered article are liquid or
perishable articles or articles of and exceptionally fragile nature.
d) All the above Ans d
51. In which cases registration is compulsory
a) Any parcel exceed 4 kg b) Any insured artidle

c) Any VP article d) All the above Ans:d
52. Insured article limit in case currency note and any value of article
a) 1,00,000 & 10,000 b) 20,000 & 1,00,000

c) 10,000 & 50,000 d) None of these Ans: b
53. The following articles can be transmitted by air without any additional charge
a) Parcel b) All first class mail and money order

c) Book packet d) All the above Ans: b
54. Limit to branch office for booking of insured article is
a) 1,00,000 b) 20,000
c) 600 d) No limit Ans: c
55. The following cases insurance is compulsory when article contain
a) Coin b) Currency
c) Jewellary d) All the above Ans : d
56. The prepayment of all charges on insured articles namely postage, registration and
insurance fee is compulsory
Above statement is
a) True b) False Ans a
57. VP article can be booked up to
a) 2000 b) 5000
c) 20000 d) No limit Ans:b
58. Demurrage charge on VP article is recovered from addressee after
a) 3 days b) 7 days
c) 30 days d) None of these Ans: b
59. Demurrage charge on letter and parcel is Rs
a) 2,3 b) 6,9
c) 1,2 d) No demurrage Ans a
60. Enquiry/complaint of VP article fee is
a) 5 b) 3
c) 1 d) Free of cost Ans c
(in shape of stamp)
61. Alteration of Post office of money order fee is
a) 5 b) 3
c) 1 d) Free of cost Ans d
62. Alteration of payee name of money order fee is
a) Second commission b) 10
c) 1 d) Free of charge Ans a
63. Money order neither paid to payee nor remitter called as
a) Dead money order b) Void money order

c) Cancelled money order d) None of these Ans : b
64. Money order became void after
a) One month b) Two month

c) One year d) Last date of following month Ans : d
65. Currency period of IPO
a) One year b) Two year

c) Six month d) Three year Ans : b
66. IPO can be paid on second commission up to
a) One year b) Two year

c) Six month d) Three year Ans : d
67. Book packets containing printed book only rate for 100gm is
a) 5 b) 3
c) 1 d) 4 Ans c
68. Book packet containing periodicals registered rate is
Up to 20/- Rs21 to Rs50 Above Rs50

Up to 100gm 2 4 8
Addl 100gm 3 5 9
69. Registered newspaper single copy (max 5 kg) rate is

a) Up to 50 gm- 0.25 b) Exceeding 50 gm to 100gm-0.50
c) Addl 100gm- 0.20 d) All the above are correct Ans :d
70. Registered news paper more than one copy of same issue rate is
a) Up to 100gm- 0.50 b) Addl 100gm is -0.20

c) Correct d) None of the Ans: c
71. Attested copy of addressee’s receipt charge is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) Free of charge Ans :b
72. Parcel (Max 4 Kg) rate is
a) First 500 gm -19 b) Addl 500 gm- 16

c) Home delivery fee above 5 kg- Rs 5 d) All are correct Ans:d
73. Insurance fee is
a) Value of ins does not exceed Rs 200/ is - 100

b) Addl Rs 100 is - 6/-
c) All the above are correct
d) None of these correct Ans : c
74. Value payable article VP fee is
a) Up to 20/- Rs 2/- b) Exceeding 20/- to 50/- Rs 3/-

c) Exceeding 50/- Rs 5/- d) All the above correct Ans d
75. Late fee for each article registered and un registered is
a) 3,4 b) 3,2
c) 1,2 d) 4,5 Ans : b
76. Fee for Identity card is
a) 6 b) 3
c) 9 d) 10 Ans : c
77. Air mail fee packets (other than Letters, Postcards and Parcels) is
a) First 50gm or fraction thereof 2/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 1/-
b) First 50gm or fraction thereof 1/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 2/-
c) First 50gm or fraction thereof 0.50/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 1/-
d) Firrst 50gm or fraction thereof 2/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 3/- Ans: a
78. Air mail fee for parcel is

a) First 50gm 2/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 1/-
b) First 50gm or fraction thereof 1/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 2/-
c) First 50gm or fraction thereof 0.50/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 1/-
d) First 50gm or fraction thereof 2/-, addl 50gm or faction thereof 3/- Ans: a
79. One India one rate speed post charge for 50gm is
a) 17 b) 12
c) 22 d) 25 Ans : d
80. Post offices which function from a specially designed van moving to different fixed
point is
a) Mobile post office b) Van post office

c) Mobile branch post office d) Det post office Ans : a
81. Post offices in charge of ED agents are kept open for a max period of
a) 4 hr b) 2 hr
c) 3 hr d) 5 hr Ans :d
82. A postal franking machine is a stamping machine intended to stamp impressions of

dies of approved design on private and official postal articles in payment of
a) Postage and postal fee b) Handling charges

c) Franking charges d) Special fee Ans :a
83. The licensee is also entitled a commission on the value of frank used
a) 6% b) 3%
c) 9% d) 5% Ans : b
84. A parcel weighing above 10KGs in weight will be delivered only at the
a) Through postman b) Trough mail van

c) Post office window d) None of these Ans : c
85. Articles the addresses of which are so illegible or incomplete as to render delivery
impossible are called
a) Insufficient address article b) Undeliverable articles

c) Refused article d) Undelivered articles Ans: b
86. Articles refused by addresses are called
a) Insufficient address article b) Undeliverable articles

c) Refused article d) Undelivered articles Ans: d
87. The SP/First class PM may grant compensation to the sender of a regd article up to
a) 500 b) 200
c) 1000 d) 100 Ans : d
88. Machine franked articles can be posted in letter boxes above statement is
a) True b) False
c) Cannot say d) None of these Ans : b
89. Identity card are issued by
a) Circle office b) Head office

c) Branch office d) All HOs and SOs Ans: d
90. Duplicate Identity card fee is
a) Same fresh fee b) Half rate of the fee

c) Free of cost d) None of these Ans :a
91. The franked articles will be tendered at the counter secured in separate bundles
and identification of the licensee’s representative must accompanied
a) Ration card b) Aadhar card

c) Window delivery ticket d) Id card Ans: c
92. with the last dispatch of the day_____ in the prescribed form should also be tendered
at the office of posting, duly filled up, signed and dated
a) Authority letter b) Daily docket

c) Weekly docket d) None of these Ans : b
93. Handling charges of envelope for business reply card in addition to postage per
article is
a) 2/- b) 3/-
c) 1/- d) Free of charge Ans: c
94. Bulk bags should be so closed as to enable the post office inspect the contents each
bag should weigh not less than ____ and not more than_______
a) 10Kg & 30 Kg b) 20 Kg & 30 Kg

c) 5 Kg & 30 Kg d) 5 Kg & 20 Kg Ans c
95. Window delivery ticket is
a) Daily docket
b) The receipt given to post box holder
c) Identification of franking machine licensee’s representative
d) None of these Ans: c
96. Any postal article can be redirected

a) By the office of posting b) By the office of destination
c) By any intermediate office d) None of these Ans: b(68)
97. Registered newspaper are accepted without payment of late fee on all days
including Sundays and Post Office holiday at
a) Press sorting office b) RMS offices

c) Night Post office d) All the above Ans:d(C-7)
98. Articles addressed to the deceased persons
a) Shall be returned to RLO b) Shall be deld to he addressee

c) At the discretion of the PM d) Shall be returned to the sender Ans:c(10)
99. Franked article should be
a) Handed over to Sorting PA b) Handed over to Registration PA

c) Handed over to Treasurer d) Presented at the counter Ans:d(11)
100 A book packet posted in excess of prescribed size and weight
a) Should be returned to the sender

b) Should be delivered to the address
c) Should be forwarded to the office of delivery after taxing
d) Should be forwarded to the foffice of delivery without taxing Ans: a(127)
101 Franking impression should be a
a) Green colour b) Blue colour

c) Red colour d) Block colour Ans:c(11)
102. An article written with remarks “by regd post” found in the letter box
a) To be returned to the sender

b) To be forwarded to the addressee by ordinary post
c) Handed over to the treasurer
d) Handed over to the registration PA Ans:a(171)
103. A registered article addressed to a deceased person shall be treated as
a) Refused b) Unclaimed
c) Addressee absent d) None of these Ans: b(89)
104. A green coloured inland letter received for delivery without postage but bears the
date stamp of an Army Post Office
a) Article should be taxed b) Need not be taxed

c) Returned to office of posting d) None of these Ans: b(54)
(Prepared by AB Kantharaja Kodagu Dn, Karnataka, presently serving in APS
(abkantharaja.blogspot.com) mobile No 08969822340)
105. Insurance is compulsory, if the article contains
a) Gold coins or bullion, currency notes & any other valuable articles
b) VP articles below the value of Rs 600/-
c) Containing lorry receipts
d) All parcels exceeding 4 KG in weight Ans: a(184)
106. If franked article is found in letter box
a) This should not be transmitted and returned to the sender

b) It is to be treated as unpaid article and send to its destination in normal
manner.
c) Taxed double value d) None of these Ans: b(11)
107. A postal article can be redirected only by
a) Any RMS office through which it passes

b) Any PO through which it passes
c) The office to which it is addressed
d) All the above Ans: c(68)
108. All articles super scribed to “ to be kept called for “ “ to be await arrival” is
classified as
a) Deposit articles b) Insufficient addresses

c) Postal Restante d) Unpaid articles Ans: c(64)
109. Registered newspaper is published at an interval of
a) Not more than 15 days b) Not more than a week

c) Not more than a year d) Not more than 31 days Ans:d(139)
110. Articles can be delivered through post box/post bags
a) Fully prepaid unregistered articles b) Insufficiently unregd articles

c) Taxed articles d) None of these Ans: a(55)
111. Business reply post cards are posted under the order of
a) PMG b) Head of the circle

c) Head of the division d) Post Master HSG Ans:c(117)
112. First class mails are
a) Letters, Book packets and letter card

b) Letters, Letter cards, and regd news paper
c) Letters, postcards and letter cards
d) Letters, Blind literature packets and letter cards Ans: c(98)
113. Minimum amount to be taxed on unpaid /insufficiently paid article is

a) 1/- b) 2/-
c) 3/- d) none of these Ans: a(101)
114. The cost of single MO forms is

c) 0.75 paise d) free of cost Ans: b(215)
115. The ex- officio chairman of the postal services board is
a) Secretary b) Member of PLI

c) Minister of Commn and IT d) Member of personnel Ans:a(1)
116. The fee payable for acknowledgement card in respect of insured article is
a) 3/- b) 1/-
c) 5/- d) Free Ans:d(181)
-17-
117. The fee payable for acknowledgement card in respect of insured article is
a) 3/- b) 1/-
c) 5/- d) Free Ans:a
118. MO addressed to postbox no
a) Cannot be booked b) Can be booked only in HO

c) Can be booked only in SO d) None of these Ans: a(55)
119. Demurrage fee to be collected from the addressee for detaining of VP parcel for 5
days beyond the prescribed period is
a) 10/- b) 15/-
c) 25/- d) Free of cost Ans:b(194)
120 Personal communication is not allowed in
a) Letter b) Book packet containing periodicals

c) ILC d) Parcel Ans:b( 129)
121. UR articles addressed to C/o PM can be kept in deposit for a maximum period of
a) 7 days b) 30 day
c) 15 day d) None of these Ans: b(65)
122. Registered articles addressed to a pardanashin woman should be delivered
a) Only to pardanashin woman b) To any family member

c) To the witness who identifies the signature of the pardanashin woman and is
known to the postman d) None of these Ans:c(39)
123. A postcard of private manufacture of more than prescribed size and thickness was
found in delivery office. The article
a) Taxed with double the amount b) Return to office of posting

c) Was treated as letter and difference between min postage payable on a letter and
postage already paid was charged d) None of these Ans:c
124. Charges for a book packet containing blind literature packet weighing 200gms.
a) Free of cost b) Same rate as applicable for book post

c) Same rate as applicable as letter d) None of these Ans:a(136)
125. The dept of post under administrative control of
a)President of India b) Min of communication

c) CPMG d) DG Post Ans: d(1)
126. Post office are divided into
a)5 classes b) 4 classes

c) 3 classes d) There is no classification Ans: c(2)
127. Regd Newspaper and packet of regd newspaper are accepted on Sundays and PO
holidays
a)At the concessional rate of postage without late fee

b) At normal postage rates applicable for book post
c) At concessional rates with late fee
d) None of these Ans:a(7)
128. Payment of postage through franking machin impression can be made
a)Up to any amount b) Up to 50/-

c) Up to 100/- d) Up to 500/- Ans:a(11)
129. Money order payable to a person who is not permanent resident within the
jurisdiction of office of payment
a) Will not be paid

b) Payment will be made only through cheques
c) Payment will be made only by the postmaster
d) Can be paid in the normal course on satisfactory proof of identity of the person in
the MO Ans: d(47)
130. A renter of postbox can receive

a) All fully prepaid unregistered mails addressed to the renter of the postbox
b) Article addressed to casual visitors and commercial representatives
c) Articles addressed to family member and guest of the renter
d) All of above Ans: d(55
131. Which one of the following is admissible?
a) The renter is not entitled to claim refund of the rent paid by him for allotment of
Post box.
b) The renter is not entitled for adjustment of rent paid in r/o a PB against the rent
of deposit due in r/o other PB
c) Claim can be admitted for refund of rent for a PB if the claim reaches the PM
before allotment d) None of these AnsL c(55)
132. If a renter of a PB does not clear the letter for a week
a) All the letter s received for delivery through the PB will be returned to sender
b) A report will be sent to SP
c) The article will be dispatched to RLO
d) A notice will be issued to renter and articles if not collected even after the
notice will be delivered through the postman. Ans: d (55)
133. A person residing within the ordinary beat of postman where PB system is in force
a) Can have his letter delivered through the normal channel only
b) Can have his letter and other articles delivered regularly at the window of PO
free of charge
c) Can have his letter and other articles delivered at the window of the PO on
payment of regular fee
134. Postal articles in transparent covers and in open panel envelopes if not confirm to
the conditions should be
a) Taxed and sent to office of delivery b) Sent to RLO

c) Returned to Sender d) None of these Ans:c(104)
135. A postcard can not have attachment of
a) Gummed label bearing name & address of the addressee, a gummed label bearing
name and addressed of the sender
b) Of an addl paper/card attched
c) Drawing /photograph on thin paper adherent to the card
d) Another post card intended for a reply card Ans:b(111)
136. On business reply postal mails, the charge to be collected are
a) The actual postage due on the article b) Handling charge

c) The usual postage charge plus handling charge d) None of these Ans c(116)
137. A book packet may not contain

a) Books & complimentary cards b) Printed notices& circulars
c) Written communications d) None of these Ans: c(120)
138. Book packet containing greeting and invitations are given
a) Transmission as applicable to second class mails

b) Transmission as applicable to first class mails
c) Surface transmission only with first class mails
139. Blind literature packet are not exempted from payment of
A) Postage B) Registration Fee

C) Airmail Charges D) Fee For Ackn Ans: c(137)
140. IPOs are available in
a) 10 denominations b) 6 denominations
c) 15 denominations d) 8 denominations Ans: b(244)
141. For breach of condition, book packet containing periodicals will be treated
a) As letter and double the deficiency is charged

b) As parcel and double the deficiency is charged
c) As letter/parcel whichever is less and difference in postage charged
d) Will not be transmitted, but returned to sender Ans:c(129)
142. A post card is treated as violating the conditions for posting
a) If any communication is on the address portion

b) If the Postcard is cut/altered/folded
c) Any attachment other than stamps for payment of postage, label containing
name & address of the sender is attached
143. If a book packet infringe the condition of size and weight
a) It will be treated as letter mail and double the deficiency charged

b) It will be treated as parcel and double the deficiency charged.
c) It will treated as letter/PL mail and double the deficiency charged whichever is
less
d) Shall be returned to sender after canceling the stamps Ans:d(127)
144. An article is not eligible for concessional rates of Postal tariff under printed books
if it contain
a) Any book packet containing printed books without advertisement

b) Any printed publication published at regular interval
c) Books bearing character & inscription reproduced by mean of printing.
d) Books containing wholly or substantially reading matter Ans: b(128)
145. The instances in which name & address of sender to be given on outside cover of
postal article.
a) Insured articles b) VP article

c) A foreign regd letter with AD d) All the above Ans: d(178)
146. Money order will be paid to
a. Parents of the payee, if the payee not present at the address.

b. Any person or family member residing at the address, if payee not present
c. Payee of the MO at the address
d. Wife/husband of the payee Ans: c(147)
148. Commission payable for Postal Orders of Rs 100/- den is
a) 3/- b) 5/- c) 10/- d) 2/- Ans: c(244)
149. The following persons are eligible for PLI
a) Officials of Private Educational institutions

b) Any persons residing in india
c) Officials of state and Central Govt/Govt organizations
d) Retired govt. Employees Ans: c(261)
150. Persons changing their address should furnish written instructions regarding the
disposal of postal articles received to their address
a) To the post office at the place which they are leaving

b) To the post office the place to which they are going
c) To the post offices both at the place which they are leaving and at the place to
which they are going
d) To the post man at the place which they are leaving Ans:c(72)
151. Which types of the articles addressed to the renter of PB is not delivered through
PB
a) Article addressed to legitimate personnel of a firm renting a PB

b) Article addressed to casual visitors and commercial representatives staying
with renter
c) Articles addressed to family members and guest of the renter
d) Insufficiently paid unregistered letter. Ans: d(55)
152. Complaints relating to a VP article should be tendered
a) The Regonal PMG b) At the PO where the VP article was posted

c) Local SP d) None of these Ans: b(79)
153. A postal article reposted after having been opened or reposted is

a) An unclaimed article b) An article to be redirected
c) An article posted for the first time and charge with the postage accordingly
d) An article to be sent to its destination Ans:c
154. Time limit for complaints relating to compensation of insured article is

a) 3 month from DOP b) 6 month from DOP
c) 1 Year from DOP d) 2 Year from DOP Ans: a(81)
155. Articles the addresses of which are so illegible or incomplete as to render delivery
impossible bearing the senders address should be
a) Returned to office of booking b) Returned to the sender if fully

c) Destroyed at the office of delivery d) prepaid Sent to RLO Ans:b(71)
156. Void MO can be paid to the remitter or payee if application is made before expiry of
a) 6 Month from issue of original MO b) 12 Month from issue of original MO
c) Month from issue of original MO d) None of these Ans: b(223)
157. IPO are sold and paid directly at
a) HO only b) HO and SO
c) HO, SO and all BOs d) HO & selected SO Ans :b(240)
158. An insured letter insure for Rs 1000/- should be delivered through
a) Postman to the addressee only

b) Through special messenger
c) Postman to the person authorized by addressee
d) Post office window Ans: d(41)
159. The highest den of IPO is

a) 50 b) 5000
c) 10000 d) 100 Ans:d(238)
160. The charges for stopping payment of MO and for repaying to the remitter is
a) 10/- b) Same commission of MO

c) No charge d) 20/- Ans: c(228)
161. Service for sending parcels and large consignment across the nation and world
called is
a) Parcel post b) Media post
c) Logistic post d) Express post Ans: c
162. EMS means
a) Electronic mail service b) Express mail service

c) E Enabled mail service d) None of these Ans: b
163. MO Videsh is a new offering of India post to facilitate remittances to
a) Within India b) Foreign countries

c) Both a anb b d) None of these Ans : b
164. The e- IOD service would be offered initially with______
a) Business Post b) Logistic Post

c) Bill Mail Service d) None of these Ans: c
165. The bar code would contain
a) 13 character b) 11 character
c) 16 character d) 12 character Ans: a
166. Undelivered Acknowledgements cards are to be destroyed after:
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month

(c) 4 months (d) None of the above. Ans: - (c)
167. The amount of commission charged on a Service MO amounting to Rs. 1000/- is
(a) Rs. 25/- (b) Rs.50/-

(c) Rs. 100/- (d) NIL Ans: - (d)
168. A Family Allotment Money Order is remitted by the: -
(a) Defence authorities (b) Telecom authorities

(c) General members of public ( d) None of the above. Ans: - (a)
169. The Broken Amount of an Indian Postal Order can be made up by affixing: -
(a) 3 unused Postage stamps (b) 4 unused Postage stamps

(c) 5 unused Postage stamps d) Not permissible.
Ans: - (a) (Clause-245 PO Guide Part-I)
170. Limit of VP and ins article for delivery at addressee place is
a) 100, 500 b) 500,1000

c) 1000,5000 d) No limit Ans a
171. Max weigh of ILC is
a) 5 gm b) 3 gm
c) 2 gm d) No limit Ans a
172. Size limit of post card is
a) 14X9 b) 10X11
c) 11X9 d) 4X6 Ans: a
173. SAL means
a) Service Air Limited b) Surface Air lifted

c) Service Air lifted d) None of these Ans :b
174. Application fee for free Post is
a) 100/- b) 500/-
c) 1000/- d) 5000/- Ans : c non
refundable
175. Renewal fee of free post
a) 100/- b) 500/-
c) 200/- d) No charge Ans : c
176. Security deposit of free post is
a) 1000/- b) 5000/-
c) 10000/- d) No charge Ans: c(refundable)
177. Business post tariff is
Service Business Post rates (in

INR) effective 14.12.2009
Un-Regd Regd
Collection from premises 0.20 0.30
Franking 0.20 0.40
Addressing 0.30 0.30
Sealing 0.10 0.10
Inserting (per insertion) 0.10 0.20
Special handling charges 0.10 0.50
178. The minimum quantity of articles to be posted at a time is 5000. Rate of postage
will be INR 3.00 for a weight not exceeding 50 grams and INR 2.00 for additional 50 grams
or a fraction thereof.
Above statement is a) True b) False Ans: a
179. An amount of INR 0.50 (50 paise) per article shall be charged for e-IOD service. The
charge would be paid in the form of postage/frank etc. For example, for a Bill Mail Service
article requiring a postage of INR 3 for weight up to 50 grams, and INR 0.50 for eIoD
facility, the postage affixed/franked should be INR 3.50
180. e-IOD mean
a) Electronic intimation on delivery b) electronic intimation of dispatch

c) electronic indication on delivery d) none of these Ans: a
181. NBMS means
a) National business management system b) National bill mail service

c) Notional board of management system d) None of these Ans:b
182. Minimum number of articles to be submitted at a time for NBMS would be
a) 1000 b) 5000
c) 10000 d) None of these Ans: c
183. National bill mail service charges are
a) First 50 grams – INR 5/- Every additional 50 grams – INR 2/-

b) First 50 grams – INR 2/- Every additional 50 grams – INR 1/-
c) First 50 grams – INR 10/- Every additional 50 grams – INR 5/-
d) None of these are correct Ans: a
184. Express Parcel Post is an ideal service for sending the parcels upto
a) 35 Kg b) 30 Kg
c) 20 Kg d) No limit Ans a
185. In case of loss or damage of the parcel, compensation is paid upto a maximum in
EPP is
a) 100/- b) 500/-
c) 200/- d) 1000/- Ans:
b
186. Express Parcel Post is all about value for money. It costs just INR 25 within the city
for 2 kg parcels and INR 40 for towns within 500 km.
187. Distance slab in EPP is

a) 5 b) 6
c) 4 d) 3 Ans: a
Local, upto 500 km, 501- 1000 km, 1001 – 2000 km and above 2000 km.
188. Proof of delivery charges in EPP is
a) 5 b) 10
c) 20 d) No charge Ans: b
189. Tariff and distance slab of business parcel and retail parcel is
Rate structure for Business Parcel:
Category Rate upto For every For every
2kg additional additional KG
KG 3kg to 10 beyond 10 kg
INR kg
INR
INR
Local 25 3 2
Upto 500 km 40 5 4
501 – 1000 km 50 10 8
1001-2000 km 60 20 15
Above 2000 km 80 25 20
Plus services tax and education cess as applicable

Rate structure for Retail Parcel:
Distance Category Rate upto 2 Kg. For every additional KG
INR INR
Local 35 5
Upto 500 Kms 50 8
501-1000 Kms 60 12
1001-2000 Kms 70 25
Above 2000 Kms 90 35
190. Small and large size of greeting post rate is
a) 14/- per card incl of INR 5/- postage, 17/- per card inclusive of INR 5/- postage.
a) 12/- per card incl of INR 5/- postage, 16/- per card inclusive of INR 5/- postage
Ans: a
191. Small and large size of greeting post is
a) 10.5 cm x 16.5 cm & 12 cm x 18.5 cm

b) 11 cm x 16.5 cm & 14 cm x 18.5 cm
c) 8.55 cm x 12.5 cm & 10 cm x 16.5 cm
d) None of these Ans :a
192. FTL and LTL is
a) Full truck load & Less than truck load

b) Fast truck load & Local truck load
c) Full time load & Local time load
d) None of these Ans: a
193. Weight slab and docket fee of Logistic post is

a) 35 kg & 50/- b) 20 Kg & 20/-
c) 50 Kg & 100/- d) None of these Ans: c
194. What is the price per article for direct Post?
The price for the Direct Post articles is as follows:
Per Article for 1st 20 gms Per article (for every

Local Inter City additional 20 gms or
part thereof)
Price of 1 Direct INR 1.50 INR 2.00 INR 1.00
Post article For both local and
inter-city articles
Where Direct Post articles are tendered in quantities of over 50,000, a discount to the sender, or
commission to the concerned advertising agency, of 5% would be admissible
195. Min copies and max size to be accepted in direct post is
a) 5000 & A4 Size b) 1000 & A3 size

c) 500 & Postcard size d) None of these Ans: b
196. Indian post gold coin denomination is
a) 0.2 g, 2g, 5 g and 8 g of 24 carat (99.99% pure)

a) 1 g, 2g, 6 g and 10 g of 24 carat (99.99% pure)
a) 0.5 g, 1g, 5 g and 8 g of 24 carat (99.99% pure)
a) None of these Ans:c
197. PRS means
a) Postal rate system b) Passenger reservation system

c) Public relation service d) None of these Ans: b
198. The Flat Rate Parcel (Domestic) tariff will be as follows:
Flat Rate Parcel Boxes Dimension of boxes Weight Tariff

size (in mm) (in Kg) (in INR)
Small-S 250*50*300 0 to 1 125
Mdium-M 250*100*300 Above 1 to 2.5 200
Large-L 300*250*200 above 2.5 to 5 400
199. The Flat Rate Parcel boxes are available in
a) 2 types b) 3 types
c) 4 types d) 5 types Ans: b
( 1 Kg, 2.5 KG & 5 Kg)
200. Flat Rate parcel price 1Kg, 2 Kg & 5 Kg are
a) 125,200 & 400 b) 100,150 & 200

c) 50,100 &150 d) None of these Ans: a
201 International parcel box rate is
a) 1000,1500 & 2500 b) 2000,3000 & 5000

c) 750,1500&2500 d) None of these Ans: a
202. International register article compensation is

a) 30 SDR( 1 SDR is INR 65.8222) b) 20 SDR
c) 40 SDR d) 10 Ans:a
203. International parcel compensation is
a) 30 SDR( 1 SDR is INR 65.8222) b) 20 SDR

c) 40 SDR d) 10 Ans:c
204. The user ID & Pass word for each CCC office is being created by:
(A) PTC Vadodara (B) Postal Technology Research Centre,

(C) PTC Mysore (D) Mumbai Postal Directorate Ans: c
205. Unique .......... number is generated for booked e-MO to facilitate the tracking:
(A) MTCN (B) PNR

(C) TXN (D) Barcode Ans;B
206. The charges for special handling of Regd mails under Business post in Rs:
(A) 60 paise (B) 50 paise

(C) 20 paise (D) 40 paise Ans:b
207. If an article is refused it will be kept in post office for ............:
(A) 7 days (B) Return to sender immediately

(C) 30 days (D) 3 months Ans: b
208. Book packet containing printed books can contain:
(A) Weekly magazine only (B) Monthly magazine only

(C) Daily newspaper only (D) None of these Ans: d
209. The greeting cards of India post are available at:
(A) Every Head Post offices (B) Every HSG-1 Post Offices
(C) All major post offices (D) All post offices Ans: c
210. E-IOD (e-Intimation of Delivery) service is available for customers of:
(A) Speed Post Service

(B) Bulk customers registering themselves for the service
(C) Express Parcel Post Retail
(D) Speed Post Service wanting ‘Addressee Specific’ delivery Ans: b
(A) The weight of privately manufactured letter card should not exceed 3 gram
(B) The weight of letter should not exceed 4 kg
(C) The weight of registered parcel should not exceed 35 kg
(D) The weight of book packet should not exceed 2 kg Ans: a
212. Mark the correct option.
The Indian Post Office is exempted by law from all responsibility in the case of:
(A) Loss, misdelivery or delay of registered article in course of transmission by post
(B) Wrong payment of inland money order
(C) Wrong delivery of insured letter
(D) Wrong delivery of insured parcel Ans:a
213. The rates of inland postage:
(A) May be fixed by Director General (Posts) by issue of DG circular

(B) May be fixed by the Ministry of Communication and IT by issue of orders
(C) May be fixed by the Central Government by notification in official Gazette
(D) None of above is correct Ans:c
214. News paper which post large number of copies can post their paper without
affixing post stamps which are published more than_____copies
a) 1000 b) 2000
c) 500 d) 5000 Ans: c
215. Working of night post office generally fixed by
a) Head of the circle b) DG Post

c) PMG d) SP/SSP Ans: a
POST OFFICE GUIDE PART II
(RULE &REGULATION RELATING TO FOREIGN POST)
1. Categories of Foreign postal articles are
a) Letter post & Parcel post b) Airmail & Sea mail

c) Registration post & Ins post d) All of the above Ans:a(1)
2. The abbreviation ‘UPU’ stands for
a) United Postal Union b) Universal postal union

c) United Pacific Union d) None of these Ans: b(3)
3. Asian Oceanic Postal Union is having its head quarter at
a) Dacca b) New Delhi

c) Singapore d) Mannilla(Phillipines)
Ans:d(4)
4. India joined the AOPU in the year
a) 1970 b) 1975
c) 1978 d) 1973 Ans: d(4A)
5. The fee for special services Registration acknowledge, insurance certificate of

posting and late fee are
a) Not uniform for all destination

b) Uniform for all destinations
c) Of two different rates on for western countries and another for eastern
countries
6. AD means
a) Acknowledgement due b) Advice of delivery

c) Actual Delivery d) None of these Ans: b(7)
7. Label size of foreign article is min & postage paid words should not be less than
a) 70mm X 100mm & 300sq mm b) 50mm X 80mm & 200sq mm
c) 25mm X 50 mm & 100 sq mm d) None of these Ans: a(11)
8. The delivery of a foreign article in the country of destination
a) Varies from country to country b) Uniform all over

c) As desired by the sender d) None of these Ans: a(14)
a) Rate applicable for recall of foreign article in case letter 10gm & Telegraph 15
words
b) The fee paid for the recall will not be refunded under any circumstances
c) Weight more than 500gm a warehousing charge at the rate per day
commencing from eight day, shall be collected from the addressee at the time of
delivery.
d) All the above are correct Ans: d(16-18)
10. Article except VP addressed as “ Postal Restante” are detained in the PO of delivery
for the period not exceeding
a) Seven days b) Three month

c) One month d) Fifteen days Ans: c(18)
a) Surface mail items received from any country for delivery in India may be
redirected to any place within India.
b) First class mail surcharge or un surcharged are eligible for free redirection by air
within India
c) Surface mail received for delivery in India from any country not applying reduced
charges for India may be redirected to another country by the surface mail
without any charge for the redirection.
d) All of the above are correct Ans: d(19)
a) Surface mail received for delivery in India from a country India may be redirected
by the surface mail to any country on payment if dispatched to its new
destination.
b) If the above charge not paid before redirection, it will be treated as insufficiently
paid & tax equal to difference in postage (notdouble) to be collected at the time
of delivery
c) a and b are correct d) None of these correct Ans: c(19)
13. Mark correct option related to official postal articles
a) The rules relating to private correspondence apply equally to official postal article
b) Service stamps can be used for prepayin outward official foreign mail but the
postage due on inward foreign mail addressed to Govt officers cannot be paid by
means of service stamps
c) All of above are correct d) None of these are correct Ans: c(21)
14. Correspondence for personnel of the Indian Armed Forces serving outside India
addressed to the Indian Army PO.
a) Should be prepaid as air article b) Should be prepaid as if SAL

c) Should be prepaid as inland article for all purpose d) None of aboveAns: c(22)
15. The max weight of an Airmail letter should not exceed
a) 4 Kg b) 5 Kg
c) 2 Kg d) 1 Kg Ans:c(26)
16. Dimensions of Postcards is
a) Max 100 X 150 mm & min 80 X 140 mm

b) Max 105 X 149 mm & min 90 X 140 mm
c) Max 150 X 200 mm & min 70X 140 mm
17. Mark incorrect option related to Postcard
a) Should not be folded, cut or altered and should be sent unenclosed

b) Breach the conditions may be treated as letter and postage will be taxed
accordingly
c) Unpaid and insufficiently paid postcards are forwarded taxed with double the
deficiency.
d) The amount recovered from sender after the delivery. Ans: d(31-32)
18. The corresponding inland post service to the printed paper service in the foreign
post is
a) Pattern and sample packet b) Registered News paper
c) Book packet service d) None of these Ans: c(34a)
19. The following items may be sent as printed papers through book packet
a) Manuscripts of works or for newpaper

b) Musical scores or sheets of music in manuscript.
c) Papers obtained by means of a typewriter of any type
d) films and sound recording e) a & b only Ans:e(34)
20. Mark correct option related to packet of regd news paper
a) Breach of conditions the packet will not be forwarded but will be returned to
sender.
b) Sender will be required to pay double deficiency in the internal postage
c) If the sender wish to repost the article after complying with necessary
conditions, he may do so by paying fresh postage in full on the article.
d) All the above are correct Ans: d(41)
21. Mark correct option related to bulk bag system under foreign post
a) Application for bulk bag facility should be made to Head of the circle
b) Special bags of printed newspaper to/from addressees/sender in foreign
countries except ceylon, Nepal, Bhutan and Pakistan may be send.
c) Bulk bag may be sent either as unregistered or registered.
d) The sender of such bags will deposit the amount in cash or POSB certificate
pledged to Head of the circle.
e) All the above are correct Ans: e(43)
a) A small packet should not exceed 1 Kg in weight.

b) Small packet exceeding 500 gm is subject to a delivery fee payable by the
addressee at the time of delivery.
c) Small packet not conforming to the conditions will be returned to the sender and
will be charged at double the deficiency for a rate applicable in the inland post.
d) All of the above are correct Ans: d(44-49)
23. The fee for a blind literature packet to be air lifted to a foreign county is
a) Air surcharge as applicable to letter post b) Free of charge

c) Air surcharge as applicable to printed paper d) None of above
Ans: c(55)
24. Foreign post manual the terms L.C means
a) Letter card b) Letter category

c) Letters and Cards d) None of these Ans: c(57)
25. Foreign post manual the terms A.O means
a) Accounts office of the foreign country b) Other subjects

c) Administrative office of the foreign country d) None of these Ans: c(57)
26. In the foreign post for the purpose of fixing surcharges and combined charges all
the countries and territories are divided into
a) Six groups b) Seven groups

c) Five groups d) Eight groups Ans: a(57)
27. The aerogramme in foreign post is a category intended for transmission

exclusively by air and the corresponding category in inland post is.
a) Inland letter card b) Oblong envelope

c) No corresponding category d) None of the above Ans: a(58)
28. The min and max size permissible for folded aerogramme is
a) 100 X 140 & 120 X 120 b) 90 X 140 & 110 X 120

c) 80 X 140 & 100 X 120 d) None of the above Ans: b(58)
29. An aerogramme should not weigh more than

a) 3 gms b) 5 gms
c) 10 gms d) None of the above Ans: a(58)
30. Mark correct option related to unpaid and insufficiently paid airmail articles
a) In case letters, cards and aerogrammes if postage paid least 75% of the
surcharge(letter) or combined charge (PC& aerogramme) will be forwarded and
taxed double deficiency at the time of delivery.
b) In case postage paid less than 75% of the surcharge or combined charge the
article will be dispatched through surface.
c) The charge collected from addressee at the time of delivery
d) All of the above are correct Ans: d(60)
31. Compensation of letter and bulk bag of foreign articles are
a) 220(60 gold francs) & 1110( 300 gold francs)

b) 110(60 gold francs) & 1110( 300 gold francs)
c) 200(60 gold francs) & 1000( 300 gold francs)
32. If an unpaid or under paid registered article under foreign post is tendered at the
counter
a) I t cannot be registered and refused.

b) It can be registered with an note that the deficiency would be collected from
addresse
c) It has to be handed over to the PM for his disposal
d) None of the above Ans; a(66)
33. No liability is also accepted for the loss of registered articles in the following cases
a) In circumstanced beyond the control.

b) When disposal of the article cannot be traced due to destruction of records in
circumstances beyond the control
c) If the item contained anything which is prohibited from transmission by post
d) When sender has not made complaint within one year.
e) All of the above Ans: e(71)
34. The limit adopted in India for booking air insured letter is
a) 20000 b) 5000
c) 10000 d) 100000 Ans:c(77)
35. Insured boxes dimensions and weight limit is
a) Max 200X200X100, min as per letter & 2 Kg

a) None of the above Ans: b(80)
36. Under foreign post article containing perishable biological substances can be
accepted for sending
a) At all Gazetted Head post offices only
b) At all the GPOs situated at the HQ of the circle
c) At Indian council of Medical research, New Delhi
37. Mark incorrect option related to international reply coupons
a) Not more than 10 International reply coupon or 30 commonwealth reply coupon

will be sold to any one individual at any time.
b) The coupons can be exchanged in any country which is a member of the UPU
c) Reply coupons are intended to enable senders to prepay for a reply.
d) Reply coupons are free of cost Ans: d(89-90)
38. Under foreign post the international parcel post service with Pakistan and India is
carried based on
a) The UPU parcel post agreement. b) By-lateral agreement

c) A special bilateral agreement d) None of the above Ans: c(94)
39. The min and max dimension of a foreign parcel prescribed is
a) 100 X 140 & 1mtr X 2 mtr b) 90 X 140 & 1.5mtr X 2 mtr

c) 90 X 140 & 1mtr X 2 mtr d) None of the above Ans: c(96)
40. The general maximum limit of weight for a foreign parcel is
a) 25 Kg b) 30 Kg
c) 10 Kg d) 20 Kg Ans: d(97)
41. Generally air parcels are subject to the lower limit of weight of
a) 25 Kg b) 30 Kg
c) 10 Kg d) 20 Kg Ans: c(97)
42. If the addressee of an inward foreign parcel wants to take delivery of his parcel at
the office of exchange
a) It will be refused as there is no provision in the rule

b) It has to be approved by the D section of the directorate
c) The addressee has to call on the office of exchange with all the documents
related including proof of his identity
d) None of the above Ans: c(107b)
43. When an insured foreign parcel is redirected form one country to the another .
a) No additional insurance fee is to be levied

b) Half of the original insurance fee is to levied for such transmissions
c) A fresh insurance fee become payable for each such transmission
d) None of the above Ans:c(121a)
44. A money order returned from a foreign country of payment as not payable
a) The sender will paid the value of the money order as actually paid in Indian
currency at the time of issue without the commission originally collected.
b) The sender will be paid the value of the MO+ commission.
c) The sender will be paid half the value of the MO without the MO commission
d) The sender will be paid the value of the MO and half commission. Ans: a(140)
45. The request a purchase of British Postal Order for repayment
a) Cannot be accepted
b) Can be accepted if presented at the PO from which it was purchased a/w
counterfoil
c) Can be accepted any post office in India
46. Mark correct options
a) COD means Cash-on-Delevery

b) Under COD system may be exchanged VP parcel
c) VP letter, Parcel & COD parcel may be insured in accordance with the
conditions
d) All of the above are correct Ans: d(174-177)
47. The customs control based on the Indians customs act 1962 is for
a) The imposition of export or import duties

b) For ensuring the observance of the provisions of import and export control act
c) For ensuring the observation of foreign exchange regulation act
d) All of the above Ans: d(179)
a) Custom declaration from filled in duplicate

b) Custom declaration from are two types i) Treen custom label(C-1) ii) Detailed
declaration form(C-2)
c) Custom declaration form is filled by sender
d) All of above are correct Ans: d(22),
49. The customs control is primarily exercised at
a) The point of entry b) The point of exit

c) Foreign post office d) All the above Ans:d(180)
50. Articles liable to export duty are detained at the outward office of exchange and the
sender is informed regarding the payment of duty
a) By the office of exchange b) By the custom authorities directly

c) By the head office of the circle concerned d) All of the above Ans: b(182)
51. An assessment memo accompanies
a) Only the inward foreign parcels on which duty is assessed

b) All inward foreign parcels even if no duty is assessed on it.
c) All inward foreign parcels weighing more than 10 KG
52. Foreign post office giver a new serial number to any inward foreign parcel
a) When subjected to customs and duty is assessed

b) When subjected to customs immaterial of the fact whether duty is assessed or
not
c) When subjected to customs and if the parcel weight more than 10 Kg
d) All of the above Ans: b(184)
53. If postal articles already booked are detained, confiscated according to the law the
one who is to take responsibilities for it is
a) The sender or the addressee b) The PO of booking

c) The PO of delivery d) Dept of post Ans: a(188)
54. Complaints and enquires regarding articles of letter mail and parcel mail in foreign
post must be submitted before he lapse of
a) 3 years counting from the day following the day on which the article was posted
b) 2 years counting from the day following the day on which the article was posted
c) 1 years counting from the day following the day on which the article was posted
d) 6 month counting from the day following the day on which the article was
posted Ans: c(200a)
55. Complaints concerning foreign MOs must be made within a period of
a) 3 months from the date of issue b) Six month from the date of issue
c) 1 year from the date of issue d) 2 year from the date of issue
Ans:c(200b)
56. Enquiries regarding BPO & IPO will be normally considered if made
a) Within 6 month from the date of purchase of the order

b) Within 1 year from the date of purchase of the order
c) Within 1 1/2 year from the date of purchase of the orde
d) None of the above Ans: b(200c)
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME II
1. A criminal prosecution in a non-cognizable case should not be instituted without

the previous sanction of the
a) Head of the Circle/Regional PMG b) SSP/SP

c) Sub divisional inspector d) None of these Ans:a
2. Which of the following is cognizable case?
a) Highway robbery b) Theft

c) Criminal breach of trust d) All the above Ans:d(129)
3. Which of the following is non-cognizable case?
a) Theft b) Cheating , forgery

c) Half murder d) All the above Ans:b(129)
4. The security deposit account in POSB, PO certificates or Govt securities should be

pledged by an official to the appointing authority, if of a
a) LSG states b) HSG States

d) Gazetted status d) None of these Ans:d(225)
5. Security deposit account should be maintained in form
a) ACG 43 b) ACG 38
c) ACG 54 d) ACG 48 Ans:a(227)
a) When an official is transferred permanently to the jurisdiction of another office,

the officer in charge of the office in which his bond is kept will forward the bond to
the proper office in a regd cover.
b) When an application is received for the refund of the balance at credit of a security
deposit amount, in no case should be refund be authorized before the expiry of six
months after the vacation of his office by the employee
c) All bonds of permanent or temporary officials will be entered in the prescribed
register Form Sec. 19.
d) All the above Ans:d(230-34)
7. Custody of security bonds register Form Sec 19 in
a) Custody of divisional supdt.

b) Custody of the postmaster
c) Joint custody of the postmaster and accountant
d) Custody of treasure Ans:c(232)
8. The security furnished by an official will be liable to forfeiture by
a) Director General b) Head of the circle

c) Any officer authorized by DG Post d) Both the A & C Ans:d(258)
9. The security furnished by an official will be liable to forfeiture when
a) An employee quitting the service without properly accounting for all money,
b) store and valuables in his custody
c) An employee quitting the service without permission
d) An employee quitting the service without giving at least three month’s notice
e) All the above Ans:d(258)
10. When the whole or the part of the security deposit of an official is to be forfeited
the form of security bond must be
a) Kept in safe locker

b) Kept in custody of postmaster
c) Sent to Head of the circle or Administration office
d) Either A or B Ans:c(259)
11. Deposits of employees that remain unclaimed for ____ years after their refund
becomes admissible are to be credited to Government under head________
a) Two years, UCR

b) Three years, UCP
c) Three years, Miscellaneous revenue
d) Five year, Miscellaneous revenue Ans:c(260)
a) The articles of stock such as plant and machinery, furniture and fixture are classed
as “Dead stock”
b) Consumable and perishable articles come under the term “Stores”
c) Both the A and B
d) None of these Ans:d(269b)
13. The inventory should ordinarily be maintained at the site of the dead stock and
should be checked once in______ year by the ________
a) A year, Head of the circle

b) Two year, Head of the office
c) A year, head of the office/ any other office selected by the head of the circle
d) None of these Ans:c(269b)
14. The stock book maintained in the form
a) SK-2 b) SK-1
c) SK-3 d) SK-4 Ans:b(269b)
15. The stock book SK 1 should be used in maintaining the inventories of
a) Dead stock b) Stores

c) Both the A and B d) None of these Ans:c
16. A detailed record of all losses of stock and stores should be maintained and an
annual statement submitted to the
a) DG Post b) Head of the circle

c) Divisional office d) Audit office Ans:d(269c)
17. The _______of an office must daily examine the condition of the locks of the main
doors leading into the office and at least once a _____that of the locks of the boxes, etc., in
the office and note the result of the examination in the ______as the case may be
a) Gp D, Month, Order book or in the error book

b) Officer in charge, Month, Order book or in the error book
c) Officer in charge, Daily, Order book or in the error book
18. When locks get out of order or damaged or become unserviceable in any way, they
should not be repaired locally, but should in all cases be returned to the
a) Circle office b) Head office

c) CSD d) Depot Ans:d(270)
19. Whenever the cost of articles of stock lost or broken by postal officials is
a) Recovered from the official in false

b) Paid from postal collection
c) Paid from post office fund
d) New lock will be replaced with old Ans:a(271)
20. When steel almirahs, cabinets, cupboard or locker furnished with body locks
(which are furnished by their manufacturer with duplicate keys) are supplied to any
office, i.e. Post, Mail, Record or Divisional Office for storage of records, forms etc., the
duplicate keys of the same should be kept locked up in the
a) Post office at postmaster custody

b) In circle office
c) Divisional office
21. The duplicate key should be sent by
a) Hand of an responsible official b) Ordinary post

c) Registered post d) Insured post Ans:d9271)
22. Duplicate keys of all safes in the store depot should be kept in a locked safe in the
store depot, in the joint custody of
a) The manager and the Superintendent

b) The manager and Head assistant of the circle office
c) Either A or B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:c(271)
23. When steel almirahs, cabinets, cupboard or locker furnished with body locks
(which are furnished by their manufacturer with duplicate keys) are supplied to any
office, i.e. Post, Mail, Record or Divisional Office for storage of records, forms etc., the
duplicate keys of the same should be kept locked up in the custody of
a) The manager and the Superintendent

b) Head clerk and Stock clerk of divisional office.
c) Both the A and B
24. Indent of furniture may be submitted by_____. Only after personal inspection by him
or by ________, of the office for which the articles are required .
a) Head postmaster, SPM

b) Superintendent, Inspector
c) Inspector, SPM
25. In Circle where the Store Depot is located at a place different from the Circle Office,
duplicate keys of the safes may be kept in the Circle Office itself in the joint custody of the
_______and the ________dealing with the Stock or Stores Depot
a) Office Superintendent, Assistant Director of Postal Services

b) Manager, Head clerk
c) Both the A and B
26. A general stock book (Form SK 1 ) must be kept in
a) Head office only b) Sub office only

b) Store depot only d) Every office Ans:d(272)
27. Bags should not be entered in the general stock book in the offices which have been
authorised by the ____to maintain the special form of stock register of bags ____
a) Superintendent , SK 2
b) Superintendent, SK1
c) Head of the Circle, Form S.K.-1 (a)
28. Officers in charge of offices should prepare indents on the Depot, in form
a) SK-2 b) SK-1(a)
c) SK-3 d) SK-4 Ans:a(277)
29. Indents for articles of stock are considered emergent indents should be submitted
on
a) 1st of the every month b) Once in a quarter

c) Half yearly d) No fixed date Ans:d(277)
30. Emergency indent should be prepared in
a) Single copy b) Duplicate

c) Triplicate d) Quadruplicate Ans:c(277)
a) Not more than one indent for the same office should be submitted in a month
b) Superintendents prepare indents for the articles required for themselves and for
their inspectors.
c) The indent for replacement of an article of stock which is lost or damaged through
the fault of a postal official and the cost of which is recovered and credited to
Government
d) Except in the case of a branch office, be sent by the post office concerned direct to
the Stores Depot accompanied by a certificate from the head postmaster giving
particulars of the credit of the cost of the article including the number and date of
the authority for the recovery of the same
a) Indents prepared by first class postmasters do not require countersignature and

should be forwarded direct to the Depot
b) In the case of a mail line, the indent should be forwarded by the postmaster of the
principal terminal office, whether it is a first class head office or not, to the
Superintendent in charge of the line for countersignature
c) Both the A and B
33. Articles of stock indented for, the supply of which has been sanctioned by the Head
of the Circle, will be received direct from the Depot, with an invoice
a) Form SK 4 b) Form SK 1(a)

b) Form SK 5 c) Form SK3 Ans:c(282)
34. The duplicate copy of the invoice (Form S. K.-3) should be duly receipted by the
_______ and returned to the ______
a) Indenting officer, Circle office

b) Indenting officer, Audit office
c) Indenting officer, Divisional office
d) Indenting officer, Depot Ans:d(283)
35. The Head of the Circle must prescribe the ________ for which forms are to be supplied
to each offices in the circle
a) Quarterly b) Yearly
c) Two six monthly period d) None of these Ans:c(286)
a) A copy of the Master Schedule of Forms will be supplied to the Stores/Stock Depot
concerned for its guidance in supplying forms or in checking the indents
b) No alteration will be made in the Master Schedule without the previous sanction
of the officer by whom it was supplied
c) The Master Schedule of Forms will, however, be thoroughly reviewed after every 5
years and the changes ordered during the intervening period will be incorporated,
and the revised Master Schedule of Forms will be supplied to each office
36. An indent in Form SK 85 in duplicate will be placed direct on eh
a) Store depot b) Circle office

c) Supplying agency d) None of these Ans:c(289)
37. The postal stores form and seals are supplied by
a) Postal store depot Calcutta b) Postal store depot Nasik

c) Postal store depot Aligarh d) All the above Ans:d(292)
38. The forms will be supplied to each office direct by the
a) Head office b) Divisional office

c) Postal stock/store depot d) None of these Ans:c(296)
39. Forms for the branch post office will be supplied by the
a) Any SO b) Their account office

c) Sub divisional office d) HO Ans:d(296)
40. The supplies of forms by the Postal Stores/Stock Depots will be accompanied by
a) An acknowledgement b) Issue voucher

c) Two copies of invoice d) Deposit voucher Ans:c(298)
41. The bags, in which forms are received, should at once be returned to the Stock
Depot
a) Filled with unserviceable article

b) Empty
c) Either A or B
d) No need to return Ans:c(299)
42. Invoice of articles returned to the Depot (Form S.K.-3) should be prepared in

c) Triplicate d) Quadruplicate Ans:c(302)
43. Every postmaster or record clerk, as the case may be, should at least once in every
_______, count and examine the bags of his office and satisfy himself that they are correct
and in once in serviceable condition and that bags of suitable sizes are kept in stock
a) Month b) Quarter
c) Six month d) Year Ans:b(313)
44. Black and magenta stamping-ink will be supplied by the
a) Divisional office b) Circle office

c) Stock depot d) None of these Ans:c(318)
45. The hand bags supplied to
a) Sorting assistant b) Mail guards

c) Van peons d) All the above Ans:d(382)
46. Indents for stationery should ordinarily be submitted
a) Monthly b) Quarterly
c) Half yearly d) Yearly Ans:b(371)
47. Indent of stationery of form SK11 prepared in

c) Triplicate d) Quadruplicate Ans:b(372)
48. Cost of stationery inspector and Asst Supdt of post office holding independent
charge of sub division
a) Rs 100 pm b) Rs 200pm
c) Rs 500pm d) No limit Ans:b
49. Security bond of postal officials, duly endorsed by the Supdt or First Class
postmaster should be kept by the ________ concerned
a) Post master of the Head post office b) Inspector of sub division

c) O/o Suptd d) None of these Ans:a
50. SB passbooks relating to securities furnished by mail contactos should be kept in
the safe custody of the _____which draw and disburse in subsidy
a) Head post office b) SPOs

c) SDI (P) d) None of these Ans:a
51. The equipment of stationery for all office must be sanctioned by ______
a) DG Post b) Head of the circle

c) Head of the division d) None of these Ans:b
52. The divisional Supdt may sanction boat allowance, up to Rs___in a month in any
one case to postman, village postman and such other official who have to incur
expenditure regularly on hire
a) 500/- b) 1500/-
c) 1000/- d) 2500/-
Ans:a
53. The divisional supdt may sanction up tot Rs ___ in each case, non-recurring
contingent expenditure, powers for which are not provided for specifically
a) 5000/- b) 1500/-
c) 4000/- d) 2500/-
Ans:a
54. The divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs____ in each case for embedding to
cash/mail chests, purchase of technical books/maps, painting of letter boxes, sign boards,
notice boards etc.
a) 400/- b) 1500/-
c) 5000/- d) 2500/-
Ans:c
55. The divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs ____ in each case for purchase of
equipments and consumables connected with computer and other equipments.
a) 400/- b) 1500/-
c) 5000/- d) 2500/-
Ans:c
56. The divisional supdt may sanction divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture
and fitting for office.
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/- Ans:b
57. The divisional supdt may sanction Sub divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of
furniture and fitting for office.
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 15000/- Ans:d
58. The divisional supdt may sanction Gezetted Ho Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/- Ans:d
59. The divisional supdt may sanction LSG SO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and
fitting for office.
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/- Ans:b
60. The divisional supdt may sanction EDSO/EDBO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:c
61. The divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs_____ in each case for hiring examination
and for other purpose etc holding customers meet etc
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:c
62. The divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs____ for petty works-per annum per
departmental buildings
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:d
63. The divisional supdt may sanction may sanction up to Rs_____ annual or special
repairs/ maintenance expenses to Deptl bldgs per annum per bldgs
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 15000/- d) 10000/- Ans:c
64. The divisional supdt may sanction may sanction up to Rs____- only per rented bldgs
per annum in each case
a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:a
65. The divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs____ per month in each case for mail
conveyance
a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:d
66. The divisional supdt may sanction may sanction up to Rs ___ for each meat , for
holding of customers meet
a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:c
67. The divisional supdt may sanction may sanction up to Rs 500/- reimbursement of
cell phones charges up to _______for those who under take any activity that facilitate
marketing of product/service of the dept.
a) 4000/- b) 5000/-
c) 1000/- d) 12000/-
Ans:a
68. The divisional supdt may sanction Rs ____ in each case for a period of three month
only, for temporay arrangements for conveyance of mails without calling tenders
a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:c
POSTAL MANUAL VOL IV

(ESTABLISHMENTS)
1. A Candidate within the maximum age limit at the time of recruitment , but is over
aged at the time of appointment
a) Cannot be appointed b) Can be appointed in service

c) Can be appointed after getting sanction d) None of these Ans: d (10)
2. Office establishment will not include

b) Non gazetted servants engaged for clerical duties
b) Group D servant employed in service
c) Sweeper
a) No person who has been dismissed for misconduct from any post may be
employed
b) The paper showing result of enquiry into the character and antecedents official
should be kept with their character sheets/ CR as the case may be
c) In the ED agents enquiry papers may be kept with their security bond
4. Re-employment of persons who resigned, absconded or were dismissed should

be made on special ground previous approval of the
a) Head of the circle b) Min of IT

c) DG Post d) PMG Ans: c(3)
5. Calculation the time spent on training for the purpose of confirmation leave other
than casual leave must be
‘
a) Included b) Excluded
c) Cannot say d) None of these Ans: b(27b)
6. Every important event in the official career of a gezetted Govt servant affecting his
pay and other conditions of service e.g appointment, promotion, leave, retirement,
removal, dismissal etc. should be notified in the
a) Memorandum b) DG Order
c) Gezette of India d) None of these Ans: c(29)
7. Notification made by the government of India are published in _____ and those by
the _________ and _______and administrative offices in _________ of Gazette India
a) Part I section 2, DG, Head of the circle, Part III section I

b) DG order, Head of the circle, DG, Part II
c) Notification, DG, Head of the circle, Part II,
8. Stamp vendors are in
a) Regular establishment b) Temporary establishment

c) Paid staff d) None of these Ans: a(31)
9. The gradation list prepared in once in a _______ year on _________ by ______ in the
form______________
a) Two, 1st Jan, DG Post, APP 43 b) Three, 1st Jul, HOC, APP 43
c) Five, 1st Jul , HOC, APP 44 d) None of these And: c(32a)
10. The time limit prescribed for representing against discrepancies in the gradation
list
a) One month from the date of issue of the Gradation list

b) Three month from the date of issue of the Gradation list
c) One year from the date of issue of Gradation list
d) No time limit Ans:c(32d)
11. Appointment authority should keep gradation list of
a) Officials , appointments to whose post, if vacant, are made by him

b) Officials under control who are ordinarily liable for transfer by him
c) Officials qualified for promotion to a higher grade, appointment to which are made
by him
d) All the above Ans: d(32b)
12. When there are two are or more officials of the same name in a particular cadre,
they should be
a) Change their name b) Promote to different cadre

c) Distinguished by serial number d) None of these Ans: c(32c)
13. No appeal against such alternative will lie to a higher authority unless it is
submitted within the usual time limit of _______ from the date of communication
a) Three months b) Six month

c) One year d) One month Ans:b(32d)
14. Where recruitment made partly form departmental candidates and partly form
outsider, the departmental candidates should always ____from the outsider in orde
a) Junior b) Senior
c) Equal d) None of these Ans: b(32e)
15. All transfers, changes of HQ and special duties of gezetted officers should be
communicated to the
a) Director General b) Audit office

c) Head of the circle d) Both A&B Ans:d(35)
16. Transfer should generally be made in
a) May of each year b) April of each year

c) Jan of each year d) Mar of each year Ans:b(37a)
17. An official should not be transferred from one unit to another, either within the
same circle, or to another circle, unless he
a) Permanent b) Temporary
c) Quasi permanent d) None of these Ans: a(38)
18. Transfer of officials, who are not permanent in grade, may in deserving cases, be
permitted with the personal approval of the
a) Head of the circle b) DG Post

c) Min of IT d) None of these Ans: a(38)
a) If an official transferred to an new unit on mutual exchange he will be take

position of the person in the gradation list of the new unit with whom the official
came on the mutual exchange or would have been assigned to him had be
been originally recruited.
b) When a permanent official is transferred on his own request to another unit
without on mutual exchange to another unit he will be rank junior in the
gradation list of the new unit all official
c) The transfer of an official form one arm of service to another within or outside of
circle can be allowed only with the personal approval of the Head of the circles.
d) If he old and new unit form part of a wider unit for the purpose of promotion to a
higher cadre, the transferee will be retain his original seniority in the gradation
list of the wider unit
20. Charge report prepared in
a) ACG 67 b) ACG 63
c) ACG 61 d) ACG 40 Ans: c(43)
21. An officer transferred may not, without urgent necessity or special orders of the
Head of the circle, leave the station
a) Before the arrival of the permanent successor

b) After the arrival of the permanent successor
c) After completed his tenure
22. In the event of any disagreement between the relieved and the relieving officers, a
reference should be made to the
a) SSP/SP b) PMG
c) Head of the Circle d) DG Post Ans: c(47)
23. Reports of transfer of charge of gezetted officer including Head of the circle and
P&T Accountant should be sent by post (not telegraph) to the
a) Next higher authority b) Audit officer concerned

c) DG Post d) All the above Ans: d(48)
24. In the case of officiating promotion to vacancies of less than one month duration,
the officiating arrangement should confine to all official working
a) In the same office b) In the same station

c) In the same division d) No specific limit Ans: b(50)
25. The age limits for appointment to the post are to be followed
a) At tie time of recruitment b) At the time of appointment

c) At the time of selection d) None of these Ans:a
26. A post office clerk transferred from one division to another division in the same
circle
a) Will loss his seniority in the circle gradation list for promotion to LSG
b) Will not lose his seniority in the circle gradation list for promotion to LSG
c) Will have his seniority regulated both in the divisional and the circle gradation list
d) None of these Ans: b
27. Application for leave must be submitted in form
a) APP 45 b) SR1
c) SR 5 d) SR 10 Ans: b(9)
28. Casual leave need not be recorded in
a) Absentee statement b) In service book

c) Service rolls d) All the above Ans:d(102)
29. `Mark the correct option
a) In cases where promotion is to be made from officials working in the same

station, officiating arrangement should be made not more than one month
a) In cases where promotion is made from official working in different statinss/sub
division officiating arrangement should be made more than one month but not
more than 4 month
c) Short term vacancies caused by regular incumbents proceeding on leave for
45 days or more may be filled up by officials available in approved panel
30. Transfer to sorters holing selection grade appointment will be reported to
a) SSP/SP b) PMG
c) Head of the Circle d) DG Post Ans: c(53)
31. Postmaster of HO who are subordinate to the super indent, Inspectors and SP, Head
clerk also report every transfer or assumption of chart to the
a) Group B Officer of division b) Postmaster General

c) Head of the circle d) None of these Ans: c(54)
a) A Supdt of PO or RMS should not ordinarily remain in charge of the same

division for more than 4 years
b) Every Supdt of PO should hol charge of RMS Dn for atlease 4 years,
c) Every RMS Supdts should hold charge of a PO Dn for not less than 4 years
d) ASPs of PO or RMS and IPO/IRM should not remain in the same Dn not more
than 4 years
33. An officer should not ordinarily be brought back the same division until
a) Ten year completion of tenure

b) Two year completion of tenure
c) The lapse of an interval equalant to the max period as fixed
d) No such limit Ans: c(61)
34. Preservation period of ED SPM leave form APP-45 is
a) Two years b) Three years

b) One year d) Six month Ans: b(91)
35. An application for leave must be submitted ordinarily
a) Fifteen days advance b) One month advance

c) Two month advance d) None of these Ans: b(92)
36. Generally Casual leave is limited to max of
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 8 days c) 12 days Ans: c
37. The authority to competent to grant Casual Leave is
a) The head of the circle b) The head of the division

b) The head of the office d) Next higher officer Ans: b
38. Who has been delegated to power to grant rules 38 transfer of official belongings to
Postmen/Mail guards?
a) Senior Supdt. of Post office b) Super indent of Post office

c) Postmaster General d) Head Post master of HO Ans: c
39. Officiating arrangement can be made in leave vacancies of less than 45 day
a) Cannot be made b) Operative cadre only

c) Can be made to all cadre d) None of these Ans: b

a) No one can be claim the max number days casual leave as a matter of right
b) Casual Leave should not be sanctioned more than 5 days at a time
c) The persons appointed middle of the year the authority competent to sanction
Grant such leave will have discretion to grant either the full period or 8 days
Or only proportion
d) CL not a form of leave and not treaded as absent
e) All the above; Ans: e(99)
41. By payment of overtime allowance
a) When no leave reserve is available

b) When the work cannot be distributed among the staff on duty
c) When the work cannot be assigned to an official form another dept, branch
or section of the same office whose work cannot be held up
d) When the work is such that it cannot be postponed
42. A register of pension cases disposed of by a sanctioning authority should be

maintained in form
a) Est 51 b) Est 57
c) Est 56 c) None of these Ans: b
43. When pension cannot be sanctioned at the time of retirement due to some reasons
the officer concerned should be sanctioned
a) Advances of his pension b) Rough amount of pension

c) Anticipatory pension d) Gratuity pension Ans: c(107)
44. ________ will review every year in __________ and __________ all pension cases of
ministerial servants serving under
a) Head of the circle, Mar, Oct b) Head of the office, Apr, Oct
c) PMG, Oct, Jan d) None of these Ans: (109)
45. _________ must make a point of knowing the names of his subordinates who are
likely to retire within the six month from__________ and from___________.
a) The Head of the office, Jan to Jun, Jul to Dec

b) The Supdt of post office/First class postmaster, Apr to Sep, Oct to Mar
c) IPOs/IRM, Apr to Sep, Oct to Mar
46. Mark the correct option relating to pension cases
a) The continuity of an applicant’s service cannot be established by the mere

production of order of transfer issued at various time unless the receive the
collateral evidence
b) The requisite verification statement and the collateral evidence should be
obtained within the period of six months
c) The payment authorized by the Audit officer is only provisional ant therefore
a formal sanction to the pension has to be issued by the competent authority in
every case.
47. PPO stands for
a) Pension payment order b) Partly payment order

b) Provisional payment order d) None of these Ans:a
48. _____ will submit the application of cases arising from railway accidents
accompanied by the documents mentioned above, for the order of _____through ____
a) The Head of the office, Head of the circle, PMG

b) The Supdt of PO, PMG, Account office
c) The Head of the circle, DG, Audit office
49. Workman compensation act is
a) 1973 b) 1923
c) 1927 d) 1911 Ans:b(150)
50. Who will prepare the register of sanctioned establishment a distribution list in
form Est-43 in RMS
a) Supdt. of Post office b) Head of the Circle

c) Supdt of RMS d) DG Post Ans:C(227)
51. Qualification of Inspector of Post office is
a) An inspector must be a man of active habits and physically able to stand the
strain of constant traveling, by night as will as day.
b) He must be thoroughly acquainted with the work of post office and the positions
of Post office and mail lines
c) He must be able to conduct efficiency the investigation that are entrusted to him
52. Test sorting or practical, sorting with qualifying speed of _____ letters per hour for
outward sorting and ______ per hour for distribution of letter for delivery beats allowing
for a max eight mistake in either cases
a) 100, 50 b) 1000,500
c) 1000,600 d) None of these Ans:c(264)
53. Examination for the appointment of accounts of PO/RMS all clerks/sorter who
have not less than _________ service as clerks/sorter.
c) 3 years d) None of these Ans: c(273)
54. Traveling allowance to an from the place of examination will be allowed
a) Only to successful candidates d) All the candidates

c) No traveling allowance allowed d) None of these And:a(273)
55. Mark the incorrect option relating to Inspector Post office examination
a) A candidate must fulfill the conditions of min service limit and max age limit as
on 1st Jul preceding the date fixed for the examination.
b) If they have not already availed themselves of the max number of chances
before joining the APS, the will be allowed to have max of two chances while
serving in Army Postal Service.
c) If a candidate is unable to ride bicycle at the time of the application he should
be given two months time to learn if after he has been selected.
d) None of these Ans:d(279)
56. Check supervisor in RMS the standard for test sorting will be
a) 500 article per hour b) 800 article per hour

c) 1000 article per hour d) 1200 article per hour Ans(279)
57. Branch post office should be placed in charge of ED agent such as
a) School masters b) Station master

d) Land holders d) All the above Ans: d(284)
a) The police officer who is not a pensioner may not be employed as an ED agent
without the previous sanction of the DG
b) Disabled ex-servicemen who are in receipt of disability pension and are not
disqualified for further service in civil dept may also be considered as ED sub or
branch postmaster
c) No person holding an elective office shall be considered for the post of an ED
agent.
59. Contractors are employed
a) For conveyance of mail

b) For performance of treasury work in post office
c) For selling postage stamps and postal stationary
d) All the above
60. Extra departmental agents are employed to work as
a) Delivery agents, in cases where full time postman are not justified
b) Mail carriers in cases where departmental runner are not justified
c) Stamp vendors & Chowkidars
61. Every proposal of new establishment made by a_____ must be submitted to______
through___________ concerned, at least _______ in advance of the date form which sanction is
desired and where necessary.
a) Head of the circle, DG post, circle account office, 2 month

b) DG Post, Cent Govt, Min of IT, 1 year
c) Supdt Of PO, Head of the Circle/ Regional PMG, Account officer, 2 month
62. The value return in form Est 5 is maintained by
a) Experimental PO b) Account office

b) Both A&B d) None of these Ans:b
63. A value return is a statistical statement showing the quantum of different items of
work performed in a Post office ie.
a) Value of all postage stamps b) Commission of MO issued

c) Commission on IPO sold d) All the above Ans:d
64. The value return in form Est 6(a) is prepared by ________ and submitted to____
a) Experimental post office, Account office

b) Account office , Head of the circle
c) Head of the circle to DG Post
d) The Supd. Post office to Head of the circle/Regional PMG Ans:d(531)
65. A value return in form Est 5 or Est 6(a) as the case may be should be submitted
with every proposal
a) In connection with experimental post offices

b) For increasing the establishment charges of a branch office
c) For converting a branch office into sub office
d) For closing an office on the ground of its being unremunerative.
66. Mark the correct option relating to how are the postal income and postal cost of
any office calculated in rural area.
a) 2/5 of the value of all postage stamps and stationery sold at the office plus 20%
( This represents in come on account of article received for delivery)
b) 7/20 of the value of all postage stamps and stationery sold at the office( This
represents in come on account of article received for despatch)
c) 3/4 of the postage collected on unpaid and insufficiently paid articles delivered
by the office
d) 1/8 of the postage due on unpaid and insufficiently paid article posted at office.
any office calculated in urban area.
a) 43/120 of the value of all postage stamps and stationery sold at the office plus
20% ( This represents in come on account of article received for delivery)
b) 37/20 of the value of all postage stamps and stationery sold at the office( This
represents in come on account of article received for despatch)
c) 5/7 of the postage collected on unpaid and insufficiently paid articles delivered
by the office
d) 5/42 of the postage due on unpaid and insufficiently paid article posted at office.
any office calculated in all office rural/urban area.
a) 24% of MO commission on MO issued by the office

b) 38 % of the MO commission on MO paid by the office
c) 2/5 of the amount of commission realized on IPO sold & 2/5 of IPO paid
69. The period of which the experimental PO is at firs sanctioned should not exceed
a) 6 month b) 1 year
c) 2 year d) 3 year Ans:a
70. No experimental post office opened in rural area may be made permanent unless
its total income covers its total cost plus
a) 25 % of the cost b) 10 % of the cost

c) 5% of the cost d) 20 % of the cost Ans:a
71. Mark the correct option relating ot press sorting office
a) Press concerned should provide necessary suitable accommodation for the

post office free of rent and give an undertaking in writing that effect.
b) Press sorting office may be open after consideration of the HOC/PMG
c) The press should bear the charges of additional staff , if any that may be
employed for the purpose.
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME VII
(RAILWAY MAIL SERVICE)
a) DBO stands for District bag office(161(2)

b) The sorting assistant who is attending to regn dept of mail office is called RSA
c) Daily report of MBC/Sections are received by Sr/Superintendent of RMS
d) All the above are correct Ans: d
a) For the purpose of bag account PO is a Unit Bag Office

b) Memo of authorized Bag balance is issued by Sr/Supdt of PO/RMS offices
c) Diagram of a sorting case is prepared by SRM
3. Metal token has to be returned , if the Sorting assistant
a) Goes on leave b) Transfer to other HRO

c) Dismissed/Removed from service d) All the above Ans:d(14)
4. Each set of a sorting office is divided into
a) Two departments b) Three departments

c) Four departments d) None of these Ans:c(1)
5. A mail office may redirect any article or intercept or deliver any article to the
addressee
a) With permission of the Divisional Head

b) With the permission of the incharge
c) On the authority of the DG or Head of the Circle
6. Information from RMS records asked for by any Govt officer be given
a) With the specific orders of the division head

b) With the specific orders of the DG posts
c) With the specific orders of the Head of the cirlcle
d) None of these Ans: c (5)
7. The misconnection between air services should invariably be reported by Record

Officer to
a) DG of Posts b) The head of the division

c) The Head of the circle by first post d) None of these Ans: c(9)
a) Circulars of Head of the circle are issued by monthly

b) Monthly circulars which bear heading and a consecutive annual series of number
c) These circulars are issued and fwd to all Supervising officers and Record officers
and should be filled in Guard books
9. A metal of token authorized to type must be carried by all RMS officials except
a) Van attendants b) Mail guard
c) Supervising officer d) None of these Ans: c(14)
10. A metal token is supplied by
a) The supdt of RMS b) IRM

c) Record officer concerned d) Incharge of the set Ans: c(14)
11. The memorandum of Distribution work is issued by
a) The Head of the circle b) The Record officer

c) The sub divisional inspector d) The Supdt. Of RMS Ans: d(16)
12. The period of preservation of invoices of articles received from stock depot is
a) Six months b) Eighteen months

c) Two years d) Three years Ans:d(17)
a) Order book of mail office and section is three years

b) Work paper of RMS offices and section is eighteen months
c) Correspondence related to robberies, theft etc is one year after the case
closed.
14. Among the postage stamp kept in the stock of mail offices for sale if any stamp
cannot be disposed of within a reasonable time the mater should be reported to
a) The record officer b) The local Postmaster

c) The Sub divisional IRM d) The Supdt. Of RMS Ans:d(18)
a) In Head Record offices one key of the safe will be retained in the custody of HRO
and other one is Accountant.
b) The insured seal supplied to the set of mail office should be kept in the personal
custody of Head Sorting assistant
c) Each set of section is supplied with a portfolio with lock & key bearing designation
of section
d) All the above are correct. Ans:d
16. The Head sorting Assistant of each set of the various sections attached to a Record
Office will be supplied by the ________, in once in a _______
a) The supdt of RMS, week b) The Record officer, month

c) Head of the Circle, yearly d) None of these Ans: b(23)
17. The authority competent to relax the provision of office attendance at RO is
a) The supdd of RMS b) The record/sub record officer

c) The sub divisional Inspector d) The Head of the circle Ans:d(26)
18. The supervisor Speed post centre will send his daily report to Manager speed post
a) By means of a letter b) By fax message

c) By email d) By using format MS 83 Ans:d(28)
19. The following are the more important irregularities and occurrences which must
be mentioned in the daily report
a) All irregularities reported by telegraph/fax.

b) Absence of carrier appointed to receive or deliver mails, the mails detained in
consequence being mentioned.
c) Receipt or dispatch of special bags;
20. At all stations except changing stations the set about to proceed
a) Should be present one hour before the departure of the train

b) 15 min before the departure of the train
c) At the hour fixed by the Supdt. which will be at least half an hour before the
departure of the train
21. The staff of a mail office may leave the office at any period during the working hour
a) With the permission of HAS b) With the permission of the IRM

c) For attending mail exchange d) All the above Ans:d(35)
22. The window of the mail van of a section should be kept closed
a) Throughout the beat of the section

b) When the train is in motion
c) When the train is drawn up at railway station platform till the train starts
23. When an official on duty in a mail van is attacked with any serious illness, the Mail
Agent / Mail Guard should communicate the fact to
a) The Guard of the train b) The Superintend

c) The Record officer d) All the above Ans:d(38)
24. The cage TB addressed to the Mail office of Terminal Station is to be opened at the
terminal station personally by
a) The mail agent b) The mail guard

c) The HSA d) None of these Ans: c(41)
25. Protecting bags containing articles marked ‘By parcel post”

a) To be entered in the mail list under unusual mail
b) To be entered under due mails
c) To be included in the total unusual mails entered at the top of the mail list with
suitable remakes
26. Forward mail list containing bags for one or more intervening office is to be
entered in the mail list in
a) Head ‘Due mail’ in the column TB b) L bag column

c) Pl bag column d) Special bag column Ans: a(44)
27. Transit bags must always be closed and sealed in the presence of
a) The senior most Gp D of the set

b) The IRM/Asst Supdt of RMS
c) The HSA/Mail guard/Mail agen
28. Express mail bags/express bundles mean
a) The mail witch should opened first and taken for sorting immediately
b) The mail will be received/ dispatched through express trains
c) The bags containing accountable articles
29. A station bundle is justified when there are more than
a) 5 UR of the letter mail b) 10 UR of the letter mail

c) 14 UR of the letter mail d) None of these Ans: c(61)
30. Whether the parcel bags and packet bags of the set are to be included in the transit
bag or to be sent loose will be shown in
a) The due mail list of the set b) The advance work paper of the set
c) The sorting list of the set d) None of these Ans: a(63)
31. Before closing the work of the set for the day the work paper s must be examined
by
a) The Head Sorting Assistant b) The Senior most PA
c) HRO d) None of these Ans: a(64)
32. Final duties of the HAS before quitting office
a) Should carefully examine each sorting compartment to see that no article are
left in it unsorted
b) The sweeping, used labels, broken seal etc are personally examined
c) The articles of stationary, stamps, seals and books etc are carefully placed in
the portfolio.
33. A Sorting assistant will be considered unfit for his post
a) If he is not dressed neatly

b) If he is a regular late comer
c) If he ms sends articles regularly which are clearly and legibly addressed
34. The station and territorial bundles received for onward transmission
a) Should be placed unopened in the bags in which there are to be forwarded

b) To be opened and removed mis send article and give onward submission
c) To be opened and contents given to the detailed table sorting
35. At present APMC functioning at
a) Bangalore b) Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Kokata Ans:C(79)
36. The fee for a registered article that has been delivered by a post office in the same
town and presented for registration unopened with a revised address is
a) Registration fee prescribed only b) Fee of any charge

c) Registration fee prescribed plus the postage d) None of these Ans: a(83)
37. High value station MO bundle is justified when the number of HVMO for a
particular station exceeds
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Six Ans: a(87)
38. Forward registered bundle should be treated
a) As per the number of article included b) Three

c) As a single registered article d) None of these Ans: c(88)
39. In a mail office when the work is not going on, the registration sorting case must be
locked and the key should remain
a) With the HSA/Supervisor b) With the jamedar of the set

c) With the Registration SA d) None of these Ans: c(88)
40. If a regd article is presented for booking at the counter of mail office on Sunday
a) It will be refused for booking b) It will be accepted with normal fee

c) It will be accepted with late fee in additional to normal fee
41. In the mail office insured check sheet is to be maintained by
a) The HSA/Supervisor b) The mail sorting assistant

c) The insured registration PA d) None of these Ans:c(92)
42. The supervisor of a CRC is responsible for
a) Timely opening of the set

b) Maintaining the master data for the interim dispatch
c) Opening bag allocation closing bag allocation
43. Set master relating to CRC means
a) The incharge of set of the CRC

b) The HSA of the set under which CRC is functioning
c) The number of each working set in the CRC
44. The system administrator in CRC
a) He will be responsible for the maintenance and security in the functioning of the
system by keeping secrecy of his own password and also ensuring proper
maintenance of password of all officials working in CRC.
(b) He will be responsible for the generation of MIS (Management Information
System) reports such as sorter report, set wise report, booking office/delivery
office reports, transmission report, keying capacity report. Forced closed remark
report and Login -Logout report.
c) He will be responsible for the maintenance of INI settings for Modern
transmission and periodical Back-up/Restore of data and cleaning up of records.
45. Mail agency master related to CRC means
a) The mail agent of the mail office

b) The mail guard of the agency branch
c) It contains agencies detail of MMS & Sections for carrying bags closed in the CRC to
other offices
46. Beat Master related to CRC means
a) The postman of beat of delivery office

b) It contains details of beats covered by each delivery office
c) All the above
47. The blank parcel list received from opening of a mail bag will be handed over to the
parcel sorting assistant
a) Then and there through group D
b) Will be entered in separate mail list and tfr direct to the PSA under acquittance
c) All the above
48. Parcel sorting case must always be kept locked when the work of the Sorting is not
going on and the key must remain
a) With the HSA b) With the supervisor

c) With the parcel sorting assistant d) None of these Ans:c(101)
49. Computerization of a transit mail office facilitates

<
a) A proper watch on due mails and an estimation of the extra mail received
b) Reduction of paper work
c) More clarity of entries made in the mail list
50. When no mail bag is closed for office for which a blank parcel list is to be issued ,
the BPL should be dispatched
a) By entering in the mail list dispatched for that office

b) By enclosing in a service cover to be sent as unregistered article
c) By including in the mail bag closed for the nearest Post office
101. The willful removal of a page of an order book or guidance book
a) Will be regarded as a services offence and render the official liable for
dismissal.
b) Will be reported to the Divisional Head who will order the recovery of cost of the
book concerned
c) Recovery of the cost of the book will be ordered by head of the office himself
102. If metal token is lost it should be reported at once to
a) Record officer b) HSA

c) Supdt. of RMS d) ASRM Ans:a(14)
103. Mail abstract of RMS is divided into
a) 2 parts b) 4 parts
c) 3 parts d) None Ans:a(39)
104. Mail list in RMS should be prepared by
a) HRO b) SRO
c) HSA d) Mail guard Ans: c(44)
105. The abbreviation CTMO stands for
a) Central Transit Mail office b) Centralized transit mail office

c) Computerized transit mail office d) Circle transit mail office Ans:d(115)
106. The record not to be destroyed without the special permission of the Head of the
Circle
a) Order book of a record office

b) Nominal roll of token holder
c) Work paper regarding which enquiry is in progress and not fully decided
107. The Record Officer is required to submit a daily report to the ______. The report
should be accompanied by the daily reports of the __________ of the sections attached to the
__________ and by the Sorting Assistants, written explanations (if any) of ________ committed
by them.
a) Superintendent , HSA & Mail agent, Record office, irregularities

b) IRM, Record officer, Sections, irregularities
c) Head of the circle, IRM, Mail office, irregularities
108. The binding of acquittance rolls in respects of staff, for whom establishment
returns are sent to the Postal account office and for whom service books of service rolls
are maintained need not be in leather but in cloth as there are to be preserved for
a) 5 Year b) 6 year
c) 7 year d) 2 year Ans: b(146)
109. The following irregularities occur, they must invariably be noted in the Record
officer’s daily report
(a) Non-attendance or late attendance of a Sorting Assistant on the attendance day at

the Record
(b) Negligence on the part of a Sorting Assistant, as evidence by the number of
complaints received against him, or by careless preparation of work-papers;
(c) loss of Sorting Assistant’s metal token; or sorting list
(d) loss of, or damage to any article supplied to the set;
(e) All the above Ans: e)(141)
110. Territorial money order should be prepared when the number of money order
exceed
a) Three b) Six
c) Ten d) Five Ans: c(154)
111. Territorial RBs for each state should be prepared when the number of RL exceed
a) Three b) Six
c) Ten d) Five Ans: c(154)
112. Mark correct options related to closing of bags
(a) Surface L bags: More than 50 articles.

(b) Surface D bags: More than 50 articles, 6 registered letters.
(c) Air Mail PC: Between 50 to 150 articles.
(d) Air mail bags: More than 150 articles.
(e) All the above Ans:e)(156)
113. Mark correct option related to frequently of visit
(a) SSRMs/SRMs/ASRMs of Divisional Office of City Divisions.- Three visits a week to

mail offices; each night set once a fortnight, one PO in a week.
(b) SSRMs/SRMs/ASRMs of Divisional Office of non-city division.-Once a week visit to

a mail office at HQ,3 mail offices in a month outside the headquarter. All the sets
are to be visited including the SRO as well as one Post Office in that place.
(c) SRMs (Sorting) attached to mail offices.- Should visit one set of the Mail Office
daily. Of these, two visits will be tothe night set every week.
(d) Sub-Divisional IRMs.- Once a week visit to each Mail Office at headquarters; once a
month visit to all Mail Offices including all the sets and the SRO and at least one
Post Office.
(e) All the above Ans: e)(157)
114. Metro mail survey carried out in
a) Chennai, Delhi b) Bangalore, Hyderabad

c) Mumbai, Kolkata d) All the above Ans: d(157)
115. The survey will be done by project co ordinarators concerned in the respective
metros: with the assistance of
a) SSRMs/SRMs b) SSPOs/SPs
b) ASRMs/ASPs d) IRMs/IPOs
116. Mark correct option relating to Metro mail survey
a) One Gpo, TWO Sub-Post Offices and one Head Post Office should be selected for
the survey.
b) The survey may be conducted separately in the GPO, the Head Post Office and the
Sub-Post Offices. The Sub-Post Offices selected should have a reasonable quantity
of mail.
c) 25% of the total mail received in the Post Offices is to be studied.
d) The list of the Post Offices where the survey has been conducted must be annexed
to the report in proforma Forms C &D.
117. All India mail survey has to cover
a) Home district b) Neighbouring circle & distant circle

c) Home circle d) All the above Ans: d(157)
118. Mark correct option relating to All India mail survey
a) The survey will be conducted in one selected P.O. in each Division. The Post Office
can be a Head Post Office or a Sub-Post Office.
b) The Heads of Circles will chalk out the Survey Programme in such a way that at
least 25% of the Post Offices selected are in rural areas.
c) The Post Office selected should received a reasonable quantum of mail.
d) At least 25% of the articles received in the Post Office should be taken for the
study.
119. Live mail survey is carried out in
a) Yearly b) Monthly
c) Half Yearly d) Once in two year Ans: b(157)
120. Mark correct option relating to live mail survey
a) The survey is to be conducted in one delivery PO in each Postal Division.

b) The PO to be selected should have a reasonable quantity of mail for study.
c) 25% of the Post Offices selected for the survey should be in rural areas
d) At least 25% of the total mails received in the PO selected is to be studied.
121. The postal stores depot situate at circle HQ are termed as
a) Central Bag office b) Circle bag office

c) DBO d) None of these Ans:b(161)
122. The Postal directorate ‘D’ Section will function as the
a) Central Bag office b) Circle bag office

c) DBO d) None of these Ans:a(161)
123. A report of bag balance in the pro forma given below will be submitted by each
UBO to its _____daily and by each DBO to its weekly. The Circle Bag Office will send a______ of
balances in the prescribed pro forma (not furnished here) on the __________to the Central
Bag Office, i.e., ‘D’ Section of Postal Directorate.
a) CBO, CBO, Daily report , 1st of each month
b) DBO, CBO, monthly report , 5th of each month
c) UBO, DBO, monthly report , 10th of each month
124. Each ______will issue _____List in Form MS-74 in two parts for each office/set of Mail
Office and section (except for BOs) once in_____. The list corrected upto _______will be issued
by 15th November
a) IRM, Sorting List, a month , 31st of October

b) Head of the cirlce, Due Bag, a year, 31st of October
c) Divisional Supdt. PO& RMS, Due Bag, a year, 31st of October
125. Choose the correct option relating to the minimum and maximum number of bags,
which an office will be authorized to keep will generally
a) For Unit Bag Offices and District Bag Offices Min No. of bags required for dispatch
for day plus 10% and
(b) Maximum: minimum plus 25% in case of surplus offices ( i.e.,which receive more
bags than they dispatch) and minimum plus three times the difference between
receipt and dispatch in case of deficit offices (i.e., which dispatch more bags than
they receive)
c) For Circle Bag Office.-(a) Minimum: No. of bags required for dispatch per day plus
10% for surplus offices and four times the number of bags dispatched in case of
deficit offices and Maximum: No limit.
d) All the above are correct Ans:d(161)
126. The Order Book of a Record Office:

(A) Is a permanent record and should not be destroyed at all
(B) May be destroyed as usual after expiry of the preservation period
(C) May not be destroyed without the special permission of the Superintendent
(D) May not be destroyed without the special permission of Head of the Circle /
Region Ans:d
127. The present system of bag accounting was introduced with the object of:
(A) Cutting down the circulation of empty bags to the minimum possible
(B) Ensuring adequate working stock of bags in each office
(C) Ensuring that bags are not withdrawn for irregular use or misuse
(D) All above Ans:d
128. The seals, cords, labels and bags required to be preserved in connection with
investigation into a case of loss or abstraction in the RMS should be preserved in the
personal custody of the:
(A) Head Sorting Assistant

(B) Record Officer
(C) Office Supervisor of the Superintendent’s office
(D) Superintendent Ans:b
129. Register of Sanctioned Establishment should be destroyed at the end of:
(A) The year after issue of new one

(B) Two years after issue of new one
(C) Three years after issue of new one
(D) Five years after issue of new one Ans:a
130. A Sorting Assistant may be ordered to attend the RO for practice sorting by the:
(A) Superintendent (B) Inspector

(C) Record Officer (D) Any of Above Ans:d
131. Physical verification of bags should be done by every Unit Bag Office, District Bag
Office and Administrative Office on the 1st of:
(A) Each month (B) January, April, July & October

(C) April and October (D) January every year Ans:c
132. The minimum number of bags which a UBO will be authorised to keep will
generally be equal to the number of bags required for despatch for the day plus:
(A) 10% (B) 20%

(C) 25% (D) 50% Ans:a
133. A register of repairable bags will be maintained in every:
(A) Unit Bag Office (B) District bag office

(C) Circle Bag officee (D) None of above Ans:c
134. Mark the incorrect statement:
(A) Mail bags intended for dispatch during working hours of the day should be
secured by the mail assistant in the mail box
(B) The forward bags should be kept locked up in the mail box until it is time to
dispatch them
(C) Parcel received loose should be made over to Parcel Assistant under receipt
(D) BO bags and loose account bags should be transferred to Sub Account Assistant
Ans:d
135. Mark the incorrect statement:
(A) The postmaster should occasionally examine the paid contents of some of the mail
bags opened in order to detect error in sorting
(B) The PM should occasionally be present when station mail bags are opened
(C) The PM should frequently and unexpectedly examine the contents of each
Postman’s bag to ascertain unnecessary detention
(D) The PMr should occasionally examine the contents of Registered bags opened
Ans:d
136. Mark the correct option. What is the periodicity of supply of hand bags in RMS
Wing:
(A) Not less than 5 years (B) Not less than 3 years
(C) Not less than 4 years (D) None of above Ans:b
137. If a Postal or SA finds a registered bundle bearing signs of damage or tampering,

he should note the irregularity in the error book/note book and then:
(A) Transfer the registered bundle to the Postmaster/HAS

(B) Open the registered bundle
(C) Open the registered bundle in the presence of the Postmaster / HSA
(D) Open the registered bundle in presence of two witnesses Ans:a
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME VIII
1. Fortnightly dairy of Superintendents is prepared in
a) Gen 2 b) Gen 1
c) Gen 4 d) None of these Ans:b
2. Punishment register maintained in form
a) APP 32(a) b) APP 31

c) APP 28 d) None of these Ans:a
a) Preservation period of DG order is three years after the close of the year in which
they were issued
b) Preservation period of fortnightly reports of superintendent one year after the
month to which there relate
c) Both the A & B
4. During the second week of the months of February and August of each year, an
enumeration Is made daily of the number of
a) Ordinary UR article of letter mail given out for deliver y by all post offices .
b) Regdr article and UR parcel mail given out for deliver y by all post offices .
c) Regd article and register parcel mail given out for deliver y by all post offices
d) Ordinary un registered articles of the letter mail, and unregistered parcel given
out for deliver y by all post offices . Ans:d
5. _________ is authorized to transfer a branch office from one account office to another
account office under the same HO
a) Head of the Circle b) DG Post

c) Postmaster General d) Superintendent Ans:d
6. The Supdt may prescribe the use, in any Head or Sub office of a beat instruction
register ______ for the purpose of communication addressees instructions to the postman
a) M 32 b) M 34
c) M 28 d) None of these Ans:a
7. The_______ of an office will ordinarily be a sum equal to the average

_________multiplied by the number of days in which funds can be obtained, plus a
percentage of the average ___________(if necessary), as a margin – the amount of which will
depend upon the extent of the difference between the receipts and payments, and other
considerations
a) Minimum cash balance , daily payments, daily payments

a) Maximum cash balance , daily payments, daily payments
a) Minimum cash balance , daily payments, daily receipts
a) None of these Ans:a(138)
7. When fixing the minimum and maximum cash balances of an office, the
Superintendent must have before him information on the following points :-
(a) The average monthly receipts and disbursements.

(b) The methods prescribed for making and receiving remittances for the purpose of
disposing of surplus cash or replenishing funds.
(c) The period between two ordinary remittances according to the method fixed for
the office.
(d) The time within which the office can, if necessary, communicate with the office
which supplies it with funds and obtain a special remittance.
(e) All the above Ans:e(140)
8. Who will fix the minimum and maximum cash balance of the first class Head office.
a) Superintendent of post office b) Head of the circle

c) Senior Superintendent of Post Offices d) None of these Ans:c(141)
9. Consolidated memo auth bal(Pa 15) is fixed by _____ and to________
a) Head of the circle, Head office b) Head of the circle, HO & SO

c) Supdt of post office to all post office d) None of these Ans:c
10. Each Inspector will be supplied with a similar memo. showing the authorized
balances etc. for
a) All the sub and branch offices in his sub-division

b) All sub offices
c) All branch offices
11. Cash office is a

a) Head office b) Sub office
c) Branch office d) All the above Ans:b
12. Diagram of sorting case are prepared by
a) Sub divisional inspector b) Postmaster concerned

c) Divisional supdt d) Head of the circle Ans:c(156)
13. From the due bag statement, the ____should prepare the due bag lists showing the
number of bags of each description due to be received and depatched by each mail office
or section (a) with mails or (b) as surplus for guidance of the ________
a) Superintendent , Record office b) Inspector , Post office

c) Head of the circle, Head office d) None of these Ans:a(159)
14. The office of the every Inspector should be thoroughly inspected at least once in
every by the ________ in accordance with the standard questions
a) Quarterly , Supdt b) Half yearly, Supdt

c) Twelve month, Supdt d) None of these Ans:c(167)
15. ________are employed in each division for the supervision of the runner’s lines, the
work of village postmen or postmen serving in villages, and when prescribed by the_______,
for the conveyance or escort of_______, from one office to another
a) Head postman , head of the Circle, cash remittances

b) Overseers , Supdt of post office, cash remittances
c) Overseers , head of the Circle, cash remittances
16. Who will prepare the route statement in their division.
a) Sub divisional inspector, b) Supdt of post office

c) SSP d) Head of the Circle Ans:b(169)
17. Who responsible that proper arrangements are made for the transmission of mails
of division
a) Sub divisional inspector, b) Supdt of post office

c) SSP d) Head Postmaster Ans:b(171)
a) Branch lines which radiate from head offices and large sub-offices connecting
them with less important sub and branch offices in the interior of districts, or lines
which diverge from through main lines.
b) Cross mails, i.e. mails from branch lines which converge to one point
on a through main line, should be timed to reach the junction of the cross lines
before the arrival of the main line mails
c) The Superintendent should pay careful attention to the arrangements made for
conveying mails across unbridged streams and rivers, and for carrying them over
difficult roads.
19. In the case of contracts for mail cart lines, penalties and forfeitures for delays and
other breaches of agreement, will be imposed by
a) Superintendent of post office b) Sub divisional inspector

c) Head of the circle d) None of these Ans:a(181)
20. Haulage and weighment statement. will be submit on or before the ______in each
year, the ______should submit a statement [MS.60(a)] to the ______showing the regular
accommodation provided on each railway in his division on the_______, respectively
a) 1st February and 1st August, Postmaster, Head of the Circle, 21st Jan and 21st Jul
b) 1st February and 1st August, Postmaster Supdt of post office, 21st Jan and 21st Jul
c) 1st February and 1st August, Superintendent, Head of the Circle, 21st Jan and 21st
Jul
21. Which of the following point is noticed in Supdt dairy Gen 1
a) Each days’ work and enter particular of his journey when on tour, showing clearly
the name of every office, section or mail line visited or inspected, the time spent in
each office or section
b) Details of inspections and important matters regarding which the Superintendent
submits separate reports to the Head of the Circle should not be recorded in the
diary
c) Action taken by him in connection with irregularities and other matters
a) Circulars issued by the Head of a Circle will be filed in a single guard-book

b) These Circulars should be destroyed after 3 years counting from the month of
April
following the close of the official year in which they were issued
c) A register of lines and stages in form M.-40 should be maintained by the
Superintendent for his division
23. A statement (Sk-82) showing particulars of the articles of stock supplied during
each month to offices by local purchase, or by transfer either from other offices or from
the reserve stock kept by the ______or, in postal divisions, by an Inspector, should be
prepared in the office of the Superintendent and sent to the _____within the first week of
the following month “under the signatures of the______”.
a) Superintendent, stock depot , Divisional head
b) Postmaster, Head office , Divisional head
c) Superintendent, Circle office , Divisional head
d) None of these Ans:a (211)
24. The Superintendent should frequently test the punctual clearance of letter-boxes
by
a) Watching the letter boxes twice in a month

b) Counting the letter posted in letter boxes
c) Posting the test letter
d) None of these Ans:C
25. Which of the following test will often be found use full when t he Superintendent
should frequently apply tests to the delivery work of the postmen
a) Letters bearing fictitious address should be posted and measures adopted to

secure their reaching, in the ordinary course, the hands of a postman whom it is
intended to test. If these letters are not brought back as undeliverable, there will
be a strong presumption that the postman has made away with them.
b) The Superintendent may arrange that letters addressed to actual residents are
specially noted before they are handed to the postman, and subsequent enquiries
made of the addressees will show whether the letters are duly delivered or not.
c) Both the above
26. The Superintendent should examine the ________ to see that all _____concerning the
set are neatly and correctly copied in the book, that the book contains no. B. order which
does not concern the set, that B. orders which have become obsolete or void, have been
cancelled under the _______signature, and that every order has been initialed by all the
______of the set
a) Order book, B. orders, record clerk’s, sorters

b) Postmaster dairy , B. orders, record clerk’s, sorters
c) guidance book, B. orders, record clerk’s, sorters
27. The Assistant Superintendent will remain at the headquarters when the
Superintendent is on tour and will look to the entire supervision of the office and control
all the staff of the Divisional Office
a) He will dispose of all the routine cases not requiring the sanction or orders of the
superintendent and sign routine drafts and fair copies
b) He may also sign important papers relating to leave and transfers except orders of
punishment or appointment when it is really necessary to avoid serious delay
c) Assistant Superintendent will himself proceed on enquiries on the receipt of a
report of loss, fraud, highway robbery etc., till the superintendent arrives.
28. The duties which can be delegated to the Assistant Superintendents

a) Opening and distribution of dak, except the dak from the Head of the Circle.
b) Issue of reminders, the weekly check of the work of the assistants and disposal of
personal cases of staff except those where policy of the department is involved.
c) To pass TA bills of assistants, postmen and lower grade staff on the basis of the
orders of the competent authority.
d) Grant of casual leave to the staff when the Superintendent is on tour.
e) All the above
Ans:e(260b)
29. The complaint Inspector will perform the following duties.
a) He will be In-charge of the complaint branch of the Divisional Office and be

responsible for proper and prompt disposal of complaints, prompt submission of
statements relating to thereto etc.
b) He will take up such enquiries or investigations as may be assigned to him by the
Head of the Office.
c) He will carry out such second inspections of Branch offices as may be assigned to
him by the Supdt.
d) He will carry out the Inspection of the complaints branch once a fortnight.
e) All the above Ans:e(260c)
a) An Inspector must posses a practical knowledge of post office work, and with all
departmental forms so as to be qualified to instruct his subordinates in their
duties, especially when any new class of business is undertaken by the
Department.
b) He must also be qualified to take charge of a head office or important sub-office in
any sudden emergency
c) An inspector must be having knowledge of Technology and management.
31. The complaint Inspector will perform the following duties.
a) He will be In-charge of the complaint branch of the Divisional Office and be

responsible for proper and prompt disposal of complaints, prompt submission of
statements relating to thereto etc.
b) He will take up such enquiries or investigations as may be assigned to him by the
Head of the Office.
c) He will carry out such second inspections of Branch offices as may be assigned to
him by the Supdt.
d) He will carry out the Inspection of the complaints branch once a fortnight.
32. The hours of business for branch offices will be fixed by
a) Divisional Supdt. b) Head post master

c) Sub divisional inspector d) None of these Ans:c(271)
33. The supervision of the village postmen attached to all the offices(head, sub and
branch) situated in his sub-division is one of the most important duties of the
a) Postmaster of SO concerned b) Inspector

c) Divisional Supdt d) Head postmen Ans:b(272)
34. The Inspector should, whenever he meets a village postman out in his beat or at the
office to which he is attached, examine
a) His bag to see whether he carries postage stamps, forms, etc.,

b) His book of receipts are pasted to the counterfoils of receipts for articles
registered by
him.
c) Both the A and B
d) Either A or B Ans:c(272)
35. It will be the _______ duty to prepare and prescribe ____(M-53) indicating the beats of
the ____attached to each head, ____in his sub-division(Including first class head offices)
a) Supdt, route lists and beat maps, village postmen, sub and branch office
b) Inspector’s, route lists and beat maps, postmaster , sub and branch office
c) Inspector’s, route lists and beat maps, village postmen, sub and branch office
36. There are two systems under which village postmen’s beats can be arranged, viz.,
a) The fixed beat, & unfixed beat system

b) Normal beat & emergency beat
c) Single beat & double beat
a) The Inspector should supply each head, sub or branch office in his sub-division
including first class head offices, with a village sorting list (M-52)
b) The Village sorting list showing the Nos. of village postmen to whom articles are
made over for delivery
c) The village sorting list should also show in what villages letter-boxes are placed
and which of these letter-boxes are provided with changeable plates
d) All the above Ans:d276)
38. The ______for payments made by ____to road establishments will, when they are
complete, be sent by the overseer to the ______
a) Village return, overseers, Inspector
b) Acquittance rolls, Postmaster, Head office
c) Acquittance rolls, overseers, Inspector
a) The Inspector should maintain a register of lines and stages in respect of his sub
division in form M-40
b) Entries should be made in the register in alphabetical order, and where a line
traverses sub-divisions each Inspector should record it throughout its length
c) It is of special importance that the register should be kept corrected up-todate
in accordance with correction memos issued by the Superinendent from time to
time.
40. The Inspector must keep a diary, in form
a) Gen 1 b) Gen 2
c) Gen 3 d) Gen 4 Ans:b(293)
41. Director-General’s circulars. are ordinarily issued by the Director-General once a
a) Month b) Quarter
c) Week d) year Ans:c(295)
42. Postmadter General’s circulars are ordinarily issued in once a
a) Month b) Quarter
c) Week d) year Ans:a(296)
43. Duties of Inspectors, R.M.S. are
a) Entrusted mainly with the duties of checking the sorting work done by sections
and mail offices
b) Making investigations into important cases of loss, fraud etc.
c) When attached to the office of Heads of Circles they are designated as Sorting
Inspectors.
44. Assistant Superintendents attached to the Mail offices to be perform
a) To exercise overall supervision over the work done in the mail office. He will be
responsible for proper maintenance of discipline, and for the efficient functioning
of the mail office.
b) To apply tests to see that letter boxes attached to the mail office are punctually
cleared and ensure by frequent examination of the mails despatched that correct
routing is observed in sorting mails
c) To maintain liaison with the local Officers of the Civil Aviation, IAC, Police,
Custom, Railways etc
d) All the above; Ans:d(322)
45. The ______RMS must inspect every ______at intervals of about ____such offices and
sections in his sub division as are assigned to him by the ______
a) ASP, twelve months six months, Head of the Circle

b) Sub divisional Inspector, three months, three months, Head of the Circle
c) Sub divisional Inspector, twelve months six months, Head of the Circle
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME VI

PART I
1. Sunday and other post office holiday Night post office will be done
a) Booking of the Regd article, including VP article

b) Sell postage stamps
c) SB transaction only
d) Above A&B only Ans:d(2/1)
2. Memorandum distribution of work ( MS-11) is issued by
a) Head Post Master b) Inspector of Post

b) Senior Supdt of post office d) Divisional Supdt Ans:d(4)
a) A nominal roll is a record of Postal Assistant actually at work in a post office on

any given day maintained in form MS-12
b) The nominal roll should be written up by the postmaster
c) A nominal roll on similar lines may also be maintained for postman and village
postman in offices where their strength is more than 25
4. Attendance register in form S-37 will maintained by
a) Every post office b) Only Head post office

c) Every PO having more than one clerk d) All the above Ans:c(4a)
5. Village sorting list in form M-52 will be prepared and supplied to each office by
a) Divisional Superintendent b) Sub divisional inspector

c) Sub Post Master d) Head postmaster Ans:b(5)
6. A rout list in form M-53 is issued by______ to_________

a) Divisional Supdt , Postman b) Postmaster , Postman
c) Sub divisional inspector, village postman c) None of these Ans:c(5)
7. The village sorting list once in a month should be examined by
a) Sub divisional inspector b) Supdt of postoffice

c) Sub account assistant d) Postmaster Ans:c(5)
8. The yearly village return MS-88 in the month of ____ of each year should be kept by
______showing the number of articles of all sorts received for delivery in each village
within the jurisdiction of the office . As soon as the compilation is over, it should be
totaled, signed by__________and forwarded to __________.
a) Village postman, Mar, sub divisional inspector , Supdt of post office

b) Accountant, Feb, postmaster, head of the circle
c) Sub account assistant, Feb, Postmaster, divisional inspector
9. MO Oblong stamp and insurance stamp should be keep in custody of
a) Money order PA b) Parcel PA

c) Sub Account assistant d) Postmaster Ans:d(21)
10. Head of the Circle’s circulars are ordinarily issued by head of the circle once in a
a) Year b) Half year

c) Month c) Quarter Ans:c(24)
11. Any information received by the officer of the department officially should not be
made public but this restrictions are however not applicable to
a) Competent court of law b) District magistrate

c) Commissioner of Police or District SP d) All the above Ans:d(17)
12. Leather cash bag should be used when the amount of currency notes exceeds Rs
a) 5000 b) 10000
c) 500 d) 1000 Ans:c(27)
13. Preservation period of stack book of post office is
a) 20 Years b) 10 Years
c) 5 Year s d) 3 Year s Ans:b(25)
14. Preservation period of Nominal Roll
c) 30 Years d) Permanent Ans:d(25)
15. The following records may not be destroyed without the special permission of the
Head of the Circle
a) Post office order book

b) Register of undeliverable pass books in deposit in the head office
c) Post office certificate ledger
d) Correspondence regarding which enquiry in progress or connected with the cases
which have not been fully decided or closed
16. Mark the correct option remittances sent by post
a) When a remittance is to be sent by post, the money should be placed in

Leather cash bag and cash sealed by treasure.
b) The remittance advice and acknowledgement dispatch inside of Regd bag.
c) When remittances is to be sent in charge of a special carrier, the amount
should be made over to the carrier and he should be required to grant a receipt
for the same in treasurer cash book.
17. The loss of identity card should immediately be notified by ______in his ______
a) Postmaster, daily dairy b) Inspector, daily dairy

c) Head of the circle, circular d) None of these Ans:c(32)
18. The annual fee of business reply card should be realized in advance and credited
to
a) Postmaster Account b) UCP

c) UCR d) None of these Ans:c(32)
19. Mark the correct option relating to the VP article found in letter box
a) The sorting clerk should after noting the irregularity in error book(MS-2) show
the article to the PM and make it over to Regn/Parcel clerk
b) If the article is fully prepaid with postage, registration fee and VPP and is
accompanied by the prescribed form duly filled up it should be disposed of as if
presented at the window
c) The receipt for the sender being handed over to sorting clerk and pasted him in
error book
20. ___________ must, from time to time examine the registers (MS-85) and visit books
(MS-86) of the village postmen attached to his office
a) Head record officer b) Inspector of post office

c) Postmaster d) None of these Ans:c(39)
21. The memorandum and statistical register (MS 14 a) are prepared by____ on the ____
and the statistical memorandum should be submitted to _____on the 10th of the each month
counter signed by______
a) Postmaster, 1st of the each month, head of the circle, divisional inspector
b) MO PA, 1st of the each month, head of the circle, divisional inspector
c) Regn/Parcel PA, 1st of the each month, Head of the circle, postmaster
22. On the _____ of the each month a statement of cases pending at the end of the
preceding month should be prepared by_____ in form______in duplicate by meant of
carbonic paper, the top copy being retained for office record and the lower copy being
submitted to the ____as the statement of complaint.
a) 5th , divisional inspector, Cpt-3, Head of the circle

b) 1st , First class postmaster, Cpt-3, Supdt of post office
c) 10th , HRO, Cpt3, Head of the circle
23. Suggestions complaint book (MS-94) will be kept by
a) Head Post officers b) Sub Post offices

c) RMS officer d) All post officers Ans:d(48b)
24. The book of information is maintained in ______ . The book should be kept up to date
and retained by _____ in his personal custody.
a) Each Head office, Postmaster b) Each branch officer, BPM

c) Each HO and SO, PM, SPM d) None of these Ans:c(48c)
25. Service books and service rolls in _______ the ________ is responsible for the safe
custody
a) Divisional office, SP b) Divisional office , SSP

c) Head Offices, Head Post master d) None of these Ans:c(49)
26. When a VP article is delivered as ordinary registered article and the VP amount
subsequently collected the amount should be taken to
a) MO issue and VPMO issued

b) To UCR and the amount paid to the sender charging under UCP
c) To UCR and VPMO issued by per-contra charge to UCP
d) Amount sent by service MO to the sender Ans:c(227a)
e)
27. A VP articles on which intimation has been served an lying in the deposit for seven
days can be retained
a) For further seven days without any fees

b) For further seven days on payment of fees
c) For fifteen days on payment of fees
d) Cannot be retained return to sender after 7 days Ans:b(231)
e)
28. In case of refused/unclaimed VP articles the VPMO form should be
a) Returned back to sender

b) Destroyed
c) Filled in the office
d) Upper portion of MO form destroyed and lower portion with sender’s certificate to
be filed Ans:d(232)
29. No redirection fee is charge on redirection of a parcel
a) If the revised address of the addressee is within the same delivery office
b) If the revised address of the addressee is within the same post town
c) If the parcel is returned to sender and if the sender resides in a different address
within the delivery area of the office or within the same post town
30. The amount noted for remittance to sender of VP article
a) Can be altered free of cost at the request of the sender

b) Can be altered on payment of prescribed fee at the request of the sender
c) Can only recall the article
31. Postage stamps can be affixed to IPOs to made up broken amount on the condition
a) The no of stamp should not exceed 3

b) Amount should not exceed 4
c) Total value of IPO including the stamps affixed there in should not exceed 100
32. Unpaid postage abstract is a record in form______-which is to be maintained by

every_____ and_______to record the _______of unpaid articles
a) MS-88, Account office, Circle account office, registered

b) ACG 45, Sub office and branch office, receipt
c) ACG 45 , Head office and sub office, receipt and dispatch
d) ACG 45, Account office, Head office, receipt and dispatch Ans:c
33. To availing registered journals facility at least ____ regd articles has to be booked
monthly
a) 150 b) 200
c) 250 d) 500 Ans:b
34 The sender of an inland regd article may obtain attested copy of the addressee’s
receipt on application made to the Post office within_____ of the date on which the
addressee signed the original receipt.
a) 3 months b) 4 months
c) 6 months d) One year Ans:c(185)
35. It will be ensured that the aggregate value of all the VP articles including article
including customs duty articles entrusted to an EDDA does not exceed Rs ______
a) 8000/- b) 5000/-
c) 10000/- d) 20000/- Ans:a
36 Postmaster order book (MS-1) maintained in
a) All sub offices b) All Branch offices

c) All Head offices d) All the above Ans:c(50)
37. In PO when duties of Pas are combined, the combination permissible is
a) Money order & Treasury b) Sub account & mail

c) Delivery and Deposit d) Delivery and mail Ans:d(4)\
38. The customs duty due on letter/packets of the foreign letter/mail should be
realized
a) And brought in to a separate head at the PO
b) In cash and credited under UCR
c) In cash and converted in to postage stamps affixed and defaced on receipts
d) Should be collected and sent to customs authorities directly Ans:a(1(3))
39. Business reply cards and envelops should be taxed
a) At the prepaid rate of postage

b) Twice the deficiency of the postage
c) At the prepaid rate of postage and handling charges.
d) At the twice the deficiency of postage and handling charges. Ans:c(32)
40. If an insufficiently prepaid VP article is found in a letter box, it should be
a) Returned to sender
b) Booked in the normal course and postage due is collected from the addressee
c) Booked in the normal course as a registered article
41. Loose account bags containing cash bags will be in the personal custody of the
a) Postmaster/Sub postmaster b) Sorting assistant

c) Sub Accounts assistant d) Treasurer Ans:d(67)
42. Transit bags means
a) Several bags intended for other offices received loose at the office
b) Bags to be kept in deposit at the office
c) Several bags intended to be dealt with the office enclosed in a bag addressed to the
office
43. Redirection fee for redirecting parcels should be collected
a) In cash and credited in to account as such

b) In cash and credited under UCR head
c) Should be collected in the form of undefaced postage stamps
d) Should be affixed on the parcel in the form of postage stamps and defaced
Ans:c(30)
44. Notice of hours of Business for PO/RMS offices should be supplied by
a) Head Post master b) Asst. Supd to PO

c) Postmaster General
d) Sr. Supdt of Pos/ Supdt. of Pos. of the division Ans:d(5)
45. Left India articles to be sent to RLO
a) At once b) One week

c) 15 days d) One month Ans:a
46. Time limit for requesting copy of address’s receipt of Regd articles
a) One month b) Two month

c) Three month d) Six month Ans:c
47. Notice of hours business for Branch office will be supplied by
a) The Divisional Supdt. b) The Head Postmaster

c) The account office d) Sub divisional Inspector Ans:d
48. Postal mails superscribed in “ On India Government Service” received for delivery
a) Containing both name and address of the officer to be delivered redirected

according to official designation
b) Containing only the name to be delivered according to name of the addressee
c) Postal mails not bearing the superscription “ On India government Service” but
contain name and designation of the officer., to be delivered redirected according
to name
49. A letter delivered to an addressee can be reposted within the post town for
redirection
a) After getting redirection fee b) After getting 50% of redirection fee

c) After collecting fee equal to postage d) Free of cost Ans:d(71)
50. When a VP article is redirected, intimation should be served to
a) Office of posting b) The addressee

c) The sender d) The concerned RMS Ans:a
51. Preliminary sorting of mails is done by
a) Mail Office b) Returned Letter Office

c) Post Office d) Head office Ans:c(84)
52. The postman returns undelivered unpaid articles to
a) Treasurer b) Deposit PA
c) The Postmaster d) Delivery PA Ans:c(123)
53. An article bearing “OIGS” addressed to the officer of Central Govt Service bearing
his name & designation is delivered to
a) Name b) Designation
c) Incharge of the office d) None of these Ans:b(101)
54. To ascertain the punctual clearance of letter box, the postmaster
a) Post test letters b) Post trial Cards

c) Post test Cards d) All the above Ans:a(73)
55. Delivery beat list are prepared by
a) Sub Divisional Head b) Supdt of Post Office

c) Postmaster of concerned PO d) Head Postman of concerned beat
Ans:c(102)
56. Window delivery tickets are meant for receiving
a) Regd/Unregistered mail at the window of the PO

b) Fully prepaid unregistered mails for the addressee across the window
c) Fully prepaid unregistered mail in a locked bag
d) All the above Ans:c(100)
57. In case of inward unpaid foreign mails, the article can be taxed
a) By any post office

b) by only the Head Post office
c) By the office of exchange in India
d) By the RMS office only Ans:c(115)
58. Accounts and branch office bags received in mail bags should be transferred to
a) The Sorting PA b) The sub account PA

c) The PM/SPM d) The treasurer Ans:d(106)
59. The unpaid station bundle addressed to the office should be
a) Opened by the delivery PA

b) Taken by the Postman for delivery
c) Made over, unopened , by the delivery PA, to the Postmaster
60. The paid unregistered article to be transferred to the deposit department at the
time of delivery will comprise
a) Article to be redirected
b) Articles to be deposited
c) Articles the addresses of which are not known/articles with undecipherable and
incomplete addresses/articles with fictitious address
61. Particulars of window delivery ticket issued should be entered in
a) Postmaster Order book

b) Postmaster Daily dairy
c) Register of window delivery tickets(MS 23)
62. Window delivery ticket prepared in form
a) MS 23 b) MS 22
c) MS 24 d) MS 11 Ans:c(100)
63. Post boxes and bags entitling the renders to receive delivery of all
a) Fully prepaid Parcels and VP parcels

b) Any letters
c) Fully prepaid unregistered letter, ILC, PC,
64. Beat instruction register prepared in form
a) MS 32 b) MS 31
c) MS 30 d) MS 24 Ans:a(102)
65. Book of addresses instructions is maintained by
a) Deposit Assistant b) Postmaster

c) Mail Assistant d) Sorting Assistant Ans:a(133)
66. Undelivered acknowledgement cards are to be destroyed after
a) 15 days b) One month

c) Three Months d) Four Months Ans:d(143)
67. If an article issued by RLO either for deliver to the addressees or to return to the
sender cannot be delivered
a) It may be redirected whenever the revised address of the addressee/sender is not

known the PO
b) It should be again returned to RLO
c) It should be burnt
d) It should be sent to the HPO for safe custody Ans:a(139)
68. Undelivered packets containing Registered Newspaper return to sender
a) On the same day b) After 7 days

c) After 15 days d) After one month Ans:b(143)
69. Permanent instructions are valid for
a) One year b) Two years

c) Three years d) Five years Ans:c(133)
70. Instructions regarding authorizing Post Office to pay money order to another
person are valid for
a) One year b) Two years

c) Three years d) Five years Ans:c(133)
71. If the addressee of ordinary article is not traceable and address of the sender is not
noted on the article
a) The article is kept in office undelivered
b) The beat postman tries to find out the addressee once again
c) The deposit PA forward it RLO after passing remark in red ink after keeping in
deposit for 7 days
d) The article may be destroyed with permission of Postmaster / Sub postmaster .
Ans:c(143)
72. An article for which notice of arrival has been tendered to the addressee, it
a) Can be redirected to a new address

b) Cannot be redirected to address elsewhere
c) Can be redirected on collection of specified fee
73. Unclaimed unregistered article marked ‘ Poste restante’ should be deposited of
a) Two months b) After 7 days

c) After 15 days d) After one month Ans:d(143)
74. I class foreign inward mail on redirections are eligible for free redirection
a) Up to the new address b) Within India

c) Not eligible for air transmission d) Cannot be redirected Ans:b(137)
75. Instruction slip means
a) Letter of instruction received for public

b) Instruction given by the postmaster to his subordinates
c) A document in which gist of instruction in connection with delivery / redirection
of postal article from public are communicated to departments
76. If an unpaid article sent to BO is returned as undelivered the article will be
a) Returned to sender after deducting the amount of postage from the cash and
stamp balance of BO
b) Returned to sender after deducting the amount of postage from cash and stamp of
the SO
c) Returned to sender after simply taking suitable entry in unpaid postage account in
BO
d) Returned to sender simply as ordinary letter Ans:c(130)
77. All article of correspondence originally received for delivery in India by foreign
post may be redirected to revised address
a) Only within India

b) Only to foreign countries served by foreign post
c) Any place served by India post or any country or place served by foreign post
d) To be returned to RLO Ans:c(137)
78. If an addressee of a Regd letter on signing in delivery slip refuses to sign in

acknowledgement
a) The article should be returned undelivered

b) An application to be obtained from the addressee to this effect
c) A witness to be obtained to this effect
d) A remarks regarding refusal should be written on the acknowledgment and the
article should be delivered Ans:d(117)
79. The official who initials in the postman book in token of receipt on RL
acknowledgments is
a) Registration PA b) Postmaster
c) Treasurer d) Mails PA Ans:a(183)
80. Parcels weighing above 10 KG should be
a) Delivered only at the post office b) Returned to sender

c) Delivered through the bean Postman d) Taxed Ans:a(180)
81. VP article can be kept in deposit from the date of intimation
a) For 14 days b) 7 days

c) 1 Months d) None of these Ans:b(231)
82. An unclaimed VP article should be returned to the sender
a) After 7 days b) After 10 days

c) After 15 days d) After one month Ans:a(231)
83. Fee to be collected when a regd parcel is redirected to the neighboring Distrust is
a) Nil
b) Half rate
c) Amount of postage prepaid on the parcel
d) Half the rate excluding the registration charge Ans:d(199)
84. VP article received for delivery without VPMO form
a) Article will be returned to the sender immediately

b) Article will be returned to RLO
c) MO form will be filled in with reference to the entries available on the article and
the article will be sent out for delivery
d) Article will be kept in deposit till receipt of VPMO form Ans:c(227)
85. Unclaimed articles of letter mail with remarks ‘not known’ and ‘left’ are returned
to sender
a) After 7 days b) After 10 days

c) After 15 days d) After one month Ans:a(143)
86. Insured articles addressed to minor may be delivered to
a) The minor to whom addressed

b) It may be delivered to the neighbors
c) No delivery of insured article be made
d) The minor in the presence of person who take care of the minor Ans:d(204)
87. Limit of insured articles that can be entrusted to a postman for deliver in his beat is
a) Up to Rs 250/- b) Up to Rs 600/-
c) Up to Rs 500/- d) Up to Rs 5000/- Ans:c(202)
88. Parcel may be detained in the office of delivery after serving intimation up to a
c) 7 days d) May be return to sender Ans:c(191)
89. The charges to be collected when a registred letter already delivered is presented
with a revised address for registration.
a) Cannot be registered
b) Fresh postage and registration charges to be paid
c) Postage alone to be collected
d) Fresh registration fee is to be collected Ans:d(171)
90. An attested copy of addressee’s receipt of registered article, if applied by sender
a) Can be given free of cost

b) Cannot be given
c) Can be given on payment of registration fee in cash
d) Can be given on payment of prescribed fees in the form of defaced postage stamps
Ans:d(185)
91. If the addressee of inward foreign parcel is aggrieved on the customs duty imposed
on the article, it
a) Should be taken delivery by the addressee and referred to customs authorities

b) Has no option except to take delivery or refuse to take delivery
c) Can request for return of the article to the customs for reassessment
92. Redirection fee due on refused inland parcel on redelivery to sender
a) Can be cancelled without any restriction.

b) Can be cancelled
c) Can be cancelled when delivered at the office of issue/at the same post town
93. Refused foreign registered articles of letter mail
a) Should be disposed in the same manner of inland registered letter mail

b) Should be sent to the foreign office of exchange
c) Should be sent to RLO though the PO at the HQ of the circle
94. Acknowledgement card attached to an unclaimed/returned registered article for

redelivery to sender should be
a) Delivered back to sender along with article

b) Filled along with delivery slips
c) Destroyed
95. Inward foreign parcels on which intimation served can be kept in deposit at the PO
for
c) One month d) Two month Ans:a(193)
96. Insured bags/insured bundles received must be opened
a) By the treasurer in the presence of Postmaster

b) By the registration PA
c) By the Postmaster
d) By the registration PA in the presence of the Postmaster Ans:d(137)
97. For foreign insured articles acknowledgements
a) Cannot be obtained b) Given free of charge

c) Special fee will be collected d) None of these Ans:c(198)
98. In the case of VPMOs issued at the office of delivery of the VP article, the MO receipt
a) Will be retained in the book of MO receipt.

b) Will be detached an sent to office of posting
c) The receipt will be given to the addressee of the article
d) Will be pasted to the corresponding VP receipt book Ans:d(227)
99. The value of a single VPMO should not exceed Rs
a) 500/- b) 2000/-
c) 5000/- d) No limit
Ans:c(226)
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME VI PART II
1. Cost of single MO forms is

c) Rs 1/- d) Free of cost Ans:b
2. The book of MO form contain
a) 50 forms b) 100 forms

c) 25 forms d) 200 forms Ans:a
3. The cost of VP MO form is

c) Rs 1/- d) Free of cost Ans:b
4. The daily MO issue journal and MO paid list prepared in
a) MO-2, MO-4 b) MO-4, MO14

c) MO 17, MO 18 d) None of these Ans:a
5. MO issue journal prepared in
a) Single copy d) In duplicate

c) In triplicate d) In quadruplicate Ans:c
a) MO check list prepared in MO 70

b) HVMO list prepared in MO-75
c) Register of MO received prepared in MO-3
7. The round and oblong MO stamp must always remain under lock and key in
personal custody of
a) Regn PA b) MO PA
c) Postmaster d) None of these Ans:c
8. MO becomes void
a) At the beginning of the month following the month of its issue.

b) At the end of the month of issue
c) At the end of the month following the month of its issue
9. The official who initial in the Postman book in token of receipt of MO

acknowledgement is
a) Regn PA b) Postmaster
c) Treasurer d) MO paid PA Ans:d(38)
10. If the remitter presents an application requesting postmaster of office of issue to

change the name of payee, the fee to be collected is
a) Second commission in cash

b) Free
c) Second commission in shape of postage stamp affixed on the application
11. A money order received for payment to minor of 5 year old is paid to
a) Parent or guardian
b) Minor himself
c) Any elder available at the given address
12. If the payee refuses to take MO payment, MO should be
a) Kept in deposit for 7 days

b) Returned to RLO
c) Returned to remitter at once
d) Returned to the remitter after 10 days Ans:c(62)
13. When a remitter presents MO form filled in regional language which is not known
at the office of payment, the MO issue PA
a) Translates into English

b) Dispatches the MO form as it is
c) Insists the customer to fill the form in English
d) Refused to book the MO Ans:a(9)
14. If a MO is lost after payment
a) Duplicate MO will be prepared by office of issue

b) Duplicate mo will be prepared by office of payment
c) Certificate of payment will be prepared by office of payment
d) Memo of admission of payment will be prepared by office of issue and on receipt,
the office of payment will get the signature of the payee in the memo and forward
it to the Audit Office. Ans:d(75)
15. Fee for redirection of an Inland MO is
a) Double of MO commission b) Equal to the MO commission

c) Hal of MO commission d) Free of cost Ans:d(59)
16. If the remitter wants to change the name of payee, after booking of MO
a) No fee is to be collected from eh remitter for the first alteration
b) Second commission equal to first
c) Half of the first commission
d) Postage stamp for Rs 10 to be affixed on the request form Ans:b(61)
17. High Value money order received without HVMO list

a) Will be returned to the remitter
b) Will be paid as usual
c) Will be sent to divisional office for further order
d) Will be kept in deposit to ascertain genuineness from the office of issue
Ans:d(87)
18. The amount of commission on a Service money order for Rs 5000 is
a) Rs 250/- b) Half rate of normal MO

c) Nil d) None of these Ans:c(11)
19. Family allotment money order is remitted by
a) Railway authorities b) Defense authorities

c) Telecom authorities d) None of these Ans:b(55)
20. The MO commission chargeable for remitting Rs 5000/- to National defense fund
and Prime minister Relief fund is Rs
a) Rs 250/- b) Half rate of normal MO

c) Nil d) 50 only Ans:c(11)
21. The stamp impressed on Mo form received for payment is
a) Oblong stamp b) Round MO stamp

c) Date stamp d) Name stamp Ans:b(25)
22. If a MO is repaid to the remitter, his signature should be obtained on
a) Only in the MO receipt portion

b) Both in the receipt and acknowledgment portion
c) Only in the acknowledgement portion
d) Only in postman book Ans:a(61)
23. Family allotment MO is printed in
a) Blue ink in red paper b) Blue ink on pink paper

c) Red ink on blue paper d) black ink on blue paper Ans:c(55)
24. If there is a discrepancy of less than Rs 10/- between the amount entered by the
remitter and by the office of issue
a) MO issue returned to the office of issue for necessary correction

b) MO is paid only after confirming the value of MO by fax/telegram
c) The amount written by the remitter is paid and irregularity reported to office of
issue
d) None of these And:c923)
25. If a payee of the VPMO (sender of the VP article) for Rs 400/- is deceased, then the
VPMO should be
a) Returned to the addressee of the VP article

b) paid to the claimant in the presence of alliterate witness
c) Returned to Audit office as unpaid
d) Paid to the claimant after obtaining indemnity bond with one surety Ans:d(77)
26. If a remitter of money order wants to stop its payment to the payee
a) Value of MO and commission paid will be refunded to him
b) Value of Mo will be refunded
c) No refund
27. Payment of a MO addressed to a place not served daily by postman will be
a) Made to the messenger as authorized by the payee in a letter given to the

Postmaster of office of payment
b) Paid only to the payee
c) Kept in deposit for 7 days an returned for repayment to the remitter
d) All the above Ans:a(30)
28. Which of the following stamps are not impressed by the issuing office while MO are
issued
a) The oblong MO stamp

b) Name stamp in acknowledgement portion
c) The round MO stamp
d) Month and audit stamp Ans:c(71)
29. Which one of the following stamps are not impressed at the office of payment of MO
a) The oblong MO stamp

b) Name stamp of office of payment
c) The round MO stamp
d) Ordinary MO stamp after payment of MO Ans:b(7)
30. Money order issued at BO will be
a) Will be numbered examined and issued at the account office as MO presented at

the window
b) Forwarded to HO for further action
c) MOs cannot be booked at BO
31. The MOs for payment at the office of payment will be received from the
a) Delivery department b) The Postmaster

c) The regn department d) Deposit department Ans:c(22)
32. Money order issued at the Pos will be dispatched
a) Along with other unregistered mail of the PO

b) MO bundles will be made and the bundles dispatched along with labeled bundles
of unregistered mails
c) Separate MO bundles will be prepared and transferred to registration PA for
dispatch along with registered mails enclosed in R bags
d) Enclosed in separate bag and dispatched Ans:c(21)
33. If there is a discrepancy of Rs. 5/- in the value of MO as written in the MO form by
the remitter and as advised by the office of payment
a) The payment should be withheld and a reference made to office of issue

b) The MO should be returned to office of issue
c) The amount entered by the remitter may be paid and irregularity reported to
office of issue
d) The case is referred to HO/divisional supdt. for advice Ans:c(23)
34. The MOs paid at BOs will be accounted for
a) At the accounts office b) At the HOs along with its paid MOs
c) Separately at the Audit office d) None of these Ans:a(44)
35. If a money order payable to a person whose identity is not known to the PO is
received
a) It cannot be paid at window

b) It should be paid on proper identification b a person known to the PO
c) Should be returned to the sender
d) Can be redirected/dispersed as per written instruction of the person Ans:b(33)
36. If a MO is received payable to a minor
a) It can be paid to the minor if he is old enough to understand the nature of the
transaction
b) When the minor is under years of discretion and is living with his parents,
payment will be made to his parents on signing the MO on behalf of the minor
c) When the minor is under years of discretion and is not living with his parents,
payment can be made to person in whose care the minor is living on getting an
undertaking
37. When MOs are paid to departmental pensioner, a life certificate should be signed
on the back of the acknowledgement portion of the MO form by
a) Near relatives of the pensioner b) A gazetted officer

c) Postman d) MO clerk Ans:c(121)
38. MO payable to lunatics who are committed by proceedings under the lunacy act to
lunatic asylum/mental hospital will be paid to
a) The manager of institution

b) The authority who has issued the order under lunacy act
c) The near relatives of the lunatic
d) Will not be paid but returned to sender Ans:d(264)
39. In case money order received for payment to a blind person
a) The provision as for payment of MOs to minors to be followed

b) Money order should not be paid but returned to remitter
c) The provisions as for payment of MOs to pardanishin woman to be followed
d) Provision for payment of MOs to illiterate payees should be observed
Ans:d(265)
40. Money order brought back toward unpaid MOs should be handed over to
a) The Postmaster b) Treasurer

c) The MO clerk d) The sub account PA Ans:b(266)
41. When family allotment money order are paid
a) The MOs paid shall be listed along with other MOs

b) The MOs will be entered in separate journal and accounted for separately in the
accounts
c) Will be entered in MO paid journals and the total entered in the ordinary journal
42. In the case of an inland MO, in which it is learnt that the payee has left India and his
revised address, is known to the PO
a) The MO cannot be redirected but is should be returned to the remitter.

b) The MO can be redirected to payee in another foreign country as per the
information available
c) The Mo can be redirected, but he difference in the commission of the redirected
MO to a foreign country should be deducted in the original value of MO
43. If a VPMO in favour of the sender of a VP article is remaining unclaimed at the PO
a) The MO will be returned to the addressee of the VP article for repayment

b) The issuing postmaster will encash the VPMO as the remitter and credit to PO
accounts
c) The VPMO will be treated as void and sent to audit office
44. The commission on MO can be refunded if the
a) MO is repaid to remitter
b) MO is wrongly returned back to remitter
c) The value of MO is defrauded
d) The commission in no case be refunded Ans:d(63)
45. The period of currency period of Money order expire
a) With the close of last day of the month of issue

b) With the close of last day of the month following month of issue
c) Three months from the date of issue of MO
d) With the close of six months following the month of issue Ans:b(65)
46. The remitter can be altered the office of payment of the payees address
a) On payment of second commission

b) Without any fees
c) Not permissible
d) Only can ask repayment to him Ans:b(69)
47. In sub offices where there are no treasurer cash for payment of MOs will be given
to the Postmen by the
a) Sub Postmaster b) Joint custodian

c) The MO clerk d) The head Postman Ans:c((27)
48. Memo of admission of payment is obtained
a) When duplicate money order are issued

b) When a money order is lost before payment
c) When a money order is lost after payment
d) When money order was paid to a person other than the payee. Ans:c(75)
49. All head and sub offices journal of money order paid are sent to audit
a) Daily b) Weekly
d) Twice in the month d) Monthly Ans:c(83)
50. The instances in which the MO receipt is treated as spoiled are when
a) There is an error in any of the entries requiring correction

b) When the receipt is disfigured due to spilling of ink etc
c) A receipt is inadvertently passed over and left blank and noticed at close of the
day
51. When a MO paid to a wrong person and the claimant urges for payment before
recovery of the amount from the wrong perosn
a) It cannot be done
b) Claim can be admitted on getting on indemnity bond
c) Payment can be made on proper sanction from the head of the division
d) Payment can be made on proper sanction form the head of the circle
Ans:c(42)
52. If the addressee of the VP article complain that he had been defrauded by the
sender
a) The amount collected can be returned to the addressee

b) The amount can be kept under suspense and case referred to office of posting
c) The amount to be credited under UCR and case referred to Head of the Cirlce
53. An Indian Postal Order presented for payment not bearing the round MO stamp of
office of issue
a) Cannot be paid
b) Can be paid after necessary verification from the office of issue
c) Will be returned to office of issue for suplly of omission and paid
54. The cases in which defective IPOs be paid without reference to higher authority
a) The IPO was first erroneously receipted by a person other than the payee entire
cancelled and properly receipted by the payee.
b) Receipting signature of the payee scored out by mistake or for defective one and
properly receipted.
c) Where the IPO was erroneously receipted the purchaser, it subsequently cancelled
and receipted by the payee.
55. The period of currency of IPO with second commission
a) Three calendar month from the last day of the month the IPO was issued
b) Six month from the last day of the month the IPO was issued
c) 24 months
d) 36 months Ans:d(195)
56. The IPO presented after the expiry period of currency, but before the time for
forfeiture
a) Cannot be paid
b) Can be paid on authority from the audit
c) Can be paid on payment of second commission by means of postage stamps
57. When an IPO is lost after payment.
a) An application should be made through the Supdt. of post office to the Head of the
circle asking for permission to issue a certificate of payment
b) The application should contain serial number and the denomination of the missing
order
c) Both the A and B
58. An IPO should not be paid to the payee it
a) The signature of the issuing postmaster is wanting

b) The round MO/special stamp of issuing office is not impressed.
c) Both the signature of issuing Postmaster/ Round impression wanting
59. Refund of value of IPO can be granted to the purchaser
a) At the office of issue on production of counter foil or the purchaser is known to the
post office
b) At any other office on production of counterfoil or the purchaser is known to the
post office
c) Both the above
60. In the case of inland money order paid certificate of payment is issued by the
postmaster of office of payment in the case of
a) Loss of MO after payment

b) If the MO acknowledgment is lost in transit and the remitter applies for it
c) Both the above
61. All MOs including VPMO will be treated a high value MO
a) For an amount of Rs 200/- and above

b) For an amount of Rs 500/- and above
c) For an amount of Rs 1000/- and above
d) For an amount of Rs 400/- and above Ans:d(87)
62. Payment of crossed Indian Postal order will be made
a) By cash
b) Direct to the payee
c) Through PO Saving bank or any of the bank
63. BO slips are prepared by
a) HO b) BO
c) SO(AO d) All the above Ans:c
64. Min and Max cash balance for each SO will be fixed by
a) Head post master b) Inspector/ ASP of the Sub division

c) PMG d) Divisional Supdt. Ans:d
65. If a money order cannot be paid owing to the death of the payee
a) It should be paid to his relatives in the address

b) It should be treated as an unclaimed order
c) It should be kept in deposit
66. A money order booked at the value of RS 1000/- received for payment without
oblong stamp impression – the MO should be
a) Paid as usual
b) Case should be reported to office of issue detaining the MO
c) MO to be retuned to office of issue
d) Matter should be reported to Superintendent Ans:b(23)
67. Witness is not necessary for delivery of
a) Regd article addressed to an illiterate addressee

b) An insured article received for delivery to a minor
c) MO for payment an illiterate payee
d) A TMO for payment to a payee without fingers
68. What is the max limit of value of money order which may issued for payment by a
Postman and Gp D in urban area, , village postman ED agent
a) 12000,5000,5000 b) 5000,8000,10000
b) 15000,10000,50000 d) None of these Ans:a
69. A money order received but loss before payment
a) The postmaster should then give an intimation to the office of issue by

telegraph/fax
b) After receiving the intimation the office of issue will prepare duplicate MO in MO
57 and forward to office of payment by service regd post
c) A report regarding the issue of a duplicate money order should be made to the
home postal account office.
70. Memo admission of payment in form MO 10(a) is prepared
a) When a MO loss after payment

b) When a MO loss before payment
c) Either A or B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:a
71. Application for the payment of void MO should ordinarily be made within
a) One year from the date of issue of the money order

b) Two year from the date of issue of the money order
c) Six month from the date of issue of the money order
72. 16th of the every month_____ will be send void MO list to ______in form MO 19(b)
a) SO, HO, b) SO, Circle Account office

c) SO, Postal Account Office d) HO , Postal account office Ans:d
73. MO station bundle prepared ____MO for particular station
a) Five or more b) Three or more

c) Two or more d) Four or more Ans:c
74. MO become void when

a) The MO not paid to payee or remitter
b) The MO not paid to payee or remitter at the end of the month following the month
of its issue
c) The MO not paid to payee or remitter at the end of the year
75. Summary of MO issue and payment is prepared in
a) MO 17, MO 18 b) MO 15, MO 16
c) MO 12, MO 13 d) None of these Ans:a
POSTAL MANUAL VOLUME VI
(PART III)
1. BO daily account exchanged between
a) SO and HO b) BO and HO
c) BO and SO d) Either B or C Ans:d(2)
2. Whenever a voucher that is required in support of an entry in the daily account, is

not received in the account office
a) The daily account bag should be returned to BO/SO

b) A not of the irregularity should be made in the error book
c) A remark should be written by the sub-account assistant on the daily account
against the particulars of the missing.
d) Both the B & C Ans:d(4)
3. BO sent to its account office
a) BO Slip b) SO Slip
c) SO daily account d) BO daily account Ans:d
4. Sub office sent to Branch office
c) SO daily account d) BO daily account Ans:d
5. Sub office sent to HO
c) SO daily account d) BO daily account Ans:c
6. Head office sent to SO
c) SO daily account d) BO daily account Ans:b
7. SO slip prepared in HO
a) Treasurer b) Head postmaster
c) Sub account assistant d) None of these Ans:c
8. SO slip prepared in
a) Single copy b) duplicate

c) Triplicate d) Quadruplicate Ans:b
9. If the voucher is not submitted on the call, or no explanation is afforded by he Sub

office or Brach offices concerned for withholding the voucher, the case should be
a) Closed b) Reported to Concerned Postmaster

c) Head of the circle d) Divisional Supdt Ans:d
10. If the item of account cannot be properly classified in the account office it should be
a) Taken UCR b) Taken UCP

d) A and b as the case may be d) None of these Ans:c(4)
a) A cash office is a sub office which, in addition to performing the ordinary work of
sub office
b) Those offices are made cash offices to other sub office
c) Ordinarily every SO situated at a treasury station will be required to act as cash
office with the sanction of Suptd of Post office.
12. When an urgent demand for additional funds is received form a sub office, after the
daily account bag for the office has been dispatched
a) An urgent demand will not be entertained in any case after bag dispatched
b) Remittance if possible should be dispatched through special carrier.
c) Where a second dispatch of mails is made, the remittance may be sent in a cash
bag detailed in an extra SO slip and enclosed in an extra account bag.
d) Both the A and B
e) None of these Ans:d(10)
13. How are sub post offices kept in funds?
a) By drawing from the treasury in the case of SO situated at treasury station

b) By remittances from another SO
c) By remittances from the HO
14. What arrangements exit for the disposal of surplus collection at SO?
a) By drawing to the treasury in the case of SO situated at treasury station

b) By remittances to another SO
c) By remittances to the HO
15. Mark the correct option relating to SO Slip
a) SO slip prepared in form Pa 3 by HO to each of its SO in every day enclosed in the

account bag
b) Amount with details, of cash (including stamps) sent to the SO
c) The balance of list of daily account received from the SO and accounted for in the
HO.
d) Particulars of documents and ser No and value of Postal order, sent to SO
16. An account bag from the SO to HO contain
a) The SO daily A/c, MO issue journal, MO paid list.

b) List of SB transactions/List of SB documents
c) Memo of IPO, Certificate, issued and discharged
d) A rolls, daily list of PLI premia collected and paid
17. An account bag from the Head Office to Sub office contain
a) The SO slip,
b) A cash bag containing cash including postage stamps
c) IPO, Saving certificate, for sales
d) SB Slip (SB 27), BO daily account after check, Blank MO forms for sale
18. Ordinarily cash in excess of Rs __________ should be enclosed in a cash bag
a) 500 b) 1000
c) 5000 d) 250 Ans:d(23)
19. When a remittance is made to a SO through a special carrier, in which document a

remark should be written for the information of SPM as to how the money was sent
a) In SO daily account b) In SO Slip

c) In HO summary d) In treasurer cash book Ans:b(23)
20. In sub offices cash received through special carrier a receipt for the sum should be
given
a) In SO daily account b) In treasurer cash book

c) Carrier’s book or dairy d) Any one of the above Ans:c(23)
21. On return of the carrier to the HO ________ should be examine the dairy or book of
the carrier to see that a receipt for the remittance has been obtained by him and initial it
with date in token of having carried out the examination.
a) Head Postmaster b) Sub account assistant

c) Treasurer d) Any senior of the branch Ans:c(23)
22. When no cash bags are enclosed, the account bags will be closed and sealed by
a) Treasure b) Postmaster
c) Sub account assistant d) Mail clerk Ans:c
23. When any remittance of cash/stamp are enclosed, the account bag
a) The treasurer should then enclose the cash/ in the cash bag in the presence of the
Sub account assistant and close and seal it also in the presence of the sub account
assistant.
b) The sub account assistant count the cash/stamp and closed by himself
c) The cash bag will be closed in presence of Postmaster
24. Mark the correct option relating to SO daily account.
a) The SO daily account is prepared by the sub postmaster himself

b) The sub postmaster is responsible for it correctness
c) The SO daily account may be prepared by SB PA
d) SB assistant is also responsible for it correctness Ans:a
25. Reasons for holding cash balances in excess of the prescribed maximum an below
prescribed minimum and the reasons for holding stamps balances excess should be
recorded in
a) Postmaster daily dairy

b) Rough daily account
c) Daily account cash excess column
d) Remarks column of daily account Ans:d
26. Which of the following particulars should also be furnished on the reverse of the
daily account.
a) Details of remittances received and sent from or to HO or other SO

b) Particulars of UCR , UCP, bills paid , reason for holding cash/stamp below
minimum or excess maximum
c) Requisition for postage entered in remarks column
d) All documents sent to along with the daily account
27. SO summary in Head office is prepared by
a) Treasurer b) Sub account assistant

c) HPM d) Any one of the above Ans:b
28. The purpose of maintaining the SO summary is
a) For consolidating the monetary transaction of the SOs in account with it

b) To check the transaction of the SOs including the branch offices in account with
them
c) To watch the cash and stamps and postage due in transit between the HO and the
SO under it.
29. What are the irregularities which are required to be brought to the notice of the
postmaster by the sub account assistant?
a) When the amount held in cash by a SO exceeds the authorized max balance and
cash is held below the authorized balance
b) When the stamps are not sold by SO
c) Both the A and B
d) Neither A Nor B Ans:a(58)
30. Remittances from a branch office to its account office are either sent by post or
through carrier eg.
a) Postmen b) Village postmen

c) Overseer’s. d) Any one of them Ans:d
31. Registered bag containing cash bag should be sealed by
a) Date seal b) Cash seal

c) Insured seal d) None of these Ans:c
32. BO account bag received in the account office should be opened by
a) Sub account assistant

b) Sub account assistant in presence of Treasurer
c) Treasurer
d) Treasurer in presence of Sub account assistant Ans:d
33. Cash bag received in account office should be opened by
a) Postmaster in presence of sub postmaster

c) Treasure in presence of sub account assistant
c) Either A or B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:b
34. Remittance exchanged between two sub offices entered in ______ at HO
a) SO daily account b) SO Slip

d) BO slip d) SO summary Ans:d(46)
35. Mark incorrect option relating to when In correct items noticed in a sub office
daily account
a) Should be communicated with sub postmaster with instructions as to how to

adjust the error
b) A similar note should be made in the sub office daily account received from SO till
the adjustment is carried out.
c) The daily account received from a SO should be returned for rectification of errors
36. Cash bag should be sealed by
a) Insured seal b) Cash seal and with black sealing wax

c) Cash seal d) Any one of the above Ans:c
37. A BO bag sent a branch office by its account office must always contain BO slip and
it may contain
a) Postal order for issue/payment

b) Money order for payment
c) Cash bag containing cash/stamp, SB document, and saving certificates
38. Contents of BO bag sent by the BO to its account office must always contain BO daily
count and it may contain
a) Paid and unpaid MOs b) Paid postal order

c) Cash bag with or without cash d) All the above Ans:d(65)
39. Which of the following entry will be made in BO
a) To invoice remittance noting the details of cash( including stamps) sent to the
branch office
b) To confirm the accuracy of the daily account last received from the BO by entering
the balance in words and figure of last BO daily account
c) To Note the particulars of articles, documents, account office receipts, sent to the
branch office.
d) To give instructions to the BPM whenever necessary
40. BO Slips are prepared in
a) Duplicate b) Single
c) Triplicate d) Quadruplicate Ans:a(63)
41. Entries in BO slip are made and signed by
a) Sub postmaster b) Treasure

c) Sub account assistant d) Any one of the above Ans:c(63)
42. Acquittance rolls should be signed by _______ and forwarded to_______
a) Sub account assistant, HO b) Treasure, Account office

c) Postmaster, HO d) Treasure, HO Ans:c(91)
43. The acquittance rolls should not be detained in the SO beyond the _____ day of the
month in which the pay is disbursed.
a) Next b) Fifth
c) Tenth d) Same Ans:c(91)
44. Authorized bal to SO are fixed by
a) Head of the circle b) Sub divisional inspector

c) Regional PMG d) Supdt of Post office Ans:d(102)
45. The duties of Head postman is
a) To convey cash from and to the treasury or town SOs

b) To take out for delivery article that have been returned by other postman as
unclaimed or refused
c) To work in the place of any postman who is temporarily absent
46. Mark the correct options relating village postman register.
a) Village postman register is Form 85 is kept by each postman

b) Address of the all article a/w No is to be entered in the register
c) The postage due on the unpaid article is to be entered in this register.
47. Mark the correct option relating to Village postman book
a) Village postman book is form 86 should be kept by each village postman

b) Before proceeding on his beat, the village postman must enter in it the date and
day of the week on which he leaves the post office and the names of all villages
that he required to visit.
c) As each village is visited, the village postman should obtain the signature of the
Headman or other responsible person with date and time..
48. The cash bag should always be sent to the account office by the BPM enclosed on
the______
a) BO daily account b) SO daily account

c) BO Slip d) SO slip Ans:a
49. BO Journal in form Pa 5 kept in
a) All BOs b) Selected BOs

c) Account office d) All the above Ans:a
50. Book of BO receipts containing _______ pringed serialy numbered receipts in _____ is
supplied to the _____
a) 50, duplicate, BO b) 100, triplicate, BO
c) 100, duplicate, BO d) 100, duplicate, EDPO Ans:c
POST OFFICE SAVING BANK MANUAL VOLUME I
1. What is the current rate of interest on saving accounts?
a) 3.5% b) 4%
c) 8% d) 8.2 % Ans:b
2. The revised rate of interest @4% on saving accounts wef
a) 01 Oct 2011 b) 01 Dec 2011

c) 01 Nov 2011 d) 01 Jan 2012 Ans:b
3. How many Single saving accounts may be opened by an adult in his own name in
any one post office?
a) Only one b) Only Two

c) No such limit d) None of these Ans:a(4)
4. How many adult may open a joint saving account?
a) Two b) Three
c) Two or three d) None of these Ans:c
5. What is the minimum age for opening a single saving account by a minor himself in
his name?
c) 18 years d) No min age limit Ans:a
6. How many saving accounts can be opened by a guardian on behalf of a minor?
a) Only one account can be opened on behalf of one minor by one guardian i.e either
mother or father
b) Only two account can be opened on behalf of one minor by both the father and
mother
c) No min limit
7. What is the fee for making nomination in a saving accounts first time
a) Rs 1/- b) Rs 2/-
8. What is the fee for getting the nomination altered in a savings account
a) Rs 1/- b) Rs 2/-
c) Rs 3/- d) Rs 5/- Ans:a
9. In what manner fee for getting the nomination cancelled in a Savings account is to
be paid?
a) In shape of cash
b) By deposit to UCR
c) In shape of stamp affixed on the application
10. How many times withdrawal can be made from a savings account standing at BO in
a day?
a) Two times only b) Only once

c) Any number of times d) None of these Ans:b
11. How many times withdrawal can be made from a savings account standing at
SO/HO in a day?
a) Two times only b) Only once

c) Any number of times d) None of these Ans:c
12. Up to what amount payment order for withdrawal from saving account may be
sanctioned by a branch postmaster?
a) Rs 500/- b) Rs 2500/-
c) Rs 5000/- d) Rs 10000/- Ans:c
13. What is minimum balance should remain in a savings account without cheque
account after withdrawal?
a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 500/-
c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 100/- Ans:a
14. What is minimum balance should remain in a savings account with cheque book
after withdrawal?
a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 500/-
c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 100/- Ans:b
15. Whether nomination facility is available in savings account opened in the name of
a minor by his guardian?
a) Yes b) No
c) Cannot say d) None of these Ans:b
a) Minor cannot appoint a messenger for making withdrawal from SB account

b) At the time of making a withdrawal by cheque from saving account not necessary
to provide pass book
c) The amount annual interest added in a saving account may not be treated as
transaction in that account
17. What is minimum amount may be withdrawn by a cheque from a cheque saving
account?
a) Rs 500/- b) Rs 100/-
c) Rs 100/- d) Rs 20/- Ans:d
18. After how many consecutive years without any transaction a saving account is
treated as silent account?
c) 4 years d) 5 years Ans:b
19. What is the fee for issue of duplicate passbook in saving account?
a) Rs 20/- b) Rs 10/-
c) Rs 5/- d) Free Ans:b
20. In what manner the fee for issue of duplicate pass book of savings account is paid
by the depositor?
a) By cash
b) By crediting to UCR
c) Postage stamp equal to the value of the fee to be affixed on the application
d) Through ACG 67 Ans:c
21. Which office issue duplicate passbook of a saving accounts is paid by the
depositor?
a) Head Office b) SO
c) The same SO where A/c Stands d) None of these Ans:c
22. What is the fee for transfer of saving account from one post office to another post
office?
a) Rs 5/- b) Rs 10/-
c) Rs 1/- shape of postage d) Free Ans:d
a) The final withdrawal in saving account made through SB 7 only

b) In joint B saving accounts at the time of transfer and closing all the account
holder’s signature is required.
c) Saving account of deceased depositor can not be transferred from one post office
to another post office
24. How many persons can be nominated by the depositor of a savings account?
a) Only one persons b) Two persons only

c) Any number of person d) None of these Ans:c
25. What is the maximum balance may be deposited to Single/ Joint account
a) 1 lac/2 lac b) 2lac/3 lac

c) No maximum limit d) None of these Ans:c
26. No maximum limit on saving bank accounts from
a) 01 Oct 2011 b) 01 Dec 2011

c) 01 Jan 2012 d) None of these Ans:a
27. Interest earned is Tax free u to Rs
a) 5000/- b) 3000
c) 2500/- d) 3500/-
Ans:d
a) Single account can be converted into Joint and Vice versa

b) Minor after attaining majority has to apply for conversion of the account in his
name
c) If minor attaining majority the account can be closed by guardian
29. If the account opened with initial deposit exceeding Rs 50000/- _____ is mandatory
a) Pan Card photocopy b) Declaration in form 60/61

c) Both the above d) Either A or B Ans:d
a) A pensioner of any central or state Govt whom dept of post has signed an
agreement for disbursement of pension can open either single or joint with spouse
account.
b) Sanchayika accounts can be opened in the name of the principal/teacher and two
students not less than 10 year of age
c) Minor account can be opened by a person under the law in force from time to time
as guardian when father and mother both are not alive
31. Mark correct option relating to worker wage accounts
a) A single account may be opened by any of the registered adult of a house hold
whose name is mentioned in the job card.
b) A joint account can be opened in the name of husband and wife provided that
names of both are registered in the job card
c) Joint B account cannot be opened under this category of account
d) Only one account can be opened.
e) All the above Ans:d
32. What is IGNOAPS?
a) Indian Government National Old Age Pension Scheme

b) Indian Guaranty National Old Age Pension Scheme
c) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme
33. What is IGNWPS?
a) Indian Government National Worker Pension Scheme

b) Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme
c) Indira Gandhi National Worker Pension Scheme
34. What is IGNDPS?
a) Indira Gandhi National Development pension Scheme

b) Indian Government National disability pension Scheme
c) Indiara Gandhi National disability pension Scheme
35. A blind or illiterate or physically handicapped adult
a) Cannot be opened any account

b) May open or operate account personally
c) May operate account through a literate agent nominated by him for the purpose
d) Both the B and C And:d
a) A literate person can account with cheque facility

b) No minimum amount is required for opening of Workers wage account
c) Saving account can be opened by cash only
40. What is MG-NREGA?
a) Most Guaranteed – National Rural Employment Guaranty Act

b) Mhatma Gandhi- New Right Enabled Guaranty Act
c) Mahatma Gandhi- National Rural Employment Guaranty Act
a) No subsequent deposit allowed less than Rs 5 in saving account

b) No withdrawal is allowed less than Rs 5
c) No withdrawal shall be permitted which has the effect reducing the balance to less
than fifty in single account and less than 500 in cheque account
a) No interest shall be allowed on an account for any month in which the balance at
credit below twenty rupees ant any time between the close of the tenth day and
end of the month
b) No interest shall be allowed on an account for any year in which the amount of
interest for the year is less than one rupees
c) In case death of the depositor interest in the account will be allowed till the end of
the month preceding the month in which sanction for withdrawal of balance is
issued by competent postal authority
a) No further transaction will be allowed in silent account

b) The silent account cannot be revived should be closed
c) The silent account can be revived by transaction and submitting an application.
a) In case of silent accounts in which the minimum balance below Rs 50/- a service
charge of Rs 20/- per year is debited on the last working day of the financial year.
b) When balance in silent account becomes Zero the account shall be treated as
closed
c) A service charge for dishonored cheques @50/- per cheque plus postage charge
will be debited to the depositor accounts.
45. In case any discrepancy, passbook will be retained and receipt form____ will be
issued to the depositor
a) SB-32 b) SB-28
c) SB-27 d) SB-14 Ans:b
46. In case the balance was above one lac in deceased depositor account___ is necessary
a) Witness of responsible person

b) Thumb impression of the deceased person
c) Succession certificate or Probate of will or letter of administration
47. To supply of saving bank ledger copy Rs _____ will be charged
a) 10 per ledger copy

b) Rs 5 per every thirty entry
c) Rs 2 per every thirty entries or part there of
d) Free Ans:c
48. Mark the correct option relating to cheque collection charges.
a) Rs 30/- for a cheque up to Rs 1000/-

b) Rs 3/- per thousand beyond Rs 1000/-
c) No collection charges will be charged on outstation cheque of Post office saving
bank drawn in post office saving bank
49. When an account opened in contravention of rules
a) The account should be closed

b) The deposit made in the account refunded to the depositor without interest
c) Both A and B
a) The account can be transferred submitting an application in form SB 10(b)

b) The account may be opened in using the form SB 3
c) SB 7 is necessary to get withdrawal except cheque account
51. A person can open ____ of RD Accounts in one post office
a) Only one b) One single and another joint

c) Any number d) None of these Ans:c
a) A RD account can be opened with min deposit of Rs 10/- and multiple of Rs 5/-
b) No max deposit will be prescribed in RD account
c) Rebate will be paid on 6 advance deposit or more as per prescribed and default
will be recovered if a depositor fails to deposit his/her monthly deposit up to last
working day of a calendar month,
a) Withdrawal will be allowed 50% deposited amount in RD account after one year
and after 12 monthly deposit.
b) No withdrawal is allowed in discontinued RD accounts
c) 10% interest will be charged on loan amount
d) If the repayment with interest is made on or before the 10th of the month, no
interest shall be payable for that month
54. The rate of interest in RD account opened before 01 Dec 11 and on or after 01 Dec
2011 and up to 31 Mar 12 is
a) 6.5%, 7% b) 7.5%, 8%
c) 8%, 8.5% d) 8%, 8.2% Ans:b
55. The maturity value on Rs 10 denomination of RD account opened on or after 01 Dec

2011 and up to 31 Mar 12 and 01 Apr 12 is(Interest @8.4%)
a) 728.29 b) 738.62, 747

c) 738.51 d) 738.10 Ans:b
56. Mark the correct option relating to RD
a) If there are more than four monthly defaults, the account shall be treated as
discontinued
b) Revival of the account shall be permitted only within a period of two months from
the month of fifth default.
c) Discontinued account can be closed after three years
57. Protected saving scheme is admissible in _____ den of RD accounts
a) 10 b) 20
c) 50 d) 50 Ans:d
58. Mark the correct option relating to Protected saving scheme

a) Twenty four months have been elapsed from the date of opening the account and
during the said period all the month installments have been paid into the account
without any default and there has been no withdrawal from the account during
the period.
b) The age of the depositor or depositors as the case may be, at the time of opening
the account was not less than 18 years and not more than 53 years
c) The legal heir/nominee of the deceased depositor has not made any claim or has
not already been given the benefit in respect of any other account under the
scheme
d) The claim applied for within one year of the death of the depositor
a) In case RD account opened between 1st and 15th of the month the subsequent
deposit shall be made up to 15th of the next month.
b) In case RD account opened between 16th and last date of the month the
subsequent deposit shall be made up to end of the month of next month
c) The above effect apply all account opened before 01 Jan 2012 and after .
(This rule presently not in force)
60. In case of maturity value of discontinued RD account is retained after the date of
maturity the depositor shall be entitled ______ of interest wef 01 Jan 2012
a) 3.5% b) 4%
c) 8% d) 9.25% Ans:b
61. Post maturity interest on RD account after extended maturity period shall be paid
up to
a) 1 Year b) 2 Years
c) 3 Years d) No limit (from 01-01-12) Ans:d
62. Present rate of interested on on 1, 2, 4, 5 years fixed deposit(TD) is
a) 6.25%, 6.50%, 7.25%, 7.50% b) 7.25%, 7.50%, 8%, 8.2%

c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5% d) None of these Ans:c
63. A person can open ____ of TD Accounts in one post office
a) Only one b) One single and another joint

c) Any number d) None of these Ans:c
64. Minimum limit for deposit in TD Account
a) 200/- and multiple 200/- b) 100/- and multiple 100/-

c) 200/- and multiple 100/- d) None of these Ans:a
a) There is no maximum limit of deposit in TD accounts of any type

b) No subsequent withdrawal allowed in TD accounts before date of maturity
c) The investment under 5 years TD qualifies for the benefit of Section 80C f the
income tax Act 1961 from 01-04-2007
66. The amount of maturity inclusive of interest if becomes Rs 20000/- or above shall
be paid by
a) Cash only b) By crossed cheque

c) By Credit into saving accounts d) Either B or C Ans:d
a) TD accounts cannot be closed prematurely before 6 months from the date of

opening of account.
b) Where a deposit in 1, 2, 3 or 5 year account is withdrawn prematurely after 6
month but before expiry of one year from the date of deposit , Normal SB interest
will be payable to the depositor.
c) Where a deposit in 2,3 or 5 year account is withdrawn prematurely after the
expiry of one year interest on such deposit shall be payable to the depositor such
interest hall be calculated at the rate which shall be 1% less than the rate specified
for 1 , 2 or 3 years as the case may be.
68. Pledging of TD account as security in the name of
a) The president of India or Governor of the state in his official capacity

b) The reserve bank of India or a scheduled bank or a co-operative society
c) Both the A and B
69. Post maturity interest on TD account shall be paid up to
c) 3 Years d) No limit Ans:b
a) No cheque collection charge is to be charged in Worker wage accounts

b) Workers wage account cannot be transferred from one post office to another Post
office
c) No subsequent deposit can be made in workers wage account
d) No amount is required for opening worker wage accounts
71. Minimum limit in opening of MIS account
a) Rs 1000/- and in multiple of Rs 1000/-

b) Rs 1500/- and in multiple of Rs 1500/-
c) Rs 1250/- and in multiple of Rs 1250/-
72. What is the maximum limit of deposit in MIS account in single and joint?
a) 1.5 lac and 3 lack b) 3 lac and 4.5 lack
c) 4.5 lac and 9 lac d) 6 lac and 9 lac Ans:c
73. Mark the correct option MIS account opened on or after 01 Apr 12
a) The rate of interest shall be 8.5 % per annum payable monthly.

b) No withdrawal will be allowed before expiry of maturity period 5 years
c) No bonus shall be payable
73. 5% bonus on initial deposit of MIS account allowed an account opened between
a) 08 Dec 2007 to 30 Nov 2011 b) 13 Feb 2006 to 30 Nov 2011

c) Before 13 Feb 2006 d) None of these Ans:a
74. Post maturity interest on TD account shall be paid up to
c) 3 Years d) No limit Ans:b
a) The MIS account can be close after expiry of one year.

b) The MIS account closed after one year but before three year 2 % deduction will
be made on initial deposit
c) The MIS account closed after expiry of three year 1% deduction will be made .
on the initial deposit
d) In case of death of the depositor before maturity account may be closed and
deposit refunded along with interest up to the month preceding the month in
which refund made.
a) In case death of the one depositor of joint account holder , in the MIS account the
account will be treated as single from the date of death of the account holder
b) The surviving depositor will have withdraw the excess amount over and above the
maximum limit of investment by single depositor.
c) If this amount is not withdrawn, the excess amount will carry the normal saving
bank interest
77. Present rate of Senior citizens saving scheme account is____ payable quarterly.
a) 10% b) 9.3%
c) 8.5 % d) 9.5% Ans:b
78. What is the Minimum and maximum deposit in Senior citizen saving scheme
a) 500 & 5 Lac b) 1000 & 10 Lac
c) 1500 & 15 Lac d) 1000 & 15 Lac Ans:d
79. Mark the correct option relating to Senior citizens saving scheme
a) An individual of the Age 60 years or more may open the account

b) An individual of the age of 55 years or more but less than 60 years who has retired
on superannuation or under VRS can also open account within the one month of
receipt the retirement benefits and not exceed the amount of retirement benefits
c) The maturity period is 5 years
80. A depositor may operate a senior citizen account
a) More than one account in individual capacity or jointly with spouse

b) Only one account single another one with spouse
c) Only one single account and more than one joint account
81. Joint account can be opened with
a) Father/mother only b) Spouse only

c) Any persons d) Only within relation Ans:b
a) No subsequent withdrawal is allowed in SCSS account before expiry of 5 years

b) Premature closer is permitted after expiry on one year
c) A deduction will be made 1.5% of the deposit in case account close before expiry
of 2 year and 1% after expiry of 2 years.
83. Registration, cancellation or change in the nomination
a) Rs 5/- will be charged b) Rs 1/- will be charged

c) No fee will be charged d) None of these Ans:c
a) After maturity , the senior citizen account will be extended further 3 year
b) The account continued after maturity, the deposit shall earn interest at the rate
applicable to the new account opened.
c) In case the account not extended on maturity and closed at any time the saving
bank interest applicable
d) There is no maximum time limit for PMI
85. Mark the correct option relating to Senior citizen saving account
a) Account opening form is Form A & for closing Form E
b) Pay in Slip Form D
c) Account transfer form is From G
86. Issue of duplicate pass book of Senior citizen account Rs____ will be charged
a) 10/- b) 20/-
c) No fee d) None of these Ans:a
87. Issue of duplicate pass book of senior citizen account on second time Rs ___ will be
charged
a) 10/- b) 20/-
c) Second time free d) None of these Ans:b
88. Mark the correct option continuation of senior citizen account after death of the
depositor
a) In case of joint account (Senior citizen) or where spouse is the sole nominee, the
spouse may continue the account on the same terms and conditions even if the
spouse is below the age of 60 year.
b) The account cannot be continued should be closed.
c) If both spouses opened joint account, the spouse cannot continue account after
death of the 1st depositor
89. What is the age criteria for joint holder (spouse) in case of joint SCSS account
a) Joint holder also to attain 60 years

b) No age criteria for join holder
c) Should be attain 55 years
d) All the above Ans:b
90. No TDS will be deducted if the amount of interest paid in a financial year does not
exceed Rs____
a) 3500/- b) 5000/-
c) 1000/- d) 10000/-
Ans:d
91. PPF account can be opened by
a) An individual adult can on his own name

b) An individual on behalf of minor
c) Both the A & B
92. What is the rate of interest in PPF wef 01 Apr 12 ?
a) 8.8% per annum compounded yearly

b) 8.5% per annum compounded yearly
c) 8.6 % per annum compounded yearly
93. What is the minimum and maximum limit to deposit in PPF account?
a) 500 and 5000 b) 500 and 70000

c) 1000 and 100000 d) 500 and 100000 Ans:d
94. Mark the incorrect option relating to PPF account
a) An individual can open account with Rs 5/-

b) Joint account can be opened in PPF
c) Nomination facility is available
d) Both the A and B Ans:b
95. The SCSS account transferred one Post office to another post office
a) Rs 5/- per lac will be charged where the deposit is Rs 1 lac and above
b) Rs 10/- per lac will be charged where the deposit is Rs 1 lac and above on second
transfer.
c) No fee will be charged
d) Both the A and B( The fee will be paid by cash through pay in slip Ans:d
96. PPF account can be opened
a) only one single

b) One minor account on behalf of the minor
c) A only
d) Both the A and B Ans:d
a) Maximum 12 deposit can be made in a financial year and more than one deposit
can be made in one month
b) Only one account can be opened in Post office or SBI or any nationalized banks.
c) The account can be transferred from one PO to another and PO to State bank or
nationalized bank vice versa.
98. The PPF account can be extended after maturity up to
a) Further block five year. b) Further two years

c) Cannot be extended d) None of these Ans:a
99. The PPF account
a) Cannot be attached any order or decree of court

b) Is totally exempted from income tax
c) In the event of the death of the depositor , the amount standing to his credit can be
repaid to his nominee or legal heir even before expiry or 15 year
100. Mark the incorrect option.
a) The PPF account is not transferable from one person to another person.
b) In the death of the depositor nominee can be continued the account
c) Both the A and B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:b
101. Mark the correct statement:
a) A withdrawal in a PPF account can be refunded in not more than 36 monthly

installments:
b) Interest on withdrawal taken from a PPF account is one percent above the rate of
interest admissible on PPF subscription
c) Second withdrawal can be taken after refund of 1st withdrawal with interest
thereon
d) The amount of withdrawals in a PPF Account is not repayable Ans:d
102. Mark the correct statement.
a) Second withdrawal in a PPF account is payable in the next financial year of the
year in which principal and interest on first withdrawal has been fully refunded
and other conditions fulfill
b) Second loan is permissible in the financial year in which 1st loan and interest
thereon has been recovered provided the 1st loan was not taken in the same year
and other conditions fulfill
c) Second loan is permissible in the same financial year if first loan taken in the year
has been refunded alongwith interest thereon and other conditions fulfill
d) None of the above is correct Ans:b

What are the option available to the PPF subscriber on maturity of his PPF account:
a) To close the account
b) To continue the account with deposits
c) To continue the account without deposits
d) Either (A), (B) or (C) above Ans:d
a) The first loan on PPF accounts can be taken in the third year from the year of
opening the account.
b) The amount of Loan will be restricted to 25% of the balance at the account end of
the second year preceding the year in which the loan is applied for.
c) The loan is repayable either in lump sum or in convenient installments of not
more than 36.
In a PPF account opened on 1.2.2011:

a) 1st loan can be taken on 1.4.2012
b) Loan as on 1.4.2012 shall be admissible limited to 25% balance as on 31.3.11
c) The first withdrawal shall be permissible on 01.02.2015
d) Subscriber can take second loan on 1.4.2013 without repaying earlier loan
Ans:a
106. If the original passbook of depositor of PPF account is lost or mutilated or

damaged, He/she should be required pay Rs _____
a) 10/- b) 20/-
c) 1/- d) Free Ans:c
107. Mark the correct option relating to withdrawal on PPF account
a) The first withdrawal can be made at any time after expiry of 5 years from the end
of the year in which the initial subscription was made.
b) The amount of withdrawal is limited to 50% balance at the credit at the end of the
4th year immediately preceding the year in which the amount is withdrawn or end
of the preceding year, whichever is lower.
c) Only one withdrawal can be made in one financial year . The amount of
withdrawal is not repayable.
108. The depositor shall be pay Rs _____ to transfer of PPF account one PO to another PO
or SBI bank
a) Rs 10/- b) Rs 50/-
109. In case the depositor not made any transaction in PPF account.
a) Rs 50/- will be collected for the one financial year

b) Rs 100/- will be collected for no transaction was made for two financial year in
shape of cash and credited into UCR
c) Condone default is called to the defaulted deposit
110. An individual hold a PPF account with balance is Rs 500/- the date of last
transaction made on 01-03-2008 and the depositor has comes to deposit in his account
on 01 Jan 2012 but no transaction was made in his account till date.
a) The subscriber should be deposit by paying default Rs 200 and the subscription
should be deposited Rs 500/-
b) The subscriber should be deposit by paying default Rs 150 and the subscription
should be deposited Rs 2000/- and should not exceed the maximum deposit
ceiling of Rs. 1, 00,000/-
c) A subscriber may deposit the minimum subscription of Rs. 500/- plus the default
fee of Rs. 50/- for each year of default, subject to the condition that the total
deposit during the year in which defaulted subscription is deposited, should not
exceed the maximum deposit ceiling of Rs. 1,00,000/-
d) None of these Ans b
111. MIS account in multiple of Rs. 1500/- can be made instead of Rs. 1000/- MIS and the
maximum limit of investment in a single account has been raised from Rs. 3 lakh to Rs. 4.5
lakh and in joint account opened by two or three adults; the maximum limit has been
raised from Rs. 6 lakh to Rs. 9 Lakh. Wef
a) 01.8.2007 b) 12.5.2008
c) 30.08.2009 d) None of these Ans:a
112. With effect from------------------, all Single/Double handed Sub Post Offices, at the
time of closure/premature closure of RD/MIS/SCSS accounts will collect closed passbook
from the depositor and attach the same with account closure form and send in a manner
as prescribed for dispatch of vouchers and LOT to HO.
a) 15.2.2008 b) 11.06.2010
c) 23.06.2010 d) None of these Ans:a
113. From -------------, the transferring Head Post offices will dispatch Advice of Transfer
(AT) by Service Insured Post for Rs.100/- duly sealed instead of Service Registered Post.
a) 16.03.2010 b) 12.06.2010
c) 15.05.2008 d) 16-03-2009 Ans:d
114. The date of credit of cheque in case of RD/PPF account will be the date of
a) Presentation of cheque
b) Receipt of the cheque from postmaster
c) Receipt of the cheque from HO
d) The date clearing Ans:d
115. present the Counter Assistant is authorized to receive deposits and allow
withdrawals up to Rs.--------------/- in savings accounts only under his own power without
showing the documents to the Ledger Assistant and the Supervisor.
a) 5000 b) 2000
c) 4000 d) None of these Ans:a
116. For each Sub Post office , the --------------- will fix the authorized stock of Pass Book.
a) Head Post master b) Sub Divisional Heads

c) Divisional Heads d) None of these Ans:c
117. The initial deposit for opening of savings account shall be accepted in cash wef
a) 01.01.1990 b) 05.02.2000
d) 12.02.2005 d) None of these Ans:a
118. When will issue memo of Admission of Payment ?
a) Warrant of payment is lost before its submission

b) The amount of withdrawal more than 50000/-
c) Both the A and B
d) None of these Ans:a .
119. Whenever a transaction cannot be posted by the HO in a particular account for

any reason a remark------------------ will be made by the HO against the entry in LOT
a) Not posted b) Unposted

c) Remain to post d) None of these Ans:b
120. The SB 60 denotes
a) Journal b) SB Pass Book

c) LOT d) None of these Ans:c
121. The SB slips (SB 27 ) is used for ------------------
a) SB document is sent by the HO to SO

b) withdraw money from counter
c) SB documents is sent by the SO to HO
d) None of the above Ans:a
a) SB 26 denotes preliminary receipt

b) SB 28 denotes receipts for depositors passbook
c) SB 58 denotes long book
123. List of documents in form SB-104
a) By SO to HO b) HO to SO
b) Both the A and B d) None of these Ans:a
124. An advice of transfer in form SB-9 is prepared in ______ by
a) APM, duplicate b) APM, single

c) Postmaster , duplicate d) Ledger assistant, duplicate
Ans:d
125. The post office saving bank started from
a) 1990 b) 1880
c) 1882 d) 1982 Ans:c
126. SCSS account introduced in
a) 1992 b) 1994
c) 2002 d) 2004 Ans:d
127. Payment of commission on PPF and SCSS is
a) 1% and 0.5% d) 2% and .05%

c) 0.5% and Nil d) No commission paid Ans:d
On or after 01 Dec 2011
128. MPKBY means
a) Mahila Pradan Kshetriya Bachat Yojana

b) Money Prevention Kendriaya Bachat Yojana
c) Marketing Popular Kshetriya Bachat Yojana
SAVING CERTIFICATES
1. The following which shall be the personal responsibility of the Head Postmaster:
a) Deciding claims in respect of Savings Certificates of deceased holders which lie
within his power of decision and the safe custody of records relating to such
claims
(b) Signing and submission of savings certificates returns to the Postal Accounts
Office in offices where there is no separate Selection Grade Official Incharge of the
Savings Certificate branch.
c) Sanctioning the transfer of savings certificates from one person to another.
2. Certificates of all types and denominations are printed and supplied by
a) Central Stock depot b) Central Store depot

c) Security press nasik d) None of the above Ans:c(3)
3. Certificates of all types and denominations are printed at the Security Press, Nasik,
who supplies them to
a) Postal Stock depot b) Circle office

c) Circle stamp depot d) Head office Ans:c(3)
4. Kissan Vikas patra discontinued from
a) 01 Nov 11 b) 15 Nov 11
c) 01 Dec 11 d) 01 Jan 12 Ans:c
5. The invoice (NC-13) for supplying the Certificate prepare in
a) Duplicate b) Triplicate
c) Quadruplicate d) Single copy Ans:b(3)
6. The fortnightly consolidated list of certificates issued to POs should, be sent by

_____to the ____
a) Circle Stamp Depots, Circle postal accounts office

b) Head offices , Postal account office
c) Circle office , DG Post
d) Circle office, Circle account office Ans: a(3)
7. All supplies of certificates received by Head and Sub Offices must entered in
a) The Daily dairy b) Daily account

c) The stock register(NC-12) d) Cash book Ans: c(5)
8. Surplus stock of certificates should never be held in HOs and SOs and should be
returned to the supplying office. An invoice in form NC-13 shall be prepared in _____ by the
S.O. and in ____ by the H.O
a) Duplicate, triplicate b) Triplicate, duplicate

c) Quadruplicate, triplicate) d) Triplicate, quadruplicate Ans:d (6)
9. The yearly unsold certificate statement received from all SO by HO will be

forwarded to
a) Circle stamp depot b) Head of the circle
d) Postal Account office d) Security press nasik Ans:d(7)
10. The unclaimed certificates lying in the custody of the Postal Accounts Office are
preserved for a period of
a) 30 years from the dates of maturity after which these become due for destruction
b) 30 years from the dates of issue after which these become due for destruction
a) 20 years from the dates of maturity after which these become due for destruction
b) 10 years from the dates of maturity Ans:a(8)
11. When an application is received for the purchase of a certificate on behalf of a

minor
a) The certificate should be issued in the name of the minor

b) The certificate should be issued in the name of the minor
c) The application should be signed by an adult purchasing the certificates on behalf
of a minor
d) Both B and C And:d(10)
12. Payment for purchase of a certificate may be made by
a) Cash or cheque b) Pay order or DD

c) Matured Certificate/SB Wdl d) All the above Ans:d (11)
13. The date of purchase of certificate when payment made by cheque will be
a) The actual date of cheque accepted by postmaster

b) The date of cheque accepted by the Head office
c) The date of when cheque received after clearance
14. The Postmaster will grant the applicant a preliminary receipt in Form
a) NC 12 b) NC 4a
c) NC 5 d) NC 28 Ans:b
15. An index of preliminary receipt numbers issued will be maintained in Form
___ and kept in the custody of the ___
a) MS-2, Postmaster b) MS-15, Postmaster

b) MS-15, SB PA d) None of these Ans:b
16. The authorised agents 0eceipt books will be printed and supplied by the____,
Nagpur, to the___
a) National Savings Commissioner, Postal Stores Depots

b) Security press Nasik, Circle stamp depot
c) Security press Nasik, PSD
17. The Head and Sub Offices will prepare a "Journal of certificates discharged" in the
prescribed form
a) NC-18, NC18a b) NC-29, NC-29a

c) NC-19, NC-19a d) None of these Ans:c(33)
18. On discharge of the certificate the office of payment must at once prepare an advice
of payment for the office of registration in triplicate by carbonic process in form ____
a) NC 12 b) NC 4a
c) NC 10 d) NC 28 Ans:c(31)
19. The holder (an adult and not a minor) of a certificate who desire to make a
nomination will apply in
a) NC 36 b) NC 51
c) NC 10 d) NC 41 Ans:b(35)
20. When an application for transfer of a certificate in the prescribed Form
a) NC 12 b) NC 34
c) NC 32 d) NC 28 Ans:c(37)
21. A certificate may be transferred from one person to another after the expiry of ____
year from the date of issue of the certificate on the holder making an application in the
prescribed form___
a) 1 year, NC 12 b) 2 year, NC 34
c) 1 year,NC 32 d) 1 year, NC 34 Ans:d(38)
22. In the following cases transfer is permissible even before the expiry of one year
from the date of issue of the certificate
a) To a near relative out of natural love and affection

b) In the name of the heir of a deceased holder on the admission of his claim
c) Transfer in the name of the survivor in the event of the death of one of the joint
holders
d) All the above
23. The holder of certificate may at any time on his making an application in Form NC-
41 pledge the certificate to
a) The president of India b) The governor of the state

c) The reserve bank of india d) All the above Ans: d(39)
24. When a certificate is unclaimed or remains undelivered at a H.O. or S.O. for any
reason and all efforts to deliver the same to the holders have failed, the same will be sent
by the _____ for safe custody to the ____ alongwith the monthly returns
a) HO, Postal account office b) SO, Postal account office

c) HO, Circle stamp depot d) None of these Ans:a(40)
25. If a certificate is spoilt before issue
a) Retuned to Circle Stamp depot duly attached to the monthly journal of certificates
issued
b) Retuned to Circle offece depot duly attached to the monthly journal of certificates
issued
c) The Postmaster will write the word "spoiled" in red ink on the certificate and affix
the oblong M.O. Stamp and send the same to the Postal Accounts Office duly
attached to the monthly journal of certificates issued
26. If a certificate is lost, stolen or destroyed before issue or from the custody of the
Post Office after issue but before delivery to the holder or received from the holder and
kept in the custody of the post office, the loss
a) Should be reported by the Postmaster to the Divisional Supdt

b) Should be reported Head of the Circle and the Postal Accounts Office concerned
c) The Sub Postmaster will submit the report through the Head Office
d) The Head of the Circle shall investigate the matter in order to fix the responsibility
and notify the loss/theft etc. in his monthly circular and send a report to the
Director General, Posts indicating the circumstances under which the certificate
were lost
e) Al the above And:e(42)
-
27. When the holder of a certificate reports the loss, theft, destruction, mutilation or
defacement of a certificate in his custody
a) The will ask to holder to furnish a statement in writing giving particulars of the
certificates explaining the circumstances in which the theft, loss, destruction,
mutilation
b) If the holder had been issued an identity slip, the same should be obtained from
him if available
c) The application for the issue of duplicate certificate may be made either at the
office of registration or at any other office
28. If the claim does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000, the claimant should be asked to submit
an application duly completed to the authorities mentioned below who are competent to
sanction claims without production of legal evidence up to the limit noted against each
after the expiry of three months from the date of death of the holder
a) Time Scale Departmental SPM Rs 1000/- & SPM LSG is Rs 2000/-
b) SPM/DPM non gezetted Rs5000/- & Dy Chief PM, SP gezztted GP is Rs 20000/-
c) Chief PM HOs/SSPs GP a is Rs 50000/- & Reg director, Director GPO is Rs 75000/-
d) CPMG/PMG Rs 10000/- e) All the above Ans:e(50)
29. The KVP introduced and discontinued from
a) 01-04-1997 & 30 Nov 2011 b) 01-04-1988 & 31 Dec 2011

c) 01-04-1988 and 30 Nov 2011 d) None of these Ans:b
30. The NSC introduced from
a) 08-05-1989 b) 01-04-1988
c) 01-04-1990 d) None of these Ans:a
a) NSC can be purchased by jointly or single

b) No maximum limit for purchasing NSC
c) NSC VIII available in min Rs 100 den
32. NSC available in
a) 04 denomination b) 5 denomination
c) 6 denomination d) 7 denomination Ans:b
a) Nomination cannot be made in case NSC purchased on behalf of minor.

b) No fee will be charged for registration, cancellation or change in the nomination
c) Tax rebate u/s 80-C will be available in NSC
34. Premature encashment of NSC(VIII) issue
a) After 2 years from the purchase of certificate

b) After 3 years from the purchase of the certificate
c) Premature encashment can not be made before completion of 6 year
35. Premature encashment of NSC (VIII) will be made
a) In case of death of the holder or any of the holder in case of joint account
b) On forfeiture by pledgee being Gazetted Government Officer.
c) When ordered by a court of law
d) Both A, B and C Ans:d
a) If the certificate is encashed in case of death of the depositor before expiry on of

one year from the date of purchase, only the face value of certificate shall be
payable
b) If certificate is encashed after expiry of one year SB interest will be applicable
c) Both A &B
37. The NSC (VIII) may be transferred from one person to another person using the
form
a) NC 32 b) NC 34
c) NC 61 d) NC 28 Ans:b
38. The NSC (VIII) can be transferred from one person to another person
a) After expiry of the one year b) After expiry of 2 year

c) At any time d) Cannot be transferred Ans:a
39. The NSC (VIII) may be transferred from one person to another person using the
form
a) NC 32 b) NC 34
c) NC 61 d) NC 28 Ans:a
40. The NSC (VIII) can be transferred from one person to another person before expiry
of one year
a) To near relative out of natural love and affection

b) In the name of the heir or a deceased holder on the admission
c) From a holder to a court of law or any other person under the order of court of law
41. A claim to value of a certificate standing in the name of a deceased holde may be
made on the basis of
a) Nomination b) Legal evidence

c) Without production of legal evidence d) All the above Ans:d
42. Post maturity interest shall be allowed up to ____
a) 2 years from the date of maturity

b) 1 years from the date of maturity
c) 3 years from the date of maturity
d) Not allowed Ans:a
43. Maturity period will be ____in case the NSC purchased on or after 01 Dec 2011
c) 6 Years d) 10 Years Ans:b
44. The maturity value on Rs 100 denomination of NSC wef 01 Apr 2012 is
a) 161.10 b) 152.90
c) 151.80 d) 152.00 Ans:d
45. Interest rate on 10 year NSC is
a) 8.6% b) 8.4%
c) 8.5% d) 8.9% Ans:d
Q1 Central Civil Services (Leave ) Rules come into force on the --------1st June
1972
Q2 Railway servants are not under CCS(leave) Rules The above said statement
is True
Q3 As per CCS (leave) rules what is the definition of Administrator
Administrator of union territory
Q4 What is called by the employees who may be declared ad quasi permanent
under the central civil services (temporary service ) 1965?Quasi Permanent
Q5 Maximum number of earned leave for encashment is -------300 days
Q6 The limit of number of days is increased from 240 days to 300 days from ----
-------
01-07-1997
Q7 Leave can be claimed as of rightThe above said statement is False
Q8 Leave cannot be claimed as of right . However the leave should not
ordinarily be denied during -------------The last ten year of service of
Government Servants
Q9 Which pay commission recommend to increase in ceiling on earned leave
accumulation from 180 days to 240 days ?Fourth Pay Commission
Q10 If A is removed from service and reinstated on appeal of revision to the
same post then whether the leave his service prior to dismissal or removal is
entitled to count or not
Yes , It will entitled to count for leave
Q11 -------- leave is not recognized as leave under CCS(leave rules) and shall not
be combined with any other kind of leave Casual Leave
Q12 If a government servant recall from leave , then the Government Servant
shall be entitled to draw --------- under rules made in this behalf for the journey
Travelling allowance
Q13 The period of absence not covered by grant of leave shall have to be
treated as -------- Dies Non
Q14 The dies non in respect of willful absence from duty is treated for --------- ,
---------- and ----------Increment, Leave and pension
Q15 As per CCS (CCA) rules unauthorized absence from duty or overstayal of
leave even for one day treating it as misconduct The above said statement is
True
Q16 Mention the equation /method to calculate leave/cash payment in lieu of
leave
Cash equivalent=Pay admissible on the date of retirement + DA admissible
/30 * No of unutilized Earned Leave
Q17 The authority competent to grant leave may withheld whole or part of cash
equivalent of earned leave due for retired employee . In which case the above
said case is mainly applicable ?Disciplinary or criminal proceeding are
pending against retired employee
Q18 Maternity leave may be combined with leave of any other kind The above
said statement is True
Q19 What is the maximum amount of study leave which may be granted to
government servant ?
Twelve Months at any one time and Twenty four months in entire service
Q20 Who is the Competent authority for granting study
leave?Ministry/Department of the Central Government , Administrator ,
Comptroller and audit General
THE CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT 1986
1. The Consumer protection act 1986 enacted in
a) 15 Jun 2005 b) 24 Oct 1986

c) 24 Dec 1986 d) 1 Jan 1986 Ans:c
2. The Consumer protection act 1986 extends to
a) The whole India

b) The whole India except Nagaland tribal area,
c) The whole India except Nagaland tribal area and Jammu and Kashmir
d) The whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:d(1)
3. Appropriate laboratory means a laboratory or organization
a) Recognized by Central Government

b) Recognized by state government
c) Both the above
d) None of the above Ans:c(2a)
4. Complainant means
a) Consumer
b) Any voluntary consumer association registered under the companies act 1956.
c) The central govt or any state govt
d) One or more consumer where there are numerous consumers having the same
interest
e) All the above Ans:e(2b)
5. Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that
a) An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adapted by any
traders or service provider
b) The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or
more defect
c) A traders or the service provider as the case may be has charged for the goods
or for the services mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
d) All the above Ans:d(2c)
6. The following is not a consumer

a) The insurance company b) A licensee to run a phone
c) A lottery ticket holder d) All the above Ans:d
7. The central consumer protection council shall consist of the following members
a) The minister in charge of consumer affairs in the central govt, who shall be
its chairman
b) Such member of other official or non official members representing such
interest as may be prescribed.
c) The Chief justice of high court
d) Both A&B Ans:d(4)
8. The central council shall meet as and when necessary but at least ___ meeting of the
council shall be held every year
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four Ans:a(5)
9. Object of the central council is
a) The right to be protected against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to
life and property
b) The right to informed about the quality , quantity, potency, purity, standard and
price of goods so as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices
c) The right to be assured, wherever possible access to a variety of goods at
competitive prices
d) The right to heard and to be assured that consumer interests will receive due
consideration appropriate fora
10. Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed
a) Two b) Five
c) Ten d) Three Ans:c(7)
11. The chairman of the district consumer protection council is
a) District magistrate b) Collector of the District

c) MP of the district d) None of these Ans:b(8a)
12. Which one of the following know as Consumer disputes redressal agency
a) District forum b) State commission

c) National commission d) All the above Ans:d(9)
13. President of district forum is
a) Collector of the district

b) A person who are qualified as advocate
c) A person who are qualified to be a district judge,
14. Mark the correct option relating to district forum
a) It should have two member , one of whom shall be a woman

b) Members age shall not be less than 35 years old
c) Possess a bachelors of degree from recognized university
d) Ten year knowledge and experience in dealing with problems relating to
economics, law, commerce, accountancy, industry& public affairs
15. The disqualification of the member is
a) Has been convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offence which , in

the opinion of the state govt involves moral turpitude
b) Is an undercharged insolvent
c) Is of unsound mind
16. Every appointment of district forum shall be made by the state govt on the
recommendation of a selection committee consisting of the following
a) President of the state commission shall be a chairman

b) Secretary, law dept of the state shall be a member
c) Secretary, incharge of dept dealing with consumer affair shall be a another
member.
17. Who will working as president in case absence of the president of state commission
a) Governor b) Chief minister

c) A sitting judge of High court d) Chief justice of highcourt
Ans:c(10)
a) Every member of district forum shall hold office a term of 5 years or up to age
65 years
b) The member of district forum shall eligible for reappointment for another term
c) Members of district forum may resign his office in writing addressed to state
government
19. Jurisdiction of district for is rupees
a) Exceed twenty lac b) exceed 50 lac

c) Up to twenty lac d) twenty to fifty lac Ans:c(11)
20. The complaint shall ordinarily be decided within
a) Twenty one days from the date on which the complaint was received
b) Thirty days from the date on which the complaint was received
c) Forty five days from the date on which the complaint was received
d) No time limit Ans:a(12)
21. Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined
without proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to
appropriate laboratory for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within
______days
a) 30 b) 40 c) 45 d) 60 Ans:c(13)
22. Every complaint shall be heard as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be
made to decide the complaint within a period of ____from the date of receipt of notice by
opposite party where the complaint does not require analysis or testing of commodities
and within____, if it requires analysis or testing of commodities.
a) 3 Months, 5 months b) 45 days, 90 days

c) 30 days, 90 days d) None of these Ans:a(13)
23. Provided that the minimum amount of sum so payable shall not be less than ____ of
the value of such defective goods sold or services provided, as the case may be to such
consumers.
a) Rs 25000/- c) 10 %
c) 5% d) None of these Ans:c(13)
24. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the District forum may prefer an appeal
such order to the State commission within
c) 1 month d) Thirty days Ans:d(15)
25. Any person prefer an appeal to state commission shall be deposited amount in
prescribed manner
a) Fifty percent of that amount b) Twenty five thousand rupees

c) Whichever is less of the above A&Bd) None of these Ans:c(15)
26. President of state commission shall be a person who is or has been a
d) District collector b) An advocate

c) Any judge d) Judge of high court Ans:d(16)
27. Every member of state commission shall hold office for a term of ___ year or up to
the age of ___ years, whichever is less.
a) 5 ,65 b) 6,67
c) 5,67 d) 5,70 Ans:c(16)
28. Jurisdiction of State commission is
a) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed exceeds Rs 20 Lac
b) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed up to 1 crore
c) Appeals against the orders of any district forum within the state
d) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed exceeds Rs 20 Lac but does not exceed one crore
e) C& D only Ans:e(17)
29. District forum shall consist of
a) President and two member b) Chairman and two member

c) President and four member d) President and five member Ans:a(10)
30. State commission shall consist of
a) President and two member b) President and not less than 2 member
c) President and four member d) President and five member Ans:b(16)
31. National commission shall consist of
a) President and two member

b) President and not less than 2 member
c) President and not less than four member
d) President and not less than four and not more than eleven member Ans:d(20)
32 Any person aggrieved by an order made by the State commission may prefer an
appeal such order to the National commission within
c) 1 month d) Thirty days Ans:d(19)
33. Any person prefer an appeal to National commission shall be deposited amount in
prescribed manner
a) Fifty percent of that amount b) Twenty five thousand rupees

c) Thirty five thousand rupees
d) Whichever is less of the above A&C Ans:d(19)
34. An appeal filed before the State commission or the national commission shall be
heard as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of
the appeal within the period of
a) 90 days from the date of admission

b) 60 days from the date of admission
c) 30 days from the date of admission
d) 90 days from the date of admission the complaint Ans:a(19a)
35. President of the national commission shall be a person who is or has been a
a) Judge of High court b) Judge of supreme court
c) Chief justice of supreme court d) None of these Ans:b(20)
36. Every member of National commission shall hold office for a term of ___ year or up
to the age of ___ years, whichever is less.
a) 5 ,65 b) 6,67
c) 5,67 d) 5,70 Ans:d(20)
37. Jurisdiction of National commission is
a) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed does not exceeds Rs 5 crore
b) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed up to 1 crore
c) Appeals against the orders of any state commission
d) Complaint where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any
claimed exceeds Rs 1 crore
e) C& D only Ans:e(21)
38. On the application of the complainant or of its own motion, the national
commission may, at any stage of the proceeding in the interest of justice, transfer any
complaint pending
a) The district forum of one state to a district form of another state

b) The one state commission to another state commission
c) The district forum of within the state
d) Above A& B only Ans:d(22b)
39. When the office of president of a District forum, State commission, or of the
National commission as the case may be is vacant by reason of absence
a) New president will be appointed for the period

b) Senior most member will be performed the duty for the period
c) President of District forum, State commission and National commission as the case
may be look after the additional duty for the period with his own duty
d) None of these Ans:b(22d)
40. Any person, aggrieved by an order of made by the national commission may prefer
an appeal against such order within thirty days to
a) An appeal shall not be made against National commission

b) The decision of National commission is final
c) An appeal shall be made to Supreme court
d) Above A&B only Ans:c(23)
41. Any person prefer an appeal to Supreme court shall be deposited amount in
prescribed manner
a) Fifty percent of that amount b) Fifty thousand rupees

c) Thirty five thousand rupees
d) Whichever is less of the above A&B Ans:b(23)
42. The District forum, the State commission or The National commission shall not
admit a complaint unless it is filed within
a) Two years form the date on which the cause of action has been arisen
b) One years form the date on which the cause of action has been arisen
c) Three years form the date on which the cause of action has been arisen
d) None of these Ans:a(24a)
43. Where a complaint instituted before the District forum, the State commission or
the National commission is found to be frivolous or vexatious complainant shall pay
a) To the forum or commission concerned not exceeding Rs 10000.

b) To the opposite party not exceeding Rs 5000/-
c) To the opposite party not exceeding Rs 10000/-
44. Where a trader or a person against whom a complaint is made or complainant fails
or omits to comply with order made by commission
a) Shall be punishable with fine shall not be less than two thousand rupees
b) Shall be punishable with imprisonment shall not be less than one month but which
may be extend three year.
c) Shall be punishable with fine shall not be less than two thousand rupees but which
may be extend ten thousand rupees
d) Both the B&C Ans:d(27)
45. The District forum, the State commission or the National commission as the case
may be, shall have power of a
a) Supreme court judge b) High court judge

c) Judicial magistrate of the first class d) All the above Ans:c(27)
46. The consumer protection act 1986 amended in 2002 came into force wef
a) 15 Apr 2002 b) 15 Mar 2003

c) 15 Apr 2005 d) None of these Ans:b
47. Fee for filing complaints before district forum when a person is below poverty line
a) 25 rupees b) 50 rupees
c) 100 rupees d) No fee Ans:d
48. Fee for filing complaints before district forum up to one lakh is
c) 100 rupees d) No fee Ans:c
49. Fee for filing complaints before district forum above one lac and up to five lac is

c) 100 rupees d) No fee Ans:a
50. Fee for filing complaints before district forum above five lac and up to ten lac is

c) 400 rupees d) No fee Ans:c
51. Fee for filing complaints before district forum above ten lac and up to twenty lac is

c) 400 rupees d) 1000 rupees Ans:a
52. Fee for filing complaints before state commission above 20 lac and up to 50 lac is

c) 4000 rupees d) 2000 rupees Ans:d
53. Fee for filing complaints before state commission above 50 lac and up to 1 crore is

c) 4000 rupees d) 2000 rupees Ans:c
54. Fee for filing complaints before National commission above 1 crore is

c) 4000 rupees d) 2000 rupees Ans:a
55. Chapter I , II, IV of Consumer protection act came in to force on
a) 01-07-1987 b) 01-04-1987
c) 01-04-1986 d) 01-07-1986 Ans:b
56. Chapter III of Consumer protection act came in to force on
a) 01-07-1987 b) 01-04-1987
c) 01-04-1986 d) 01-07-1986 Ans:a
CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE 1908
1. Civil procedure code come into force on
a) 01 Jan 1908 b) 01 Apr 1908

c) 01 Jan 1909 d) 15 Jun 1909 Ans:c(1)
2. CPC extends to
a) Whole India
b) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
c) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area
d) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:b(1)
3. Tribal Area included
a) Assam, Tripura b) Mizoram, Megalaya

c) All the above d) None of these Ans:c(1)
4. Local limits of the jurisdiction of a principal civil court of Original Jurisdiction is

called
(a) Munsiff (b) Mohsil

(c) District (d) None of these Ans:c
5. ‘Judge’ is defined as the presiding officer of a civil Court in ………………..of Code of

civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(8) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(2) Ans:a
6. Government Pleader is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(7) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(2) Ans:a
7. Foreign Court is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(5) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(2) Ans:a
8 Foreign Judgment is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(6) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(2) Ans:a
9. The decree holder
(a) Must be the plaintiff (b) Need not be the plaintiff

(c) Both a. and b (d) None of these Ans:b
10. The essence of a claim for means profit

,
(a) Possession
(b) Wrongful possession of the defendant
(c) Enjoyment of property
(d) None of these Ans:b
11. Order rejecting the plaint for non payment of a Court fee is ____
(a) Decree (b) Preliminary decree
(c) Not a decree (d) None Ans:a(2(2))
12. ‘Any person against whom a decree has been passed or an order capable of
execution has been made’ is called
(a) Plaintiff (b) Decree Holder

(c) Judgment Debtor (d) None of the above Ans:c(2(10))
13. ‘A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any
person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is
sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death
of the party so suing or sued’ is called
(a) Legal Heir (b) Next friend

(c) Legal representative (d) None of the above Ans:c(2(11))
14. ‘Those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually
received or might with ordinary diligence have received there from, together with
interest on such profits, but shall not include profits due to improvements made but the
person in wrongful possession’
(a) Means profit (b) Interest

(c) Principal sum (d) None of the above Ans:a(2(12))
15 The formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a decree; is
called
(a) Judgment (b) Injunction

(c) Order (d) None of the above Ans:c(2(14))
16. ‘Order’ is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(11) (b) 2(14)

(c) 2(15) (d) 2(12) Ans:b
17. Under S.(2) 7A of CPC , High Court in relation to Andaman Nicobar Islands means
(a) Calcutta HC (b) Mumbai HC

(c) Allahabad HC (d) Delhi HC Ans:a
18. ‘Judgment’ is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(6) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(9) Ans:d
19. Statement given by the judge on the grounds of a decree or order is called
(a) Final order (b) Final Decree

(c) Judgment (d) None of the above Ans:c
20. ‘Judgment Debtor’ is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(6) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(10) (d) 2(2) Ans:c
21. An order that a suit abates is a
(a) Judgment (b) Plaint

(c) Decree (d) None of these Ans:c
22. A decree becomes final
(a) When no appeal has been preferred against the decree

(b) When it conclusively determines the rights of the parties
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) & (b) Ans:d
23. Decree Holder is defined in S…………..of C.P.C
(a) 2(3) (b) 2(4)

(c) 2(5) (d) 2(2) Ans:a
24. Decree can be—
(a) Preliminary (b) Final

(c) First preliminary then final (d) Either preliminary or final Ans:d
25. An ex party decree can be set aside on the ground that
(a) Summons were not duly served

(b) Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not
provided to defendant
(c) Defendant refused to receive the summons and thereafter no fresh summons
were issued to him
(d) An ex party decree cannot be set aside under any circumstance Ans:a
26. Which of the following is not a decree
(a) Rejection of a plaint (b) Dismissal in default

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) Ans:b
27. Rejection of an application for condonation of delay and consequent dismissal of

appeal as time barred is
(a) A decree (b) Preliminary decree

(c) Not a decree (d) None Ans:c
28. If an appeal against a preliminary decree succeeds, the final decree
(a) Can be passed (b) Can or cannot be passed

(c) Automatically fails (d) None Ans:c
29. A decree, when further proceedings have to be taken before the suit can be
completely disposed of, is a
(a) Final decree (b) Preliminary decree

(c) Preliminary decree and partly final decree (d) None of these Ans:b
30. A decree does not include
(a) Any order of dismissal for default

(b) Any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
(c) Either a. or b. (d) Both a. and b. Ans:d
31. A decree, when an adjudication completely disposes of the suit, is a
(a) Preliminary decree (b) Final decree

(c) Partly preliminary and partly final (d) None of these Ans:b
32. One of the following is a decree
(a) An order dismissing a suit for default of appearance

(b) An order rejecting an application for leave to sue informa pauperis
(c) An order returning the plaint for presentation to the proper court
(d) None of these Ans:c
33. One of the following is a decree
(a) Any order of dismissal for default

(b) Any adjudication from which an appeal is lies as appeal from an order
(c) Rejection of a plaint (d) None of these Ans:c
34. ‘Decree holder’ means
(a) Any person against whom a decree has been passed

(b) Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order
capable of execution has been made
(c) Either a. or b. (d) Neither a. nor b. Ans:b
35. The first uniform Code of civil Procedure was enacted in the year
(a) 1908 (b) 1859 (c) 1882 (d) 1872 Ans:b
36. Decree shall be deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination
of any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.-
(a) Wrong (b) Right

(c) It includes rejection of plaint but does not includes the determination of any
question within Section 144 of C.P.C
(d) It includes determination of any question within Section 144 but shall not
include the rejection of a plaint Ans:b
37 The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on
(a) 1st April, 2002 (b) 1st June, 2002

(c) 6th June, 2002 (d) 1st July, 2002 Ans:d
38. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999 as well as the Amendment Act,
2002 were held constitutionally valid in
(a) T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Govt. of Tamil Nadu

(b) Selam Bar Association Vs. Union of India
(c) State of Punjab Vs. Sivaram
(d) Centre for public interest Vs. Union of India Ans:b
39. The substantive part contained is
(a) Sections (b) Rules

(c) Orders (d) None of these. Ans:a
40. The procedural part contained is
(a) Sections (b) Rules

(c) Codes (d) None Ans:c
41. ‘Decree’ has been defined in section ____ of the Civil Procedure Code
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3(2) (d) 2(2) Ans:d
42. Which of the following Orders deals with commissions?
(a) O. XXVI (b) O.XXII

(c) O.XXIII (d) O.XXV Ans:a
43. ‘Public Officer’ is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908.
(a) 2(16) (b) 2(14)

(c) 2(17) (d) 2(19) Ans:c
44. CPC include
a) 51 orders & 158 Sections b) 101 orders & 511 Section

c) 35 orders & 488 Sections d) None of these Ans:a
45. In a suit under order XXXVII, Rule 2 of CPC the defendant has to put in appearance
within
a) 10 days of service of summon b) 15 days of service of summon

c) 30 days of service of summon d) None of these Ans:c
THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE 1973
1. Code of criminal procedure come into force on
a) 01 Apr 1973 b) 01 Mar 1974

c) 01 Apr 1974 d) None of these Ans:c(1)
2. Code of criminal procedure bill having passed by both houses on
a) 25 Jan 1974 b) 2002

c) 01 Jan 1973 d) None of these Ans:a
3. Code of criminal procedure Consists
a) 584 Sections, 5 Schedules & 56 forms

b) 484 Sections, 2 Schedules & 56 forms ,37 chapters
c) 156 Sections, 3 Schedules & 56 forms
4. Code of criminal procedure Amendment act,
a) 1974 b) 2004
c) 2008 d) 2010 Ans:c
5. Code of criminal procedure repealing the old code of
a) 1878 b) 1898
c) 1854 d) None of these Ans:b
6. The code criminal procedure ,1973 extends to
e) Whole India
f) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
g) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area
h) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:d (1)
7. Chapter VIII, X, and XI of Code of criminal procedure, shall not apply to
a) Whole India
b) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
c) Nagaland , tribal area
d) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:c (1)
8. Under which section bailable offence has been explained
a) 2(a) b) 2(b)
c) 2(e) d) 2(i) Ans:a
9. Accordance with first schedule or under any other law for the time being in force,
police offer may arrest without warrant
a) Bailable offence b) Non cognizable offence
c) Cognizable offence d) Criminal offence Ans:c(2c)
10. Any allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate, with view to his taking
action under this code, that some person, whether known or unknown has committed an
offence but not include a police report
a) Complainant b) Report
c) Complaint d) None of these Ans:c(2d)
11. High court is defined in………………..of Criminal Code procedure 1973
a) 2(a) b) 2(b)
c) 2(e) d) 2(i) Ans:c
12. All the proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer
under Cr.P.C. is called
(a) Inquiry (b) Local inspection

(c) Investigation (d) Judicial proceeding Ans:c(2h)
13. An investigation into an offence cannot be conducted by
(a) Magistrate
(b) A person authorized by a magistrate other than a police officer
(c) Both a. and b. (d) None of these Ans:a
14. Offence is defined in………………..of Criminal Code procedure 1973
a) 2(a) b) 2(b)
c) 2(e) d) 2(n) Ans:d
15. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for time being in force is called
a) Allegation b) Inquiry
c) Complaint d) Offence Ans:d(2n)
16. Pleader is defined in………………..of Criminal Code procedure 1973
a) 2(q) b) 2(b)
c) 2(e) d) 2(n) Ans:a
17. A case relating to an offence, and not being a warrant case is a
a) Warrant Case b) Offence Case

c) Summons Case d) None of these Ans:c(2w)
18. A person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or
omission for which the accused person has bee charge and the expression
a) Victim b) Warrant Case

c) Summons Case d) None of these Ans:a(2wa)
19. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath
a) Investigation b) Offence
c) Judicial proceeding d) All the above Ansc(2i)
20. An offence a police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant
a) Criminal case b) Non cognizable case

c) Cognizable case d) Half murder case Ans:b(2l)
21. Inquiry is defined in………………..of Criminal Code procedure 1973
a) 2(q) b) 2(g)
c) 2(e) d) 2(n) Ans:b
22. Maximum sentence of fine C.J.M. can impose
a) 25000/- b) 50000/-
c) No limit d) Can not impose Ans:c
23. The maximum sentence of imprisonment a C.J.M. can impose
c) 10 Years d) 20 Years Ans:a
24. Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person
(a) Who has been concerned in any cognizable offence

(b) Who has been proclaimed as an offender
(c) Who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any armed forces
(d) All the above Ans:d
25. A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses a commission of a non
cognizable offence after investigation shall deemed to be
(a) Police report (b) Charge sheet

(c) Complaint (d) Final report Ans:c
26. In the Indian Constitution Criminal Procedure is included in the
(a) Concurrent list (b) Union list

(c) State list (d) Either a. or b. Ans:a
27. Which one of the following proceedings is known as judicial proceeding?
(a) Investigation (b) Enquiry and Investigation

(c) Enquiry and Trial (d) Trial and Investigation Ans:c
28. Proclamation for absconding is defined in………………..of Cr PC 1973
a) 82 b) 81
c) 80 d) 79 Ans:a
29. Proclamation will be issued in the following circumstances
a) A person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has been absconded
or is concealing himself so that such warrant cannot be executed.
b) A person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has been died
c) A person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has been surrendered.
30. Proclamation shall be issued by
a) Supdt of Police b) District Commissioner

c) Court concerned d) Any one of the above Ans:c(82)
31. A proclamation has been issued against absconded requiring him to appear at a
specified place and at a specified time not less than
a) 30 days b) one week

c) 15 days d) 48 Hours Ans:a(82)
32. The proclamation shall be published as follows
a) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in

which such person ordinarily reside
b) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in
which such person ordinarily resides
c) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the court house.
d) The court may also, if thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be
published in a daily newspaper.
33. When a proclamation issued against absconded person fails to appear at the
specified place and time
a) The court may, after making such inquiry as it thinks fit.

b) The court pronounce him a proclaimed offender and make a declaration to that
effect.
c) Both the A & B
34. When a proclamation issued against absconded person fails to appear court may
a) Issue a order attachment of any movable property
b) Issue a order attachment of any immovable property
c) Issue a order attachment of any property movable or immovable or both
d) Only A Ans:c(83)
35. When order of attachment of property has been issued against absconded person
is situate another district.
a) When endorsed by the District collector concerned

b) When endorsed by the Assistant commissioner concerned
c) When endorsed by the District magistrate concerned
d) Any one of the above Ans:c(82)
36. If the property ordered to be attached is a debt or other movable property, the
attachment under this section shall be made
a) By seizure
b) By the appointment of a receiver
c) By an order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the proclaimed
Person or to any one on his behalf
d) By all or any two of such methods as the court thinks fit Ans:d(82)
37. When the property ordered to be attached is immovable
a) When endorsed by the District magistrate concerned

b) In case land paying revenue to the State government be made through the
collector of the district in which the land is situate
c) Both the A & B.
38. If the property ordered to be attached is a immovable property, the attachment

under this section shall be made
a) By taking possession
b) By the appointment of a receiver
c) By an order in writing prohibiting the payment of rent on delivery of property to
the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf
d) By all or any two of such methods as the court thinks fit Ans:d(82)
39. If any claim is preferred to , or objection made to the attachment of, any property
attached under section 83 within
a) 3 Months b) One month

c) Six months d) One year Ans:c(84.)
40. Any person whose claim or objection has been disallowed in whole or in party by
and order under sub-section(1) may, within a period
a) 3 Months b) Two years

c) Six months d) One year Ans:d(84.)
41. If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the
court shall make an order
a) Arrest him and take on custody

b) Releasing the half property from the attachment
c) Releasing the property from the attachment
42. If the proclaimed person does not appear within the time specified in the
proclamation
a) The property under the attachment shall be at the disposal of the state Govt.
b) The property shall not be sold until the expiration of six months from the date of
the attachment
c) The property shall not be sold until any claim preferred
d) The property shall not be sold until objection made under sec 84 has not been
disposed.
43. If , within two years from the date of the attachment, any person whose property is
or has been at the disposal of the state Govt, appears voluntarily, and proves to the
satisfaction of such court that he did not abscond
a) Such property, or if the same has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale, or if
party only thereof has been sold, the net to be delivered to him
b) Half value of the sold to be delivered to him
c) The net proceeds of the sale will be delivered to the person after deducting the
court expense
44. Who deliver summon
a) Police officer b) Public servant

c) Office of the court d) All the above Ans:d
45. The relief and order is issued by civil court has been categorized in
a) Temporary orders b) Final orders

c) Permanent orders d) Both A & B Ans:d
INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT, 1872
1. The Indian Evidence act into force on
a) 06 Oct 1860 b) 01 Mar 1974

c) 15 Mar 1872 d) 01 Sep 1872 Ans:d
2. The Indian Evidence act enacted in
a) 06 Oct 1860 b) 01 Mar 1974

c) 15 Mar 1872 d) 01 Sep 1872 Ans:c
3. The Indian Evidence act 1872 Consists
e) 167 Sections, 11 chapters

f) 511 Sections, 23 chapter
g) 156 Sections, 3 Schedules
h) None of these Ans:a
4. The Indian Evidence act 1872 was drafted by
a) Sir James F. Stephen b) Macaulay

c) Lilly d) None of these Ans:a
5. The Indian Evidence act 1872 extends to
i) Whole India
j) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
k) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area
l) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:d (1)
6. Facts means and include
a) Any thing, state of things, or relation of things, capable of being perceived by the
senses
b) Any mental condition of which any person is conscious.
c) Both the A and B
7. Facts can be
(a) Physical facts

(b) Psychological facts
(c) Physical as well as psychological facts
(d) Only physical facts & not psychological facts. Ans:c
8. The law of evidence consists of

(a) Ordinary rules of reasoning (b) Legal rules of evidence
(c) Rules of logic (d) All the above. Ans:b
9. Indian Evidence Act applies to
(a) Proceedings before tribunals (b) Proceedings before the arbitrator

(c) Judicial proceedings in courts (d) All the above. Ans:c
10. Law of evidence is
(a) Lex tallienis (b) Lex fori

(c) Lex loci solutionis (d) Lex situs. Ans:b
11. Law of evidence is

(a) Substantive law (b) An adjective law
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b). Ans:b
12. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) Factum probandum

(b) Factum probans
(c) Both factum probandum and factum probans
(d) None of the above. Ans:c
13. Fact in issue means
(a) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties

(b) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(c) Fact existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(d) All the above. Ans:b
14. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes
(a) Ocular evidence

(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Ocular and documentary evidence both
(d) Ocular evidence based on documents only. Ans:c
a) Documents means any matter expressed or described upon any substance b

means of letter, figures or marks.
b) Words printed, lithographed or photographed are documents
c) A map or plan is a document
d) An inscription on a metal plate or stone and caricature are documents.
a) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by

witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry such statements are called
oral evidence
b) All documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the
court called as documentary evidence
c) Both the A and B are correct
d) Neither A nor B are correct. Ans:c
17. After considering the matters before it, the Court either believes it to exist that fact
is said to be
a) Not proved b) Disapproved

c) Proved d) None of these Ans:c(3)
18. After considering the matters before it, the Court either believes that it does not
exist, or considers its non-existence that fact said to be
c) Proved d) None of these Ans:b(3)
19. A fact neither proved nor disproved is known

c) Proved d) None of these Ans:a(3)
20. Whenever it is provided by this Act that the Court may presume a fact, it may either
regard such fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved, or may call for proof of it
a) May presume b) Conclusive proof

c) Shall presume d) None of these Ans:a(4)
21. Whenever it is directed by this Act that the Court shall presume a fact, it shall
regard such fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved

c) Shall presume d) None of these Ans:c(4)
22. When one fact is declared by this Act to be conclusive proof of another, the Court
shall, on proof of the one fact, regard the other as proved, and shall not allow evidence to
be given for the purpose of disproving it

c) Shall presume d) None of these Ans:b(4)
23. Which one of the following is not included in expression court under Indian
Evidence Act
a) All Judges b) All Magistrates

c) All persons legally authorized to take evidence d) Arbitrator Ans:d
24. That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place-
a) Is a fact b) Is an opinion
c) Is a document d) Is a motive Ans:a(3)
25. A inscription on metal plate or stone
a) Is a fact b) Is a document
c) Is an opinion d) Is a motive Ans:b(3)
26. Which one of following is a fact
a) Hari said b) Mohan saw

c) Ram told a lie d) Any of these Ans:d(3)
27. That man heard or saw something, it is
a) A fact b) A document
c) An evidence d) Done Ans:a(3)
28. That man has a certain reputation it is
a) An evidence b) A fact
c) A document d) All Ans:b(3)
29. Court includes-
a) All magistrates and judges

b) All persons authorized to take evidence
c) Both the A & B
30. A map or plan is -
c) An evidence d) Done Ans:b(3)
31. Caricature is-
c) An evidence d) Done Ans:b(3)
32. Presumption are given section ____ of Evidence act
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5 Ans:c
33. Which is not a document?
a) A man has certain reputation b) Writing

c) Inscription on a store d) Caricature Ans:a(3)
34. Evidence includes-
a) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by

witnesses, in relation to matters of face under inquiry.
b) All documents including electronic record produced for the inspection of the court
c) Both the A & B
d) None of these Ans:c (3)
35. Indian evidence act includes
a) Oral evidence b) Documentary evidence

c) Electronic records d) All the above Ans:d(3)
36. Presumption under Evidence law are-
a) Presumption of facts b) Presumption of law

c) Both the A & B d) None of these Ans:c
37. Which is not a fact?
a) That a man said certain words

b) That a man heard something
c) That a man has a certain reputation
d) None of these Ans:d
38. A man holds a certain opinion, has a certain intention, acts in good faith, or
fraudulently or uses a particular word in particular sense, or is or was at a specified time
conscious of a particular sanction is a-
a) Fact b) Evidence
c) Document d) Fact in issue Ans:a
39. A is accused of the murder of B. At his trial the following facts may be in issue-
a) That A caused B’s deaths

b) That A intended to cause B’s death
c) That A had received grave and sudden provocation from B
40. A witness described in detail articles decorated in room while giving statement
before Court this is a
a) Fact b) Document
c) Opinion d) Cause Ans:a
41. In relation to expression defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of
the following statement is not correct
a) Facts include not only physical fact but also psychological facts
b) Court includes arbitrators
c) An inscription on a store is a document
d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved
Ans:b
42. Under which of the following provisions of Evidence act word forming part of same
transaction occurs?
c) Section 7 d) Section 8 Ans:b
43. The facts though not in issue are so connected with fact in issue as to form part of
same transaction are
a) Relevant under rule of res jestae b) Not relevant
c) Hear say evidence d) Primary evidence Ans:a
44. Match List- I and List –II and select the correct answer using code given below lists
List-I
a) Facts as effect of fact in issue 1) Section9
b) Facts forming part of same transaction 2) Section 8
c) Fact which constitute preparation for any fact in issue 3) Section 7
d) facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts 4) Section 6
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 2 3 1 4 Ans:C
45. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in and
armed in surrection. In which property is destroyed, Troops are attached and goals are
broken open. A is not present at all of them yet occurrence of these facts is relevant
because-
a) They constitute a motive for relevant fact

b) They show preparation for relevant facts
c) They are effect of relevant facts
d) They form part of general transaction Ans:d
46. The question is whether A committed a crime at Calcutta on a curtain day, fact that
on that day A was at Lahore is relevant-
a) As a motive for fact in issue

b) As introductory to fact in issue
c) As preparation of relevant fact
d) As it makes existence of fact in issue highly improbable Ans:d
47. Which of the following statement are correct?
a) Admissions could be oral only

b) Admission could be documentary only
c) Admission could be oral or documentary
48. To what of following rules of relevancy have been discussed under section 8 of
Indian evidence act
a) Motive b) Preparation
c) Previous or subsequent conduct d) All the above Ans:d
49. The question is whether A committed a crime at Calcutta on a curtain day, fact that
on that day A was at Lahore
a) Is relevant b) Is irrelevant
c) Is not relevant d) None of these Ans:a
50. Which is not relevant in section 7?
a) Cause b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) All the above Ans:c
51. Which is relevant in Section 8?
a) Cause b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) All the above Ans:c
52. A is accused of murder of B by beating him whatever is said or done by A or B or by

standers at beating or so shortly before or after it as to form part of transaction is a
relevant fact under section-
c) Section 12 d) Section 8 Ans:a
53. Which of the following is not relevant under section 8 of Indian Evidence act?
a) Intention b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) Previous conduct Ans:b
54. Under section 8 of Evidence Act-
a) Preparation is relevant b) conduct is relevant

c) Motive is relevant d) All the above Ans:d
55. In which of these expert opinion is relevant?
a) Foreign law b) Finger prints

c) Art d) All the above Ans:d
56. Under section 7 of Indian Evidence act-
a) Identity is relevant b) Opportunity is relevant

c) Introductory is relevant d) Conduct is relevant Ans:b
57. Which of the following statement is not relevant in a case where A is tried for
murder?
a) That A quarreled with dead person three days before incident

b) That A has purchased a knife one hour before incident
c) That A is a man of good character
d) That A is a man of bad character Ans:d
58. Under section 7 the following are relevant-
a) Occasion b) Cause & effect

c) Opportunity & state of things d) All the above Ans:d
59. Under section 8 the following are relevant
a) Motive b) Preparation
c) Previous conduct d) Subsequent conduct
60. Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction
a) Whether they occurred at the same time and place

b) Whether they occurred at the different time and place
c) Both the A & B
61. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) No fact of which the court will take notice need be proved

b) The facts admitted need not be proved
c) All the facts and contents of documents
d) Oral evidence must be direct Ans:c
62. Section 56 of Indian evidence act-
a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice

b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant
d) All the above Ans:b
63. Section 57 of Indian evidence act-
a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice

b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant
d) All the above Ans:a
64. Fact admitted need not be proved according to
c) Section 57 d) Section 58
65. Under section 57(1) of Indian Evidence act, court shall take judicial notice of-
a) All laws in force in India

b) All laws including foreign law
c) All Indian and Asian law
d) All Indian and British laws up to 1950 Ans:a
66. Court will take judicial notice of the following -
a) All laws in force in territory of India

b) The accession to office names, titles, functions and signatures of the persons filling
for the time being any public office in any state if the fact of their appointment to
such office is notified in any official gazette.
c) The commencement continuance and termination of hostilities between the
Government of India and any other state or body
67. Of which of following fact the court will not take judicial notice?
a) Common law of Britain

b) Law of state of Indian
c) Division of time
d) Local general customs and tradition of India Ans:d
68. Fact which need not be proved explained in ______of Indian evidence act.
a) Part II, Chapter III b) Part II, Chapter IV

c) Part III, Chapter II d) Part IV, Chapter V Ans:a
69 Judicial notice of fact that many blind persons have acquired great academic
destinations, can be taken by court
a) Gowhari Das Vs. Santilata Singh

b) Jai Shankar Prasar Vs. State of Bhihar
c) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
70. Implied admission in written statement cannot be allowed to be withdrawn.

However, the plaintiff can be insisted upon to prove his case
a) Uttam Chand Kothari Vs. Gauri Shankar Jalan.

b) Jai Shankar Prasar Vs. State of Bhihar
c) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
71. The conduct of an eye witness in non disclosing the incident to anybody for a
number of days. In highly unnatural on and is sufficient to reject testimony
a) Gowhari Das V. Santilata Singh

b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of Bhihar
c) Ganpat Kndiba Chavan Vs. State of Maharashtra
72. Role of motive in an offence the case of prosecution becomes more easier to
connect accused to the alleged incident.
a) PV Narayana Vs. State of Andra Pradesh
c) Afzauddin Ansary V. State of West Bengal
73. When motive is not sine qua non for proving the prosecution case

c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
74. Which is not main principle that underlies law of evidence?
a) The evidence must be confined to matter in issue

b) Hearsay evidence must be admitted
c) Hearsay evidence must be admitted
d) The best evidence must be given cases Ans:c
75. Section 59 of Indian Evidence Act is-
a) Proof of facts by oral evidence b) Secondary evidence

b) Oral evidence must be direct d) Proof of contents of documents
Ans:a(59)
76. Section 60 of Indian Evidence Act is
a) Proof of facts by oral evidence b)Secondary evidence

c) Oral evidence must be direct d)Proof of contents of documents
Ans:c(60)
77. Oral evidence must in all cases whatever be direct that is to say-
a) If it refers to a fact which could, be seen it must be the evidence of witness who say
he saw it
b) If it refers to a fact which could be heard, it must be the evidence of witness who
says he heard it
c) If it refers to a fact which could be perceived by any other sense or in any other
manner it must be evidence of a witness who says he perceived it by that sense
78. Which of following is not hearsay evidence?
a) Statement of police that on basis of inquiry conducted by him that accused was not
at home on night of incident
b) Report of newspaper
c) Report prepared on basis of information provided by officer
d) Statement of witness to prove relationship between persons. Ans:c
79. Oral evidence explained in
a) Chapter IV of Evidence Act b) Chapter III of Evidence Act

c) Chapter V of Evidence Act d) None of these Ans:a
80. Of documentary evidence explained in
a) Chapter IV of Evidence Act b) Chapter III of Evidence Act

c) Chapter V of Evidence Act d) None of these Ans:c
81. The contents of documents may be proved
a) By primary evidence b) By secondary evidence

c) Either A or B d) Neither A nor B Ans:c(61)
82. A man may lie but a document will never lie in case of

b) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
83. Admission of documents amounts to admission of contents but not its truth
a) LIC of india Vs. Narmada Agarwala

84. Primary evidence means
a) Documents itself produced for the inspection of the court

b) Where a number of documents are all made by one uniform process
c) Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counter part being executed
by one or more as against executing parties
85. Secondary evidence means
a) Certified copies given under provisions hereinafter contained

b) Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves
insure accuracy of copy
c) Copies made from or compared with the original
d) Counterpart of documents as against the parties who did not execute them
86. Proof of documents by primary evidence defined in sec ____of Evidence Act
a) 62 b) 63
c) 64 d) 65 Ans:c
87. Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given
a) When the original is shown or appear to be in the possession or power of the

person against whom the document is sought to be proved.
b) When the existence, condition or contents of the original have been proved to be
admitted in writing by the person against whom it si proved or by his
representative in interest
c) When the original has been destroyed or lost and when the original is of such a
nature as not o be easily movable
d) When the original is public document within the meaning of sec 74
e) All the above Ans:e)(65)
88. Certified copy of will is not admissible per se in evidence. It cannot be presumed to
be primary document which could be adduced in evidence and same could be proved only
by leading secondary evidence in case of
a) Sampat Singh Vs. Bhagwanti

89. Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record and admissibility of

electronic records defined in ______ of evidence act
a) Section 65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B

c) Section 65 d) None of these Ans:a
90. The following are electronic record
a) Record which is printed on a paper.

b) Record which is stored , recorded, or copied in optical or magnetic media
produced by computer
c) Both A & B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:c(65b)
91. Provided that such notice shall not be required in order to render secondary
evidence admissible in any of the following cases, or in any other case in which the Court
thinks fit to dispense with it:--
a) When the document to be proved is itself a notice;

b) When, from the nature of the case, the adverse party must know that he will be
required to produce it;
c) When it appears or is proved that the adverse party has obtained possession of
the original by fraud or force;
d) When the adverse party or his agent has the original in Court;
92. Proof of signature and handwriting defined in ____of evidence act.

c) Section 65 d) Section 67 Ans:d
93. Proof of electronic signature defined in_____of evidence act

c) Section 65 d) Section 67A Ans:d
a) Provided that it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness in proof of the
execution of any document, not being a will
b) If no such attesting witness can be found, or if the document purports to have
been executed in the United Kingdom, it must be proved that the attestation of one
attesting witness at least is in his handwriting.
c) The admission of a party to an attested document of its execution by
himself shall be sufficient proof of its execution as against him,though it be a
document required by law to be attested
d) If the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document,
its execution may be proved by other evidence
e) All the above Ans:e(68-71)
95. Digital signature defined in_____of evidence act

c) Section 73A d) Section 73 Ans:c
96. Which one of the following is not a public document?
a) An unregistered family settlement

b) A registered sale deed
c) Judgment of the high court
d) Judgment of a Civil Judge Ans:a(74)
97. For proving execution of a registered will
a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness

b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
c) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
d) Be necessary to call registrar Ans:b
98. When a party refuges to produce a document which he had noticed to produce?
a) He cannot use the document as evidence without consent of opposite party or
order of Court
b) Objection of opposite party is worthless
c) Order of court not necessary
d) Document will be deemed to be an admitted document Ans:a
99. Public document under Indian evidence act can be proved by
a) Certified copy b) Oral evidence

c) Writer of certified copy d) Any of the above Ans:a
100. When it is not necessary to call certifying writer of the document to prove the
document?
a) When the document is not a will

b) When the document is 30 year old
c) Both the A and B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:C
101. Maxim omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta means
a) All the acts are presumed to be wrongly done

b) All the acts are presumed to be rightly done
c) Both the A and B
d) Neither A nor B Ans:a
102. A photograph of an original is of its contents though two have been compared, if it
is proved that thing photographed was original-
a) Secondary evidence b) Primary evidence

c) Primary and Secondary evidence d0 Oral evidence Ans:a(63)
103. If digital signature of any subscriber is alleged to have been affixed to an electronic
record, fact must be proved-
a) That such digital signature is original signature

b) That such signature is original
c) That signature is no digital
d) That signature is digital Ans:a(73A)
104. These documents are public documents
a) Documents forming the acts or records of acts of the sovereign authority

b) Documents forming the acts or records of acts of official bodies
c) Documents forming the act, records of acts of tribunals
105. Private documents are given
a) In section 72 b) In section 73
c) In secion 74 d) In section 75 Ans:d
106. Presumptions as to documents are given-
a) Secton 75 to 78 b) Section 78 to 81
c) Section 79 to 90 d) Section 81 to 84 Ans:c
106. The court shall presume that every document purporting to be a power of attorney
and to have been executed before, and authenticate by
a) A Notary public
b) Any court, Judge or Magistrate
c) Consul or Vice consul, or representative of the Central Government
107. Which of the following is not a secondary evidence?
a) Copy prepared from original by mechanical process which has been compared
with original.
b) Copy prepared from original by mechanical process
c) Oral evidence of a person about contents of document who has seen document
d) Copy prepared from original and compared with it. Ans:c63)
108. In which of the following cases no notice is required to be given to adverse pary
before producing secondary documentary evidence?
a) When original is destroyed

b) When original is immovable
c) When original is electronic record
d) When original is in possession of adverse party Ans:d(66)
109. Secondary evidence of a document are-
a) The copies made from with original

b) The document itself produced for inspection of court
c) Where a document is execute in counter part each counter part being executed by
one, against executors
d) Where a document is executed in several parts each part Ans:a(63)
110. A document is said to be in handwriting of A that the document is produced from

proper custody, If the document is purporting or proved to be years old the court may
presume that is in A’s handwriting
a) Thirty b) Fifteen
c) Twenty d) Twelve Ans:a(90)
111. Section 90 A of Indian Evidence Act applies to-
a) Testamentary documents b) Electronic records

c) None of these d) Both the A&BAns:B
112. Presumption as to electronic records ______years old
a) Thirty b) Twenty
c) Ten d) Five Ans:d(90a)
113. Assuming that the document is more than thirty years old and comes from proper
custody, there would be no presumption that contents of the same are true
a) Mohinuddin Vs President , Municipal comity

b) Shatala Vs. State of maharashtra
114. Presumption of electronic records and signature defined in
a) Section 85b b) Section 85 a

c) Section 85 c d) None of these Ans:a
115. The function of a court of justice is
a) To ascertain the existence or non existence of certain facts

b) To apply the substantive law to ascertained facts
c) Declare the rights and liability of parties
116. Evidence means
a) To show b) To show clearly

c) Ascertain d) Signify Ans:b
117. Oral testimony of a witness can be
a) Wholly reliable b) Wholy unreliable

c) Neither A nor B d) Both the A and B Ans:a
118. Evidence under the Indian evidence act means and includes
a) Oral and documentary evidence or both b) Documentary evidence

c) Primary and circumstantial evidence d) Primary evidence Ans:a
119. The instruments by which the court is convinced of a fact is called
a) Document b) Evidence
c) Proof d) Witness Ans:b
120. The power of comparison of handwriting of finger print under section 73 lies with
a) Investigating officer b) Court

c) Either A or B d) None of the se Ans:a
121. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed
to be
(a) Documentary evidence (b) Oral evidence

(c) Neither A nor B (d) None of these Ans:b
122. Who can take identification parade?
(a) Police officer (b) Magistrate

(c) Any citizen (d) Any of these Ans:b
123. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) If an attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the
document, its execution may be proved by primary evidence
(b) If an attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document,
its execution may be proved by other evidence
(c) Its execution may be proved by secondary evidence
(d) All the above Ans:b
124. An Act, order or notification of the State Government may be proved by
(a) Oral evidence

(b) Journals publishing those documents
(c) The records of the departments, certified by the heads of the dept or by
any document purporting to be printed by order of the Government
125. The proceedings of the legislature may be proved by
(a) Oral evidence

(b) Copy of such proceedings
(c) The journals of those bodies or by published Acts or abstracts or by
copies purporting to be printed by order of the Government concerned
125. Q. No. 29 A leading question, without the permission of the Court, may be asked in
____
(a) Examination-in-Chief (b) At any time

(c) Cross examination (d) None of these Ans:c
126. Point out the incorrect answer. Evidence may be
(a) Direct and indirect (b) Primary and secondary

(c) Oral and documentary (d) Procedural and substantive Ans:d
127. If a document is executed in several parts, each part is ___ of the document
(a) Oral evidence (b) Primary evidence

(c) Secondary evidence (d) None of these Ans:b
128. Q. No. 43 A copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying machine is ___
evidence of the contents of the letter
(a) Documentary (b) Primary

(c) Secondary (d) None of these. Ans:c
129. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) Factum probandum (b) Factum probans

(c) Both factum probandum and factum probans
(d) None of the above. Ans:c
130. Relevancy is
(a) Question of law and can be raised at any time

(b) Question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(c) Question of law which can be waived
(d) Question of procedure which can be waived. Ans:a
131. Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence?
(a) Documents improperly procured

(b) Documents procured by illegal means
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b). Ans:d
132. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular
mode, are relevant
(a) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) Under section 7 of Evidence Act
(c) Under section 8 of Evidence Act
(d) Under section 9 of Evidence Act. Ans:b
THE INDIAN PENAL CODE 1860
1. The Indian Penal Code come into force on

a) 06 Oct 1860 b) 01 Mar 1974
c) 01 Apr 1974 d) 01 Jan 1862 Ans:d
2. Indian penal code enacted in
a) 25 Jan 1974 b) 06 Oct 1860

c) 01 Jan 1973 d) None of these Ans:b
3. Indian penal code 1860 Consists
i) 584 Sections, 5 Schedules & 5 chapters

j) 511 Sections, 23 chapter
k) 156 Sections, 3 Schedules
l) None of these Ans:b
4. Indian penal code 1860 was drafted by
a) Braodmon b) Macaulay
c) Lilly d) None of these Ans:b
5. The Indian penal code 1860 extends to
m) Whole India
n) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
o) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area
p) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:d (1)
6. Punishment of offences committed within India every person shall be liable to

punishment under this code and not otherwise for every act or omission defined in __ sec
of IPC
a) 1 b) 3
c) 2 d) 4 Ans:c
7. Any persons committed and office in out side of india
a) Shall be dealt with as foreign law.

b) Shall be dealt with as per foreign law with permission of the country concerned.
c) Shall be dealt with according to the provisions of this code for any act committed
beyond India in the same manner as if such had been committed within India
8. General explanation defined in sec_____of IPC
a) 4 b) 5
c) 7 d) 6 Ans:d
9. General exception of this code provides that nothing shall be an offence which is
done by
a) Under 18 years b) Under 16 years

c) Under 10 years d) Under 7 years Ans:d(6)
10. The following persons are not judge
a) A collector
b) A magistrate exercising jurisdiction in /ro a charge on which he has power to
sentence to fine or imprisonment, with or without appeal
c) A member of a panchayat which has power under regulation VII of madras code.
d) A Magistrate exercising jurisdiction in respect of a charge on which he has power
only to commit for trial to another court. Ans:d(19)
11. Court of justice defined in sec_____ IPC
a) 14 b) 15
c) 17 d) 21 Ans:d
12. Public servant denote a person under the followings
a) Every commissioned officer in military, naval or air forces

b) Every judge incl any persons empowered by law to discharge
c) Liquidator, Juryman, assessor, or member of panchayat
d) Every arbitrator .
e) All the above Ans:e)(21)
13. 'Wrongful gain' means
a) Gain by lawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
b) Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
c) Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
d) All the above. Ans:b(23)
14. 'Wrongful loss' means
a) Loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled
b) Loss by lawful means of property which the person losing it is not legally entitled
c) Loss by lawful means of property which the person losing is not legally entitled
15. 'Dishonestly' has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful
gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
(a) section 21 (b) section 23
(c) section 24 (d) section 25. Ans:C

16. 'Fraudulently' has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud
(a) section 23 (b) section 25

(c) section 24 (d) section 26. Ans:B
17. The following is a document
a) A cheque upon a banker is an document

b) A power of attorney is a document
c) A map or plan which is intended to be used or which may be used as evidence
18. The certificates which are found as forged for being admitted in the college could
be described as valuable security
a) Mahinder choudhary v. state of Andrapradesh

b) Keshav barathi v. state of maharashtra
c) Kansaheb Kalu Patil v. state of maharashtra
19. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common
intention of all
(a) Each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by
him alone
(b) Each of such person is liable for his own overt act
(c) Each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in
the crime
(d) Both (b) & (c). Ans:a(34)
20. To establish section 34 of IPC
(a) Common intention be proved but not overt act be proved

(b) Common intention and overt act both be proved
(c) Common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
(d) All the above.
21. Section 34 of IPC
(a) Creates a substantive offence

(b) Is a rule of evidence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
22. The burden lies on prosecution to prove that actual participation of more that one
person for commission of criminal act was done in furtherance of common intention at a
prior concert.
a) State of orissa v. Arjun Das,

b) Keshav barathi v. state of maharashtra
c) Kansaheb Kalu Patil v. state of maharashtra
23. Effect caused partly by act and partly by omission is
a) The effect caused partly by act is offence

b) The effect caused partly by omission is offence
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b Ans:c(36)
24. A intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and
partly by beating Z.
a) A has partly committed murder

b) A has committed murder
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b Ans:b(36)
25. .'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person
intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, know or had
reason to believe to be likely to cause it under
(a) Section 39 (b) Section 38

(c) Section 37 (d) Section 40. Ans:a
26. Offence defined in sec _____of IPC
(a) Section 39 (b) Section 38

(c) Section 37 (d) Section 40. Ans:d
27. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes
(a) Life of a human being

(b) Life of an animal
(c) Life of human being and of an animal both
(d) Life of either human being or animal. Ans:a
28. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes
(a) Death of a human being

(b) Death of an animal
(c) Death of a human being and of an animal both
(d) Death of either human being or an animal. Ans:a
29. Illegal signifies
(a) Everything which is an offence

(b) Everything which is prohibited by law
(c) Everything which furnishes ground for civil action
(d) All the above. Ans:b(43)
30. Animal denotes

(a) Any living creature including human being
(b) Any living creature other than a human being
(c) Any creature - live or dead
(d) Either (a) or (c). Ans:b(47)
31. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal
Code
(a) Three (b) Six

(c) Five (d) Four. Ans:c(53)
32. The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provisions of this code
are
a) Death and Imprisonment for life

b) Imprisonment rigorous and simple
c) Forfeiture of property and fine
33. Transportation for life, be construed as a reference to
a) Death b) Forfeiture of property

c) Imprisonment for life d) None of these Ans:c(53A)
34. In every case in which sentence of imprisonment for life shall have been passed,
the appropriate Government may, without the consent of the offender, commute the
punishment for imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding
c) 14 years d) 18 years Ans:c(55)
35. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be

reckoned as equivalent to 4[imprisonment]
c) 14 years d) 18 years Ans:a(57)
36. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of

imprisonment
(a) Has to be wholly rigorous (b) Has to be wholly simple

(c) Wholly or partly rigorous or simple (d) either (a) or (b). Ans:c(60)
37. The amount of fine which offender is liable is
a) Rs 25000/- b) Unlimited
c) Unlimited but shall no be expensive d) None of these Ans:c(63)
38. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under section 64 of IPC
(a) Shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been
sentenced
(b) Shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
(c) Shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
(d) Both (b) & (c). Ans:a(64)
39. In every case of offence offender punished
a) With imprisonment only b) With fine only

c) With imprisonment or fine or both d) None of these Ans:c(64)
40. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be
limited to
(a) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(b) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(c) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
(d) Equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence. Ans:b(65)
41. In case of an offence punished with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of
fine
(a) Has to be rigorous
(b) Has to be simple
(c) Has be rigorous or simple
(d) Has be partly rigorous and partly simple. Ans:b(67)
42. In case of an offence punished with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a
fine of not exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not
exceed
(a) Two months (b) Three months

(c) Four months (d) Six months. Ans:a(67)
fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of
payment of fine shall not exceed

(c) Four months (d) Six months. Ans:c(67)
fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed

(c) Four months (d) Six months. Ans:d(67)
45. Section 64 of IPC provides for
(a) Nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

(b) Nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
(c) Nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
(d) Limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature
of imprisonment. Ans:c(64)
46. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate
(a) On payment of fine

(b) On expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b). Ans: c(68)
47. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such
sentence
(a) Shall be reduced proportionately

(b) Shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
(c) Shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of
reduction
(d) All of the above. Ans:a(69)
48. Punishment of offence made up of several offence is
a) Offender shall be punished with a more severe punishment.

b) Offender shall be punished with any one of such offences
c) Offender shall be punished with all offence one by one
49. In all cases in which judgment is given that a person is guilty of one of several
offences specified in the judgment, but that it is doubtful of which of these offences he is
guilty, the offender shall be punished for the offence
a) For which the lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is

not provided for all
b) For which the highest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not
provided for all
c) Shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of
reduction
d) None of the above Ans:a(72)
50. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be
(a) One year (b) Two years

(c) Three months (d) Six months. Ans:c(73)
51. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six months, the
solitary confinement
(a) Shall not exceed 15 days (b) Shall not exceed one month
(c) Shall not exceed two months (d) Shall not exceed forty-five days.
Ans:b(73)
52. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months but
not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement
(a) Shall not exceed 15 days (b) Shall not exceed one month
Ans:c(73)
53. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the
term of solitary confinement shall not exceed
(a) Shall not exceed three month (b) Shall not exceed one month
Ans:a(73)
a) In executing a sentence of solitary confinement such confinement shall in no

case exceed fourteen days at a time.
b) When the imprisonment awarded shall exceed three moth the solitary
confinement shall not exceed seven day in any one month of the whole
imprisonment awarded.
c) Both a and b are correct
d) Neither a nor b or correct Ans:c(74)
55. Enhanced punishment for certain offence under Chapter XII or Chapter
XVII after previous conviction
a) 3 years upwards b) 4 year upwards

c) 1 year upwards d) None of these Ans:a(75)
56. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in good faith which is done or
believed without due care & intention - is the definition of good faith contained in
(a) Section 29 of IPC (b) Section 29A of IPC

(c) Section 52 of IPC (d) Ssection 52A of IPC. Ans:c
57. General exceptions are contained in
(a) Chapter III of IPC (b) Chapter IV of IPC

(c) Chapter V of IPC (d) Chapter VI of IPC. Ans:b
58. Of offences by or relating to public servants defined in ____ of IPC
a) Chapter IX b) Chapter X
c) Chapter XII d) Chapter XIII Ans:a
59. Public servant disobeying law, with intent to cause injury to any person shall be
punished with
a) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend one year

b) Punished with fine
c) A or B or both
60. Mark the correct option relating to Public servant framing an incorrect document
with intent to cause injury
a) Shall be punished for a term which may extend to 3 years or with fine or both.
b) This is cognizable case and bailable
c) Both the a & b are correct
61. Public servant unlawfully engaging in trade may be punished with
a) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 1 year or with fine or both
b) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 2 year or with fine or both
c) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 year or with fine or both
62. Whoever, being a public servant, and being legally bound as such public servant,
not to purchase or bid for certain property, purchases or bids for that property, either in
his own name or in the name of another, or jointly, or in shares with others, shall be
punished with
a) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 1 year or with fine or both
b) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 2 year or with fine or both
c) Simple imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 year or with fine or both
63. Personating a public servant shall be punished with(Cognizable non bailable)
a) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 2 years or with fine or both
b) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 years or with fine or both
c) Either A or B at the discretion of the court
64. Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intend
a) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 2 years or with fine or both
b) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 years or with fine or both
c) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 month or with fine which may
be extend to two hundred rupees or with both (cognizable bailable)
65. Of contempts of the lawful authority of public servants defined in___ of IPC
a) Chapter IX b) Chapter X
c) Chapter XII d) Chapter XIII Ans:b
66. Whoever absconds in order to avoid being served with a summons, notice or order
proceeding from any public servant legally competent shall be punished with
a) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 1 month or with fine which may
be extend to five hundred rupees or with both
b) Imprisonment for a term which may be extend 3 month or with fine which may
67. If the summons or notice or order is to attend in person or by agent, or to produce

a document or an electronic record in a court of justice.
be extend to one thousand rupees or with both
68. Preventing service of summons or other proceeding, or preventing publication

thereof or intentionally prevents the lawful affixing to any place of any such summons,
notice or order, or intentionally removes any such summons, notice or order from any
place to which it is lawfully affixed shall be punished
be extend to one thousand rupees or with both
a) Non-attendance in obedience to an order from public servant shall be punished

with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine
which may extend to five hundred rupees, or with both
b) Non appearance in response to a proclamation under section 82 shall be punished
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 year or with fine or both
c) Both the A and B
a) Omission to produce document to public servant by person legally bound

to produce it shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees, or
with both;
b) Omission to give notice or information to public servant by person legally bound
to give it Omission to give notice or information to public servant by person legally
bound to give it
c) Furnishing false information shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a
term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one
thousand rupees, or with both
d) Al the above
Ans:d(175-177)
71. Refusing oath or affirmation when duly required by public servant to make it shall
be punished with
a) Simple imprisonment for a term may extend to 6 month

b) With fine which may extend to one thousand rupees
c) Both the A & B
d) A or B or C Ans:d(178)
72. Refusing to answer public servant authorised to question shall be punished with

b) With fine which may extend to one thousand rupees
c) Both the A & B
73. Refusing to sign statement shall be punished with

b) With fine which may extend to five hundred rupees
c) Both the A & B
74. False statement on oath or affirmation to public servant or person authorized to

administer an oath or affirmation shall be punished with imprisonment
a) Simple imprisonment for a term may extend to 3 years or with fine or both
b) Simple imprisonment for a term may extend to 2 years or with fine or both
c) Simple imprisonment for a term may extend to 1 years or with fine or both
75. False information, with intent to cause public servant to use his lawful power to the
injury of another person shall be punished with

b) With fine which may extend to five hundred rupees
c) Both the A & B
76. Resistance to the taking of property by the lawful authority of a public servant shall
be punished with simple imprisonment may extend_____ , or with fine which may extend to
____ or with both
a) One month, five hundred b) Three months, five hundred

c) Six month, one thousand d) None of these Ans:c(183)
77. Whoever intentionally obstructs any sale of property offered for sale by the lawful
authority of any public servant, as such, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ____, or with fine which may extend to ____
rupees, or with both
a) One month, six hundred b) One month, five hundred

c) Six month, one thousand d) None of these Ans:b(184)
78. Illegal purchase or bid for property offered for sale by authority of public servant
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to ____, or with fine which may extend to ____ rupees, or with both
a) One month, six hundred b) One month, five hundred

c) One month, two hundred d) None of these Ans:c(185)
79. Whoever voluntarily obstructs any public servant in the discharge of his public
functions, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to ____ , or with fine which may extend to ___ rupees, or with both.
a) One month, six hundred b) Three month, five hundred

c) One month, two hundred d) None of these Ans:b(186)
80. Whoever, being bound by law to render or furnish assistance to any public servant
in the execution of his public duty, intentionally omits to give such assistance, shall be
punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to ___, or with fine
which may extend to ___rupees, or with both;

81. Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ____ , or with fine
which may extend to ___ rupees, or with both.
82. if such disobedience causes or tends to cause danger to human life, health or safety,
or causes or tends to cause a riot or affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ____, or with fine which may extend to _____, or
with both
a) Six month, One thousand b) Three month, five hundred

c) Six month five hundred d) None of these Ans:a(188)
83. Whoever holds out any threat of injury to any public servant, or to any person in
whom he believes that public servant to be interested shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ____ months, or with
fine or with both.
a) Six month b) Three month

c) One year d) Two year Ans:d(189)
84. Threat of injury to induce person to refrain from applying for protection to public
servant shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ____ months, or with fine or with both.
a) Six month b) Three month

c) One year d) Two year Ans:c(190)
85. Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ____, or
with fine which may extend to _____, or with both
a) One month, One thousand b) Three month, five hundred

c) Three month, two hundred d) None of these Ans:c(491)
86. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under IPC?
a) Forfeiture of property b) Rigorous imprisonment

c) Transportation for life d) Death Ans:c
87. Which of the following is not an essential element of section 34 of IPC?
a) Criminal act done by several persons.

b) Criminal act done in furtherance of a common intention
c) Pre-arranged plan between persons doing criminal act
d) Act done in furtherance of common object. Ans:d
88. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
a) A postal receipt for an insured parcel

b) A rent note
c) A promissory note
d) A deed of divorcee Ans:d
89. Common intention means-
a) Similar intention b) Same intention

c) Sharing of intention by all persons d) Common plans Ans:c
90. Who is citizen of India commits murder in Uganda, he is arrested in Delhi he can be
tried and convicted of murder-
a) Only in Uganda
b) Only in country of which deceased was a citizen
c) In any of above
d) In delhi Ans;d
91. One of the following is not a public servant
a) Liquidator
b) A civil Judge
c) Member of panchayat assisting a court of Justice
d) Secretary of a Cooperative society. Ans:d
92. Which of the following cases is not related to principle of joint liable based on
common intention?
a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor

b) Mahboob Shah Vs. Emperor
c) J.M Desai Vs. State of Bombay
d) Reg Vs. Govinda Ans:d
93. In which of the following cases privy council made a distinction between common
intention and similar intention?
a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor b) Mahboob Shah Vs. Emperor

b) J.M Desai Vs. State of Bombay c) Bannu mal Vs. Emperor
Ans:b
94. Section 34 of IPC provides for liability based on common intention consider the
following situations.
1) Weapon used in offence was found in A’s house

2) A has procured weapon of offence voluntarily to aid criminal gang
3) A was compelled under threat to his life to procure weapon of offence
4) Weapon was supplied on receipt of value of weapon(sale)
Which of situations given above reflects correct ingredients with regard to section34.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only d) 4 only Ans:c
95. Which one of the following statements regarding section 34 and section 149 of
Indian Penal Code is correct?
a) Common intention and common object are same

b) Both are distinct offences in themselves
c) Section 34 enunciates a mere principle of liability and creates no offence while
section 149 creates a specific offence.
d) Section 34 and 149 are mutually halping sections. Ans:c
96. Judge has been defined in-
c) Section 19 d) Section 22 Ans:c
97. Word person includes-
a) Association b) Company
c) Body of persons d) All of these Ans:d
98. Movable property are intended to include
a) Corporal property
b) Things permanently fastened to thing which is attached to earth
c) Things attached to earth
d) All the above Ans:a
99. What is local law?
a) Is a law applicable to particular law

b) It is a law applicable to particular part of India
c) Natural law
100. Injury denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person-
a) In body b) In mind
c) In reputation d) All the above Ans:d
THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005
1. The Right to information bill having been passed by both houses of parliament
received the assent of the president on
a) 12 Oct 2005 b) 13 Oct 2005

c) 15 Jun 2005 d) None of these Ans:c
2. The RTI act enacted by parliament in the
a) 55th of the republic of India b) 54th of the republic of India

c) 56th of the republic of India d) None of these Ans:c
3. RTI act extends to the
q) Whole India
r) Whole India except nagaland , tribal area & Jammu and Kashmir
s) Whole India except Nagaland , tribal area
t) Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir Ans:d
4. Sec 4,5,12,13,15,16.24.27 & 28 of RTI act come into force at once, ad the remaining
provisions of this act shall come into for on
a) 15 Jun 2005 b) 12 Oct 2005

c) The one hundred and twentieth day of its enactment
d) Above B&C Ans: d
5. Appropriate government means in relation to a public authority which is

established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided
directly or indirectly by
a) The Central government b) The State government

c) Union territory administration d) All the above Ans:d(2a)
6. Mark the correct option relating to competent authority means:-
a) The president or the governor in case of constituted by or under the constitution

b) Speaker in case of house of people
c) The chief justice of high court in case of a high court
d) Chief justice of India in case of supreme court
e) All the above Ans:e(2e)
7. Information means any material in any form
a) Records, documents, memos b) Opinions & advices

c) Circulars, orders, reports d) All the above Ans:d(2f)
8. Record include
a) Any document, manuscript and file

b) Any microfilm , microfiche and facsimile copy of a document
c) Any other material produced a computer or any other device
d) All the above Ans:d(2i)
9. Right to information means
a) Inspection of work, documents, records

b) Taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records
c) Taking a certified samples of material.
d) Obtaining information in the form of diskettes, flppoies, tapes
e) All the above Ans:e(2j)
10. Information commissions are
a) Central information commission b) State information commission

c) District information commission d) A& B only
e) All the above Ans:d
11. A person other than the citizen making a request to information and includes a
public authority
a) Complainant b) Consumer
c) Third party d) A&B Ans:c(2n)
12. Every public authority shall designate as many officers as
a) Central information officer b) Central public information officer

c) State public information officer d) B&C only Ans:d(5)
13. Every public authority shall designate an officer at each sub divisional level
a) Central Asst. public information officers/State Asst. public information officer

b) Central information/State information officer
c) Central public information officer/State public information officer
d) All the above Ans: a(5)
14. Under RTI act the language of an application may be
a) In English b) In Hindi
c) In Regional language d) All the above Ans: d(6)
15. Request for obtaining information the application is being made to
a) The central public information officer/State public information officer.

b) The central Asst public information officer/State Asst. public information officer
c) Either A&B as the case may be
16. An applicant making request for information
a) Should be give the reason why the information sought for

b) Shall not be give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal
details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.
c) None of these Ans:b(6)
17. Where an application is made to a public authority requesting for an information

which is held by another public authority, or the subject matter of which is more closely
connected with the functions of another public authority the application shall be
transferred to the concerned authority not latter than____ of receipt of the application.
c) 3 days d) 5 days Ans:d(6)
18. The request information should normally be made within
a) 48 Hrs b) 24 Hrs
c) 30 days d) 45 days Ans:c(7)
19. The information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall
be provided within_____ of receipt of the application.
a) 48 Hrs b) 24 Hrs
c) 72 Hrs d) At the same time Ans:a(7)
20. If the information central/state public information office as the case may be fails
to give decision within the period 30 days
a) Shall be deemed to have transferred the application to higher authority

b) Should be wait for another thirty days
c) Shall be deemed to have refused the request
a) Where the access to information is to be provided in the printed or in any

electronic format, the applicant shall pay such fee as may be prescribed
b) No such fee shall be charged from the persons whore are below poverty line
c) The information shall be provided the information free of charge where a public
authority fails to comply with the time limits specified.
d) Before taking the decision consideration of third party representation is necessary
22. The following information’s are exemption from disclosure
a) Information disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and

integrity of India
b) Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court
of law or tribunal.
c) Information the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of
parliament or the state legislature
d) Information commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property , the
disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of third party.
23. Third party shall be made his representation within

24. Constitution of central information commission the central government shall be

made by
a) Notification b) Circular
c) Notification by official gazette d) None of these Ans:c(12)
25. The central information commission shall consist of
a) The chief information commissioner

b) Central information commissioner not exceeding ten
c) All of these d) None of these Ans:c(12)
26. The chief information/Information commissioner shall be appointed by
a) The president on the recommendation of the a committee

b) The president of India
c) The chief justice of India
d) The prime minister of India Ans:a
27. The CIC/IC appointing recommendation committee consisting
a) The president of India

b) The prime minister who shall be chairperson
c) The leader of opposition party in the lok sabha
d) A union cabinet minister to be nominated by the prime minister
e) Above B,C&D only f) All the above Ans:e(12)
28. Mark the incorrect option relating to the knowledge and experience of the CIC/IC
a) Law, science and technology b) Social service & management

c) Journalism , mass media d) Cinema and Politics Ans:d(12)
a) The CIC/IC shall hold office for a term 5 years

b) CIC shall not be eligible to reappointment.
c) No CIC shall hold office as such after he has attained the age of 65 years
d) Every IC shall not be eligible to reappointment as IC but shall be eligible to
reappoint as CIC the term of office shall not be more than 5 years in aggregate as
IC and CIC
30. The CIC/IC his resignation letter should be made to
a) The chief justice of India b) The prime minister

c) The president d) Any one of them Ans;c(12)
31. State information shall consist
a) State chief information commissioner and 5 state information commissioner b)

State chief information commissioner and 2 state information commissioner
c) The state chief information commissioner and not more than 10 state information
commissioner
32. The first appeal should be lie under RTI Act after
c) 90 days d) 30 days Ans:d(19)
33. Under which section of RTI act information is giver
a) Sec. 4 b) Sec. 3
c) Sec. 6 d) Sec 13 Ans:b
34. Which of the following has not been defined under Sec. 2 of the RTI Act
a) Central Asst public information officer.

b) Central information officer
c) Public authority
d) Judge Ans:d
35. A second appeal against decision shall lie within
36. An appeal under sub section 1 or 2 of 19 shall be disposed of within thirty day of
the receipt of the appeal or within such extended period not exceeding a total of _____ days
form the date of filing thereof , as the case may be, for reasons to be recorded in writing.
a) 60 b) 30
c) 45 d) 15 Ans:c(19)
37. The public information officers liable to be impose a monitory penalty for
a) Without any reason refused to receive an application for information or has not
been furnished the information within the time specified.
b) Malafidely denied the request for information or knowingly given incorrect,
incomplete or misleading information or destroyed information which was the
subject of the request.
c) Both A&B
38. The penalty shall be imposed to Central/State public information officer is
a) Rs 225/- each day till application is received or information furnished.

b) Rs 250/- each day till application is received or information furnished.
c) The total amount of penalty shall not exceed Rs 25000/-
d) B&C both Ans:d(20)
39. A request for obtaining information under RTI act the application fee is Rs
a) 25/- b) 50/-
c) 20/- d) 10/- Ans:d
40. The application fee may be accepted in shape of____ payable to
a) Cash/Account officer of the public authority

b) DD/Cheque / Account officer of the public authority
c) Indian Postal Order / Account officer of the public authority
d) Any one of the above Ans:d
41. Mark the correct option relating to fee for obtain information under RTI act
a) Rs 2/- per each page (A4/A3 size paper) created or copied

b) Actual charge or cost price of a copy in large size paper
c) Actual cost or price for samples or models
d) For inspection of records no fee for the first hour and a fee Rs5/- for each
subsequent hour
42. Information provided in diskette or floppy Rs_____ chargeable per diskette/floppy.
a) 25/- b) 50/-
c) 20/ d) Free Ans:b
43. The first state in India introduce the a law on RTI was
a) Tamilnadu b) UP
c) Maharashtra d) None of these Ans:a
44. How many schedule in RTI Act 2005 ?
a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2 Ans: d
45. Indian citizen have the right to information because of
a) Judgment of Supreme court

b) Implementation of international laws by Indian govt
c) All states adopted agree to implement the act
d) A law passed by the parliament of India Ans:d
46. How could a public information officer receive applications?
a) Those submitted by a requester in hand

b) Those sent by an applicant by email/ by post
c) Transferred by another public authority
d) Forwarded by an Asst public information officer
47. A first appeal against the decision of a PIO can be preferred by
a) An applicant b) A person from within public authority

c) A person outside the public authority to whom information pertains
48. While inquiring into a complaint information commissions have the power to
a) Receive evidence on affidavit

b) Requisition record or copies thereof from any court or office
c) Issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents
49. The first appellate authority should decide on first appeals
a) Within the 30 days from the receipt of the firs appeals

b) In less number of days that the PIO concerned took to take a decision on the
application.
c) Within 45 days from the date of receipt of the appeal , if reasons are recorded
d) Both A&C Ans:d
50. If a PIO reasonably non exempted portions of a record from exempted portions and
partially provides information to an applicant he/she has to
a) Give the name and designation of the person giving the decision
b) Reasons for the decision
c) Details of fees the applicant may have to pay
d) Applicants rights for a review of the decision
51. The first schedule of the RTI act 2005 is
a) List of exempted information b) Govt order

c) Affirmation on oath of CIOs/ IOs d) None of these Ans:c
52. The second schedule of the RTI act 2005 list
a) The intelligence and security organizations established by the central govt that
are exempted from the purview of the RTI act 2005.
b) All departmental information of Central and state
c) Affirmation on oath of CIOs/IOs in this schedule
53. The second schedule of RTI act 2005 can be amended by
a) Central govt b) State govt

c) Supreme court d) President Ans:a
54. What is the time span mentioned in RTI act 2005 for making order for removing
difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the RTI Act 2005?
a) 2 years from the commencement of the act

b) 1 years from the commencement of the act
c) 3 years from the commencement of the act
d) 18 month from the commencement of the act Ans:a
55. The central information commission/state information commission has a duty to

receive complaint from any person
a) Who has not been able to submit an information request because a PIO has not
been appointed
b) Who has been refused information that was requested
c) Who thinks to fee charged unreasonable
d) Who thinks information given is incomplete or false or misleading
56. The state CIC/ IC are appointed by
a) The president on the recommendation of the a committee

b) The Governor on the recommendation of the a committee
c) The chief justice of India
d) The prime minister of India Ans:b
57. The CIC/IC appointing recommendation committee consisting
a) The Governor
b) The Chief minister who shall be chairperson
c) The leader of opposition party in the legislative assebly
d) A union cabinet minister to be nominated by the Chief minister
e) Above B,C&D only f) All the above Ans:e(12)
58. Where is the Head quarter of Central information commission.
a) New Delhi b) Mumbai

c) Chennai d) Bangalore Ans:a
Most useful for LDCE LGO EXAM

1. Who is the author of “The Kalam effect: My years with the president”?
(a) P.M.Nayar (b) Sonia Gandhi(c) L.K.Adwani (d) Arun ShaurieANS (a)
2. Who is the author of the book “Superstar India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
(a) L.K.Adwani (b) Arundhati Roy(c) Shobha De (d) Vikram SethANS (c)
3. The Sanskrit poet called as the Indian Shakespeare?

(a) Kalidasa (b) Thulasidas (c) Sudraka (d) KautilyaANS (a)
4. Mulk Raj Anand is the author of

(a) The Post Office (b) Gora(c) India Wins Freedom (d) CoolieANS (Try Yourself)
5. Who is the author of the book ’My other two daughters’?

(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav (b) Surjit Singh Barnala(c) E.M. Forster (d) Paul KennedyANS (b)
6. Who is known as the Father of Detective Story

(a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Bram Stoker(c) Edgar Allen Poe (d) None of the aboveANS (c)
7. Man-The Maker of His Own Destiny’ “ book was written by

(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Mahatma Gandhi(c) Guenter Grass (d) Swami VivekanandaANS (d)
8. Find out the odd one

(a) Louis Fischer (b) Ibsen(c) William Shakespeare (d) Sherlock HolmesANS (d) Others are
writers. Sherlock Holmes is a character 9.One among the following is not written by Kalidasa
(a) Saakunthalam (b) Raghu Vamsam(c) Rith Samharam (d) KaavyadoothANS (d)
10. ’Sonia, a Biography’ was written by

(a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Arundhathi Roy(c) Rasheed Kidvai (d) V.K. Madhavan KuttyANS (c)
11. One among the following is not a Harry Potter story

(a) Chamber of secrets(b) The philosopher’s stone(c) Half blood prince (d) Naked TruthANS (d)
12. Jules Verne, a French science fiction writer wrote a book, which carried a more or less
accurate prediction of the launching of Apollo-8. Which is the book
(a) From the Earth to the moon(b) All under Heaven(c) A Midsummer Night’s Dream(d) Past and
PresentANS (a)
13. Who is the author of “A Passage to England”?

(a) E.M. Forster (b) Nirad C. Chaudhari(c) G.B. Shaw (d) Winston ChurchillANS (b)
14. “Does IT matter” is a book written by

(a) Bill Gates (b) N. R. Narayanan (c) Nicholas Carr(d) Thomas D. Harris (e) None of theseANS (c)
15. ’Beyond time’ is the book written by

(a) Namita Gokhale (b) Ruskin Bond(c) William Balrymple (d) Josef Korbel(e) None of theseANS
(e)
16. The famous book ’Anandmath’ has been authorised by

(a) Rabindranath Tagore(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya(c) Sarojini Naidu(d) Sri
Aurobindo
ANS (b)
17.Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British
rule?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Lala Lajpat Rai(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jawaharlal NehruANS (a)
18. The author of the book ’Waiting for Godot’ is:

(a) Ruth Harring (b) Susan Sontag(c) Samuel Beckett (d) Ben JonsonANS (c) Waiting for the
Mahatma – R. K. Narayanan
Waiting to Exhale – Terry Mc Millan
19. “The Vedas contain all the truth”, was interpreted by:
(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Swami Dayanand(c) Swami Shraddhanand (d) S. RadhakrishnanANS
(b)
20. Sirr-i-Akbar was the Persian translation of fifty-two Upanishads by which son of shah
Jahan?
ANS – Dara Shikoh
21.In “The Travels of Gulliver”, what is the first things two Lilliputians discuss when they
meet in the morning?
ANS – The health of the sun
22.”The man who knew infinity” is the biography of

(a) Rene Descartes (b) Stephen Hawking(c) Albert Einstein (d) S. RamanujanANS (d)
23.What was the original name of ’Alice in Wonderland’ when Lewis Carroll first showed
it to novelist Henry Kingsley in 1863?ANS – Alice’s Adventures Underground
24. The author of the book “Waiting for the Mahatma” is

(a) R.K Narayan (b) N.A Palkhiwala(c) Amrita Pritam (d) M. MalgonkarANS (a)
25. Under the patronage of which ruler of the Javanese house of Mataram, was the epic
poem ’Arjuna vivaha’ written?
ANS – King Airlangga
26. To whom, in his own words, did Rudyard Kipling dedicate his collection, ’Plain Tales
From the Hills’?
ANS – To the wittiest woman in India
27. ’Beyond the Last Blue Mountain’ is R.M Lala’s biography of which Indian?
ANS – J. R. D. Tata
28. Which of Agatha Christie’s books was the first to be serialised in the Evening News
under the title ’Anna the Adventure’?ANS – The Man In The Brown Suit
29. Who has authored the book A Brief History of Time?

(a) Carl Sagan (b) Issac Asimov(c) John Gribbin (d) Stephen HawkingANS (d)
30. The book ’Living with Honour’ is written by

(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Shiv Khera(c) Pramod Batra (d) Vikram SethANS (b)
31. The book ’Cricket My Style’ is written by
(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Sachin Tendulkar(c) Kapil Dev (d) Mohinder AmarnathANS (c)
32. Who wrote the book ’The Book of Indian Birds’

ANS – Dr. Salim Ali
33. ’Economic History of India’ was written by

ANS – R. C. Dutt
34.The oldest of the vedic literature is

(a) Sama Veda (b) Yajur Veda(c) Rig Veda (d) Atharva VedaANS (c)
35. ’Leelavathi’ the famous sanskrit grantha is a book on

ANS – Mathematics
36. Who is the author of Ãn Equal Musicâ (1999)

ANS – Vikram Seth
37. Who wrote the poem ˜Passage to India in 1871

ANS – Walt Whitman (American Poet)
38. Who is the author of the book ˜The Canterbury Tales

ANS – Geoffrey Chaucer
39. Who is the author of the book Ãnna Karenin

ANS – Leo Tolstoy
40.Who is the author of the book ˜The Adventures of Tom SawyerANS – Mark Twain
41. Who is the author of the book ˜The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes?ANS – Sir Arthur
Conan Doyle
42.Who is the author of the book ˜The Comedy of Errors?ANS – William Shakespeare
43. Who is the author of the book Ãnimal FarmANS – George Orwell
44. Who is the author of the book ˜The Rime of the Ancient Mariner?ANS – Samuel Taylor
Coleridge
45. Who is the author of the book, ˜Through the Looking-Glass?ANS – Lewis Carroll
46. Who is the author of the book, Ãllâs Well That Ends Wellâ?ANS – William Shakespeare
47. Who is the author of the book Ãkbar-nama

ANS – Abul Fazl
48. Who is the author of the book ˜The Adventures of Huckleberry Finnâ?ANS – Mark
Twain
49. Who is the author of the book Ãntony and Cleopatraâ?ANS – William Shakespeare
50. Who is the author of the book , Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica
(Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687)ANS – Sir Isaac
51. Who is the author of the book “Jyoti Punj”?

(a) L.K.Adwani (b) Atal Bihari Vajpeyi(c) Narendra Modi (d) Vikram SethANS (c)
Classical Dance of India

Dance State
Bharat Natyam Tamil Nadu
Bihu Assam
Bhangra Punjab
Chhau Bihar, Orissa, W. Bengal and Jharkhand
Garhwali Uttaranchal
Garba Gujarat
Hattari Karnataka
Kathak North India
Kathakali Kerala
Kutchipudi Andhra Pradesh
Khantumm Mizoram
Karma Madhya Pradesh
Laho Meghalaya
Mohiniattam Kerala
Mando Goa
Manipuri Manipur
Nati Himachal Pradesh
Nat-Natin Bihar
Odissi Orissa
Rauf Jammu & Kashmir
Yakshagan Karnataka
Folk and Tribal Dances
States Dances
Kathakeertan, Lezin, Dandaniya, Tamasha, Gafa, Dahikala, Lovani, Mauni,
Maharashtra
Dasavtar.
Karnataka Huttari, Suggi Kunitha, Yakashagana
Kerala Kaikottikali, Kaliyattam, Tappatikkali
Tamil Nadu Kolattam, Pinnal Kolattam, Kummi, Kavadi, Karagam
Andhra
Ghanta Mardala, Veedhi Natakam, Burrakatha
Pradesh
Orissa Ghumara Sanchar, Chadya Dandanata, Chhau
West Bengal Kathi, Chhau, Baul, Kirtan, Jatra, Lama
Assam Bihu, Khel Gopal, Rash Lila, Tabal Chongli, Canoe
Punjab Giddha (women), Bhangra (men)
J&K Rauf, Hikat
Himachal
Jhora, Jhali, Dangli, Mahasu, Jadda, Jhainta, Chharhi
Pradesh
Haryana Jhumar, Ras Leela, Phag dance, Daph, Dhamal, Loor, Gugga, Khoria, Gagor
Gujarat Garba, Dandiya Rass, Tippani, Gomph
Rajasthan Ginad, Chakri, Gangore, Terahtaal, Khayal, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma, Suisini
Jata Jatin, Jadur, Chhau, Kathaputli, Bakho, Jhijhiya, Samochakwa, Karma,
Bihar
Jatra, Natna
Uttar Pradesh Nautanki, Thora, Chappeli, Raslila, Kajri.
Famous Dancer
Bala Saraswati, C. V. Chandrasekhar, Leela Samson, Mrinalini Sarabhai, Padma
Bharatnatyam Subramanyam, Rukmini Devi, Sanyukta Panigrahi, Sonal Mansingh, Yamini
Krishnamurti
Bharti Gupta, Birju Maharaj, Damayanti Joshi, Durga Das, Gopi Krishna,
Kathak
Kumudini Lakhia, Sambhu Maharaj, Sitara Devi
Kuchipudi Josyula Seetharamaiah, Vempathi Chinna Sthyam
Guru Bipin Sinha, Jhaveri Sisters, Nayana Jhaveri, Nirmala Mehta, Savita Mehta
Manipuri Debaprasad Das, Dhirendra nath Pattnaik, Indrani Rahman, Kelucharan
Mahapatra, Priyambaba Mohanty, Sonal Mansingh
Instrumentalists
Ali Akbar Khan, Allaudin Khan, Amjad Ali Khan, Buddhadev Dasgupta,
Sarod
Bahadur Khan, Sharan Rani, Zarin S. Sharma
Tabla Alla Rakha Khan, Kishan Maharaj, Nikhil Ghosh, Zakir Hussain
Baluswamy Dikshitar, Gajanan Rao Joshi, Lalgudi G. Jayaraman, M. S. Gopala
Violin
krishnan, Mysore T. Chowdiah, T. N. Krishnan
Shehnal Bismillah Khan
Sitar Nikhil Banerjee, Ravi Shankar, Vilayat Khan, Hara Shankar Bhattacharya
Flute Hari Prasad Chaurasia, Pannalal Ghose, T. R. Mahalingam
Veena K. R. Kumaraswamy lyer, Doraiswami lyengar
Vocalists
Shubha Mudgal, Bheemsen Joshi, Madhup Mudgal, Mukul Shivputra, Pandit
Jasraj, Parveen Sultana, Naina Devi, Girija Devi, Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan,
Hindustani
Gangubai Hangal, Krishna Hangal, V. Rajput, Kumar Gandharva, Faiyyaz Khan,
Mallikarjun Mansur.
M. S. Subbalakshmi, Balamuralikrishna, Bombay Jaishree, H. K. Raghavendra,
Carnatic H. K. Venkataram, Sitarajam, Mani Krishnaswamy, Akhil Krishnan, M. L.
Vasanthakumari, M. D. Ramanathan, G. N. Balasubramaniam
Thumri Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, Ustad Mazhar Ali Khan, Ustad Zawad Ali Khan,
Rita Ganguli, Poornima Chaudhary, Shanti Heerananda, Naina Devi
Ghulam Hasan Niyazi, Sultan Niyazi, Ghulam Farid Nizami, Chand Nizami,
Quwwali
IqbalHussain Khan Bandanawaji, Aslam Sabari
Ustad Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar, Zahiruddin Dagar, Waslfuddin Dagar,
Dhrupad Bundecha Bandhu, Uday Bhawalkar, Pt. Abhay Narayan Mallick, Pt. Ritwik
Sanyal
1. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image printed text?
a. OCR
2. The output quality of a printer is measured by
b. Dot per sq. inch
3. In analog computer
b. Input is never converted to digital form
4. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed
c. Both sequentially and parallel
5. Who designed the first electronics computer – ENIAC?
c. J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly
6. Who invented the high level language c?
a. Dennis M. Ritchie
7. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to
c. Peopleware
8. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands?
d. 1991
9. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillico Sapiens?
d. Computer
10. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer jargon for
it?
d. Glitch
11. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not
c. Infallible
12. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires
operator attention?
b. Reverse video
13. IMB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips from Intel, disk
drives from Tandon, operating system from Microsoft, the printer from Epson and the
application software from everywhere. Can you name the country which contributed the video
display?
d. Taiwan
14. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the
common name for such boards?
b. Motherboard
15. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots and active components
are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board?
a. Motherboard
16. What is meant by a dedicated computer?
b. Which is assigned one and only one task
17. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains all of the following except:
d. Modem
18. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language is called a/an
c. Compiler
19. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine
language is called a/an
a. Interpreter
20. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a
d. Sensor
1. EBCDIC stands for
Correct Answer: a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit binary code for larger IBMs primarily mainframes in which each
byte represent one alphanumeric character or two decimal digits. 256 characters can be coded
using EBCDIC.
2. BCD is
Correct Answer: a. Binary Coded Decimal
Explanation: BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is expressed as a
8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12 is 0001 0010 as opposed
to 1100 in pure binary.
3. ASCII stands for
Correct Answer: c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Explanation: ASCII is a code which converts characters – letters, digits, punctuations and control
characters such as Alt, Tab etc – into numeral form. ASCII code is used to represent data
internally in micro-computers. ASCII codes are 7 bits and can represent 0 to 127 and extended
ASCII are 8 bits that represents 0 to 255.
4. Which of the following is first generation of computer
Correct Answer: a. EDSAC
Explanation: IBM-1401, CDC-1604 is second generation computer. ICL-2900 is a fourth

generation computer. EDSAC is important in the development of computer since it was the first
computer to use John von. Neumann’s Stored Program Concept. It used 3000 vacuum tubes and
computers with vacuum tubes are of first generation computers.
5. Chief component of first generation computer was
Correct Answer: b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: Transistors were used for second generation computers and integrated circuits in
third generation. First generation computers used vacuum tubes and valves as their main
electronic component. Vacuum Tubes were invented by Lee DeForest in 1908.
6. FORTRAN is
Correct Answer: c. Formula Translation
Explanation: FORTRAN (Formula Translation) is one of the earlier High Level programming
languages used to write scientific applications. It was developed by IBM in 1956.
7. EEPROM stand for
Correct Answer: a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Explanation: There are three types of ROM namely, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. PROM can’t be
reprogrammed, EPROM can be erased by exposing it in high intensity ultraviolet light and
EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed electrically. It is not needed to be removed from the
computer to be modified.
8. Second Generation computers were developed during
Correct Answer: 1956 to 1965
Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic component.
Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter Brattain and William
Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel Prize in 1956 but it was not used in computers till 1956.
The second generation continued until the implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in
Texas Instruments in 1958.
9. The computer size was very large in
Correct Answer: a. First Generation
Explanation: It is obvious that computers developed with more power, reliability, speed and
smaller sizes due to the enhancement of technology. First generation computers used 1000s of
vacuum tubes that required lot of space made them gigantic in size. Single transistor could
replace 1000 vacuum tubes and a single IC chip replaced 1000s of transistors made computers
smaller and more speedy.
10. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers
Correct Answer: Fourth Generation
Explanation: Microprocessors further revolutionized the development of computers. Personal

microcomputers were possible due to the microprocessors. The first microprocessor called Intel
4004 was developed by American Intel Corporation in 1971. Microprocessors are used in the
computers of fourth generation computers.
1. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from

b. Control section
2. The act of retrieving existing data from memory is called
d. All of above
3. All modern computer operate on
c. Data
4. Instructions and memory address are represented by
b. Binary codes
5. Which of the following code used in present day computing was developed by IBM
Corporation?
d. EBCDIC Code
6. What is the latest write-once optical storage media?
d. CD-ROM disk
7. The most important advantage of a video disk is
b. Potential capacity
8. What is the number of read-write heads in the drive for a 9-trac magnetic tape?
a. 9
9. Before a disk drive can access any sector record, a computer program has to provide the
record’s disk address. What information does this address specify?
d. All of above
10. As compared to diskettes, the hard disks are
a. More expensive
11. Floppy disks which are made from flexible plastic material are also called?
c. Diskettes
12. Regarding a VDU, Which statement is more correct?
c. It is a peripheral device
13. What is the name of the computer terminal which gives paper printout?
c. Hard copy terminal
14. Dot-matrix is a type of
b. Printer
15. The two kinds of main memory are:
c. ROM and RAM
16. A kind of serial dot-matrix printer that forms characters with magnetically-charged ink
sprayed dots is called
b. Ink-jet printer
17. Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing?
a. Laser printer
18. An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce
audio response is
b. Voice response unit
19. Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?
c. It will erase the previous content
20. A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the
different units can handle data is
b. Buffer
1. The silicon chips used for data processing are called
d. PROM chips
2. The metal disks, which are permanently housed in, sealed and contamination free containers
are called
c. Winchester disk
3. A computer consists of
d. All of the above
4. An application program that helps the user to change any number and immediately see the
result of that change is
c. Spreadsheet
5. The instructions for starting the computer are house on
c. Read only memory chip
6. The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage element called
b. Registers
7. a factor which would strongly influence a business person to adopt a computer is its
d. All of above
8. The magnetic storage chip used to provide non-volatile direct access storage of data and that
have no moving parts are known as
d. Magnetic bubble memory
9. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design

10. RATS stand for
a. Regression Analysis Time Series
11. In which year was chip used inside the computer for the first time?
b. 1975
12. What was the name of the first commercially available microprocessor chip?
c. Intel 4004
13. When were the first minicomputer built?
a. 1965
14. The first digital computer built with IC chips was known as
c. IBM System / 360
15. In which language is source program written?
c. High level
16. Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory?
d. Temporary
17. Which of the following is used for manufacturing chips?
d. Semiconductor
18. Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at
the same time?
a. Terminal
19. Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage, and never for processing?
b. Dumb terminal
20. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n
b. Plotter
FIRST IN WORLD
1. Chairman of Peoples Republic of China - Mao-Tse-Tung
2. President of the Chinese Republic – Dr. Sun Yat Sen
3. President of U.S.A – George Washington
4. Chinese Traveller to India – Fahein
5. Foreign Invader to India – Alexander the Great
6. Person to reach South Pole – Amundsen
7. Person to reach North Pole – Robert Pearey
8. Person in Space – Yuri Gagarin
9. Person on Moon – Neil Armstrong
10. Lady to climb Mount Everest – Junko Taibei
11. European to visit China – Marco Polo
12. Place where atom bomb was dropped – Hiroshima
13. Man to walk in Space – Alexei Leonov
14. Woman cosmonaut in Space – Valentina Tereshkova
15. Woman Prime Minister of a country - Mrs. Srimavo Bhandarnaike
16. Woman President of a country - Maria Estela Peron
17. Woman to Command a Space Mission - Colonel Eileen Collins (U.S.A.)
18. The first residents of International Space station - Bill Shepherd (USA),Yuri Gidzanko and
Sergei Krikalev (Russia)
19. The first blind man to scale Mt. Everest - Erik Weihenmayer(USA, May 25, 2001)
20. The first Muslim woman to become the Secretary General of Amnesty International lrine –
Zubeida Khan
21. The first space astronaut to go into space seven times till date - Jerry Ross (U.S.A.)
22. The first South African to become the second space tourist - Mark Shuttleworth
23. The first woman Prime Minister of South Korea - Ms. Chang Sang
24. The first youngest grandmaster of the world in chess - Sergey Karjakin (Ukraine)
25. The first adventurer flying successfully across the English Channel without aircraft - Felix
Baumgartner (July 2003)
26. China’s first man in space - Yang Liwei
27. The first Muslim woman to receive Nobel Prize - Shirin Ebadi (Nobel Peace Prize 2003)
28. The woman with the highest individual Test score making a new world record - Kiran
Baloch (Pakistani cricketer, scoring 242 runs playing women’s cricket test against West
Indies in Karachi in March, 2004)
29. The first woman of the world to climb Mt. Everest four times - Lakpa Sherpa (Nepali)
30. The first woman to cross seven important seas of the world by swimming - Bula Chaudhury
(India)
31. The first aircraft pilot to round the entire world non-stop by his 2 engine aircraft in 67 hours
- Steve Fossett (March 2005)
32. The first woman to be appointed as a Governor of a province in Afghanistan - Habiba

Sorabhi
33. The first woman of the world to swim across five continents – Bula Chaudhury (India)
(April 2005)
34. The first woman athlete to touch 5.0 meter mark in pole vault - Ms. Yelena Isinbayeva
(Russian, July 2005)
35. The first Hindu Chief Justice of Pakistani Supreme Court Justice – Rana Bhagwan Das
First in India
1. British Governor General of Bengal - Warren Hastings
2. Governor General of Independent India – Lord Mountbatten
3. Commander-in-chief of Free India General – Roy Bucher
4. Cosmonaut – Sqn. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma
5. Emperor of Moghul Dynasty in India – Babar
6. Field Marshal – S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
7. Indian Governor General of Indian Union – C. Rajagopalachari
8. Indian I.C.S. Officer – Satyendra Nath Tagore
9. Indian Member of Viceroy’s Executive Council – Sri S.P. Sinha
10. Indian to swim across English Channel – Mihir Sen
11. Indian woman to swim across-English Channel – Miss Arati Saha
12. Man to climb Mount Everest – Tenzing Norgay
13. Man to climb Mount Everest without Oxygen – Phu Dorjee
14. Man to climb Mount Everest twice – Nwang Gombu
15. Nobel Prize winner – Rabindra Nath Tagore
16. President of Indian National Congress – W. C. Banerjee
17. President of Indian Republic - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
18. Talkie Film – Alam Ara (1931)
19. Test Tube Baby (Documented) – Indira
20. Viceroy of India – Lord Canning
21. Woman Minister of Indian Union – Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
22. Woman Chief Minister of State – Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
23. Woman Governor – Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
24. Woman President of Indian National Congress – Dr. Annie Besant
25. Woman Prime Minister – Mrs. Indira Gandhi
26. Woman Speaker of a State Assembly – Mrs. Shanno Devi
27. Prime Minister of India – Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
28. Muslim President of Indian Union – Dr. Zakir Hussain
29. Speaker of Lok Sabha – G. V. Mavlankar
30. Woman to climb mount Everest – Bachhendri Pal
31. Woman Judge in Supreme Court – Mrs. Meera Sahib Fatima Biwi
32. Woman Chief Justice of a High Court – Smt. Leela Seth
33. Indian Woman to go in space (Now U.S. Citizen) – Kalpana Chawla
34. The first Indian weightlifter to win bronze medal in Olympics Karnam Malleshwari (Sydney, in
- 2000)
35. The First Indian World Chess Champion – Vishwanathan Anand
36. India’s first paperless Newspaper – The News Today (Launched on Jan. 3,
2001)
37. India’s First woman Merchant Navy Officer – Sonali Banerjee
38. The first Dalit Speaker of the Lok Sabha – G. M. C. Balyogi
39. The first Vice-President of India to die in harness – Krishna Kant
40. The first Indian woman cricketer to score double century – Mithali Raj (August 2002 playing
against England)
41. The first woman Air Vice-Marshal – P. Bandopadhyaya
42. The first Indian to be appointed as United Nations Civilian Ms. Kiran Bedi
Police Advisor –
43. The first astronaut of Indian origin to perish aboard U.S. Dr. Kalpana Chawla (Columbia space
space shuttle in a tragic accident – shuttle, Feb. I, 2003)
44. The first woman to be appointed Deputy Governor of K.J. Udeshi (appointed on June 10,
Reserve Bank of India- 2003)
45. The first Indian girl to register a win in a Wimbledon Sania Mirza (2003)
tournament –
46. The first Indian lady to win a medal in World Athletic Anju Bobby George (Aug. 2003)
Championship –
47. The first woman Chairman and Managing Director of Mrs. Ranjana Kumar
NABARD –
48. The highest individual test scorer of India – Virendra Sehwag ( 319 runs against
Sauth africa)
49. The first Indian cricketer to make double centuries five Rahul Dravid
times-
50. The first Orissa woman to top I.A.S. – Smt. Roopa Misra (Indian Civil
Services Exam., 2003)
51. The first Sikh Prime Minister of India – Dr. Manmohan Singh
52. The first woman Director General of Police of a State – Kanchan C. Bhattacharya (DGP
Uttaranchal)
53. The first woman to be appointed as the crime branch chief – MeeriJ Borwankar (took over as
crime branch chief of Mumbai police)
54. The first woman to reach the rank of Lt. General in the Indian Puneeta Arora (Commandant, Armed
army – Forces Medical College, Pune)
55. The first Indian to cross seven important seas by swimming – Bula Chaudhury
56. The first woman to become Indian Air Force’s first woman Air Marshal Padma Bandhopadhyay
Air Marshal –
57. The first youngest MP, at the age of 25 years – Dharmendra Yadav (Mainpuri :
Samajwadi Party MP)
58. India’s first woman athlete to win WTA open Tennis title – Sania Mirza (Feb. 2005, Hyderabad)
59. The first Indian to set a world record of ever having reached Vijaypath Singhania (Nov. 26, 2005.
the highest of heights yet in a hot balloon – 69852 ft.)
60. The first wonder child of Orissa only about 4 years and a half Budhia (May 2006)
of age completes a race of 65 km. -
61. The first woman Commissioner of Police of an Indian metro – (Chennai Metro Police) Letika Saran
62. The first Indian to Ski to the North Pole – Ajeet Bajaj (April 26, 2006)
63. The first sportsman ever to win Gold Medal in Shooting in Abhinav Bindra (July 24, 2006)
the World Shooting Championship –
64. The first person of Indian origin to win the Miss Great Britain Preeti Desai (2006)
title –
65. The first woman President of the Republic of India – Pratibha Patil
List of Cups And Trophies

(Associated with Sports and Games)
Sport: Hockey
Aga khan Cup ,Begam Rasul Torphy (woman’s), Maharaja Ranjit Singh Gold Cup, Lady Ratan
Tata Trophy (woman’s), Gurunanak Championship (woman’s) Dhyanchand Trophy, Nehru
Trophy, Sindhia Gold cup, Murugappa Gold Cup, Wellington Cup etc,
Sport: Football :Beghum Hazarat Mahal Cup, BILT Cup, Bordoloi Trophy Colombo Cup,
Confederation cup, DCM Trophy, Durand Cup, Rovers Cup, B.C. Raj Trophy (National
Championship), FIFA world Cup, Jules Rimet Trophy, Kalinga Cup, Santosh Trophy (National
Championship), IFA Shield, Scissor Cup, Subroto Mukherjee Cup, Sir Ashutosh Mukherjee
Trophy, Todd Memorial Trophy, Vittal Trophy, etc,
Sport: Cricket
Anthony D, Mellow Trophy, Ashes, Asia Cup, Benson and Hedges Cup, Bose Trophy,
Champions Trophy, Charminar Challender Cup, C.K Naidu Trophy, Cooch – Behar Trophy,
Deodhar Trophy, Duldeep Trophy, Gavaskar –Border Trophy, G.D. Birla Trophy, Gillette Cup,
Ghulam Ahmad Trophy, Hamkumat Rai Trophy, ICC World Cup, Irani Trophy Interface Cup,
Jawharlal Nehru Cup, Lomboard World Challenge Cup, Mc Dowells Challenge Cup, Merchant
Cup, Moin –ud –Dowla Cup, Net West Trophy, Prudential Cup(World Cup), Rani Jhansi
Trophy, Ranji Trophy, Rohinton
Barcia Trophy, Rothmans Cup, Sahara Cup, Sharjah Cup, Sheesh Mahal Trophy, Sheffield
Shield, Singer Cup, Sir Frank Worrel Trophy, Texaco Cup, Titan Cup, Vijay Hazare Trophy,
Vijay Merchant Trophy, Vizzy Trophy, Wisden Trophy, Wills Trophy, World Series Cup.
Sport: Table Tennis
Berna Bellack cup( Men), Cobillion Cup (women), Jai Laxmi cup(women),Rajkumari
Challenge Cup (women junior), Ramanuja Trophy (men Junior),
Travancore Cup (women), Swathling Cup (men) etc.
Sport: Badminton
Aggrawal Cup, Amrit Diwan Cup, Asia Cup, Australasia Cup, Chaddha Cup, European Cup,
Harilela Cup, Ibrahim Rahimatillah Challenger Cup, Konica Cup, Sophia Cup, Kitiakara Cup,
Thomas Cup Tunku Abdulrahman Cup, Uber Cup, Yonex Cup etc.
Sport: Basketball
Basalat Jha Trophy, B.C. Gupta Trophy, Federation Cup, S.M. Arjuna Raja Trophy, Todd
memorial Trophy, William jones Cup, Bangalore Bules Challenge Cup, Nehru Cup, Federation
Cup etc.
Sport: Bridge
Basalat Jha Trophy, Holkar Trophy, Ruia Gold Cup, Singhania Trophy. etc
Sport: Polo
Ezra Cup, Gold Cup, King’s Cup, Prithi Pal Singh Cup, Radha
Mohan Cup, Winchester Cup etc.
Sport: Athletics :Charminar Trophy, Federation Cup etc.
Sport: Air Racing :Jawaharlal Challenge Trophy, King’s Cup, Schneider Cup etc.
Sport: Billiards :Arthur Walker Trophy, Thomas Cup etc.
Sport: Boxing
Aspy Adjahia Trophy, Federations Cup,Val Baker Trophy etc.

Sport: Golf
Canada Cup, Eisenhower Trophy, Muthiah Gold Cup, Nomura Trophy, President ‘s Trophy,
Prince of wales Cup, Ryder Cup, Solheim Cup, Topolino Trophy, Walker Cup, World Cup etc.
Sport: Chess
Naidu Trophy, Khaitan Torphy , Lin Are City Trophy, World Cup etc.
Sport: Horse Racing
Beresford Cup, Blue Riband Cup, Derby, Grand National Cup etc.
Sport: Netball
Anantrao Pawar Trophy etc.

Sport: Rugby Football
Bledisloe Cup, Calcutta Cup, Webb Ellis Trophy, etc.

Sport: Shooting
North Wales Cup, Welsh Grand Prix etc.

Sport: Volleyball
Centennial Cup, Federation Cup, and Indira Pradhan Trophy, Shivanthi Gold Cup, etc.
Sport: Yatch Racing
America Cup etc.
Part 1 – English ( Consists of 10 Questions )

1.To arrange things in froups or in a particular order according to their type
a) depoist b) sort c) derive d) detailAns. b
2. To help somebody to do something

a) assist b) assess c) accomplish d) accordAns. a
3. Each of the metal bars that form the track that trains run on
a) coach b) railing c)rail d) bogieAns. c
4. A system in a organization in which people are organized into different levels of importance
from highest to lowest
a) structure b) profie c) hierarchy d) matrixAns. C
5. A typical example of pattern of something

a) paradox b) paradigm c) exception d) excerptAns. d
6. A lively and confident person who enjoys being with other people
a) introvert b) extrovert c) geriatrician d) flattererAns. b
7. Letters for conveyance by post

a) mail b) male c) maile d) meleeAns. a
8. A long leaf of a palm

a) leaflet b) fern c) frond d) pendantAns. c
9. To stamp a mark on an envelope to show that the cost of posting it has been paid
a) post b) frank c)tax d) francAns. b
10.A person that money or a cheque is paid to

a) payer b) paye c) remit d) payee
1. As 'Wheel' is related to 'Vehicle' similarly 'Clock' is related to what?

(A) Needle(B) Nail(C) Stick(D) Pin(E) None of theseAns : (A)
2. As 'Plateau' is related a 'Mountain', similarly 'Bush' is related to what?

(A) Plants(B) Field(C) Forest(D) Trees(E) StemAns : (C)
3. As 'Astronomy' is related to 'Planets', similarly 'Astrology' is related to what?

(A) Satellites(B) Disease(C) Animals(D) Coins(E) None of theseAns : (E)
4. As 'Earthquake' is related to 'Earth', similarly 'Thundering' is related to what?
(A) Earth(B) Sea(C) Fair(D) Sky(E) None of theseAns : (D)
5. As' Author' is related to 'Writing', similarly 'Thief is related to what?

(A) To night(B) To feel(C) To steal(D) To wander(E) None of theseAns : (C)
6. As 'Magazine' is related to 'Editor' in the same way 'Drama' is related to what?

(A) Hero(B) Heroine(C) Co-actor(D) Villain(E) None of theseAns : (E)
7. As 'Steal' is related to 'Factory' in the same way 'Wheat' is related to what?

(A) Field(B) Sky(C) Godown(D) Market(E) None of theseAns : (A)
8. As 'Cricket' is related to 'Bat' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?

(A) Game(B) Stick(C) Court(D) Hand(E) None of theseAns : (E)
9. As 'Football' is related to 'Field' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?

(A) Court(B) Net(C) Field(D) Racket(E) None of theseAns : (A)
10. As 'Tennis' is related to 'Racket' in the same way 'Hockey' is related to what?
(A) Ball(B) Stick(C) Field(D) Player(E) None of theseAns : (B)
11. As 'Mosque' is related to 'Islam' in the same way 'Church' is related to what?
(A) Hinduism(B) Sikhism(C) Christianity(D) Buddhism(E) None of theseAns : (C)
12. As 'Hindu worshiper' is related to 'Temple' in the same way 'Maulvi' is related to what?
(A) Monastery(B) Church(C) Mosque(D) Sikh temple(E) None of theseAns : (C)
13. As 'Hungry' is related to 'Food' in the same way 'Thirsty' is related to what?
(A) Drink(B) Tea(C) Coffee(D) Juice(E) WalerAns : (E)
14. As 'Fly' is related to 'Parrot' in the same way 'Creep' is related to what?
(A) Snake(B) Rabbit(C) Fish(D) Crocodile(E) SparrowAns : (A)
15. As 'Needle' is related to 'Thread' in the same way 'Pen' is related to what?
(A) Word(B) To write(C) Cap(D) Ink(E) PaperAns : (D)
16. As 'Circle' is related to 'Circumference' in the same way 'Square' is related to what?
(A) Diagonal(B) Perimeter(C) Circumference(D) Area(E) AngleAns : (B)
17. As 'Bell' is related to 'Sound' in the same way 'Lamp' is related to what?
(A) Flame(B) Light(C) Wick(D) Oil(E) GongAns : (B)
18. As 'Oil' is related to an 'Oilman', in the same way 'Milk' is related to what?
(A) Water(B) Blacksmith(C) Shoemaker(D) Milkman(E) None of theseAns : (D)
19. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown(B) Room(C) Pen(D) Chair(E) OfficeAns : (C)
20. CTPN: DSQM : : MUSK: ?

(A) NVTL(B) NITJ(C) NTTL(D) LTRJ(E) None of theseAns
Current Affairs and GK for IPO exam
1. Who authored the book ‘The Science of Bharat Natyam’?
(a) Saroja Vaidyanathan (b) Yamini Krishnamurthi ( c) J. Sushila (d) None of these Answer a;
2.International Day for Disaster Reduction is observed on:

(a) 9th August (b) 13th October (c) 24th November (d) 11th December Answer- b;
3. Tianhe 1A, the world’s fastest supercomputer is made by

(a) United States (b) Japan (c) China (d) None of these Answer : c
4. Which is India’s first ever Pollution Control Warship?

(a) Samudra Prahari (b) Nischaya (c) Varuna (d) None of these Answer: a
5. Who became India’s youngest grandmaster?

(a) Parimarjan Negi (b) Dronavali Harika (c) Praveen Thipse (d) S P Sethuraman Answer: d
6. K C Kulich International Award is associated with:

(a) Medicine (b) Economics (c) Journalism (d) Sports Answer: c
7. ‘Open’ is the autobiography of which sports personality?

(a) Adam Gilchrest b) Glenn Merges (c) Andre Agassiz (d) None of these Ans-c
8. World Cup Football in 2022 is to be held at:

(a) Qatar (b) UK (c) Spain (d) France Answer: a
9. Who is the first head of UN WOMEN?

(a) Laura Chinchilla (b) Julia Gillard (c) Mitchell blachettt (d) None of these Answer: c
10.Which of the following committee is related to Corporatisation of Stock Exchanges?

(a) Bimal Jalan Committee (b) V Achuthan Committee (c) P M Nair Committee (d) None of these
Ans-a
11. Which is India’s newest stock exchange for currency derivatives?

(a) BSE (b) NSE (c) United Stock Exchange (USE) (d) None of these Answer : c
12. Jeevan Reddy Committee is related to

(a)Illegal mining (b) Armed Forces Special Power Act (c) Environmental Impact Assessment (d)
None of these Ans-b
13. Which of the following scheme is related with social security for unorganised sector?
(a) Swabhiman (b) Sabla (c) Swavalamban (d) None of these Ans-c
14. Polavaram Project is located in which state?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Answer: a
15. David Perlman Award is given in which field?

(a) Sports (b) Music (c) Photography (d) Journalism Ans- d
16.Which of the following committee has redefined the definition of Slums?

(a) Pranab Sen Committee(b) Arjun Sen gupta committee (c) C Ibrahim Committee (d) None of
these Ans-a
17. Arrow-III is an anti missile system of

(a) France (b) Pakistan (c) Israel (d) UK Ans-c
18. India’s first jail BPO is going to came up at:

(a) Bangalore (b) Pune (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad Answer: a
19.World’s first aviation university coming up at:

(a) Bangalore (b) Nice (c) Glasgow (d) Venice Answer: a
20. Khoj lab has been launched by which group?

(a) Future Group (b) dell (c) IBM d) Times group Answer: a
21. Which of the following became the first smoke Free State in India?
(a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttarakhand (d) None of these Ans-a
22. Lightest element:- Hydrogen

Only Metal liquid at room temperature:- Hg Mercury Tungsten symbol –W Tin –Sn
Element with maximum number of compounds –Carbon (due to catenation)
22. Which of the following became the Ist Asian Country to sign Free Trade Agreement with
European Union?
(a) South Korea (b) China (c) India (d) None of these Ans-a
23. The Emissary’ is the book authored by:

(a) Tarun Tejpal b) Vinod Mehta (c) Aniruddh Bahl (d) None of theseAns-c
24. Who is the new PM of Netherlands?

(a) Mark Ruttea (b) Bill Carey (c) Thakshin Sinawatra (d) None of these Ans-a
25. Who is the new PM of Kosovo?

(a) Hashim Taci (b) N K Name Krumoh (c) Jose Borosso d) None of these Ans-a
26. Who is the chairman of National Democratic Front of Bodoland?

(a) Paresh Barna (b) Aravind Rajakhowa (c) Ranjan Daimary (d) None of these Ans-c
27. With which of the following countries India has not signed civil nuclear agreement?
(a) Namibia (b) Sweden c) Mongolia (d) Argentina Ans-b
28. Who is the PM of Sweden?

(a) Fredrick Rainfeldt (b) Silvio Berlusconi (c) Garry Wanders (d) None of these Ans-a
29. APEC Summit in November 2010 was held at :

(a) Yokohama (b) Sydney (c) Singapore (d) Busan Answer a;
30. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India (b) State Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda (d) None of these Answer-a;
31. Who is the new vice chief of army staff?

(a) V.K. Singh (b) A.S. Lamba (c) C. Shekhawat (d) None of these Answer : b
32. Who has become the vice president of ICC?

(a) Ehsaan Mani (b) John Mulford (c) Alan Isaac (d) Molcom SpeedAnswer: c
33. Who is the Director General of National Investigation Agency ?

(a) R.V. Raju (b) Ved Marwah (c) K.F. Rustomji (d) Sharad Chandra Sinha Answer: d
34. Who is the Director of National Security Guard?

(a) R.K. Medhekar (b) J.K Dutt (c) B.K. Banerjee (d) None of these Answer: a
35. Who of the following Indian got the Australia Day achievement medal 2010?
(a) V.P. Unnikrishnan (b) Sandeep Pandey (c) Vandana Shiva (d) None of these Answer: a
36. Which of the following country became the 187th member of IMF?
(a) Marshall Islands (b) Tuvalu (c) Fiji (d) None of these Answer: b
37. India’s second National Institute of Design will come up at which of the following
(a) Amethi (b) Jorahat (c) Aizowl (d) Itanagar Ans- b
38. Benghazi is a port of: (a) Libya (b) Yemen (c) Egypt (d) None of these Answer: a
39. Jakhol Sankri Hydro Electric Project has been commissioned at

(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) J&K (d) Arunachal Pradesh Answer: a
40. ‘Home Boy’ is a novel written by

(a) H M Naqvi (b) H S Narula (c) Anand Sarkar d) Stephen Lipsett Ans- a
41. Pravasi Bhartiya Divas in 2011 was held at:

(a) Jaipur (b) New Delhi (c) Ujjain (d) Varanasi Answer : b
42. 98th Indian Science Congress in January 2011 was held at:
(a) Chennai (b) Kharagpur (c) Kanpur (d) Delhi
Ans - a
43. Who of the following is the present Lokayukta of Karnataka:
(a) N Vittal (b) Santosh Hegde (c) Yashwant Sonawane(d) None of these Answer:b
44. Georgia’s capital is to be shifted from Tbilisi to:

(a) Akhan (b) Yeren (c) Kutaisi (d) Chisinau Ans-c
45. Which country topped the Terrorism Risk Index in 2010:

(a) Somalia b) Samoa (c) Jamaica (d) Iraq Ans-a
46. Which district is going to be named after Indira Gandhi? Ans: a

(a) Medak (b) Rai Bareli (c) Chikmaglur (d) Bellary
47. Who received the Elis Island Medal of Honour in 2010?
(a) Dalai Lama (b) Zinedine Zidene(c) Rao Anumlu (d) B K Varghese Answer: c
48. Enam Securities is to be purchased by:

(a) Union Bank of India (b) BNP Paribas (c) ANZ Grindlays (d) Axis Bank Answer: d
49. Which famous personality bagged the Man of Peace Award in 2010?
(a) Roberto Baggio (b) Diegs Maradona (c) Pope John Paul II (d) None of these Answer: a
50. Who is the new National Security Advisor of United States?

(c) W Singham (b) Thomas Donilon (a) Colin Powell (b) Larry Page Ans-b
51. Who is the new president of UN General Assembly?

(a) Joseph Deiss (b) Hans Rasmus Sen (c) Leon Panetta (d) None of these Ans-a
52. Luka and Fire of Life is the latest book by:

(a) Arun Som (b) Salman Rushdie (c) Vikram Seth (d) None of these Ans-b
53. What is the name of India’s latest and Seventh Super Computer?
(a) Annapurna (b) Param (c) Pinak (d) None of theseAns-a
54. Tembli became the first village in India to get UID. In which state it is located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chattisgarh (c) Maharashtra (d) None of these Ans-c
55.Who has been declared the ‘Business Leader of the year’ in Economic Times Corporate
Excellence Awards 2010?
(a) Aditya Puri (b) N Nrayanmurthy (c) Azim Premji (d) Mukesh Ambani Ans-a
56. What is the mascot of 2011 cricket world cup?

(a) Hoho (b) Cobe (c) Stumpy (d) None of these Ans-c
57. SAF (South Asian Federation) games in 2012 will be held at

(a) Kathmandu (b) Delhi (c) Bangalore (d) None of these Ans-b
58. Agni III was launched from which of the following places: Ans : a
(a) Wheeler Island (b) Sriharikota (c) Bikaner (d) None of these
59. Who of the following is the Chairperson of National Green Tribunal?

(a) Lokeshwar Singh Parata (b) Anil Pandey (c) K Vijay Kumar (d) None of these Answer-a;
60. Which Indian Company is slated to buy the English football club Blackburn?
(a) U B groups (b) RPG (c) Videocon (d) Vicky Answer : d
61. Who is the Union Minister of Corporate Affairs?

(a) Murali Deora (b) Jaipal Reddy (c) C P Joshi (d) M S Gill Answer: a
62. Who is the new President Elect of BCCI?

(a) Chirayu Amin (b) Jyotiraditya Schindia (c) Shashank manohar (d) Jagmohan Dalmia Answer:
c
63. Karrar is the unmaned bomber aircraft of which country?

(a) Iran (b) Syria (c) Israel (d) None of these Answer:a
64. Who is the CMD of Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited?

(a) S K Jain (b) Harsh Marital (c) Oskar Singh (d) None of these Answer: a
65. Who is the Director of Intelligence Bureau?

(a) Rajeev Mathur (b) Nehchal Sandhu (c) Saikat Dutta (d) None of these Answer: b
66. Ramagundanar thermal power project is in which state?

a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka Ans- a
67. Project Big Green has been initiated by which company?

(a) Microsoft (b) Apple (c) Infosys (d) IBMAnswer:d
68. Vansadhara River dispute is between which states?

(a) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu (d)
None of these Answer: a
69. Who is the Chairperson of National Housing Board?

(a) B N Kapoor (b) Mata Prasad (c) R B Verma (d) None of these Ans- c
70. Who is India’s permanent representative to United Nations? Ans; a

(a) Hardeep Singh Puri (b) M.K. Agnihotri (c) Vijay Pasricha (d) None of these
71. Who is the principal scientific advisor to Government of India?

(a) R. Chidambaram (b) V.K. Saraswat (c) T.K. Thomas (d) None of these Ans - a
72. Who is the Chairman of Central Water Commission?

(a) Balraj Madhok (b) A.K. Bajaj (c) Shivran Puri (d) None of these Ans - b
73. Who is the Deputy National Security Advisor?

(a) Shiv Shankar Menon (b) M.K. Narayanan (c) Shekhar Dutt (d) None of these Answer: c
74. Aligarh Muslim University is going to set its new campus at:
(a) Saharanpur (b) Meerut (c) Murshidabad (d) Azamgarh Ans-c
75. Who is the new Chairperson of National Commission for Backward classes?
(a) M.N. Rao (b) T.K. Maken (c) Ram Singh Senbar (d) None of these Ans- a
76. Who is the Chairperson of 19th Law Commission?

(a) P.V. Reddy (b) A.K. Lakshmanan (c) K.R. Kurup (d) None of these Ans- a
77. Who is the Chairman of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?
(a) Buta Singh (b) M.K. Kurup (c) Shanta Sinha (d) Dheeraj Rohatgi Answer: c
78. Mini Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas in October 2010 was held at:
(a) Cape Town (b) Durban (c) Johannesburg (d) None of these Answer: b
79. G-8 summit in June 2010 was held at:

(a) Ontario (b) Vancouver (c) Huntsville (d) Quebec Answer:-c
80. Who is the CEO of Twitter?

(a) Dick Costello (b) Jorma Olila (c) Allan Bolt (d) None of these Ans-a
81. Which country topped the Global Peace Index Report in 2010? Ans : a
(a) New Zealand (b) Iceland (c) Denmark (d) Sweden
82. Who of the following is the recipient of Turner Prize 2010?

(a) Alex Rodriques (b) Sergie Bryan (c) Susan Philipsz (d) None of these Ans-c
83. Who is the Chairperson of Railway Board?

(a) Vivek Sahay (b) J P Batra (c) D P Aggarwal (d) None of these Ans-a
84. Who of the following is the recipient of Cervantes Prize 2010?

(a) John Stocker (b) Ana Maria (c) C Andrew Stephen (d) None of these Ans-b
85. Who founded the Telangana Praja Front in October 2010?

(a) G V Rao (b) K Chandrashekhar Rao (c) N Srinivas (d) None of these Ans-a
86. M. B. Shah Commission is related to:

(a) Illegal mining (b) Agricultural Statistics (c) Microfinance Institutions (d) None of these Ans-a
87. Who is the secretary General of Rajya Sabha?

(a) T.K. Vishwanathan (b) Vivek Agnihotri (c) V.K. Gupta (d) None of these Ans-b

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(12000 MCQ)

MOST USEFUL MCQ ON POSTAL DEPARTMENT FOR LDCE LGO EXAM/INSPECTOR OF

2. Who are eligible for obtaining a PLI Policy of the following

a) Central/Stage Govt employees b) Defense services

3. Postal life insurance slogan is

a) Jindagi ka saath bi jindagika baad bi

4. What is the max PLI policy limit for a person

5. Postal life insurance policy available in

6. Mark the correct option relating to age limit

7. For children policy the child should be

a) Between 1 to 18 year age b) Between 5 to 18 year age

9. What is the min amount AEA policy for GP D and others

11. When the PLI policy treated as lapsed

a) DDG PLI b) DG Post

13. Mark the correct option

a) The WLA policy can be converted into EA after one year

14. In the event of policy holder committing suicide

a) The full maturity benefit will be paid

15. How can we revive the lapsed PLI policy?

a) Lapsed PLI cannot be revived

a) 1 year 35%of sum assured a/w accrued bonus

a) Exceeding 4 years but not exceeding 7 years 60%

e) Exceeding 3 years but not exceeding 5 years 60%

20. Mark the correct option

21. Nomination fee for changing/altering of PLI policy is

22. The children policy in PLI and RPLI was introduced in

a) 24 Mar 1995 b) 20 Jan 2006

23. What is the latest bonus rate from 31 Mar 2006?

a) WLA continuing Rs 90/- per thousand rupees of sum assured

24. Mark the incorrect option

CENTRAL CIVIL SERVICES (CONDUCT) RULES 1964

1. CCS Conduct Rules come into force on

2. CCS Conduct Rules apply to

a) Every person appointed to a civil service

3. CCS conduct Rules not apply to

a) A member of All India Service

5. Definitions defined in ______of CCS Conduct rules

a) State government b) Central government

7. Every government servant shall at all times-

a) Maintain absolute integrity

8. In sec 3-A of CCS Conduct rules explained

a) Observance o Government’s policies

9. No Government servant shall-

a) In the performance of his official duties, act in a discourteous manner

10. Observance of Government’s policies defined in ____of CCS Conduct rules

a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B

a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B

a) Physical contact as advances

13. Mark the correct option

14. Mark the incorrect option

a) To joining educational institution by Govt servants outside normal office hours

15. The following activities are requiring permission/sanction

a) To enroll as member of St. John Ambulance brigade

a) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the

17. The following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-

a) Willful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with

18. Employment of near relatives of Government servants in companies or firms

19. Mark the correct option

20. Elections defined in _____of CCS Conduct rules

21. Mark the incorrect option

a) Making normal arrangement during election tours o ministers to enable them to

23. Mark the correct option

a) Prior permission is required to join Bharat sevak samaj