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Multiple Choice Questions on Air pollution

► Multiple Choice Questions
Air Quality Monitoring ► Environmental Pollution
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Advisor to 250 UK & European Local Authorities on Air Pollution
1. Air pollution is severe in

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Biochemistry Multiple
b) Industrialised areas Choice Questions (MCQ)
c) Densely populated areas and Quizzes
d) all of these AIPMT Biology MCQs
2. Particulate pollutants Multiple Choice Questions
are on Algae
a) are small solid particles Multiple Choice Questions
and liquid droplets on Zoology (Animal
b) liquid droplets in Science)
atmosphere Multiple Choice Questions

on Wild Life and
c) are small solid particles released into the atmosphere
Conservation
d) all of these
3. All are particulate pollutants except
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b) ozone Questions (MCQ) and
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d) smoke Multiple Choice Questions
on Carbohydrates
4. Fine organic or inorganic particles suspended in air is
Multiple Choice Questions
called
on Kingdom Monera
a) particulate pollutant
b) gaseous pollutant
on Seed Germination
c) aerosol
d) none of these on Phylum Porifera
5. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant (Sponges)
a) CO2
b) CO
c) O3
d) SO2
6. Air pollution can be of
a) natural origin
b) artificial or man made origin
c) both a and b
d) b only
7. Mobile combustion accounts
a) 10-20% of air pollution
b) 40-50% of air pollution
c) 50-60 % of air pollution
d) 5-10 % of air pollution
8. The true statement about ‘green house effect’ is that it is
a) caused by combination of many gases
b) caused by CO2
c) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
d) None of these
9. The supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of
a) CO2 layer
b) SO2 layer
c) O3 layer
d) O2 layer
10. Carbon mono oxide is a pollutant because
a) it reacts with O2
b) it inhibits glycolysis
c) makes nervous system inactive Search here
d) reacts with haemoglobin
Learn more
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MCQ on Environmental Pollution
Answers MCQ Biology

1. d) all of these Like
2. a) are small solid particles and liquid droplets
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3. b) ozone
4. c) aerosol
5. c) O3
6. c) both a and b
7. c) 50-60 % of air pollution
8. c) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
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9. c) O3 layer
10. d) reacts with haemoglobin
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MCQ Biology - Learning Biology

through MCQs
Biology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Different Competitive Exams
Home Biology MCQs Practice Test
Difference Between Biology Notes Contact us
► Air Pollution ► MCQ with Answers ► Water Pollution ► Multiple Choice

► Multiple Choice Questions
Air Quality Monitoring ► Environmental Pollution
ricardo-aea.com ► MCQ Exam Questions
Advisor to 250 UK & European Local Authorities on Air Pollution
1. Air pollution is severe in

Most Popular Biology
MCQs
a) Cities
Biochemistry Multiple
b) Industrialised areas Choice Questions (MCQ)
c) Densely populated areas and Quizzes
d) all of these AIPMT Biology MCQs
2. Particulate pollutants Multiple Choice Questions
are on Algae
a) are small solid particles Multiple Choice Questions
and liquid droplets on Zoology (Animal
b) liquid droplets in Science)
atmosphere Multiple Choice Questions

on Wild Life and
c) are small solid particles released into the atmosphere
Conservation
d) all of these
3. All are particulate pollutants except
a) dust Botany Multiple Choice

b) ozone Questions (MCQ) and
Practice Tests
c) soot
d) smoke Multiple Choice Questions
on Carbohydrates
4. Fine organic or inorganic particles suspended in air is
called
on Kingdom Monera
a) particulate pollutant
b) gaseous pollutant
on Seed Germination
c) aerosol
d) none of these on Phylum Porifera
5. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant (Sponges)
a) CO2
b) CO
c) O3
d) SO2
6. Air pollution can be of
a) natural origin
b) artificial or man made origin
c) both a and b
d) b only
7. Mobile combustion accounts
a) 10-20% of air pollution
b) 40-50% of air pollution
c) 50-60 % of air pollution
d) 5-10 % of air pollution
8. The true statement about ‘green house effect’ is that it is
a) caused by combination of many gases
b) caused by CO2
c) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
d) None of these
a) CO2 layer
b) SO2 layer
c) O3 layer
d) O2 layer
10. Carbon mono oxide is a pollutant because
a) it reacts with O2
b) it inhibits glycolysis
c) makes nervous system inactive Search here
d) reacts with haemoglobin
Learn more
Search
MCQ on Environmental Pollution
Answers MCQ Biology

1. d) all of these Like
2. a) are small solid particles and liquid droplets
4,205 people like MCQ Biology.
3. b) ozone
4. c) aerosol
5. c) O3
6. c) both a and b
7. c) 50-60 % of air pollution
8. c) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
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9. c) O3 layer
10. d) reacts with haemoglobin
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Living Organisms with
Examples
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2 Like 0 Send Tw eet 1
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Labels: mcq on air pollutantion, mcq on green
Channel
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Related Posts YouTube 790
Multiple Choice Questions on Environmental Issues

Human Body Systems
Biology Practice Test on Environmental Pollution Practice Test
Multiple Choice Questions on Pollution
Circulatory System
Biology Practice Test on Environmental Issues- Pollution
and Green house effect Digestive System
Endocrine System
Excretory system
Muscular Systems
Nervous System
Newer Post Home Older Post Reproductive System
Respiratory System
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MCQ Biology: Biology Multiple

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Biology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
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Digestive glands Digestive glands Message *
Proteins Inflorescence
Plasma Membrane
Multiple Choice Quiz on Global Send
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Environmental Engineering - Civil Engineering
Multiple Questions and Answers pdf
Latest Environmental Engineering Questions and Answers
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
2. The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by

i) climatic conditions
ii) quality of water
iii) distribution pressure
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate
Ans:a
4. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as

a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a
More Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions:

Click Below Link
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engineering-civil.html
Environmental Engineering - Civil Engineering
Multiple Questions and Answers pdf
Ans: a

a) only (i)
Ans: d
3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

d) hotter climate
Ans:a

a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a
More Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions:

Click Below Link
http://engineeringmcqs.blogspot.in/2014/08/environmental-
engineering-civil.html
Environmental Engineering
B. oxidation followed by settling & filtration.

1. Suspended solid present in the waste water
generated in blast furnace gas cooling and cleaning
plant is removed by lime soda process or manganese zeolite
C.
process.
A. biological oxygen pond.
D. chlorination.
radial settling tank (thickener) using
B.
coagulant (lime & ferrous sulphate).
9. In water chemical treatment plant, use of
chloramines ensures
C. lagoons.
A. disinfection.
D. filtration.
B. taste & odour control.
2. Persons working in cement plants and limestone
quarries are more prone to disease like C. weed control in reservoirs.
A. cancer D. removal of permanent hardness.
B. asthma
10. Which of the following is the common pollutant
emitted from metallurgical smelters, thermal power
C. silicosis
plant and cement plants ?
D. flourosis (bone disease) A. NOx B. Hg
C. SO2 D. F
3. Particulates (<1μm size) remaining suspended in air
indefinitely and transported by wind currents are
called 11. During which of the following operating conditions of
an automobile, carbon monoxide content in the
A. fumes B. mists
exhaust gas is maximum ?
C. s oke D. aerosols A. Idle running
B. Acceleration
4. Operating principle of cyclone separator is based on
the action of __________ dust particles.
C. Cruising
A. diffusion of
D. Deaccelaration
B. centrifugal force on
12. H2S present in gaseous stream can be removed by
C. gravitational force on
adsorption on
D. electrostatic force on A. silica gel
5. Exposure to small amount of __________ results in B. active carbon

high blood pressure & heart disease in human
beings. C. bog iron
A. hydrogen sulphide D. limestone powder
B. mercury
13. Inhalation of lead compounds present in automobile
exhaust (using leaded petrol) causes
C. cadmium
A. blood poisoning.
D. asbestos
B. anaemia.
6. Maximum allowable concentration of CO2 in air for
safe working is __________ ppm (parts per million). C. nervous system disorder.
A. 50 B. 1000 D. all (a), (b) & (c).
C. 2000 D. 5000
14. Replenishment of dissolved oxygen in water stream
polluted with industrial waste occurs by
7. Tolerable limit of nitrogen oxides in air is
__________ ppm. A. natural aeration of water stream.
A. 0.1 B. 1 B. photosynthetic action of algae.
C. 5 D. 25 C. both (a) & (b).
8. Iron & manganese present as pollutant in water can D. neither (a) nor (b).
not be removed by
A. ion exchange process. 15. Aerodynamic noise resulting from turbulent gas flow
is the most prevalent source of valve noise in fluid
ilow control. It is caused due to
A. Reynold stresses A. 120 B. 140
B. shear forces C. 170 D. 200
C. both (a) & (b) 23. TLV of mercury in potable (drinking) water is about
__________ ppm.
D. neither (a) nor (b)
A. 0.001 B. 0.1
16. Smoke is produced due to

C. 1 D. 5
insufficient supply of combustion air and
A.
insufficient time for combustion. 24. Which is the best and the most effective method for
the removal of organic contaminant present in the
poor quality of fuel and improper mixing polluted water in very small quantity (say < 200
B.
of fuel & combustion air. mg/litre)?
C. poor design & overloading of furnace. A. Lagooning
D. all (a), (b) and (c). B. Activated carbon adsorption
C. Biological oxidation pond

17. Fluorosis (a bone disease) is caused by the presence
of high concentration of __________ in atmospheric D. Chemical coagulation
air.
A. hydrocarbons 25. Which is a secondary air pollutant ?
B. hydrogen flouride A. Photochemical smog
C. hydrogen sulphides B. Sulphur dioxide
D. nitrogen dioxide C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Dust particles
18. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is the maximum
allowable concentration (i.e. safe limit) of pollutants
in air. Safe limit for SO2 in air is __________ ppm. 26. Which of the following is the most detrimental for
water used in high pressure boiler ?
A. 5 B. 500
A. Silica
C. 1000 D. 2000
B. Turbidity
19. Main pollutants released from iron & steel industry is
C. Phenol
A. CO, CO2 & SO2.
D. Dissolved oxygen
B. H2S, NO & SO3.
27. Turbidity of water is an indication of the presence of
C. CO2, H2S & NO2.
A. suspended inorganic matter
D. SO3, NO2 & CO2.
B. dissolved solids
20. Exposure to chemicals having carcinogenic
C. floating solids
properties cause
A. dermatitis (skin disorder) D. dissolved gases
B. cancer
28. Presence of excess flourine in water causes
C. asphyxiation (suffocation) A. dental cavity
D. asthma B. tooth decay
C. fluorosis
21. Scale formation in boiler is controlled by
A. preheating of feed water. D. respiratory disease
reduction in hardness, silica & alumina in

B. 29. Siderosis is a disease caused by the inhalation of
feed water.
__________ dust.
keeping the pH value of feed water just A. coal

C.
below 7.
B. silica
D. eliminating H2S in feed water.
C. iron
22. Noise level heard at a distance of about 100 metres
D. none of these
from a jet engine with after burner is about
__________ decibels.
30. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted
D. 230 V DC
during volcanic eruptions ?
A. SO2 B. H2S
37. The widest explosive limit is of __________ ,
thereby making it the most explosive gas.
C. CO D. hydrocarbons
A. acetylene
31. The main pollutant in waste water discharged from a
B. petrol vapor
petroleum refinery is oil (both in free and emulsified
form). Free oil is removed by
C. hydrogen
A. biological oxygen pond.
D. carbon monoxide
B. aerated lagoons.
38. Aerobic biological oxidation ponds used for the
C. trickling filters.
purification of polluted water
gravity separator having oil skimming destroys/removes pathogen from the

D. A.
devices. sewage.
is not very effective for nonbiodegradable

32. Phenolic water generated in coke ovens & by-
B. substances (e.g. ABS) containing
product plant attached to an integrated steel plant
effluents.
containing phenol in concentration of less than 100
mg/litre can be removed by
destroys/removes pathogen much more
C.
A. chlorination effectively if the sewage is chlorinated.
B. treating in biological oxygen pond D. all (a), (b) & (c).
C. chemical coagulation
39. Polluted water having low BOD are most
economically treated in
D. none of these
A. sedimentation tanks
33. Which of the following dust collection equipments is
B. oxidation ponds
the least efficient (for sub-micronic particles) ?
A. Dust catcher (gravity type) C. sludge digester
B. Cyclone separator D. clarifier
C. Bag filter
40. Tri-sodium phosphate is used in boiler water
D. Hollow wet scrubber treatment to reduce
A. turbidity
34. Bag filter design is predominantly dependent on gas
temperature, as it affects the gas density & viscosity
B. caustic embrittlement
and the selection of filtering material. The pressure
drop in a bag filter is
C. suspended silica
A. inversely proportional to viscosity of gas.
D. dissolved oxygen
proportional to the viscosity & density of
B.
the gas.
41. The commonest form of iron & manganese found in
C. proportional to the pressure of the gas.
ground water as pollutant is in the form of their
D. both (b) and (c). A. carbonates B. bi-carbonates
C. chlorides D. sulphides
35. Dust collection efficiency of a cyclone separator
depends upon its
42. 80% less than 200 mesh size particles are called
A. diameter.
A. smoke B. powder
B. inlet gas velocity.
C. grit D. aggregates
C. overall height.
43. Coal washing waste water containing about 3%
D. all (a), (b) & (c). suspended solids (comprising of clay, slate, stone
etc.) is treated for solid particles removal
36. Ionisation potential employed in the industrial A. by chemical coagulation.
electrostatic precipitator is of the order of
A. 30 to 70 kV DC in sedimentation tanks equipped with
B.
mechanical scrapper.
B. 30 to 70 kV AC
C. in vacuum filter.
C. 230 V AC
D. in clarifiers. Troposhere is a dusty zone containing
C.
water vapor and clouds.
44. Inhalation of lead compounds present in the
The radio waves used in the long
automobile exhausts (using leaded petrol) causes
D. distance radio communication are
A. blood poisoning. reflected back to earth by stratosphere.
B. anaemia.
C. nervous system disorder. 1. Most efficient and suitable dust removal equipment
for removal of flyash from flue gas in a thermal
D. all (a), (b) and (c). power plant is the
A. gravity settling chamber
45. TLV of ozone (O3) and phosgene (COCl2) in air is
__________ ppm. B. cyclone separator
A. 0.1 B. 25 C. electrostatic precipitator
C. 100 D. 1000 D. bag filter
46. Most of the atmospheric air pollutants are present in 2. Which of the following is not a secondary air
large quantity in pollutant ?
A. stratosphere B. thermosphere A. Ozone
C. trophosphere D. mesosphere B. Photochemical smog
47. Pick out the wrong statement. C. Sulphur dioxide
Caustic embrittlement of boiler's metallic D. All (a), (b) & (c)

A. parts is caused by high concentration of
caustic soda in boiler feed water.
3. The concentration of water vapour in troposphere,
Cooling and freezing of water kills the which depends upon the altitude & temperature
B. varies in the range of zero to __________ percent.
bacteria present in it.
A. 1 B. 4
With increasing boiler operating pressure
of steam, the maximum allowable C. 8 D. 12
C.
concentration of silica in feed water goes
on decreasing.
4. The main industrial source of emission of hydrogen
Dissolved oxygen content in high sulphide air pollutant is
D.
pressure boiler feed water should be nil. A. petroleum refineries.
48. 'Pneumoconiosis' is a disease caused by the B. coal based thermal power plants.
inhalation of __________ dust.
C. pulp and paper plant.
A. coal
D. metallurgical roasting & smelting plant.
B. uranium ore
C. iron ore 5. Waste/polluted water discharged from electroplating,

blast furnace and coal mining industries contain
D. lime mainly __________ substances.
A. radioactive
49. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required
for stabilisation of sewage is called the B. organic
A. bacterial stability factor. C. inorganic
B. relative stability. D. none of these
C. biological oxygen demand (BOD).

6. Sound produced by an automobile horn heard at a
D. oxygen ion concentration. distance of 1.5 metres corresponds to about
50. Pick out the wrong statement. A. 90 B. 120
The concentric atmosphere layer just C. 150 D. 180

A. above troposphere is called
stratosphere, which is rich in ozone.
7. Moist atmospheric air at high temperature (e.g., in
Mesosphere is characterised by very low summer) having high concentration of sulphur dioxide
B. atmospheric pressure and low causes
temperature. A. fading of dyes on textiles.
15. Presence of bacteria in potable (drinking) water
B. corrosion, tarnishing & soiling of metals.
causes
C. reduced strength of textiles. A. turbidity
D. all (a), (b) and (c). B. disease
C. bad odour
8. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) is not produced in the
__________ industry.
D. bad taste & colour
A. nitric acid making
16. What are the methods of treatment & disposal of
B. nitrogenous fertiliser
radioactive wastes ?
C. detergent A. Evaporation & chemical precipitation.
D. any of these Biological methods & adsorption in ion

B.
exchange materials.
9. World's worst radioactive pollution was caused by
Fixing into a solid mass with cement and
nuclear reactor disaster which occured in C.
sinking deep in the sea.
A. Arizona (U.S.A.)
D. All (a), (b) & (c).
B. Chernobyl (undivided U.S.S.R.)
17. Bacterial aerobic oxidation of polluted water in
C. Pensylvania (U.S.A.)
biological oxidation ponds is done to purify it.
Presence of bacteria helps in
D. Moscow (U.S.S.R.)
A. coagulation and flocculation of colloids.
10. Dissolved oxygen content in river water is around
B. oxidation of carbonaceous matter to CO2.
__________ ppm.
A. 5 B. 100 nitrification or oxidation of ammonia
derived from breakdown of nitrogeneous
C.
C. 250 D. 500 organic matter to the nitrite and
eventually to the nitrate.
11. Oil and grease present in an emulsified state in
D. all (a), (b) and (c).
waste water discharged from industries can be
removed by
18. Main pollutant present in automobile exhaust is
A. biological oxidation.
A. CO B. CO2
B. skimming off.
C. NO D. hydrocarbons
C. settling out using chemical reagents.
19. Maximum allowable noise exposure limits for a man
D. chlorination. working for 8 hours a day in a noisy chemical plant
is about __________ decibels.
12. The amount of chemical coagulant added for A. 20 B. 60
treatment of polluted water __________ with
increase in temperature of the polluted water to be
C. 90 D. 120
treated.
A. decreases. 20. Industrial workers working in leather tanning &
manufacturing units are prone to suffer from
B. increases.
A. respirtory ailments (e.g. bronchitis).
C. remains constant.
B. skin diseases (e.g. dermatities).
may increase or decrease ; depends on
D. the chemical characteristics of polluted C. silicosis.
water.
D. blurred vision.
13. Particles having diameter greater than 75 μm
(micrometer = 10-6 mm) are called 21. Pick out the wrong statement.
A. grit B. dust Biological oxygen demand (B.O.D.) value
of a sewerage sample is always lower
A.
C. powder D. smoke than its chemical oxygen demand
(C.O.D.) value.
14. Which of the following is the most severe air
Environmental pollution by NOx emission
pollutant ?
is much higher by four stroke petrol
B.
A. hydrocarbons B. NOx engines as compared to the two stroke
engines.
C. SO2 D. CO
C. Temperature in stratosphere rises with
increasing altitude.
29. Presence of __________ hardness is responsible for
the temporary hardness in water.
The characteristic of a green house body
is that it allows the long wavelength A. carbonate B. calcium
incoming solar radiation to come in but
D.
does not allow the short wavelength infra C. choride D. sulphate
red radiation to escape out of the earth's
atmosphere.
30. Dose of chlorine for disinfection of water is about
__________ mg/litre of water.
22. Peroxyacyl nitrate (PAN), a pollutant is found in the
A. 0.01 B. 0.1
A. automobile exhaust.
C. 0.3 D. 1
B. flue gas of coal based power plant.
31. A shallow pond in which the sewage is retained and
C. exhaust of nitric acid plant. biologically treated is called
D. exhaust of sulphuric acid plant. A. oxidation
B. Imhoff tank
23. Foaming and priming in boiler operation can be
reduced by reduction in __________ in feed water.
C. lagoon
A. turbidity
D. skimming tank
B. color (Hazen)
32. Which is the most practical and economical method
C. total solids
for removal of suspended solid matter from polluted
water ?
D. all (a), (b) & (c)
A. Sedimentation
24. Ambient noise level can be reduced by __________
B. Skimming off
decibels by planting trees (like coconut, neem etc.)
near public utility buildings (like hospitals & schools).
C. Chlorination
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
D. Biological oxidation
C. 15-20 D. 25-30
33. Atmospheric pollution caused by the exhaust gas of
25. Pick out the wrong statement. supresonic transport air-crafts is mostly in the
atmospheric region called
Catalytic converter is fitted in
A. automobiles to reduce carbon monoxide A. thermosphere B. stratosphere
concentration in exhaust emissions.
C. troposphere D. mesosphere
Inhalation of pollutant carbon monoxide
B.
results in death by asphyxiation.
34. Iron & manganese present in the polluted water is
removed by
Sulphur dioxide is the main pollutant
C. emitted from the exhaust of petrol driven A. simple filtration.
automobiles.
B. oxidation followed by settling & filtration.
Decomposition of plants containing
D. chlorophyll is a natural source of carbon C. chemical coagulation.
monoxide in atmosphere.
D. chlorination only.
26. Which of the following radioactive wastes emits all α,
β & γ rays and hence is the most hazardous of all 35. Water effluent generated in printing industry is
radioactive emitters? decolourised by
A. I-131 B. Sr-90 A. ion exchange technique.
C. Au-198 D. Ra-226 B. reverse osmosis.
27. COD of raw municipal sewage may be in the range of C. electrolytic decomposition.
about __________ mg/litre.
D. adsorption.
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
C. 90-120 D. 1500-2500 36. Thermal pollution of water increases its toxicity and
oxidation of oxygen demanding waste besides
favouring bacterial growth. A rise in water
28. Maximum permissible turbidity in potable water is temperature by 10°C, doubles the toxic effects of
__________ ppm. __________ present in it.
A. 1 B. 10 A. coal ash
C. 250 D. 1000 B. potassium cyanide

C. ortho-xylene B. highly
D. none of these C. extremely
37. __________ can not control the noise pollution. D. very extremely
A. Use of silencers
45. Noise level heard inside a bus in busy city traffic or
inside a sub-way train corresponds to about
B. Green house gases
C. Vibration damping A. 75 B. 95
D. Tree plantation C. 120 D. 140
38. Ozone level is generally found to be depleted in India 46. Presence of volatile compounds like gasoline, oil,
in the month of alcohol, ether etc. in municipal sewers may cause
A. February B. July A. explosion
C. April D. December B. non biodegradable foam
C. undesirable plant growth

39. Noise level during normal conversation among men
is about __________ decibles.
D. corrosion
A. 10 B. 45
47. Noise produced by cooling fans (employed in air
C. 90 D. 115
cooled heat exchangers or cooling tower) is mainly
caused due to the turbulence created by blade
40. 'Particulate' air pollutants are finely divided solids passage through air. It can be reduced by use of a
and liquids. Which of the following is not a slower fan
'particulate' ?
A. with greater number of blades.
A. Dust & mists
B. of increased diameter.
B. Smoke & fumes
C. both (a) & (b).
C. Photochemical smog & soot
D. neither (a) nor (b).
D. None of these
48. Presence of soluble organics in polluted water causes
41. Foul odour and bad taste of water is removed by
A. undesirable plants growth.
treating with
A. alum B. depletion of oxygen.
B. bleaching powder C. fire hazards.
C. activated carbon D. explosion hazards.
D. copper sulphate.
49. Which of the following pollutants, if present in
atmosphere is detectable by its odour ?
42. Presence of __________ in water stream are
A. CO B. SO2
deleterious to aquatic life.
A. soluble and toxic organics. C. NO2 D. CO2
B. suspended solids.
50. Exposure to chemicals having carcinogenic
properties cause
C. heavy metals and cynides.
A. dermatitis (skin disorder)
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
B. Cancer
43. Acute danger to human life (i.e. death) exists, if the
C. Asphyxiation
concentration of CO2 in atmospheric air exceeds
__________ percent (by volume).
D. Asthma
A. 1 B. 3
C. 7 D. 20
1. In water treatment plant, zeolite process is used to
remove the __________ of water.
44. Methyl iso-cynate (MIC) gas (TLV <1 ppm), which
caused Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 falls under the A. acidity
category of __________ toxic gas.
B. alkalinity
A. moderately
C. hardness
causes
D. iron & zinc
A. mathenoglobenemia
2. For existence of aquatic life in water, the dissolved
B. gastroentetitis
oxygen content in it, should not be less than
__________ ppm.
C. asphyxiation
A. 10000 B. 5
D. tooth decay
C. 500 D. 1000
10. In sewage treatment, the detention period allowed
3. Fresh sewage is __________ in nature. for oxidation ponds ranges from __________ weeks.
A. acidic A. 1 to 2
B. Neutral B. 4 to 5
C. alkaline C. 9 to 10
D. highly acidic D. 15 to 20
4. In a sedimentation tank, the detention period for 11. Coal mines drainage waste water (acidic in nature)
water ranges from __________ hours. results from the earth's water percolating through
A. 2 to 4 the voids created in coal bed during mining. This
polluted water which either drains out naturally to
water courses or are removed before starting the
B. 8 to 12
mining is
C. 16 to 20 A. neutralised by alkali treatment.
D. 24 to 32 B. left as such without any treatment.
5. On prolonged exposure to high concentration of diluted with fresh water to reduce its
C.
carbon monoxide (> 5000 ppm), man dies because acidity.
A. of clotting of blood. D. none of these.
B. of jamming of respiratory tract.

12. Fine grit present in sewage is removed in the
__________ during sewage treatment.
it forms carboxyhaemoglobin by
combining with haemoglobin of blood, A. grit chamber
C.
thereby making it incapable of absorbing
oxygen. B. detritus tank
it forms CO2 by combining with oxygen C. trickling filter

D.
present in the blood.
D. skimming tank.
6. Workers working in __________ industry are most
prone to white lung cancer. 13. The lowest layer of atmosphere is known as the
A. coal mining A. stratosphere
B. limestone mining B. troposphere
C. textile C. ionosphere
D. asbestos D. none of these
7. A standard test for determination of hardness in 14. As per the world health organisation (WHO)
water is termed as __________ test. specification, the maximum permissible
concentration (i.e., TLV) of particulate matter in air
A. EDTA
is __________ μg/m3.(μg-microgram)
B. electometric A. 10 B. 90
C. total count C. 800 D. 750
D. presumptive
15. Which of the following is not a weightless pollutant ?
A. SPM
8. TLV of lead for public sewer/waste water is about
__________ ppm.
B. Thermal pollution
A. 1 B. 25
C. Radioactive rays
C. 150 D. 650
D. Noise pollution
9. Presence of nitrates in water in excess of 50 ppm
16. Global warming may result in 24. High noise levels produced during operation of fans
and compressors can be reduced by using
A. flood
A. mufflers (silencers).
B. cyclone
B. accoustical absorbent.
C. decrease in food productivity
C. lagging of noisy duct.
D. all (a), (b) and (c)
D. none of these.
17. Which of the following is the most lethal water
pollutant ? 25. The Killer gas which caused Bhopal gas tragedy in
1984 was
A. Phenol and cynide
A. phosgene
B. Chlorine
B. methyl iso-cynate (MIC)
C. Alkalis
C. carbon monoxide
D. Suspended solids
D. sulphur dioxide
18. Presence of carbon monoxide in atmosphere
produced by decomposition of chlorophyl and 26. Aerosols present in atmospheric air may be
haemoglobin breakdown of some animals, beyond
TLV (>50 ppm) A. positively charged.
acts as a green house gas thereby raising B. negatively charged.

A.
earth's temperature.
C. neutral.
B. causes asphyxia.
D. combination of all (a), (b) & (c).
C. causes increase in sea level.
27. Ethanolamine is an absorbant used for the removal

D. inhances the green house effect.
of __________ from air/gas.
A. HF
19. The earth's atmosphere is an envelope of gases
present upto a height of about __________ kms.
B. SO2
A. 10 B. 200
C. H2S
C. 1000 D. 2000
D. both (b) & (c)
20. Which of the following is an adsorbant used for the
removal of SO2 from gas/air? 28. Which of the following causes death by asphyxiation,
A. Bog iron if its presence in atmospheric air exceeds maximum
allowable concentration (i.e. > 50 ppm) ?
B. Limestone powder or alkalised alumina A. Benzopyrene
C. Silica gel B. Peroxyacyl nitrate
D. Active carbon C. Carbon monoxide
21. Higher concentration of nitrogen dioxide in D. Sulphur dioxide

atmospheric air causes
A. cancer B. bronchitis 29. __________ plant emits large amount of SO2 as an
air pollutant.
C. asphyxiation D. corrosion A. Nitric acid
22. Ozone is B. Sulphuric acid
A. a primary pollutant. C. Chloralkali
B. a secondary pollutant. D. Iron & steel
C. impervious to ultra-violet rays.

30. Noise pollution level in a chemical plant is expressed
in
D. both (b) and (c)
A. roentgen
23. The permissible color for domestic water supply is
__________ ppm. B. decibel
A. 1 B. 20 C. hertz
C. 100 D. 1000 D. none of these

31. The maximum permissible noise level to which a
D. High voltage electrical equipments.
man working in a chemical plant can be exposed for
eight hours per day is about __________ decibels.
38. Oceans act as sinks for atmospheric gases including
A. 60 B. 90
carbon dioxide whose concentration in the
atmosphere is increased by the
C. 105 D. 120
A. forestation
32. The most commonly used chemical coagulant in
water treatment is
B. rain
A. ferrous sulphate
C. green house effect
B. alum
D. vegetation
C. lime
39. Pick out the correct statement.
D. hydrazine
Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a
A. measure of chemically oxidisable organic
33. The biological decomposition of organic substances matter present in water.
in wastes controlled conditions is called
A. incineration COD is determined by oxidising the
organic matter present in water with
B. biological oxidation B. potassium dichromate in cone, sulphuric
acid solution at boiling temperature for
C. composting specified time.
D. none of these COD is related to BOD of a given waste

in water but the relationship varies for
C.
different wastes. Typically COD of
34. Lung cancer & DNA breakage are the major ill effects potable water may be 1-2 mg/litre.
of excessive ozone exposure to human beings.
Ozone layer depletion in the atmosphere is mainly D. all (a), (b) and (c).
caused by the presence of
A. CO2 40. The upper layer of atmosphere is called the
B. SO2 A. stratosphere
C. hydrocarbons B. troposphere
D. CFC (chloro fluoro carbon) C. ionosphere
D. none of these
35. Smog is not formed due to the presence of
__________ in the atmosphere.
41. Which of the following is the most widely used
A. SO2 disinfectant in water treatment ?
B. NOx A. Chlorine
C. CO2 B. Irradiation of water by ultraviolet light
D. any of these C. Cation exchanger
D. Coagulation
Deforestation helps in controlling the 42. Pick out the wrong statement
A.
green house effect.
Low ozone layer thickness in polar
A.
Global warming is detrimental for regions is due to cold climatic conditions
B. increase in food productivity and may
cause flood and cyclone. Amount of unburnt hydrocarbons emitted
by two stroke petrol engine is more as
B.
Lightening discharges are natural source compared to that emitted by a four
C. stroke engine.
of production of SO2 & H2S pollutant.
Sulhur dioxide causes death by Carbon monoxide present in the two

D. stroke petrol engine exhaust is much less
asphyxiation. C.
as compared to that emitted from a four
stroke engine.
37. Which of the following is not a source of ozone
emission in the atmosphere ? Mercury as a pollutant can enter the
A. Refrigerators. blood stream & the digestive system/
D.
lungs and is responsible for causing
B. Xerox machines. minamate disease.
Dermatological photo-therapy 43. Phenolic water generated in coke ovens & by-
C.
equipments. product plant of a steel plant are disposed off by
mixture), rendering it the property of the most
A. quenching of hot coke.
explosive gas ?
B. discharging in the river stream. A. Hydrogen
filtration and recycling for cooling coke B. Acetylene

C.
oven gas.
C. Carbon monoxide
D. none of these.
D. Ammonia
44. 5-200 μm size particles are called
A. colloids or aerosols
B. powder 1. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to 'green

house' for the plants.
C. dust 'Green house' (made of glass) allows
visible sunlight (i.e., short wavelength
D. smoke A. solar radiation like ultra-violet rays) to
pass through the glass and heat up the
45. The progressive warming up of the earth's surface is soil thereby warming up plants inside it.
mainly due to the
The emitted longer wavelength radiation
A. automobile exhaust. (e.g., infrared) is partly reflected and
B.
partly absorbed by the glass of the green
blanketing effect of CO2 in the house.
B.
atmosphere.
'Green house effect' in earth's
C. de-forestation. atmosphere is due to increasing CO2 level
C. in atmosphere. where CO2 acts like the
D. thickening of ozone layer. glass of 'green house' thereby warming
up the earth's surface.
46. The effect of increase in carbon dioxide level of the
'Green house' is colder than the outside
atmosphere and its profound effect on our climate is D.
atmosphere.
called the
A. catalytic conversion
2. In water treatment, alum[Al2(SO 4)3] is used for the
process of
B. green house effect
A. filtration B. coagulation
C. global warming
C. sedimentation D. disinfection
D. both (b) and (c)
3. Pick out the one which is not a chemical coagulant.
47. Arsenic pollutant is not generated in____industries.
A. Aluminium sulphate
A. tanneries
B. Ferrous sulphate
B. glass & ceramic
C. Hydrated lime
C. beverages
D. Chloramine
D. any of these.
4. Presence of iron and manganese in water causes
48. The resistance of water to the passage of light
A. reduction in its dissolved oxygen content.
through it is a measure of the
A. turbidity B. discoloration of bathroom fixtures.
B. color C. temporary hardness.
C. hardness D. none of these.
D. dissolved gases 5. Septic tanks are used for the __________ of the
deposited solids.
49. Color test of water is done with an instrument called
A. separation
A. tintometer
B. anaerobic decomposition
B. colorimeter
C. aerobic decomposition
C. electro-chemical cell
D. none of these
D. turbidimeter
50. Which of the following gases is having the widest 6. Death may occur, when SO 2 concentration in
explosion limit (about 2 to 81% gas in gas-air atmospheric air exceeds __________ ppm.
A. 20 B. 100 C. pneumoconiosis
C. 400 D. 200 D. none of these
7. Which of the following acts as a natural source of air 14. Solid content in most of the domestic sewage is
pollution ? about __________ percent.
A. Forest fire A. 0.001 B. 0.1
B. Deforestation C. 5 D. 10
C. Volcanic eruption 15. In troposphere (the weather domain), the

temperature 't' at height 'h' above the spa level in
D. None of these metres is given by (where, temperature at sea level
is 15°C and t is in °C.)
8. Higher concentration of CO2 in atmosphere A. t = 15 - 0.0065h
allows visible solar radiation (ultraviolet)
A.
of short wave-length to pass through. B. t = 15 + 0.0065h
reflects and absorbs the longer C. t = 0.0035h -15

B.
wavelength (infra-red) radiations.
D. t = 15 - 0.0035h
prevents solar heat being radiated out
C. completely, resulting in 'heat trap' i.e.,
16. High noise level in a chemical plant can be controlled
global warming.
by the
D. all (a), (b) and (c). A. suppression of noise at the source itself.
B. path control of noise.

9. Permissible safe limit (TLV) of __________ toxic gas
is 100-1000 parts per million (ppm).
C. protection of operating personnel.
A. highly
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
B. moderately
17. Limestone powder is injected during pulverised coal
C. extremely
burning in boilers to __________ the flue gases.
D. very extremely A. reduce SO2 content in
B. catalytically convert SO2 to SO3 in

10. Radioactive substances present in the polluted water
stream can be removed by
C. increase the dew point of
A. biological oxygen treatment.
D. none of these.
B. coagulation and filtration.
18. Main pollutants released from petroleum refineries is
C. adsorption in ion exchange materials.
A. CO, SO2 & H2S.
D. none of these.
B. CO2, NO & SO3.
11. In the context of the chemical process industries, the
C. CO2, H2S & NO2.
term BOD is normally associated with the
A. characterisation of solid wastes. D. SO3, NO2 & CO2.
organic concentration in gaseous

B. 19. Maximum permissible limit of industrial noise as
effluents.
recommended by World Health Organisation (WHO)
is __________ decibels.
C. characterisation of liquid effluents.
A. 35 B. 75
D. characterisation of boiler feed water.
C. 95 D. 105
12. Noise emitted by a ventilation fan at a distance of 3
metres is about __________ decibels. 20. Which of the following is a green house gas other
than CO2 ?
A. 85 B. 105
A. Methane
C. 125 D. 145
B. Nitrous oxide
13. Inhalation of silica dust causes a disease called
C. Chlorofluro carbons (CFC)
A. bronchitis
D. All (a), (b) and (c)
B. silicosis
21. Automobile exhaust is passed through two
compartments catalytic converter employing
platinum as catalyst for 28. Irradiation of water by ultraviolet light of suitable
wavelength is commonly used for disinfection of
conversion of CO into CO2 in the second
A. water in
compartment.
A. food industry.
conversion of NOx into N 2 and NH3 in the
B.
first compartment. B. municipal sewage treatment.
oxidation of unburnt hydrocarbon fuel in C. petroleum refinery.

C.
the second compartment.
D. iron & steel plant.
29. When the concentration of SO2 in air is greater than
22. Lagooning process is mainly a means of the __________ ppm, it gives a pungent smell.
A. sludge disposal. A. 0.01 B. 0.1
B. reduction of excessive flow in sewers. C. 1 D. 4
C. biological treatment of wastes. 30. Presence of a certain minimum quantity of flourine is

desirable in potable water to prevent
D. none of these.
A. dental cavities
23. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant, which causes

B. scale formation
A. respiratory disease (e.g. asthma).
C. water-borne disease
asphyxiation (suffocation) leading to
B.
death. D. corrosion
C. retardation in crop growth. 31. Pick out the wrong statement.
D. damage to building materials like marble. Benzopyrene which causes cancer is

A. present in traces in tobacco, charcoal &
petrol driven automobile exhaust.
24. Pollution by particulate matter emission in the
atmosphere does not take place during metal
NO2 is capable of penetrating the
A. grinding B. machining B. troposphere and can absorb both
ultraviolet & visible light.
C. cutting D. polishing
Hydrocarbon pollutants are produced by
C.
sweet gum, oak & natural rubber trees.
25. Direct reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons with
either NO or NO2 produces an eye irritating pollutant
H2S is not at all produced during
compound known as
D. combustion of sulphur bearing fuels as all
A. photochemical smog. the sulphur is oxidised to SO2.
peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN) or methyl 32. Which of the following is not an air pollutant ?
B.
nitrile.
A. Ozone
C. benzopyrene.
B. Carcinogens
D. poly acrylonitrile
C. Pesticides
D. Metallic powders
Noise from ball mills can be dealt with by
A.
fibre glass lined enclosures.
33. Presence of high concentration of ozone and smog in
atmospheric air causes the
Noise from vibrating chutes can be
B. reduced by lining the metallic chute with embrittlement & decrease of folding
A.
rubber. resistance of paper.
Noise of conveyor belt system is reduced B. cracking of rubber products.

by using urethane coated cloth conveyor
C.
belts and rubber/plastic covered metallic C. fading of dye on textiles.
rollers.
damage of electrical insulator on high
D.
D. all (a), (b) & (c). tension power line.
27. BOD of raw municipal sewage may be in the range of 34. Algae growth in water is controlled by
about __________ mg/litre.
A. deoxidation B. chlorination
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
C. bleaching D. aeration
C. 150-300 D. 2000-3000
35. __________ is removed from water by lime-soda
C. 357 D. 1097
process.
A. Foul smell and taste
44. A gas is termed as non-toxic, if its maximum
permissible concentration (TLV) ranges from
B. Iron and manganese __________ ppm.
C. Temporary hardness A. 1000 to 2000
D. Permanent hardness B. 3000 to 6000
C. 6000 to 9000
36. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
A. parasitic D. 10000 to 100000
B. saprophytic 45. Removal of __________ is accomplished by aeration

of water.
C. anerobic
A. dissolved gases
D. none of these
B. suspended solids
37. Which of the following is the most major constituents C. dissolved solids
of air pollutants ?
A. Oxides of sulphur D. none of these
B. Oxides of nitrogen
46. Green house effect is accentuated by
C. Carbon monoxide A. deforestation.
D. Hydrogen sulphide B. rapid industrialisation.
C. increased transportation activity.

38. Shouting by a man at his full voice corresponds to a
voice level of about __________ decibels. D. all (a), (b) and (c).
A. 25 B. 50
47. Thermal pollution due to excessive heat &
temperature in the working place causes
C. 80 D. 120
reduction in working efficiency of
A.
manpower.
39. Carbonaceous particles having size less than 1 μm
are called
B. fatigue.
A. grit B. aggregates
C. high breathing rate.
C. aerosols D. smoke
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
40. __________ substances present in sewage are
removed in grit chamber during sewage treatment. 48. High concentration of carcinogenic hydrocarbon
pollutants in atmospheric air causes
A. Organic B. Fatty
A. cancer
C. Inorganic D. Dissolved
B. silicosis
41. The type of bacteria which is active in trickling filter
during biological treatment of sewage is the C. respiratory disease (e.g., asthma)
__________ bacteria.
D. reduced crop yield
A. anaerobic B. saphrophytic
C. aerobic D. parasitic 49. World environment day is observed every year on

the 5th of
42. Presence of dissolved impurities of __________ is A. June B. December

responsible for the red brownish color of water.
C. July D. September
A. carbonates
B. bi-carbonates 50. The major reason of hydrodynamic noise (i.e., noise

resulting from liquid flow) is
C. iron & manganese A. pipe vibrations.
D. arsenic B. cavitation.
43. TLV of aldrin in public water supply system is about C. boundary layer separation.
__________ μg/litre.
D. fluctuation in liquid flow.
A. 0.5 B. 17
BOD is a measure of the amount of
1. The term Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is used
oxygen which will be demanded & used
in relation to
in 5 days by the biological decomposition
B.
A. potable water of the organic matter present in water
stream present as food for the living
B. cooling water organism.
C. distilled water BOD is expressed in mg/litre (typically,

C.
BOD=2.5 mg/litre for potable water).
D. industrial effluents
D. none of these
2. The destruction of water-borne pathogens is termed
as disinfection of water. Which of the following is a 9. The pH value of potable water should be between
water disinfectant ?
A. 1 to 1.5
A. Chlorine
B. 6.5 to 8
B. Alkalis
C. 13 to 14
C. Benzene hexachloride
D. 4 to 5
D. Alkyl benzene sulphonate (ABS)
10. Maximum permissible limit of mercury in human
3. Disinfection of water is done to destroy pathogenic blood is __________ micrograms/100 c.c.
bacteria and thus prevent water-borne diseases.
A. 1 B. 7
Disinfection of water may be done by the use of
A. ozone and iodine. C. 19 D. 82
B. chlorine or its compounds.

11. Which of the following pollutants is absent in the
emissions from a fertiliser plant ?
C. ultraviolet light for irradiation of water.
A. SO2 & SO3
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
B. NO2
4. Which of the following processes is involved in the
C. NH3
biochemical treatment of sewage effluents ?
A. Oxidation B. Reduction D. CO
C. Dehydration D. Fermentation
12. Salt content in sea water is about __________
percent.
5. Infective bacteria in water is killed by the
A. 0.5 B. 1
__________ process.
A. sterilisation C. 3.5 D. 10
B. aeration
13. Noise level inside a jet air liner in normal flight is
about __________ decibels.
C. disinfection
A. 80 B. 100
D. none of these
C. 125 D. 145
6. Fluorosis is caused due to the presence of excessive
amount of __________ in drinking water. 14. What is the major constituents of waste/polluted
water discharged from textile, pulp & paper, tanning,
A. mercury B. lead distillary, dairy and meat packing industries ?
C. fluoride D. arsenic A. Radioactive substances
B. Natural organic products

7. Presence of nitrogen and phosphorous in waste
water discharged into lakes and ponds causes
C. Inorganic pollutants
A. foaming
D. None of these
B. odour nuisances
15. Water filtration rate in a rapid sand filter ranges
C. undesirable plant growth from __________ kilolitres/m2/hr.
D. turbidity A. 0.1 to 1
B. 3 to 6
8. Pick out the wrong statement.
Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a C. 10 to 15
A. characteristic and not a constituent of
water. D. 15 to 20
D. all (a), (b) & (c)
16. Hazardous/polluting chemical industries should have
an 'exclusion zone' with a green belt and general
public access prohibited around it, covering a radius 23. Reinglemann chart is used for the measurement of
of ____ metres. the
A. 100 B. 1000 combustibles present in automobile
A.
exhaust.
C. 400 D. 4000
B. smoke density from a chimey.
17. Maximum permissible residual chlorine in treated
water should be __________ mg/litre. C. exhaust gas density.
A. 0.001 to 0.01 D. flue gas temperature.
B. 02 to 0.3
24. Disinfection of water is done to remove
C. 2 to 3
A. color
D. 5 to 10
B. bad taste
18. Which of the following is the most active zone of
C. foul odour
atmosphere in which weathering events like rain,
storm & lightning occur ?
D. bacteria
A. Thermosphere
25. Which of the following fine dust removal equipments
B. Troposphere
is the most efficient ?
C. Stratosphere A. Bag filter
D. none of these B. Scrubber
C. Electrostatic precipitator
19. Which is the most widely used coagulant for the
treatment of turbid water ?
D. Cyclone separator
A. Alum (aluminium sulphate)
26. Which of the following industries discharge mercury
B. Lime
as a pollutant ?
C. Ferric chloride A. Chloro-alkali industry
D. Sodium aluminate B. Tanneries
C. Beverage plant
20. Which of the following is not a natural source of air
pollution ?
D. Phosphoric acid plant
Volcanic eruptions and lightening
A.
discharges.
27. Threshold limit value (TLV) of CO in air is
__________ ppm.
B. Biological decay of vegetable matter.
A. 5 B. 50
Photochemical oxidation of organic
C.
matter. C. 2000 D. 5000
D. None of these.
28. Lead exhausted in the atmosphere by automobiles
using leaded petrol (i.e. tetraethyl lead for improving
21. Threshold limit value (TLV) i.e., the maximum octane number) is a lethal air pollutant which causes
permissible safe limit of phosgene gas which Hitler
A. paralysis of muscles & loss of appetite.
used to use to kill his enemies in 'gas chamber' is
about __________ ppm.
B. nervous depression.
A. <1 B. 10-100
C. gastritis & diarrhea.
C. 100-200 D. 100-1000
22. Photochemical smog is formed from automobile
exhaust 29. Oilish impurities present the effluent discharged from
the electroplating industry is normally not removed
by reaction of hydrocarbon & nitric oxide
A. by
in presence of sunlight.
A. chemical coagulation
B. appears only on sunny days.
B. floatation & skimming
is harmful for crops and trees also
C.
besides causing eye irritation & asthma. C. centrifugation
D. ultrafiltration
37. Polyvinyl chloride containers are not suitable for
storing
30. In large thermal power stations very fine particulates
A. foodstuffs
present in flue gas are removed by
A. wet scrubber B. woolen clothes
B. bag filter C. metallic powder
C. electrostatic precipitators D. none of these
D. dust catcher 38. Presence of nitrogen in high concentration in

contaminated air reduces partial pressure of oxygen
31. Threshold limit value (TLV) means maximum in lungs, thereby causing asphyxia (suffocation)
permissible/acceptable concentration. TLV of leading to death from oxygen deficiency.
phosgene in air is about __________ ppm (parts per Concentration of N2 in contaminated air at which it
million). acts as a natural asphyxant is ≥ __________
percent.
A. 0.002 B. 0.2
A. 84 B. 88
C. 1.2 D. 4.8
C. 80 D. 92
32. The density of the gases (present in air) decreases

with increasing altitude to such an extent, that about 39. TLV of ammonia, nitrogen dioxide and phenol vapor
70% of the mass of atmospheric air is found in the in air is __________ ppm.
lower 5 km. of the atmosphere. This lower region of
A. 5 B. 100
atmosphere is called the
A. ionosphere C. 1000 D. 2000
B. troposphere 40. Corrosion in boilers can be prevented by
C. stratosphere A. deaeration of feed water.
D. none of these enhancing pH of feed water by adding

B.
alkali.
33. Biological oxidation ponds remove organic matters feeding sodium sulphite or hydrazine
present in the polluted water by C. phosphate to the boilers, which combines
using the activities of bacteria and other with oxygen and prevents corrosion.
A.
micro organisms.
B. aerobic oxidation.
41. Water filtration rate in a slow sand filter ranges from
C. both (a) & (b). __________ litres/m2/hr.
D. neither (a) nor (b). A. 10 to 20
B. 100 to 200
34. Which of the following is an adsorbant for removal of
nitrogen oxides from gas/air ?
C. 1500 to 2500
A. Active carbon
D. 4000 to 5000
B. Silica gel
42. Lagoons used for purification of polluted water
C. Bog iron (iron oxide)
are large shallow artificial lakes also
D. Pulverised limestone A. known as clarification lakes, maturation
ponds or oxidation ponds.
35. Out of the following, TLV of __________ is the use micro-organisms/bacteria in

minimum (about 0.02 ppm). B.
presence of dissolved oxygen.
A. phosgene
gives an excellent final effluent (with 3 to
B. bromine 4 lagoons arranged in series) having
C.
suspended solid < 1 mg/litre and BOD =
C. MIC (methyl iso-cynate) 3.8 mg/litre.
D. ozone D. all (a), (b) & (c).
36. The average thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere 43. The principal gas evolved from sludge digestion tank
is about __________ dobson unit (DU). is
A. 20 B. 230 A. CO B. CO2
C. 750 D. 1500 C. CH4 D. N2

44. There are thirteen metals which are treated as 3. Reingleman chart No. 2 corresponds to __________
pollutants. Which of the following metals is not a percent black smoke.
pollutant ?
A. 10 B. 20
A. Mercury B. Arsenic
C. 40 D. 80
C. Aluminium D. Lead
4. Which of the following is a manmade source of air
45. The function of skimming tank in sewage treatment pollution ?
is to remove __________ substances.
A. Automobile exhaust.
A. dissolved solid
B. Forest fire.
B. suspended solid
C. Bacterial action in soil and swamp areas
C. oil & fatty
D. All (a), (b) and (c).
D. gritty & inorganic
5. Which is the most efficient dust removal equipment
46. The weakest sound that can be heard by a person in for removal of sub-micronic dust particles from blast
a quiet environment is equivalent to __________ furnace gas ?
decibel.
A. Packed scrubber
A. 1 B. 5
B. Gravity settling chamber
C. 10 D. 20
C. Electrostatic precipitator
47. Inorganic impurities causing water pollution is
D. Hydrocyclone
A. fats
6. Insufficient washing of sand grains in a rapid sand
B. carbohydrates
filter causes
C. salts of metals A. air binding
D. protein B. shrinkage of filtering media
48. The main type of sludge gas evolved during sewage C. mud balls
treatment in Imhoff tank is
D. expansion of filtering media
A. CO2 B. CH4
7. Which of the following sources is responsible for
C. CO D. H2
maximum air pollution ?
49. From pollution control point of view, the maximum A. Industrial chimney exhaust.
permissible concentration of sulphur dioxide in
atmospheric air is about __________ ppm. B. Forest fire.
A. 1 B. 5 C. Automobiles exhaust.
C. 50 D. 500 Photochemical oxidation of organic

D.
matter.
50. The pH value of oxidised sewage is about
A. 1.8 B. 6.2 8. Which of the following is the most efficient for
removal of very finely divided suspended solids and
C. 7.3 D. 13.4 colloidal matter from the polluted water stream ?
A. Sedimentation tank
B. Circular clarifier
1. Smog is
A. nothing but black smoke. C. Mechanical flocculation
B. a combination of smoke and fog. D. Chemical coagulation
a liquid particle resulting from vapor 9. In sewage treatment, its sedimentation is speeded
C.
condensation. up by commonly adding
D. a solid particle e.g. flyash. A. hydrochloric acid.
B. lime.
2. __________ is the process of killing organism in
water.
C. copper sulphate.
A. Coagulation B. Sterilisation
D. sodium sulphate.
C. Disinfection D. Sedimentation
10. Noise level in a quiet private business office is about
C. gaseous fuel in the furnace.
A. 25 B. 50 D. liquid fuel in the furnace.
C. 70 D. 85
17. TLV of NO2 & NO exposure for the human being is 5
& 25 ppm respectively. Prolonged exposure of
human being to NO2 causes
A. skin disorder
11. 'Safe limit' called Threshold Limit Value (TLV) of
carbon monoxide in atmospheric air is < 50 ppm.
B. bronchitis
The main source of carbon monoxide pollutant in air
is the
C. bone disease
A. industrial chimney exhaust.
D. cancer
B. automobiles exhaust.
18. Sulphur dioxide present in the industrial chimney
photochemical reaction in polluted
C. exhaust gases causes
atmosphere.
A. respiratory & lung disease.
D. burning of domestic fuel.
reduction in plant's productivity owing to
B.
acid rain.
12. Inhalation of silica dust by human being causes
A. asphyxiation C. corrosion of building materials.
B. shortness of breath D. all (a), (b) and (c).
C. tuberculosis
19. A man exposed to excessive noise level in the
working environment may suffer from
D. both(b) & (c)
A. hearing loss
13. Which of the following air pollutants is not toxic to
B. rupture of ear drum
vegetation i.e., doesn't cause vegetation damage ?
A. Smog & ozone C. nervousness & fatigue
B. Hydrogen fluoride & nitrogen oxides D. all (a), (b) & (c)
C. Sulphur dioxide & spray of weed killers

20. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant ?
D. Carbon monoxide A. Photochemical smog
B. Sulphur dioxide
14. A masonry structure built below ground level, where
biochemical reaction takes place due to anaerobic
bacteria is called C. Nitrogen dioxide
A. cesspool D. Dust particles
B. lagoon
21. Presence of __________ bacteria in water causes
disease like typhoid.
C. skimming mill
A. aerobic B. pathogenic
D. septic tank
non-
C. anaerobic D.
15. A considerable part of the harmful ultraviolet pathogenic
radiation of the sum does not reach the earth
surface, because of the fact that, there is a layer of 22. CFC (chloro fluoro carbon) is very highly reactive in
__________ high above earth's atmosphere, which causing depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.
absorbs it. Each atom of chlorine liberated from CFC is capable
of decomposing __________ molecules of ozones.
A. hydrogen
A. 102 B. 105
B. carbon dioxide
C. 109 D. 1015
C. ozone
23. Green house gases blanket/block the infrared
D. none of these
radiation from earth's surface to the atmosphere
leading to its progressive warming up. Which of the
16. White smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace following gases does not exhibit green house effect ?
indicates the use of
A. CO2 B. H2
A. low excess air.
C. SO3 D. N2
B. very high excess air.
24. A 'body' which allows the short wavelength incoming
solar radiation to enter in, but does not allow long
A. Calcium B. Fluorine
wave length outgoing infra red radiation to escape
out is called the
C. Phosphorous D. Sulphur
A. global warming
31. Beyond what concentration of H2S in air, acute
B. green house
danger to human life exists ?
C. atmospheric effect A. 50 ppm
D. ionosphere B. 100 ppm
25. Fresh domestic sewage is __________ in color. C. 300 ppm
A. grey D. 700 ppm
B. dark brown
32. Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of
__________ pollution.
C. red
A. air B. water
D. black
C. noise D. radioactive
26. The common pollutant generated in chlor-alkali
industry and battery manufacture is 33. There are five concentric layers within the
atmosphere which is differentiated on the basis of
A. mercury temperature. The atmospheric layer which lies close
to the earth's surface in which human being along
B. brine with other organisms live is called troposphere. The
rate at which air temperature in the troposphere
C. phosphate gradually decreases with height is about
__________ °C/km.
D. none of these
A. 0.05 B. 1
27. During sewage treatment, the sewage is subjected C. 6.5 D. 15

to __________ treatment in Imhoff tank.
A. filtration 34. Brown spots in fabrics will be caused by washing
with water containing large amount of .
B. digestion
A. iron B. zinc
C. sedimentation
C. iodine D. bromine
D. both (b) and (c)
35. Maximum permissible concentration (i.e. TLV) of
28. Black smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace DDT in public water supply system is __________
is an indication of the use of __________ in the micro gram (μ g)/litre.
furnace. A. 2 B. 42
A. low amount of excess combustion air
C. 332 D. 1050
B. large quantity of excess combustion air
36. Sooty and sulphurous smog formed due to
C. hydrocarbon fuel combustion of fossil fuels particularly in winter,
continues throughout the day and night. When the
D. pulverised coal as fuel moist atmospheric air's water vapor condenses on
the solid particles of smoke thereby forming smog
(smoke + fog), it causes
A. poor visibility due to sky darkening.
A slight haze at the top of chimney
A. indicates good combustion in the
furnace. B. irritation in eyes.
A bag filter incurs very small pressure C. respiratory trouble.

drop and is very efficient for removal of
B. D. all (a), (b) and (c).
sub-micronic dust particles from flue
gases at very high temperature.
37. Deaeration of high pressure boiler feed water is done
Electrostatic precipitator is the most to reduce
efficient dust collection equipment for
C. A. foaming from boilers.
removal of sub-micronic dust particles
present in flue gas.
B. its dissolved oxygen content.
D. none of these.
C. its silica content.
30. __________ content of the phosphate rock is the D. caustic embrittlement.

pollutant of primary interest in a phos-phatic
fertiliser plant.
38. Exposure to SO2 containing chimney gases results in
Filling in steel crates and shooting it off
the D.
out of earth's gravity.
A. reduction in strength of leather & cloth.
45. Major sources of noise in furnace operation arises
B. acceleration of corrosion rates of metals. from air inspirators, combustion, side wall vibrations
and fluctuation in the process heat load. A 50%
increased drying & hardening time of increase in fuel firing rate may increase the furnace
C.
paints. noise level by about __________ decibels.
D. all (a), (b)and(c). A. 3 B. 30
C. 70 D. 100
39. The detrimental effect on organism and water quality
with temperature rise of aquatic system is the
reduction of __________ of water. 46. Removal of __________ results from the disinfection
of water.
A. dissolved oxygen content
A. turbidity B. odour
B. biological oxygen demand
C. hardness D. bacteria
C. vapor pressure
47. Very small amount of air pollutants are present in
D. all (a), (b) and (c) stratosphere also; though most of the atmospheric
pollutants are present in the troposphere. Which of
40. Hydrogen ion concentration in distilled water is the following atmospheric pollutants does not cause
the ozone layer depletion in atmosphere at
A. 10-7 tremendous rate ?
B. 7 x 10-7 A. CO
C. 107 B. SO2
D. 7 x 107 C. NOx
D. CFC (chloro fluoro carbons)

41. Out of the following, TLV of __________ is
maximum (about 500 ppm).
48. Carcinogenic air pollutants cause
A. carbon dioxide
A. bone decay
B. toluene
B. cancer
C. carbon disulphide
C. asphyxiation (suffocation)
D. acetaldehyde
D. anemia
42. Which of the following plants does not emit

appreciable amount of SO2 in atmosphere ? 49. Inhalation of silica dust by human being during hand
drilling in mica mining, lead & zinc mining, silica
A. Thermal power plant refractory manufacture and in foundaries causes
B. Petroleum refinery A. asphyxiation (suffocation).
C. Nitric acid plant B. shortness of breath.
D. Sulphuric acid plant C. tuberculosis.

43. The maximum CO2 is emitted into the atmosphere
by
50. Soluble silica present in boiler feed water can be
A. combustion removed by
B. urea A. coagulation
C. biomass burning B. filtration
D. trees C. anion exchanger
D. preheating it
44. Which of the following is not a practical method of
low level radioactive waste disposal ?
A. Dilution with inert material.
1. Presence of non-biodegradable substances, like alkyl
Discharging to atmosphere through tall benzene sulphonate (ABS) from the detergents in
B. polluted water stream causes
stacks after dilution.
A. fire hazards.
C. Disposing off in rivers & oceans.
B. explosion hazards.
C. persistent foam.
D. depletion of dissolved oxygen.

The concentric layer in atmosphere which
contains about 70% of the total mass of
A. atmosphere and characterised by a
steady decrease in temperature is called
stratosphere.
Stratosphere is rich in ozone and is

B.
located just above the troposphere.
Troposphere is a turbulent dusty zone

C. containing much of water vapor and
clouds.
The earth's atmosphere is an envelope of

D. gases extending upto a height of about
200 kms.
3. Radioactive solid nuclear wastes are disposed off by

A. high temperature incineration.
B. pathological incineration.
C. pyrolysis.
underground burial in concrete

D.
containers.
4. Growth of __________ is promoted by the presence

of manganese in water.
A. files B. algae
micro-
C. D. mosquitoes
organisms
5. Average human body contains about __________

percent water by weight.
A. 20 B. 40
C. 70 D. 85
6. Noise level audible to audience sitting in the 5th row

from the stage during a large orchestra show
corresponds to about __________ decibels.
A. 105 B. 135
C. 160 D. 185
7. If carbon monoxide content in atmospheric air

exceeds __________ ppm, death is bound to occur.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 3000 (i.e. 0.3%)

1. Acid rains are produced by
(a) excess NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration. (1988, 89)
Answer and Explanation:
1. (a): Acid rain refers to the precipitation with a pH of less than 5. It is a mixture of H 2SO4 and
HNO3, the ratio of the two acids vary depending on the relative quantities of sulphur oxides and
nitrogen oxides present in the atmosphere. These oxides are mainly produced by combustion of
fossil fuels, smelters, industries, power plants, automobile exhausts etc.
2. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) sulphur dioxide.

2. (b): The common gaseous pollutants are oxides of carbon (CO and CO 2), oxides of nitrogen
(NO and NO2) oxides of sulphur (SO2 and SO3), all these together contribute 90% of the global air
pollution. Out of all these CO2 is not a pollutant normally, the green plants, by photosynthesis
balance the CO2 and O2 ratios in the air to a great extent, whereas others like carbon monoxide,
NO2 etc are poisonous gases.
3. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
(a) plankton
(b) nekton
(c) plankton and nekton
(d) benthos.

3. (a): Planktons are passively floating in upper water, nektons are actively swimming while
benthos lead sedentary life upon the sea bottom. Planktons are producers and are present in
large number.
4. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe between
(a) closely related organism growing in different niches
(b) closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche
(c) distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat
(d) distantly related organisms growing in different niches. (1988)
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4. (b): Competition is rivalry for obtaining the same resource. Competition of light, nutrients and
space is most severe between closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche, due to
overproduction of population in the same area/niche.
5. A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of both partners is
(a) mutualism/symbiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) amensalism
(d) both A and B.

5. (a): Mutualism is an association between individuals of two species, both of which are
benefitted but cannot live separately under natural conditions e.g. instances of mutualism exist
between animals and plants and also in between plants e.g. lichens. Ammensalism is an
interaction in which one species causes harm to another spices with its toxic secretion often
without gaining any benefit from the interaction. Commensalism is the relationship between
individuals of two species of which one is benefitted and the other is almost unaffected i.e.; neither
benefitted nor harmed.
6. What is true of ecosystem?
(a) primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(b) primary consumers out-number producers
(c) producers are more than primary consumers
(d) secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful.

6. (c): An ecosystem may be defined as a structural and functional unit of the biosphere
comprising living organisms and their non-living environment that interact by means of food chains
and chemical cycles resulting in energy flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form a stable,
self supporting system.
The organisms in an ecosystem are classified into 3 main categories-producers, consumers and
decomposers. The consumers utilize materials and energy stored by the producers. Decomposers
obtain their food molecules from the organic materials of dead producers and consumers. In a true
ecosystem, producers are more than consumers (herbivores and carnivores).
7. in an ecosystem, which one shows one-way passage

(a) free energy
(b) carbon
(c) nitrogen
(d) potassium.
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7. (a): The behaviour of energy in ecosystem can be termed energy flow due to unidirectional flow
of energy, Flow of energy is only in one direction i.e., from solar radiation —> producers —>
heribivorous —> carnivores. This energy cannot pass in the reverse direction. There is decrease
in the content and flow of energy with rise j in tropic level.
8. Green house effect is warming due to
(a) infra-red rays reaching earth
(b) moisture layer in atmosphere
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of atmosphere
(d) ozone layer of atmosphere.

8. (c): The mean global temperature rise by 2° – 6°c and the concentration of carbon dioxide
increases in the troposphere upto 600 ppm. Hence, the surface of the earth becomes warm which
causes global warming. The phenomenon is similar to that of green house in which the glass
enclosed atmosphere gets heated up due to its insulation from the rest of the environment. Hence,
global warming is also known as green house effect and the gases responsible for it are called
green house gases e.g CH4, CO2 etc.
9. Soil conservation is
(a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one
(b) aeration of soil
(c) erosion of soil
(d) protection against loss.

9. (d): Soil conservation is to conserve fertile soil from the losses like heavy rainfall, drainage, high
wind, flood, draught etc. Soil is the top cover of the earth in which plants can grow. The rotation of
crops, contour ploughing and use of proper fertilizers help in maintaining the fertility of soil.
Plantation of trees, controlled grazing of grasslands, reforestation, prevention of forests fires will
protect the erosion of top soil. The regulation of water resources to prevent flood will help not only
in soil conservation but also supply an adequate water supply in the period of drought.
10. The relation between algae and fungi in lichen is
(a) symbiosis
(b) parasitism
(c) commenalism
(d) protocooperation.

10. (a): Algae and fungi in a lichen show symbiotic relationship. Fungi give support to the algae,
give protection and help in absorption of water while algae provide food to fungi which is
achlorophyllous. No one is harmed but both are benefitted by each other.
11. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is
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(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) fluorocarbon.

11. (d): Aerosols are chlorofluoro-hydrocarbon compounds released into air with force in the form
of vapour. Main source of aerosols is the emission of jet planes, where fluorocarbons are used.
These chlorofluorocarbons deplete the ozone layer in the higher atmosphere. These CFC‘s have
produced a hole in the ozone layer.
12. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was
(a) methyl isocyanate
(b) potassium isothiocyanate
(c) sodium isothiocyanate
(d) ethyl isothiocyante.

12. (a): In Bhopal, the killer gas methyl isocyanate (MIC) was leaked into air from a chemical plant
(Union Carbide) killing more than 2,000 people, many of the people are still suffering from various
diseases and defects of eye.
13. Deforestation will decrease
(a) soil erosion
(c) soil fertility
(b) land slides
(d) rainfall.

13. (d): Deforestation is the conversion of forested areas to non-forest land use such as arable
land, pasture, urban use, logged area, or wasteland. Generally, the removal or destruction of
significant areas of forest cover has resulted in a degraded environment with reduced biodiversity.
Deforestation results from removal of trees without sufficient reforestation, and results in declines
in habitat and biodiversity, wood for fuel and industrial use, and quality of life. Due to
deforestation, transpiration will be decreased, air temperature will be increased and water content
will be decreased hence rainfall decreases.
14. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/tree ecosystem
(a) always inverted
(b) always upright
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) spindle-shaped.
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14. (b): Pyramid of number in a grassland/tree ecosystem is always upright. It shows the number
of individual organisms at each level. In grassland, the producers, which are mainly grasses, are
always maximum in number. This number then shows a decrease towards apex, primary
consumers are lesser in number than the grasses; the secondary consumers are lesser in number
than the primary consumers. Finally, the top consumers are least in number. Thus, the pyramid
becomes upright.
15. Domestic waste constitutes
(a) nonbiodegradable pollution
(b) biodegradable pollution
(c) effluents
(d) air pollution

15. (a): Domestic waste constitutes biodegradable pollution. These are also called non-
conservative pollutants. These are decomposed chemically or by activity of microorganisms into
harmless products and are recycled back into the atmosphere.
16. Acid rain is due to increase in atmospheric concentration of
(a) ozone and dust
(b) CO2 and CO

(c) SO2 and CO
(d) SO2 and NO2.
16. (d): SO2 and NO when present in large quantities dissolved in water vapour form sulphuric
acid and nitric acid which dissolve in rain water resulting in acid rain (H2SO4) and (HNO3) which in
turn causes great damage to forests and vegetation.
17. A non-renewable resource is
(a) nonrenewable nonconventional energy source
(b) nonrenewable conventional energy source
(c) renewable nonconventional energy source
(d) renewable conventional energy source.

17. (b): Conventional energy resources are those energy resources which are in common use,
e.g. animal power, fuel wood, fossil fuel and hydroelectric energy. These conventional energy
resources are non-renewable resources.
A non-renewable resource is a natural resource that cannot be re-made, re-grown or regenerated
on a sea!: comparative to its consumption. It exists in a fixed amount that is being renewed or is
used up faster than it can be made by nature. Often fossil fuels, such as coal, petroleum, and
natural gas are considered non-renewable resources, as they do not naturally re-form at a rate
that makes the way we use them sustainable.
18. Renewable source of energy is

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(a) biomass
(b) coal
(c) petroleum
(d) kerosene.

18. (a): A natural resource qualifies as a renewable resource if it is replenished by natural
processes at a rate comparable to its rate of consumption by humans or other users. Biomass, in
the energy production industry, refers to living and recently dead biological material which can be
used as fuel or for industrial production.
Most commonly, biomass refers to plant matter grown for use as biofuel, but it also includes plant
or animal matter used for production of fibres, chemicals or heat. Biomass may also include
biodegradable wastes that can be burnt as fuel. Renewable resources of energy include biomass
energy and some forms of inexhaustible energy like solar energy, hydropower, wind power, tidal
energy, wave energy, geothermal energy, etc. Coal, petroleum and kerosene are non-renewable
resources of energy.
19. Homeostasis is
(a) tendency of biological systems to change with change in environment
(b) tendency of biological systems to resist change
(c) disturbance of self regulatory system and natural controls
(d) biotic materials used in homeopathic medicines.

19. (b): The ability to maintain a steady state within constantly changing environment is essential
for the survival of living systems. The maintenance of a constant internal environment is called
homeostasis.
20. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion of
(a) sand and zinc
(b) gravel and calcium
(c) clay and humus
(d) silt and earthworm.

20. (c): Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion of clay and humus. The organic
matter present in the soil is contributed by the death and decay of living organisms. These are the
richest in nutrients and therefore these soils are the most fertile.
21. Soil water available to roots is
(a) surface water
(b) hygroscopic water

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(c) gravitational water
(d) capillary water.

21. (d): The spaces between the soil particles may be occupied by water or air. The rain water fills
all the pore spaces as it moves downward under the influence of gravity however very small pore
spaces serve as capillaries allowing the water to move against the pull of gravity, this is called
capillary water and is available to the roots.
Some water forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around the soil particles; it is termed as
hygroscopic water. Some water vapour is there in the soil pore spaces. The downward moving
water is called gravitational water.
22. Which one is true?

(a) commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each other
(b) symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations
(c) symbiosis when neither populations affects each other
(d) commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations.

22. (b): When the interactions is useful to both the populations it is called symbiosis. Symbiosis
means living together. It is beneficial co-action between two or more different species in which one
or both species are benefitted and neither species is harmed.
23. Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers
is
(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) consumer food chain
(d) predator food chain.

23. (b): The dead organic matter of plant or animal is called as detritus. While a part of it remains
on the soil surface as litter, the other part enters the soil. Many animals such as protozoan‘s,
nematodes, insects etc. depend on detritus and hence they are called as detrivores. Even the
human beings are detrivores when they eat cooked food. From detritus, the chain proceeds to
detrivores, then to carnivores and finally to top carnivores.
24. Pick up the correct food chain
(a) grass —> chamelion —> insect —> bird
(b) grass —> fox —> rabbit —» bird
(c) phytoplankton —> zooplankton —> fish
(d) fallen leaves —> bacteria —> insect larvae.

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24. (c): The process of transfer of energy from producers through a series of organisms, i.e., from
primary consumers to secondary consumers and from secondary consumers to tertiary
consumers by process of eating and being eaten constitute a food chain. The correct food chain is
phytoplankton —> zooplankton —> fish.
25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is
(a) mercury
(b) cadmium
(c) lead
(d) copper.

25. (c): Lead is the most hazardous metal pollutants of automobile exhausts. Its effects are lead
poisoning, anaemia, kidney disease and convulsions. It also affects central nervous system and
distorts the red blood corpuscles.
26. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
(a) retain nutrients
(b) hold organic materials
(c) hold water

(d) support life.

26. (d): Soil fertility is the characteristic of soil that supports abundant plant life. In particular the
term is used to describe agricultural and garden soil.
27. Petroleum is a
(a) synthetic product
(b) renewable resource
(c) nonrenewable resource
(d) inconvenient resource.

27. (c): A non-renewable resource is a natural resource that cannot be re-made, re-grown or
regenerated on a scale comparative to its consumption. It exists in a fixed amount that is being
renewed or is used up faster than it can be made by nature. Often fossil fuels, such as coal,
petroleum, and natural gas are considered non-renewable resources, as they do not naturally re-
form at a rate that makes the way we use them sustainable.
28. Minerals and metals are
(a) biodegradable resources
(b) renewable
(c) non-renewable
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(d) renewable and nonrenewable resources.

28. (d): Metals and minerals are both renewable and non-renewable resources. Non renewable
due to very long recycling in case of metals and some minerals but renewable due to shorter
recycling in case of biogenetic nutrients.
29. Soil fertility is reduced by
(a) crop rotation
(b) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(c) decaying organic matter
(d) intensive agriculture.

29. (d): Soil fertility is the characteristic of soil that supports abundant plant life. In particular the
term is used to describe agricultural and garden soil. During intensive agriculture most of the
nutrients and minerals are exhausted from the soil so fertility decreases.
30. Water is a resource that is
(a) nondegradable nonmaintainabie
(b) degradable maintainable
(c) renewable
(d) non-renewable.

30. (c): Water is a natural resource which get replenished, recycled or reproduced and should not
used beyond its renewability. It is a major renewabk inorganic resource which is an essential
component of living beings, a habitat for several organisms, determine of vegetation and climate,
floods and droughts, requite; for drinking, bathing, washing, cooling, constructor worth disposal of
sewage and industrial effluents irrigation eel.
31. River water deposits
(a) loamy soil
(b) alluvial soil
(c) laterite soil
(d) sandy soil

31. (b): River water deposit alluvial soil. Alluvial soils are transported by water.
32. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one
metre down. The reason for colour of top soil is
(a) more moisture
(b) rich in organic matter

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(c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
(d) recent formation.

32. (b): A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one
metre down. The reason for colour of top soil is rich in organic matter. The mineral component
constitutes some 50-60% of soil. It is present in the form of particles of different sizes.
33. Soil particles determine its
(a) texture
(b) field capacity
(c) water holding capacity
(d) soil flora.

33. (a): Soil particles determines its textures. These particles enclose living spaces in between
them call pore space. In coarse textured soils, the pore space is wide but pore frequency is low.
But in fine textured soil, the pore space is narrow but pore frequency is high.
34. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces
(a) fluorides
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) sulphur dioxide
(d) ozone.

34. (d): Ozone is generated in the lower atmosphere during the formation of photochemical smog
when nitrogen dioxide splits to produce reactive oxygen atoms which combine with molecular
oxygen. Oxygen molecules split under ultraviolet radiations to produce oxygen atoms which
combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone. It is this gas which forms the protective ozone
umbrella in the stratosphere and shield life from biocidal high energy radiations. It can also
damage DNA molecules and cause carcinogenesis.
35. American water plant that has become a troublesome water weed in India
(a) Cyperus rotundus
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Typha latifolia
(d) Trapa bispinosa.

35. (b): Eichhornia crassipes or water hyacinth (American water plant) has become the most
serious weed in many tropical, warm and temperate freshwater habitats worldwide including India.
It has the highest growth rate of any saltwater, freshwater or terrestrial vascular macrophvte and
can be labelled as an ―ecosystem engineer‖ or an invasive habitat modifier.
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In slow-moving to still water bodies it is especially problematic as it forms dense monospecific
mats that lower dissolved oxygen levels in the water, alter river hydrology and increase organic
sediment. These mats displace native aquatic plant and animal communities; drastically alter the
ecosystem and puts native habitats and wildlife at risk. Furthermore, water hyacinth may interfere
with the use of a water-body for cultural, social or commercial purposes causing substantial
economic hardship and putting livelihoods at risk.
36. Study of inter-relationships between organisms and their environment is

(a) ecology
(b) ecosystem
(c) phytogeography
(d) ethology.

36. (a): Ecology is the branch of science which deals it the study of inter relationship between
organisms their environment. The scope of ecology is very vast as it treats the organisms at the
level of population, community and ecosystem. Ethology is the study of evolution any significant
behaviour of people in their natural surroundings. Phytogeography is the branch of biogeography
that is concerned with the geographic distribution of plant species.
37. The sum total of the populations of the same kind of organisms constitute
(a) colony
(b) genus
(c) community
(d) species.

37. (d): The sum total of the populations of the same kind of organisms constitute species. A
species is a group of individuals of same kind of phenotypic characters and can interbreed.
38. Soil best suited for plant growth is
(a) clay
(b) loam
(c) sandy
(d) gravel.

38. (b): Soil best suited for plant growth is loam. Loam soils have sand, silt and clay in a specific
proportion. The soil contains 20% clay, 40% silt and 40% sand. They have good nutritive status
aeration and hydration.
39. Association of animals when both partners are benefitted
(a) colony
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(b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
(d) ammensalism.

39. (b): Mutualism is a type of association where both the partners are benefitted. This is
permanent and t obligatory association involving a physiological inter- dependence e.g. in lichens.
40. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of
(a) species in an area
(b) individuals in a community
(c) individuals in a tropic-level
(d) subspecies in a community.

40. (c): Pyramid of number is an ecological pyramid which employs the number of individuals per
unit area at various trophic levels sequence wise with producers at the base and various
consumers at successively higher levels. Pyramid of number assumes different shapes in different
ecosystems, individuals in a trophic level.
The pyramid of number in pond ecosystem is also upright. In forest ecosystem the pyramid of
number is inter mediate. Here the number of primary consumers is more than producers as well
as top consumers. In parasitic food chain the pyramid of number is inverted.
41. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is

(a) irregular
(b) inverted
(c) upright
(d) spindle shaped.

41. (c): Pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem is always upright, showing the number of
individual organisms at each level. In a pond, the producers, which are mainly phytoplanktons, are
always maximum in number. This number then shows a decrease towards apex, primary
consumers are lesser in number than the grasses; the secondary consumers are lesser in number
than the primary consumers. Finally, the top consumers are least in number. Thus, the pyramid
becomes upright.
42. Which among the following is likely to have the highest levels of D.D.T. depositions in
its body?
(a) sea gull
(b) phytoplankton
(c) eel
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(d) crab.

42. (a): Biomagnifications is the increase in concentration of a compound in the tissue of organism
as the compound passes up a food chain usually as a result of food intake. This results from the
accumulation of the compound at each trophic level prior to its consumption ―by organisms at the
next trophic level. Most chlorinated hydrocarbon like DDT shows biomagnifications. Level of
concentration of compound increases in higher trophic level as shown in the following chain.
Water —> phytoplanktons —> zooplanktons —> insects —> fish —> large fish
Higher the trophic level higher will be the accumulation of organic compound. Hence sea gull is
likely to have the highest level of DDT deposition in its body.
43. Which one of the following gases contributes maximum to the green house effect‟ on
the earth?
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) chlorofluoro carbon
(c) Freon
(d) methane.

43. (a): Due to excessive combustion activity, the content of CO2 in the atmosphere has been
steadily rising. CO2 is opaque to infra-red waves. Therefore, it allows the sunlight to fall on earth
but checks the loss of heat during night. As carbon dioxide accumulates in the atmosphere it
absorbs more and more of the reflected infrared radiation.
This could cause an increase in temperature referred to as the green house effect. Methane also
causes green house effect but comparatively lesser than CO2. Chlorofluorocarbons and Freon
cause depletion of ozone layers. Depletion of ozone layer leads to increase in incidence of skin
cancer due to increased penetration of sun‘s harmful rays.
44. The dominant second trophic level, in a lake ecosystem, is
(a) phytoplankton
(b) zooplankton
(c) benthos
(d) plankton.

44. (b): Trophic level is a step or division of food chain which is characterized by the method of
obtaining its food. The two fundamental trophic levels are producers and consumers. Producers
belong to the first trophic level. In a lake the producers are mainly some rooted or floating plants
and phytoplanktons.
Primary consumers form the second trophic level. They feed on living plants or plant parts. The
primary consumers are zooplanktons.
45. Sounds above what level are considered hazardous noise pollution?
(a) above 80 dB
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(c) above 150 dB
(b) above 30 dB
(d) above 120 dB.

45. (d): Noise level are expressed on a logarithmic scale of decibels. The baseline noise levels in
the community vary around 40 dB. International standards prescribe a maximum of 50 dB for day
and 40 dB for night time in a residential area. Noise over 115 dB is regarded as highly avoidable.
The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends an industrial noise limit of 75 dB.
46 A disease caused by eating fish contaminated by industrial waste, containing mercury
compounds, is called
(a) osteosclerosis
(b) Hashimoto‘s oxidase
(c) Bright‘s disease
(d) minimata disease.

46. (d): Mercury gets changed to water soluble dim ethyl mercury which undergoes
biomagnifications.
Eating poisoned animals causes deformity known as minamata disease (first reported in 1952 due
to eating of fish captured from Hg-contaminated Minamata Bay of Japan) which is characterised
by diarrhoea, hemolysis, impairment of various senses, numbness of lips, tongue, limbs,
deafness, blurring of vision, mental derangement, meningitis and death.
47. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its B.O.D. will
(a) slightly decrease
(b) remain unchanged
(c) increase
(d) decrease.

47. (c): BOD is biochemical oxygen demand which is the oxygen in mg required for 5 days in 1
litre of water at 20°C for the micro-organisms to metabolize organic waste. Due to dumping of
huge amount of sewage, the oxygen levels are depleted, which are reflected in terms of BOD
values of water. With dumping of wastes number of microbes also increases tremendously and
these also consume most of the oxygen, so BOD of the river will increase.
48. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be
adversely affected, because
(a) mineral movement will be blocked
(b) the rate of decomposition will be very high
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(c) energy flow will be blocked
(d) herbivores will not receive solar energy.

48. (a): Decomposers are aprotrophs which decompose the organic remains by secreting
extracellular digestive enzymes. They are also known as mineralisers as they release minerals
trapped in organic remains. So in the absence of microorganisms the flow of mineral will stop.
49. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are
(a) detritivores
(b) herbivores
(c) carnivores
(d) omnivores.

49. (b): Consumers are heterotrophs, mostly animals which feed on other organisms. Herbivores
feed on producers. This is because the herbivores obtain their food directly from plants. The
carnivores which feed on herbivores are called as primary carnivores or second order consumers.
The animals which feed on primary carnivores are called secondary carnivores. Omnivores eact
both plants and animals therefore they are called third order consumers. Detrivores or scavengers
are animals which feed on dead bodies of other organisms.
50. The abundance of a species population, within its habitat, is called
(a) relative density
(b) regional density
(c) absolute density
(d) niche density.

50. (d): Niche is specific part of habitat occupied by individuals of a species which is circumsribed
by its range of tolerance, range of movement, microclimate, type of food and its availability,
shelter, type of predator, and timing of activity. A habitat has several ecological niches and
supports a number of species. An ecological niche is used by a single species. Two or more
species cannot use the same niche despite having a mutualistic association. The abundances of a
species population within its habitat is called niche density.
51. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
(c) chlorine
(d) sulphur-dioxide.

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51. (d): The Taj Mahal is built with white marble and is threatened by environmental pollution,
especially due to sulphur dioxide. Sulphur dioxide is produced during combustion of fossil fuels,
refining of petroleum and smelting of sulphur containing ores. Threat to Taj Mahal from Mathura
refinery is due to pollutant gases composing SO2, H2S and nitrogen oxides. They would convert
CaCO, (marble) into calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate.
52. In Minamata Bay Japan the animals which remained free from minamata disease, are
(a) dogs
(b) cats
(c) pigs
(d) rabbits.

52. (d): Minamata disease is caused because of eating of poisoned animals which contain water
soluble dimethyl mercury which undergoes biomagnification. Thus animals which feed on marine
animals (especially fish) and plants suffered from this disease, rabbits remained free from this
disease because they feed on terrestrial plants.
53. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?
(a) phosphorus and nitrogen
(b) phosphorus and sulphur
(c) oxygen and nitrogen
(d) phosphorus and carbon dioxide.

53. (b): The term biogeochemical cycling is useful exchanges/circulation of biogeochemical
nutrients between living and nonliving components of biosphere. In sedimentary cycle of matter,
materials involved in circulation between biotic and biotic components of biosphere are
nongaseous and the reservoir pool is lithosphere, e.g., phosphorus, calcium, magnesium. Sulphur
has both sedimentary and gaseous phase. O2, N2 and CO2 do not have sedimentary phase but
are gaseous cycle.
54. The toxic effect of carbon monoxide is due to its greater affinity for haemoglobin as
compared to oxygen approximately by
(a) 200 times
(b) 1000 times
(c) 2 times
(d) 20 times.

54. (a): Carbon monoxide but are gaseous cycle is produced due to incomplete combustion,
metallurgical operations and naturally by plants as well as animals. Carbon monoxide has 200
times more affinity within haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. Cabon monoxide combines with
haemoglobin of blood and forms a stable compound called carboxyhaemoglobin. At 50 ppm, CO
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converts 7.5% of haemoglobin into carboxy-haemoglobin within 8 hours. It impairs oxygen
transport resulting in headache, decreased vision, and cardiovascular malfunction and asphyxial.
55. Which of the following isotopes is most dangerous to Homosapiensl?
(a) phosphorus-32
(b) strontium-90
(c) caesium-137
(d) iodine-131.

55. (b): Strontium-90 is a long lived radionuclide. It tends to cycle like calcium.lt causes bone
cancer, blood and tissue degeneration.
56. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) mountain
(b) ocean
(c) forest
(d) desert.

56. (b): Of all the ecosystems, ocean is the largest and most stable ecosystem. Aquatic life is
protected from vigorous climates and weather that are climatic conditions, problem of water
supply, food, fire and artificial forces such as industrialization, farming and grazing are lacking in
the oceans. The sea is continuous and not separated as land and freshwater habitats.
57. The primary succession refers to the development of communities on a
(a) forest clearing after devastating fire
(b) newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation
(c) freshly cleared crop field
(d) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase.

57. (b): When succession begins on an area which has not been previously being occupied by a
community e.g. a new exposed rock area, sand dunes, new islands, deltas, shore or recent lava
flow, it is known as primary succession. The first group of organisms (plants or animals) which
become established in such an area is termed the pioneer community.
58. A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of certain
chemical element in drinking water. Which of the following is that element?
(a) fluorine
(b) boron
(c) mercury
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(d) chlorine.

58. (a): Flourides are given out during refining of materials. Flourides cause flourosis. It is a
disease which is defined by mottling of teeth, abnormal bones that are liable to fracture because
fluorine replaces Ca2+ and makes the bones brittle. Flouride pollution is a serious problem in many
districts of Rajasthan, where excess of flouride in water adversely affects the health of man. Many
villagers have aged prematurely or became hunch backs.
59. Which of the following is the main factor of desertification?
(a) over-grazing
(b) tourism
(c) irrigated agriculture
(d) all of these.

59. (a): Desertification means a process of spread of desert that occurs due to degradation of
environment, cutting of trees, soil erosion etc. It can be natural or manmade. The main causes for
desertification are over cultivation of poor soils, over grazing by animals, excessive cutting of fuel
wood and inappropriate irrigation practises resulting in salinization. Among them overgrazing is
the most important factor as it causes maximum effect.
60. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) parasitism – intra-specific relationship
(b) uricotelism – aquatic habitat
(c) excessive perspiration – xeric adaptation
(d) stream lined body – aquatic adaptation.

60. (d): Streaming body is a secondary aquatic adaption. It is found in animals that live
permanently in water but most of them are amphibious in nature. The stream lined body consists
of compression of head, body and tail into a curved stream lined form.
There is no protruberance over the body so that the animal can move easily through water.
Parasitism is a relationship between two organisms of different species in which one organism
called parasite obtains its food directly from another living organism called host.
In xeric adaptation perspiration is reduced to conserve water. Uricotelism is characteristic of

terrestrial animals which excrete uric acid.
61. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively
isolated, are designated as
(a) clones
(b) sibling species
(c) clines
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(d) denies.

61. (c): Clones are populations of genetically similar cells of individuals. Such a population is
obtained either by mitosis or by asexual reproduction by parthenogenesis from a single plant.
Clines are a morphological or genetic gradation of a species in a geographical area. Demes are a
group of individuals which are capable of interbreeding. Siblings are the off springs of same male
and female parents.
62. The true statement about „green-house effect‟ is that it is
(a) caused by combination of many gases
(b) caused only by CO2

(c) caused by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
(d) none of these.

62. (c): Green house effect is warming effect found in green house by allowing solar radiations to
pass in but preventing long range heat radiations to pass out. The gases which are transparent to
solar radiation but retain and partially reflect back long wave heat radiations are called green
house gases.
Recently the concentration of green house gases has started rising resulting in enhanced green
house effect that is thus increasing the mean global temperature. It is called global warming. The
various greenhouse gases are C02 (warming 60%), CH4 (effect 20%), chloroflourocarbons or
CFCs (1.4%) and nitrous oxide (N20, 6%). Others of minor significance are water vapours and
ozone.
63. Benthoic animals are those, which
(a) are submerged in area
(b) float on the sea surface
(c) are deep dweller in sea
(d) are floating (free) organisms.

63. (c): Benthoic organisms are attached or rest on the bottom sediments. Benthic animal may be
divided into filter feeders, e.g. clams and deposit feeders e.g. snails.
64. Which country has the greatest contribution for the whole formation in ozone layer?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) Germany.

64. (c): Depletion in the concentration of ozone over a restricted area as spring time decline over
Antartica is called ozone hole. Depletion of ozone is due to action of sunlight over pollutants which
release chemicals (e.g., chlorine) that destroy ozone. The major are chloroflouroarbons (14% of
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total depletion), nitrogen oxides (3.5% deplection sulphur dioxide, halon, carbon tetrachloride,
methyl chloroform, chlorine, etc. Major contributor of these gases is USA.
65. The „niche‟ of a species is meant for
(a) habitat and specific functions of a species
(b) specific place where an organism lives
(c) specific species function and its competitive power
(d) none of these.

65. (a): Niche is specific part of habitat occupied by individuals of a species which is
circumscribed by its range of tolerance, range of movement, microclimate, type of food and its
availability, shelter, type of predator, and timing of activity.
A habitat has several ecological niches and supports a number of species. An ecological niche is
used by a single species. Two or more species cannot use the same niche despite having a
mutualistic association.
66. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively
occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1986
(b) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1990
(d) Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1988

66. (a): The Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on 3rd Dec. 1984 in which methyl isocyanate gas was
released from a fertilizer manufacturing plant of Union Carbide causing death of approximately
2500 persons. Chernobyl disaster occurred on April 26, 1986, from an explosion at the chernobvl
power station which released a huge radioactive cloud into the atmosphere in Ukrain.
67. The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by
(a) Lindemann
(b) Tansley
(c) Stanley
(d) Weismann.

67. (a): Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional. Only 10% of the gross productivity
of producers is entrapped by herbivores for their body building. Herbivores are eaten by
carnivores. Only 10% of the herbivore productivity is utilized for raising productivity of primary
carnivores. The rest is consumed in ingestion, respiration, maintance of body heat and other
activities. Higher carnivores similarly are able to retain only 10% of energy present in primary
carnivores. This is called the 10% law. It was given by Lindemann in 1942.
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68. The most common indicator organism that represents polluted water is
(a) C.vibrio
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) E.coli
(d) P.typhi.

68. (c): E. coli is the most common indicator of water pollution. It naturally occurs in the intestines
of human beings and animals. They are commonly found in sewage and if E. coli is detected in
water then it indicates fecal contamination. So if E. coli are detected in drinking water it indicates a
serious health risk and that water-should not be used for drinking.
69. In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to
(a) water pollution
(b) depletion of ozone layer
(c) pollutants in air
(d) use of detergents.

69. (b): Ozone layer or shield is present in stratosphere. It functions as a shield against strong UV
radiations. Protection from UV radiations is proportional to thickness of ozone layer. Depletion in
the concentration of ozone over a restricted area as spring time decline over Antartica is called
ozone hole. Thinning of ozone layer increases the amount of UV-B radiations reaching the earth.
It would increase occurrence of cataract, skin cancers, herpes, dimming of eye sight, photo
burning, deficient functioning of immune system.
70. During adverse season, therophytes survive by

(a) rhizomes
(b) seeds
(c) bulbs
(d) corms.

70. (b): Therophytes are those plants that survive the winter as a seed and complete their life
cycle between the spring and autumn.
71. MAB stands for
(a) mammals and biosphere
(b) mammals and biology programme
(c) man and biology programme
(d) man and biosphere programme.

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71. (d): Man and biosphere programme is an international biological programme of UNESCO
(United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation) which was started in 1971 but
was introduced in India in 1986. MAB has studied human environment, impact of human
interference and pollution on biotic and a biotic environments and conservation strategies for the
present as well as future.
72. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a) Europe
(b) Africa
(c) India
(d) Antarctica.

72. (d): Depletion in the concentration of ozone over a restricted area as spring time decline over
Antartica is called ozone hole. An ozone hole was discovered over Antartica by Faman et al,
1985. It is quite large (23 million square km in 1992 and 28.3 million square km in 2000). A small
ozone hole also occurs over North Pole, it was discovered in 1990. Thinning of ozone shield has
also been reported elsewhere (e.g., 8% between 30° – 50° N).
73. Which of the following ecosystem has the highest gross primary productivity?
(a) mangroves
(b) rain forest
(c) grassland
(d) coral reef.

73. (b): Gross primary productivity is the total rate of photosynthesis, including the organic matter
used up in | respiration during the measurement period.
Tropical evergreen/rain forests occur over equatorial/ subequatorial regions with abundant warmth
and rainfall (200-350 cm/yr) almost throughout the year. The forests are impenetrable (= jungle)
with maximum diversity, e.g., 200 types of trees in one hectare, 70-80% of all insects 80 85% of
all birds. Productivity is maximum here, 12000 kcal/m2/yr.
74. Phosphate pollution is caused by
(a) sewage and phosphate rock
(b) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
(c) phosphate rock only
(d) agricultural fertilizers only.

74. (b): Phosphate is an important compound of fertilizer which are added to crop fields and then
are passed down to water bodies during rains through run off. It is also present in sewage that is
dumped into the water body. This nutrient brings about dense growth of water plants especially
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the algae and cause algal bloom. This algal bloom leads to oxygen depletion in water bodies and
causes death of aquatic life.
75. Which of the following acts as “nature‟s scavengers”?
(a) insects
(b) microorganisms
(c) man
(d) animals.

75. (b): Microorganisms (bacteria and mould) are decomposers of the ecosystem. They feed upon
dead decaying organisms (both plant and animals) and break them into simpler compounds.
These are released free in the atmosphere and are utilized by producers for the synthesis of their
food materials. They are called nature‘s scavengers as they are consumers of dead matter.
76. In desert grasslands, which type of animals are relatively more abundant?
(a) aquatic
(b) fossorial
(c) diurnal
(d) arboreal.

76. (b): In deserts animals prefer to live under the earth‘s surface. Such animals are called
fossorial. The animal residing either permanently or for most of life inside the burrows or under the
earth surface are known as burrowing or fossorial animals and their mode of existence is
described as subterranean or underground.
(a) O2 layer
(b) O3 layer
(c) CO2 layer
(d) SO2 layer.
77. (b): Depletion of ozone is due to action of sunlight over pollutants which release chemicals
(e.g., chlorine) that destroy ozone. Ozone depleting substances react with ozone present in the
stratosphere and destroy the same. The major ODS are chloroflourocabons (14% of total
depletion), nitrogen oxides (3.5% depletion sulphur dioxide, halon, carbon tetrachloride, methyl
chloroform, chlorine, etc. Many of these are being released by jets flying in the stratosphere and
rockets being fired into space.
78. Which one of the following organisms is used as indicator of water quality?
(a) Azospirilluni
(b) Escherichia
(c) Biggiata
(d) Chlorella.
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78. (b): Refer answer 68.
79. If there was no C02 in the earth‟s atmosphere, the temperature of earth‟s surface would
be
(a) higher than the present
(b) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(c) same as present
(d) less than the present.

79. (d): Carbon dioxide is one of the important green house gas. It allows the shorter wavelength
of infra red radiations to pass through it but does not allow these radiations to leave the earth‘s
atmosphere. This results in warming of the atmosphere. If the amount of CO 2 decreases then
there will not be any increase in temperature.
80. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis represent examples of tropical
(a) deciduous forests
(b) evergreen forests
(c) grass lands
(d) thorn forests.

80. (d): Tropical shrubs or thorn forests are found in places where moisture conditions are
intermediate between desert and savanna on one hand and seasonal or rain forests on the other
hand. Acacia and Prosopis is non-succulent perennial plants and Capparis is a prophetic shrub.
81. Carbon mono-oxide is a pollutant because
(a) reacts with haemoglobin
(b) makes nervous system inactive
(c) it reacts with O2

(d) it inhibits glycolysis.

81. (a): Refer answer 54.
82. How carbon monoxide, emitted by automobiles, prevents transport of oxygen in the
body tissues?
(a) by forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
(b) by obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin
(c) by changing oxygen into carbon dioxide
(d) by destroying the haemoglobin.
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83. In a terrestrial ecosystem such as forest, maximum energy is in which trophic level?
(a) T3
(b) T4
(c) T1
(d) T2

83. (c): Each successive level of nourishment as represented by the links of the food chain is
known as a trophic level. The plant producers within an ecosystem constitute the first trophic level,
the herbivores form the second trophic level, and the carnivores represent third level. Additional
links in the main food chain and inside chains such as those formed by parasites constitute further
trophic levels. In a terrestrial ecosystem maximum energy is in trophic level because the
organisms which trap solar energy are primary producers and they have got maximum energy.
Only 10% energy is transferred from one trophic level to next trophic level.
84. Which of the following communities is more vulnerable to invasion by outside animals
and plants?
(a) temperate forests
(b) oceanic island communities
(c) mangroves
(d) tropical evergreen forests.

84. (d): Tropical forests are found in tropical zone of the world and are characterised by very high
temperature with rainfall in abundance. The flora of tropical rain forest is very rich and highly
diversified. The tropical forests have a very rich fauna both in density as well as in varieties. The
reason for this high diversity and variety of flora and fauna is the occurrence of suitable conditions
in these forests. So these are more vulnerable to invasion by outside plants and animals.
85. The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules
is the ecosystems
(a) net secondary productivity
(b) gross primary productivity
(c) net primary productivity
(d) gross secondary productivity.

85. (b): Gross primary productivity is the total energy stored in the food materials synthesized by
the green plants or total rate of photosynthesis including the organic matter used up in the
respiration during total photosynthesis or total assimilation.
86. The Minamata disease in Japan was caused through the pollution of water by
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(a) cyanide
(b) methyl isocyanate
(c) lead
(d) mercury.

86. (d): Mercury is changed to water soluble dim ethyl mercury which undergoes biomagnification.
Eating poisoned animals causes deformity known as minamata disease (first reported in 1952 due
to eating of fish captured from Hg-contaminated minimata Bay of Japan) which is characterised by
diarrhoea, hemolysis, impairment of various senses, numbness of lips, tounge, limbs, deafness,
blurring of vision, mental dearrangement, meningitis and death.
87. D.D.T. is
(a) not a pollutant
(b) an antibiotic
(c) a non-degradable pollutant
(d) a biodegradable pollutant.

87. (c): DDT (dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane) is a non-biodegradable pesticide. It is persistent,
fat soluble and shows biomagnification. So they are more harmful to higher tropic level organisms.
88. Which of the following organism is likely to have more concentration of D.D.T. in its
body?
(a) top carnivores
(b) primary producers
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores.

88. (a): DDT is fat soluble and persistent pesticide that shows biomagnification. It means that its
concentration increase at each trophic level of food chain. Therefore top carnivores will have more
concentration of toxic materials in their body.
89. Which of the following is pollution related disorder?
(a) silicosis
(b) pneumonicosis
(c) fluorosis
(d) leprosis.

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89. (c): Flourides are given out during refining of metals. Flourides cause flourosis. This is a
pollution Telated dissorder. When the level of flouride content in drinking water becomes as high
as 3 to 12 mg/L, the water becomes polluted. It affects teeth as well as bones.
90. Energy transfer from one trophic level to other, in a food chain, is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 1%
(d) 2%.

91. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due to leakage of
(a) potassium isocyanate
(b) methyl isocyanate
(c) sodium monoxide
(d) none of these.

91. (b): Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on 3 Dec 1984 in which a storage tank containing 36 tonnes
of methyl isocyanate (MIC) burst in pesticide manufacturing plant of Union Carbide in Bhopal. MIC
is one of the deadliest toxins which when inhaled even in very small dose can kill the animal. It is
highly irritating to skin, eyes or mucus membrane and causes death by lung oedema. It is also a
carcinogenic agent.
92. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(a) PAN
(b) aerosol
(c) CO
(d) CO2
92. (a): Secondary pollutant is formed from a primary one through change or reaction. The
secondary pollutants are more toxic than primary ones. Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons react
photocheniically to produce peroxyacyl nitrates and ozone. Peroxyacyl nitrates are produced due
to photochemical reactions between nitrogen oxides and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
93. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms?
(a) deciduous forests
(b) tropical rain forests
(c) grasslands
(d) savannahs.
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93. (b): Trophical forests are found in trophical zone of the world and are characterised by very
high temperature with rainfall in abundance. The flora of trophical rain forest is very rich and highly
diversified. The trophical forests have a very rich fauna both in density as well as in varieties. The
reason for this high diversity and variety of flora and fauna is the occurence of suitable conditions
in these forests.
94. The maximum biomagnifications would be in which of the following in case of aquatic
ecosystem?
(a) zooplanktons
(b) phytoplanktons
(c) fishes
(d) birds.

94. (c): Pesticides sprayed over crops also pass into water bodies due to surface run-off. In
excess they cause immediate and mass scale deaths of aquatic animals. Persistant pesticides
(e.g. organ chlorine or chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT) pass into food chain and increase in
amount per unit weight of organisms with the rise in trophic level due to their accumulation in fat.
The phenomenon is called biomagnification. e.g. 0.01-0.05 parts per billion in water, 25 parts per
billion or 0.025 ppm in phytoplankton, 0.123 ppm in zooplankton, 1.04 ppm in clams and small
fish, 4.83 ppm in predator fish and 124 ppm in fish eating birds like Sea Gulls. So the maximum
biomagnification occurs in fishes in case of aquatic ecosystem.
95. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution?

(a) they promote pollution
(b) lichens are not related with pollution
(c) they treat the polluted water
(d) they act as bioindicators of pollutions.

95. (d): Lichens are bioindicators of air pollution. The algal symbiont of lichen is most vulnerable
to s02pollution. The following chemical reactions take place during chlorophyll degradation of the
phycobiont under the influence of SO2.
96. Land mass occupied by forest is about
(a) 30%
(b) 60%
(c) 11%
(d) 22%.
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96. (a): Land forms about 1/5 of the earth‘s surface. About 36.6% of the land area is covered by
houses factories, roads, desert etc. And about 30% by forests, and about 22% meadows and only
11% land area is fit for tilling.
97. Which is the result of damage to relative biological effectiveness?
(a) high temperature
(b) pollution
(c) radiation
(d) low temperature.

97. (b): Pollution is any change in physical, chemical or biological charecteristics of the
environment that has the potentiality to harm human life, life of other desirable species, natural
resources, cultural assests and industries. Another type of pollution ;s increase in C02 and other
greenhouse gases and a decrease in stratospheric ozone on global scale which would be
affecting air, water and land resources, biological diversity and human health. Thus pollution
results in damage to biological effectiveness.
98. Which is the reason for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem?
(a) nano plankton, blue green algae, green algae
(b) sea grass, and slime moulds
(c) benthoic and brown algae
(d) diatoms.
98. (c): The benthic region includes all the sea floor from the wave-washed ashore-line to the
greatest depths. Depending upon the penetration of light it is subdivided into two main zones: the
lighted or littoral zone and the deep sea system. Due to abundance of light, water, oxygen, carbon
dioxide and less salanity of water, the tidal zone is characterized by exhorbitant growth of plants.
The dense growth of vegetation, on the other hand, provides shelter and food for animals. A wide
variety of algae, few grasses and animals of every phylum of animal kingdom are represented in
this region.
99. What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of plants?
(a) 3.4 – 5.4
(b) 6.5 – 7.5
(c) 4.5 – 8.5
(d) 5.5 – 6.5.

99. (d): Soil nature is described in pH values. It can be alkaline, acidic or neutral. Highly acidic
and highly saline soil often remain injurious for plant growth, micro organisms etc. Soil pH strongly
affects the microbial activities. Neutral or slightly acidic soil (5.5 -6.5) remain best for growth of
majority of plants.
100. What is B.O.D.?
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(a) The amount of O2 utilized by organisms in water
(b) The amount of O2 utilized by micro-organisms for decomposition
(c) The total amount of P2 present in water
(d) All of the above.

100. (b): Strength of sewage or degree of water pollution is measured in terms of BOD
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) value. BOD may be defined as, ‗number of milligrams of
O2 required for decomposition of one litre of waste or water by decomposing microorganisms
(bacteria)‘.
101. What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation
(a) 10-20 dB
(b) 30-60 dB
(c) 70-90 dB
(d) 120-150 dB.

101. (b): Unit of sound level is decibel. As reference intensity, sound of noise level is taken as 100
dB. 10 dB is ten times the threshold intensity, 20 dB 100 times, 40 dB is 10 4,100 times the
threshold intensity. Moderate conversation produces 60 dB sounds. Unwanted sound is noise and
is therefore pollutant.
102. Plant decomposers are
(a) monera and fungi
(b) fungi and plants
(c) protista and animalia
(d) animalia and Monera.

102. (a): Microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) are decomposers of the ecosystem. They feed upon
dead decaying living organisms (both plant and animals) and break them into simpler compounds.
These are released free in the atmosphere and are utilized by producers for i the synthesis of their
food materials. They mainly belong to monera and fungi.
103. Which of the following is absent in polluted water?
(a) Hydrilla
(b) water hyacinth
(c) larva of stone fly
(d) blue green algae.

103. (c): Stone fly (plecoptera order) larva requires well aerated, non polluted water. It is absent in
polluted water.
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104. What is true for individuals of same species?
(a) live in same niche
(b) live in same habitat
(c) interbreeding
(d) live in different habitat.

104. (c): Species may be defined as the uniform interbreeding population of individuals which
freely interbreed among themselves. Niche represents the habitat and functions of a species.
Habitat is a specific place where an organisms lives.
105. Maximum green house gas released by which of the following country?
(a) India
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Britain.

105. (c): Refer answer 64.
106. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating
agent:
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) coperation
(d) co-evolution.

106. (d): Co-evolution can occur in any interspecific relationship like symbiosis or mutualism. The
relation between an entomophilous flower and pollinating insect shows co-evolved mutualism. In
this the plant depends exclusively on the insect for pollination and the insect relies on the plant for
food.
107. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This
law is
(a) Allen‘s law
(b) Gause‘s hypothesis
(c) Dollo‘s rule
(d) Weisman‘s theory.

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107. (b): Interspecific competition is rivalry amongst members of different species. The severity of
competition depends upon similarity in the requirement of food and shelter. Every type of
organism has a particular niche; no two organisms can live in same niche. One of the two is
eliminated. This phenomenon is called Gause hypothesis of competitive exclusion. Different
organisms develop different types of variations in order to exploit niches, e.g. 14 species of
Finches in Galapagos Islands.
Allen‘s law states that there is tendency of smaller extremities like ear, nose, tail etc in animals
living in colder climate.
Weisman‘s germplasm theory was the ultimate blow-to discards lamarckism.
Dollo‘s law proposed that evolution is irreversible.
108. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what will be the trophic level of it?
(a) first trophic level (T1)
(b) second trophic level (T2)
(c) third trophic level (T3)
(d) fourth trophic level (T4).
108. (a): Trophic structure of ecosystem is a type of producer-consumer arrangement, in which
each food level is called trophic level and the graphical representation of trophic structure of
ecosystem constitutes ecological pyramids. The green plants are producers and represent the first
trophic level (T1).
So bamboo plant is the first trophic level (T1).
109. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating
agent
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) co-operation
(d) co-evolution

109. (d): Co evolution may be defined as, ―evolution in two species that interact extensively with
one another so that each acts as a major force of natural selection on the other‖. When two
species or two populations of a single species interact extensively, each exerts strong selective
pressures on the other. When one evolves a new feature or modifies an old one, the other
generally evolves new adaptations in response.
This constant, mutual feedback between two species is called co evolution. Animal-pollinated
flowers must attract useful pollinators and frustrate undesirable visitors eating nectar or pollen
without fertilizing the flower in return. The animals, in turn, have been under selective pressures to
locate flowers quickly and identify the flowers that can provide them with sufficient nutrition in
terms of nectar or pollen with minimum expenditure of energy. So that the entomophilous flower
and the insects have coevolved.
110. Fluoride pollution mainly affects

(a) brain
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(b) heart
(c) teeth
(d) kidney

111. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with
(a) heavy metals
(b) faecal matter
(c) industrial effluents
(d) pollen of aquatic plants

111. (b): Refer answer 68.
112. Mycorrhiza is an example of
(a) symbiotic relationship
(b) ectoparasitism
(c) endoparasitism
(d) decomposers

112. (a): In mutalism or symbosis both the organisms in association are mutually benefitted and
further this association is obligatory, i.e., necessary for existence of both organisms. Mycorrhiza is
a example of symbiosis. It is association between roots of higher plants and fungal hyphae. The
fungal hyphae supply water and nutrients to the plant and in turn get food form the plant. So both
the organism are mutually benefitted.
113. Certain characteristic demographic developing countries are
(a) high fertility, low or rapidly fall rate, rapid population growth and age distribution
(b) high fertility, high density, mortality rate and a very young age
(c) high infant mortality, low fertility population growth and a very distribution
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven growth and a very old age distribution.

113. (a): In developing countries the conditions are becoming better for survival of human beings.
So the mortality rate or the number of individuals dying per unit of time is low.
Mortality or the average number of individuals produced by a population in a unit of time is high.
So that there is rapid population growth and there are more individuals in the pre-reproductive age
group. So there is young age distribution.
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114. What is a keystone species?
(a) a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has
a huge impact community‘s organization and s
(b) a common species that has plenty of biomass yet has a fairly low impact on the community
organization
(c) a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
(d) a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many
other species.

114. (a): Keystone species are those species which has significant and disproportionately large
influence on the community structure and characteristics. It has often considerably low abundance
and biomass as compared to dominant species. Removal of such species causes serious
disruption in structure and function of community.
115. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem?
(a) secondary production
(b) tertiary production
(c) gross production (GP)
(d) net production (NP)

115. (c): Productivity is rate of accumulation of energy containing organic matter by an ecosystem
per unit area per unit time. It is of two types primary and secondary. Productivity at producer‘s
level is known as primary productivity. It is two types. Gross primary productivity is primary
productivity including that amount which is utilized in respiration and other metabolic activities. Net
primary productivity (NPP) is primary productivity in excess to that which is utilised in respiration
and other metabolic activities.
Secondary productivity is productivity at consumer‘s level. Since gross production includes total
production including the amount utilized in respiration and other metabolic activities so it is more
than other forms of productivity.
NP = GP – Respiration
116. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate
(a) reacted with DDT
(b) reacted with ammonia
(c) reacted with CO2

(d) reacted with water.
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116. (d): Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on 3 Dec. 1984 in a Union Carbide pesticide plant. When
water and MIC mixed, an exothermic chemical reaction started, which produced a lot of heat. As a
result, the safety valve of the tank burst because of the increase in pressure. This burst was so
violent that even the concrete around the tank also broke.
The high moisture content (aerosol) in the discharge while evaporating gave rise to a heavy gas
which rapidly sank to the ground. It caused several of the following ailments like partial or
complete blindness, disorders like, gastrointestinal disorders in many surviving people.
117. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is

(a) 20 g / 100 ml
(b) 30 g / 100 ml
(c) 4 – 6 g / 100 ml
(d) 10 g / 100 ml.

117. (b): Lead (Pb) is released by combustion of petrol as tetra ethyl lead is used as antiknock in
petrol. This lead is very harmful and causes plumbism or lead poisoning, which disturbs nervous
system, liver, kidneys in adults and also causes brain damage in children. About 150 to 400 mg of
lead is stored in the body of an average adult and blood levels average about 25 pig/100 ml.
Increase to 70 ng/100 ml of blood is generally associated with clinical symptoms. Hence a level
of30 (ig/100 ml should be considered alarming.
118. In which one of the following pairs is the specific characteristic of a soil not correctly
method?
(a) Laterite – contains aluminium compound
(b) Terra rosa – most suitable for roses
(c) Chernozems – richest soil in the world
(d) black soil – rich in calcium carbonate.

118. (d): Black soil forms the largest group. It is developed mainly on the Deccan traps of
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar. Because of its hydrology and climatic conditions of
the environment, the medium and deep black soils are very suitable for cotton cultivation. Laterite
soil is rich in insoluble iron oxides and aluminium compounds, which gives laterites a reddish
appearance. Chernozems are rich in nutrients (due to abundant organic rich compounds) and
consequently the most fertile in the world.
119. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if
damaging effect stops will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience.
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119. (a): Stability can be defined as the power of a system to be in their state against
unfavourable factors and resilience is the capability of regaining its original shape or position after
being deformed. An ecosystem can be damaged easily and it must be having high resilence.
120. The maximum growth rate occurs in
(a) stationary phase
(b) senescent phase
(c) lag phase
(d) exponential phase.

120. (d): Maximum growth rate occurs in exponential or acceleration or log phase. The point at
which the exponential growth begins to slow down is known as inflexion point.
121. Common indicator organism of water pollution is
(a) Lemna pancicostata
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Entamoeba histolytica.

122. In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface
vary most?
(a) shrub land
(b) forest
(c) desert
(d) grassland.

122. (c): Deserts are places where the diurnal temperatures vary greatly. It is extremely hot during
the day time and very cold at night. This change in temperature also affects the temperature
condition of the soil.
123. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an
area?
(a) by tissue culture method
(b) by creating biosphere reserve
(c) by creating botanical garden
(d) by developing seed bank.
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123. (b): Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas of different representative
ecosystems which are meant for conservation of biodiversity or wild-life, traditional life tyle of
tribals and their domesticated animals and also plant resources. Each biosphere reserve has a
core zone (where no human activity is allowed), a buffer zone (with limited human activity) and
manipulation zone (where human activity is allowed without degradation of ecology.
Thus the biosphere reserves protect not just wild varieties ies but also domesticated varieties of
plants of an area.
124. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(a) acidity
(b) aridity
(c) salinity
(d) metal toxicity.

124. (c): Irrigation induced salinity can arise as a result of the use of any irrigation water, irrigation
of saline water etc. combined with inadequate leaching. Since all surface and ground water
contains salts to varying degrees, irrigation is often seen as the primary culprit for bringing salts
into the field.
125. Which one of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water?
(a) chlorine
(b) ozone
(c) chloramine
(d) phenyl.

125. (d): In a sewage efficient treatment plant (CETP) during the tertiary treatment the decreased
water is chlorinated with chlorine or perchlorate salts, ozonised or irradiate with UV to kill
pathogens. Phenyl is not used for disinfection of drinking water.
126. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(a) members of a species can interbreed
(b) gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
(c) each species is reproductively isolated from every other species
(d) variations occur among members of a species.

126. (b): Species may be defined as an uniform interbreeding population or group of individuals
which freely interbreed among themselves. Gene flow occurs between populations of a species by
gene migration i.e., emigration and immigration.
127. Identify the correctly matched pair:
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(a) Basal convention – Biodiversity conservation
(b) Kyoto protocol – Climatic change
(c) Montreal protocol – Global warming
(d) Ramsar convention – Ground water pollution

127. (b): Kyoto protocol occurred in Dec 1997. International conference held in Kyoto, Japan
obtained comments from different countries for reducing overall greenhouse gas emissions at a
level 5% below 1990 level by 2008-2012.
128. More than 70% of worlds freshwater is contained in
(a) polar ice
(b) glaciers and mountains
(c) Antartica
(d) Greenland.

128. (a): Nearly about 97% of the earth‘s water is saline in the oceans and seas. 3% of the earth‘s
water is locked up on the polar ice caps. 85% of the frozen freshwater is in the Antarctic is ice cap,
15% of the frozen freshwater is in the northern polar ice cap and glaciers.
129. At which latitude, heat gain through insulation approximately equals heat loss through
terrestrial radiation?
(a) 22 1/2 North and South
(b) 40° North and South
(c) 42 1/2° North and South
(d) 66° North and South.

129. (b): Earth does not receive equal radiation at all points. The east west rotation of earth
provides equal exposure to sunlight but latitude and dispersion do affect the amount of radiation
received. The poles receive far less radiation than equator. This uneven heating is called
differential insulation. At 40° North and South, approximately the heat gain is equal to heat loss
through terrestrial radiation.
130. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are
given below. Select the incorrect example.
(a) colour change in chamaeleon
(b) enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
(c) poison fangs in snakes
(d) melanism in moths.

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130. (c): Colour change in chameleon and melanism in moths are examples of camouflage in
animals adapted to prevent predation from prey. As a defence mechanim puffers have the ability
to inflate rapidly, filling their extremely elastic stomach with water (or air) until they are almost
spherical. This prevents them from being identified by the predator. But poison fangs in snakes
are a method adopted for preying and not escaping predation.
131. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(a) fossil fuel burning – release of CO2
(b) nuclear power – radioactive wastes
(c) solar energy – greenhouse effect
(d) biomass burning – release of CO2.

131. (c): Due to heavy industrilization and transportation (modernization), CO 2 concentration is
increasing day by day in the atmosphere. CO2 has capacity for absorbing heat radiations and thus
increases temperature. This increase in global temperature (global warming) is mainly due to
CO2 concentration is called green house effect. Complete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass
releases carbon dioxide. Nuclear power plants releases radioactive wastes.
132. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(a) Tundra
(b) Savanna
(c) prairie
(d) coniferous forest

132. (c): A biome is a major terrestrial community characterized by a distinct climate and inhabited
by a particular species of plants and animals. Tundra is characterized by precipitation of less than
25 cm annually. Permafrost or permanent ice is found about a meter down from the surface; it
never melts and is impenetrable to both water and roots.
Savannahs are open grasslands with scattered shrubs and trees. Coniferous forest contains
evergreen trees. In these forests all plants do not shed their leaves at the same time hence forest
remains always evergreen. But pairies is grassland and epiphytes and ephemerals are found in
deserts.
133. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year.
(a) 1992
(b) 1996
(c) 2000
(d) 2002.

133. (d): The biological Act provides for conservation of biological diversity, sub stainable use of
its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological
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resources, knowledge and for matters connected there with or incidental there to. The biological
act of India was passed in 2002. This act of parliament received the assent of President of India
on the 5th February 2003.
134. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?
(a) Aravalli hills
(b) Western ghats
(c) Indo-gangetic plain
(d) Eastern ghats

134. (b): Hot-spot are areas with high density of biodiversity or megadiversity which are also the
most threatened ones. Hot spots are determined by four factors, (i) Number of species/species
diversity, (ii) Degree of endemism. (iii) Degree of threat to habitat due to its degradation and
fragmentation (iv) Degree of exploitation. India has two hotspots-North-East Himalayas and
Western Ghats.
Western Ghats occur along the western cost of India for a distance of about 1600 km in
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala extending over to Srilanka.
135. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of
industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is
(a) < 30 ppm
(b) < 3.0 ppm
(c) < 10 ppm
(d) < 100 ppm

135. (a): Strength of sewage of degree of water pollution is measured in terms of BOD (Biological
oxygen demand) value. BOD may be defined as, ‗number of milligrams of 02 required for
decomposition of one litre of waste or water by decomposing micro-organisms (bacteria)‘.
According to central pollution control board, limit of BOD prescribed is 30 ppm (mg/d) for 3 days at
27° C.
136. Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) fresh weight
(b) dry weight
(c) number of individuals

(d) rate of energy flow

136. (a): Ecological pyramids represents the tropic structure and tropic function of an ecosystem.
In an ecological pyramid, the first tropic level forms the base and successive tropic levels the tiers
which make up the apex. Ecological pyramids may be of three general type‘s pyramid of number,
pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy.
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Pyramid of biomass i.e. the living weight of the organisms of the food chain present at any time in
an ecosystem forms the pyramids of biomass. The pyramid of biomass indicates the decrease or
the gradual reduction in biomass at each trophic level from base to apex. Fresh weight is not used
in ecological pyramids.
137. Niche overlap indicates

(a) mutualism between two species
(b) active cooperation between two species
(c) two different parasites on the same host
(d) sharing of one or more resources between the two species (2006)

137. (d): Niche/ecological niche is specific part of habitat occupied by individuals of a species
which is circumsribed by its range of tolerance, range of movement, microclimate, type of food
and its availability, shelter, type of predator, and timing of activity. A habitat has several ecological
niches and supports a number of species.
An ecological niche is used by a single species. Two or more species cannot use the same niche
despite having a mutualistic association. Organisms or populations in competition have a niche
overlap of a limited resource for which they compete.
Both owl and cat feed on shrews and mice. They occupy the same niche because of being
ecological equivalents though their habitats are different.
138. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain

(a) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
(b) ozone
(c) nitrogen dioxide
(d) carbon dioxide

138. (d): Photochemical smog is grey or yellow brown opaque smog having oxidising environment
with little smoke. Photochemical smog contains secondary pollutants or photochemical oxidants. It
was first reported over Loss Angels in 1940s. Photochemical smog is formed at high temperature
over cities and towns due to still air, emission of nitrogen oxides and carbohydrates from
automobile exhausts and solar energy.
Nitrogen dioxides split into nitric oxide and nascent oxygen. Nascent oxygen combines with
molecular oxygen to form ozone. Ozone reacts with carbohydrates to form aldehydes and
ketones. Nitrogen oxides, oxygen and ketones combine to form peroxy-acyl-nitrates (PAN). In
areas with intense solar radiations, photoelectrical smog forms brown air.
139. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S),
distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been
arranged in ascending order?
(a) SE < PE < S < DE
Rajesh Nayak
(b) PE < S < SE < DE
(c) S < DE < PE < SE

(d) SE < S < PE < DE.

139. (b): The BOD of the given pollutants in ascending order is PE < S < SE < DE
140. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission
of
(a) NOx
(b) SPM
(c) CO
(d) SO2.
140. (b): SPM is suspended particulate matter which is less than 10 p.m remaining in air for more
than one day to several weeks. It includes aerosol, dust, mist, smoke, soot etc.
141. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
(a) population
(b) landscape
(c) ecosystem
(d) biotic community.

141. (a): Population has several characteristics or attributes which are a function of the whole
group and not of individual. Age distribution is one of them that is the number or the percentage of
individuals in a population in different age groups. This is represented geometrically in the form of
age pyramid.
142. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during
rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(a) the food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(b) its population growth curve is of J-type
(c) the population of its predators increases enormously
(d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.

142. (b): J-shape of growth pattern can be easily observed in algae blooms, some insects, annual
plants and the lemmings of Tundra. In the beginning density of the population increases rapidly in
compound interest fashion and then stops abruptly as the environmental resistance or other
limiting factors become effective. These factors may be food, space, seasonal (frost, excessive
rain etc.) or the termination of reproduction session.
143. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
Rajesh Nayak
(b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for
plant nutrition in soil
(c) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
(d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

143. (d): Eutrophication in the phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body that initially
supports a dense growth of plants and animals. It is caused by runoff from fertilized fields,
suburban lawns, detergent rich sewage; Eutrophication is caused by the increase in an ecosystem
of chemical nutrients, typically compounds containing nitrogen and phosphorus.
It may occur on land or in water, although traditionally thought of as enrichment of Aquatic
systems by addition of fertilizers into lakes, bays or other semi-enclosed waters terrestrial
ecosystems are subject to similarly adverse impacts, eg cause of algal blooms.
Increased content of nitrates in soil frequently leads to undesirable changes in vegetation

composition and many plant species are endangered as a result of eutrophication in terrestrial
ecosystems, e.g., majority of orchid species in Europe.
144. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the
same value, the following is most likely to occur
(a) a bi-modal distribution
(b) a T-shaped curve
(c) a skewed curve
(d) a normal distribution.

144. (d): It the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the
same value a normal distribution is most likely to occur.
145. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
(a) intra specific competition
(b) inter specific competition
(c) predation on one another
(d) mutualism.

145. (d): Competition is rivalry for obtaining the same resource. Competition is of two types,
intraspecific and interspecific. Intraspecific competition is the competition amongst members of the
same species for a common resource.
It may be for food, space, and mate. So if the density of elephant population in an area increases,
it will lead to intraspecific competition. This will lead to the establishment of territories in elephants
which will result in pushing out of the extra number securing shelter, mate and food for the rest.
Rajesh Nayak
146. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
(a) tropical deciduous forest
(b) temperate evergreen forest
(c) temperate deciduous forest
(d) tropical rain forest.

146. (d): Net primary productivity is the total organic matter stored by producers per unit area per
unit time. Gross primary productivity is the total organic matter synthesized by producers in the
process of photosynthesis per unit area per unit time. So
Net primary productivity = Gross productivity – Respiration and other losses.
Tropical rain forests occur over equatorial/subequatorial regions with abundant warmth and
rainfall. Diversity and productivity are maximum as compared to other regions.
147. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
(a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(b) water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
(c) nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara.

147. (a): As opposed to native species, which are indigenous and found naturally in an
environment, animals and plant species introduced from other countries and which are not
otherwise found local are termed exotic. These introduced or exotic species can adversely affect
the ecosystem.
In India, large varieties of exotic animal and plant species have been introduced from other parts
of the world through the ages. Some exotic plants have turned into weeds, multiplying fast and
causing harm to the ecosystem, e.g. water hyacinth and Lantam camara. Water hyacinth was
introduced in Indian waters to reduce pollution. It has clogged water bodies including wetlands at
many places resulting in death of aquatic orgnisms.
148. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

(a) blood-worms
(b) stone flies
(c) sewage fungus
(d) sludge-worms.
Rajesh Nayak
148. (b): Some plants and animals act as the measure of existing environmental conditions
because of their response to these conditions. The organisms are called bioindicators. From the
given options, stone flies do not act as bioindicator of water pollution.
Rajesh Nayak
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ii) decrease in turbidity of water
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b) (i)and(iv)
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c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
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b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days
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c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water
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a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate
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a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids
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48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500
Ans:a
49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Ans:a
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i) slower filtration rate
ii) higher filtration rate
iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
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Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
Ans:a
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a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature
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a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7
Ans:c
54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
a) 24 48 hours
b) 1012 days
c) 23 months
d) 12 year
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a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters
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56. Double filtration is used
a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above
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i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c
58. Disinfection of water results in
a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation
Ans:c
59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by
i) decreasing the time of contact
ii) decreasing the temperature of water
iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
d) only (iii)
Ans:d
60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to
a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference of applied and residual chlorine
Ans:d
61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination
Ans:c
62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about
a) 10 to 15
b) 20 to 25
c) 30 to 35
d) 40 to 50
Ans:c
63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as
a) prechlorination
b) super chlorination
c) dechlorination
d) hypochlorination
Ans:d
64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is
a) ultra violet rays treatment
b) lime treatment
c) by using potassium permanganate
d) chlorination
Ans:a
65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
a) carbon dioxide
b) bleaching powder
c) sulphur dioxide
d) chloramines
Ans:c
66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
Ans:a
67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller
b) larger
c) same
Ans:a
68. Disinfection efficiency is
a) reduced at higher pH value of water
b) unaffected by pH value of water
c) increased at higher pH value of water
d) highest at pH value equal to 7
Ans:a
69. In limesoda process
a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only noncarbonate hardness is removed
c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and sodaash removes the noncarbo¬nate hardness
d) lime reduces the noncarbonate hardness and sodaash removes the carbo¬nate hardness
Ans:c
70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water
b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness
Ans:b
71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) sodium chloride
d) calcium chloride
Ans:b
72. Activated carbon is used for
a) disinfection
b) removing hardness
c) removing odours
d) removing corrosiveness
Ans:c
73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are
a) heavier
b) stronger
c) costlier
d) less susceptible to corrosion
Ans:b
74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system
b) grid iron system
c) radial system
d) ring system
Ans:a
75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system
b) dead end system
c) radial system
d) grid iron system
Ans:c
76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
a) grid iron system
b) dead end system
c) ring system
d) radial system
Ans:a
77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and
long life but is heavy and brittle is
a) steel
b) cast iron
c) copper
d) reinforced cement concrete
Ans:b
78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system
i) involves successive trials
ii) takes economic aspects into account
iii) is time consuming
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct
Ans:c
79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered
is
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) electrical analysis method
d) Hardy cross method
Ans:a
80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe
system ?
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) electrical analysis method
Ans:b
81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where
the pipe lines intersect is
a) check valve
b) sluice valve
c) safety valve
d) scour valve
Ans:b
82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve
d) pressure relief valve
Ans:a
83. Scour valves are provided
a) at street corners to control the flow of water
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
d) at every summit of rising mains
Ans:b
84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:b
85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is
called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:a
86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially combined system
d) partially separate system
Ans:a
87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 165 litres
d) 200 litres
Ans:b
88. Sewerage system is usually designed for
a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c) 50 years
d) 75 years
Ans:b
89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer
Ans:b
90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system
Ans:b
91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product
a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above
Ans:b
92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will
be
a) 4 mm/hr
b) lOmm/hr
c) 20 mm/hr
d) 40 mm/hr
Ans:d
93. The time of concentration is defined as
a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
c) sum of (a) and (b)
d) difference of (a) and (b)
Ans:c
94. The specific gravity of sewage is
a) much greater than 1
b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) slightly greater than 1
Ans:d
95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
Ans:b
96. The slope of sewer shall be
a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c) zero
d) steeper than 1 in 20
Ans:a
97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF
c) 3 x DWF
d) 6xDWF
Ans:d
98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF
d) rainfall + 6 DWF
Ans:c
99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be
a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
Ans:b
100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is
a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life
Ans:c
101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is
a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section
Ans:b
102. An egg shaped section of sewer
a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct
Ans:b
103. The velocity of flow does not depend on
a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer
Ans:b
104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an eggshaped sewer flowing twothird full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
Ans:c
105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b
106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is
a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semielliptical sewer
d) horseshoe type sewer
Ans:a
107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horseshoe type sewer
d) semielliptical sewer
Ans:b
108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are
a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline
Ans:b
109. The pathogens can be killed by
a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
Ans:b
110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?
a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
Ans:d
111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
a) 510 years
b) 1520 years
c) 3040 years
d) 4050 years
Ans:b
112. Settling velocity increases with
a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid
Ans:c
113. Standard BOD is measured at
a) 20°C 1day
b) 25°C 3day
c) 20°C 5day
d) 30°C 5day
Ans:c
114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b
115. Select the correct statement.
a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time.
Ans:c
116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then
population equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d
117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remaining ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD remaining
Ans:b
118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0
Ans:b
119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at
the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b
120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b
121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD,
is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b
122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is
a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day
Ans:a
123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in
a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water
Ans:c
124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
Ans:b
125. Sewerage system is designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:d
126. Sewage treatment units are designed for
Ans:c
127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of
a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table
Ans:c
128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by
a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c
130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 24 hours
d) 12 hours
Ans:a
131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
d) trickling filters
Ans:a
132. Septic tank is a
i) settling tank
ii) digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:b
133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in
a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
Ans:b
134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are
a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Ans:d
135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by
a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation
Ans:c
136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as
a) 48 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months
Ans:c
137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of
a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration
Ans:b
138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that
a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
Ans:a
139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
Ans:b
140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of
a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
Ans:a
141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c
142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
Ans:b
143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with
moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b
144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b
145. In the twopipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a
147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of
a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Ans:d
a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic
Ans:b
149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of
a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage reservoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
Ans:b
150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of
a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization
Ans:a
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2 comments:
Avinash Kumar 26 March 2016 at 09:18
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Evan Wright 17 August 2016 at 05:17
Great post. This article is really very interesting and enjoyable. I think its must be helpful and informative for us. Thanks for sharing
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b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
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a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life
Ans:c
101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is

a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section
Ans:b
102. An egg shaped section of sewer

a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct
Ans:b
103. The velocity of flow does not depend on

a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer
Ans:b
104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
Ans:c
105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b
106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is

a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semi-elliptical sewer
d) horse-shoe type sewer
Ans:a
107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer
d) semi-elliptical sewer
Ans:b
108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are

a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline
Ans:b
109. The pathogens can be killed by

a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
Ans:b
110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?

a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
Ans:d
111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for

a) 5-10 years
b) 15-20 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 40-50 years
Ans:b
112. Settling velocity increases with

a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid
Ans:c
113. Standard BOD is measured at

a) 20°C - 1day
b) 25°C- 3day
c) 20°C - 5day
d) 30°C- 5day
Ans:c
114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b
115. Select the correct statement.

a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time.
Ans:c
116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population
equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d
117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is

a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD re-maining
Ans:b
118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about

a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0
Ans:b
119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at
the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b
120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b
121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD,
is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b
122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is

a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day
Ans:a
123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in

a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water
Ans:c
124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
Ans:b
125. Sewerage system is designed for

Ans:d
126. Sewage treatment units are designed for

Ans:c
127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of

a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table
Ans:c
128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by

a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c
130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as

a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 2-4 hours
d) 12 hours
Ans:a
131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
Ans:a
132. Septic tank is a

i) settling tank
ii) digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:b
133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in

a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
Ans:b
134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are

a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Ans:d
135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by

a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation
Ans:c
136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as

a) 4-8 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months
Ans:c
137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of

a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration
Ans:b
138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that

a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
Ans:a
139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
Ans:b
140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of

a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
Ans:a
141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c
142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is

a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
Ans:b
143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with
moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b
144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b
145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a
147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of

a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Ans:d

a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic
Ans:b
149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of

a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
Ans:b
150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of

a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization
Ans:a
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1. Assertion (A): Biosphere constitutes an excellent life-support system which is sustainable and can fulfil all human needs.
Reason (R): The size and productivity of the Biosphere is limited by availability of water, nutrients and environmental
conditions.
Identify the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
2. Geostrophic wind occurs when pressure gradient force balances

(A) Coriolis force
(B) Frictional force
(C) Centripetal force
(D) Coriolis and frictional force together
Answer: (A)
3. Scales of Meteorology are in the following order starting from the least
(A) Macro –, Micro –, Meso –
(B) Macro–, Meso–, Micro–
(C) Meso–, Macro–, Micro–
(D) Micro–, Meso–, Macro –
Answer: (D)
4. When the full potential of physical, chemical and biological factors, a species can use if there is no competition, it is
called
(A) Fundamental niche
(B) Ecological niche
(C) Realized niche
(D) Competitive exclusion
Answer: (A)
5. The uppermost zone of atmosphere of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet radiations are absorbed, is
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Answer: (D)www.netugc.com
6. which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the major air pollutant released from automobile exhausts?
(A) NO
(B) N2O
(C) NO2
(D) N2O3
Answer: (A)
7. Match List – I with List – II which contains pollutant gases and their threshold (safe limit) values as per WHO standards:
List – I List – II
(Pollutant gas) (Thresholds)
a. CO i. 2 ppm
b. SO2 ii. 50 ppm
c. NO iii. 0.08 ppm
d. PAN iv. 25 ppm
Identity the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: (C)
8. The band labelled as UV-C which is lethal to micro-organisms is

(A) 0.29 – 0.32 µm
(B) 0.2 – 0.29 µm
(C) 0.17 – 0.2 µm
(D) 0.07 – 0.21 µm
Answer: (B)
9. Which of the following species in the atmosphere is called atmospheric detergent?

(A) Chlorine radical
(B) Hydroxyl radical
(C) Methyl radical
(D) Ozone radical
Answer: (B)
10. The POH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is

(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
11. Identify the pair (element-health effect) which is correctly matched:
(A) Lead – Methaemoglobinemia
(B) Arsenic – Kidney damage
(C) Mercury – Nervous disorder
(D) PAN – Hypoxemia
Answer: (D)
12. Which of the following organisms can act as primary consumer, secondary consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger in
different types of food chains?
(A) Raven
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake
(D) Phytoplanktones
Answer: (A)
13. The tendency of biological systems to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium is called
(A) Homeostatis
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Ecological efficiency
(D) Carrying capacity
Answer: (A)
14. If different categories of threatened species are written in a sequence, what is the correct order?
(A) Extinct-> Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered
(B) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered -> Extinct
(C) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Extinct -> Endangered
(D) Rare -> Vulnerable -> Endangered -> Extinct
Answer: (B)www.netugc.com
15. Which of the following is not a type of ex situ conservation method?

(A) Botanical garden
(B) Zoological park
(C) Wildlife sanctuaries
(D) Gene banks
Answer: (C)
16. As a consequence of succession the P/B ratio (Gross production /

Standing crop biomass) is changed. It is
(A) High during developmental stages and low at mature stage.
(B) Low during developmental stages and high at mature stage.
(C) > 1 or < 1 at developmental stages and approximately 1 at mature stage.
(D) Remaining unchanged at all stages.
Answer: (A)
17. Preparation of hazard-zoning map in case of landslide prone regions involves comprehensive investigation of
(A) Details of structural and lithological settings.
(B) Geomorphic features relating to instability of slopes.
(C) Seismicity pattern of the region.
(D) all of the above.
Answer: (D)
18. If ap = specified value of peak acceleration, N = mean rate of occurrence of earthquake per year, tep = time interval of
consideration (exposure period) and Fap = probability that an observed acceleration is less than or equal to ap, then the
cumulative probability distribution of peak acceleration for epoch – dependent seismic hazard map is given by which
formula ?
(A) Fmaxtep = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)}
(B) Fmax = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} . tep
(C) Fmaxtep= exp {–t(1 – Fap)N}
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
19. Assertion (A): In oceans, Na has the longest residence time, within an order of magnitude of the age of the oceans.
Reason (R): The long residence time of Na reflects a lack of reactivity of sodium in the marine environment by not being
readily incorporated in the common sedimentary minerals, nor being removed by biological reactions.
Codes:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
20. According to Goldieh the decreasing order of stability of following minerals of igneous rocks towards weathering is
(A) Muscovite > Quartz > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(B) Biotite> Potash feldspar >Muscovite > Quartz
(C) Quartz > Muscovite > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(D) Potash feldspar > Quartz >Muscovite >Biotite
Answer: (C)
21. In universal polar stereographic coordinate system the eastings and northings are computed using which projection
method?
(A) Polar aspect stereographic projection
(B) Non-polar aspect stereo graphic projection
(C) Polar aspect Mercator projection
(D) Non-polar aspect Mercator projection
Answer: (A)
22. Pitchblende is an ore of

(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Uranium
Answer: (D)
23. Copper (Cu) is classified according to its geochemical affinity as

(A) Siderophile element
(B) Chalcophile element
(C) Lithophile element
(D) Atmophile element
Answer: (B)
24. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed decrease at the wind turbine, the maximum extraction of power from the wind occurs
when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/5
Answer: (B)
25. in the following fusion energy reaction

D + T = 0n1 + X identify X
(A) Li
(B) H2
(C) He3
(D) He4
Answer: (D)
26. Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any other fossil fuel on combustion.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)www.netugc.com
27. Assertion (A): Solar photovoltaic cells are expensive.

Reason (R): Solar photovoltaic cells are fabricated from crystalline silicon and operate only at 10-12% efficiency.
Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)
28. Human activities add 7-9 gigatons of CO2 per annum into the atmosphere. Major contributor to this CO2 is
(A) Burning of fossil fuels
(B) Clearing of forests for agriculture
(C) Fermentation industries
(D) Cement industries
Answer: (A)
29. According to WHO, maximum permissible level of chlorides in drinking water is

(A) 100 mg/L
(B) 200 mg/L
(C) 600 mg/L
(D) 800 mg/L
Answer: (C)
30. Wilting coefficient of a loam represents

(A) The minimum water content of the soil at which plants can no longer obtain water
(B) Water holding capacity
(C) Capillary water
(D) Field capacity
Answer: (A)
31. Which one of the following techniques can be used for determining the level of cadmium in soil?
(A) UV – Visible spectrophotometer
(B) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer
(C) XRD
(D) IR spectrometer
Answer: (B)
32. For noise control in automobiles, the exhaust muffler attenuates sound by
(A) Absorption
(B) Destructive interference
(C) Reducing velocity of hot gases
(D) Absorption and destructive interference
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
34. Soil fulvic acids are strong chelators of

(A) Iron (II)
(B) Iron (III)
(C) Both Iron (II) and Iron (III)
(D) Fe(OH)3
Answer: (A)
35. Natural source of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) is

(A) Root exudates
(B) Anaerobic bacteria
(C) Aerobic bacteria
(D) Grass fires
Answer: (D)
36. Match the ‘phase’ with the ‘activity’ in Environmental Audit. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists:
(Phase) (Activity)
a. Pre-Audit i. Human input output analysis in relation to economy
b. On-site Audit ii. Reviewingaudit-checklists
c. Post-Audit iii. Records/Documents Review
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iii i
(B) i iii ii
(C) i ii iii
(D) iii ii i
Answer: (A)
37. Match the Impact Assessment Methodologies (List – II) with the corresponding environments (List – I).
Identify the correct answer from thecodes given below the lists.
a. Air i. Ecosystem models
b. Biological ii. Gaussian models
c. Water iii. Mass balance approach
d. Land iv. G.I.S.
Codes:
abcd
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
38. Public hearing is conducted

(A) Prior to site selection
(B) Prior to approval of Terms of Reference
(C) After preparation of EIA
(D) After environmental clearance
Answer: (C)
39. IAIA stands for

(A) International Association of Impact Assessment
(B) Indian Association of Impact Assessment
(C) International Assembly of Impact Assessment
(D) Indian Assembly of Impact Assessment
Answer: (A)
40. Municipal Solid Wastes (MSWs) have the heating value typically in the range
(A) 9,300 to 12,800 kJ/kg
(B) 1000 to 2500 kJ/kg
(C) 1780 to 2830 kJ/kg
(D) 530 to 780 kJ/kg
Answer: (A)
41. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was amended in which year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Answer: (C)
42. The following statistical test is used to ascertain whether there is significant difference between the variances of two sets
of observations:
(A) t-test
(B) F-test
(C) Chi square test
(D) Regression
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
44. The geometric mean of the following data:

4, 10, 25, 10 is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 12.25
(D) 100/49
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
46. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume rise varies with Buoyancy Flux Parameter F as
(A) F
(B) F1/2
(C) F1/3
(D) F1/4
Answer: (C)
47. United Nations Conference on Environment, also termed as Earth Summit, was held in 1992 in which city?
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(B) Kyoto
(C) Stockholm
(D) Copenhagen
Answer: (A)
48. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)
49. Variety of different species, genetic variability among individuals within each species and variety of ecosystems
constitute the so calledwww.netugc.com
(A) Species diversity
(B) Genetic diversity
(C) Biological diversity
(D) Ecological diversity
Answer: (C)
50. Baba Amte was the leader of

(A) Appiko Movement
(B) Chipko Movement
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(D) Tehri Dam Movement
1. In a multiple regression model, the f-ratio is used to test the

(A) Variance of the data
(B) Standard error of mean
(C) R2 value
(D) Overall goodness of fit of the model.
Answer: (D)
2. If the mean of a sample is 20, the standard error of mean is 1 and the t-statistic for 95% level of confidence is 2.5, the
population mean will be in the range
(A) 17.5 to 22.5
(B) 15 to 25
(C) 20 to 25
(D) 15 to 20
Answer: (A)
3. The third moment about the mean of a distribution of a set of observations is a measure of
(A) Mode
(B) Skewness
(C) Kurtosis
(D) Variance
Answer: (B)
4. Consider an air shed over a city in the form of a rectangular box. The wind velocity is 5 m/sec normal to left face of the
box. The length of the box along the direction of wind is 10 km and mixing height is 1 km. assuming rapid mixing of the
pollutants which are conservative in nature, the concentration of the pollutants in the city would reach 63% of its final value
in
(A) 2,000 sec
(B) 5,000 sec
(C) 10,000 sec
(D) 1,000 sec
Answer: (A)
5. Which one of the following states of mercury is volatile?

(A) Organic
(B) Ionic
(C) Atomic
Answer: (C)
6. Molar extinction coefficient of H2O2 at 240 nm is 0.04 M–1 cm–1. The concentration of H2O2 in a solution which has
absorbance of 0.6 in a 3 cm curette will be
(A) 5 M
(B) 10 M
(C) 15 M
(D) 20 M
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
8. Which one of the following is a peroxyl radical?

(A) OH0
(B) R0
(C) RO0
(D) ROO0
Answer: (D)
9. Depending upon the amount of net primary productivity the various ecosystems can be arranged in a decreasing sequence
of yield.
(A) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland.
(B) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland
(C) Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland – Tropical seasonal forest.
(D) Tropical rain forest – Tropical seasonal forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland.
Answer: (D)
10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of secondary seral vegetation development on any habitat?
(A) Ecesis – Invasion – Aggregation – Stabilization
(B) Ecesis – Aggregation – Invasion – Stabilization
(C) Aggregation – Invasion – Ecesis– Stabilization
(D) Invasion – Ecesis – Aggregation – Stabilization
Answer: (B)
11. What is common feature among the following?
Abiesdelavayi
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandragriffthii
Aglaiaperviridis
(A) All have been extinct.
(B) All are gymnosperms.
(C) All are identified as endangered species.
(D) All are angiosperms.
Answer: (C)
12. Raunkiaer’s normal biological spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the world exhibits one of the following sequences of
occurrence (%) of different life forms.
(A) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
(B) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes, Therophytes.
(D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
Answer: (B)
13. One of the following categories of earthworms is most suitable for wasteland reclamation.
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
14. How many mega-bio-diverse countries have been identified in the world?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 35
Answer: (C)
15. Which one of the following is an Exsitu method of biodiversity conservation?

(A) Seed storage
(B) DNA Bank
(C) Tissue culture
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
16. Which one of the following is a methyl isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide?
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl)
(B) Temix (Aldicarb)
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran)
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
17. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.
Answer: (B)
18. Natural ore of radioactive materials does not contain which one of the following isotope?www.netugc.com
(A) U235
(B) Pu239
(C) U238
(D) Th232
Answer: (B)
19. The process of splitting bigger hydrocarboninto smaller hydrocarbonmolecules is called

(A) Pyrolysis
(B) Thermal decomposition
(C) Cracking
(D) Combustion
Answer: (C)
20. Which one of the following is a complex in organic fertilizer?

(A) Urea
(B) Super phosphate
(C) Potash
(D) NPK
Answer: (D)
21. The sequence of ease of decomposition of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch – Crude protein – Fat
(B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat – Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein – Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin – Hemicellulose – Crude protein
Answer: (C)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the lowest half life period?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (C)
23. Match the rules mentioned in Column – I with year of enforcement mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1. 2000
b. Biomedical Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules. 2. 1978
c. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 3. 1989
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules 4. 1998
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Answer: (A)
24. Average composition of biodegradable waste in Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) of India is
(A) 30 – 35%
(B) 40 – 45%
(C) 55 – 65%
(D) 60 – 70%
Answer: (B)
25. The treatment method recommended for the human anatomical waste generated from hospitals is
(A) Chemical disinfection
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Incineration
(D) All the above
Answer: (C)
26. Match the waste class mentioned in Column – I with Color Code of the Collection Container mentioned in Column – II.
a. Human Anatomical Waste 1. Blue
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass ware 3. Red
d. Disposable plastics 4. White
Codes:
abcd
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (D)
27. Which of the following is true when frequency of occurrence of risk is remote but possible?
(A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) Risk reduction measures should be implemented.
(C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Answer: (A)
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Indirect impacts are more difficult to measure, but can ultimately be more important.
Reason (R): In areas where wildlife is plentiful, such as Africa, new roads often lead to the rapid depletion of animals.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
Answer: (B)
29. An earthquake measuring over 8 on Richter scale is rated as

(A) Destructive
(B) Major
(C) Great
(D) Damaging
Answer: (C)
Assertion (A): It is difficult to judge how changes in localized gas samples represent more general conditions in the Volcano.
Reason (R): The composition of the juvenile gases emitted from volcanic vents offen show considerable variation over short
periods and distances.
Codes:
Answer: (A)
31. In a false – color set, human visual perception is limited to how many independent coordinates?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Five
Answer: (A)
32. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to
(A) (D/F) X H
(B) D/F
(C) H/F
(D) D/H
Answer: (A)
33. Darkest level of the associated color (RGB) would have brightness value equal to
(A) 0
(B) 256
(C) 255
(D) 2047
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
35. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(Constituents of Particulate matter) (Sources)
a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
c. SO2-4 3. Elements largely introduced by Human Activities.
d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas in atmosphere.
Codes:
abcd
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
37. Scale lengths associated with synoptic scale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 100 km
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Answer: (B)
38. Assume that the atmosphere is isothermal at 25 °C and the estimated maximum daily surface temperature is 35°C, the
mixing height is (take adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 °C per 100 m)
(A) 3.5 km
(B) 2.5 km
(C) 1.5 km
(D) 1 km
Answer: (D)
39. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations are in the range

(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) 280 – 320 nm
(D) 320 – 400 nm
Answer: (D)
40. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 Db superimpose at a location. What is the resultant sound at that location?
(A) ~ 82 dB
(B) ~ 87 dB
(C) ~ 91 dB
(D) ~ 165 dB
Answer: (A)
41. The coefficient of performance of a wind turbine for maximum power output iswww.netugc.com
(A) 13/18
(B) 5/8
(C) 16/27
(D) 11/17
Answer: (C)
42. Which of the following does not have a direct role in climate change?
(A) Sulphate and nitrate aerosols
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Nitric oxide
Answer: (D)
43. Which method is used to separate molecules on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Ion exchange chromatography
(B) Molecular exclusion chromatography
(C) Adsorption chromatography
(D) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: (B)
44. Which type of support media is used in different types of electrophoresis?

(A) Agarose gel
(B) Polyacrylamide gel
(C) Sodium dedecyl sulphate polyacrylamide gel
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
45. Which of the following categories of plants get benefitted more due to elevation of CO2 level?
(A) C3 plants
(B) C4 plants
(C) CAM plants
Answer: (A)
46. Aquifers that extend continuously from the land surface through material of high permeability are
(A) Aquitards
(B) Auicludes
(C) Confined aquifers
(D) Unconfined aquifers
Answer: (D)
47. Which one of the following is used to determine ambient concentration of suspended particulate matter?
(A) Cascade impactor
(B) Kjeldahl’s Flask
(C) Sacchi Disk
(D) Folin-Wu method
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following laws states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas
in contact with liquid?
(A) Hick’s law
(B) Henry’s law
(C) Hardy-Weinburg law of equilibrium
(D) 2nd Law of Newton
Answer: (B)
49. Maximum CaO is found in

(A) Bauxite
(B) Limonite
(C) Lime Stone
(D) Siderite
Answer: (C)
50. The sequence of chemical constituents in order of their abundance in a majority of sedimentary rocks is
(A) SiO2 > TiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3
(B) SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3 > TiO2
(C) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > Al2O3> TiO2
(D) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > TiO2> Al2O3
Answer: (B)
51. The primary producers in the marine ecosystem are

(A) Eubacteria and Algae
(B) Cyanobacteria and Algae
(C) Algae and Protozoans
Answer: (B)
52. Mycorrhizae can be used as bio fertilizers because they

(A) Fix nitrogen
(B) Fix CO2
(C) Solubilise phosphate
(D) Kill pathogens
Answer: (C)
Assertion (A): Some plants with mycorrhizal fungi are able to occupy habitats that otherwise could not inhabit.
Reason (R): The importance of mycorrhizal plant interaction is attested by the fact that 95% of all plants have mycorrhizae.
Choose the correct answer:
Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)
54. An interactive association between two populations in which one population benefits from the association, while the
other is not affected, is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Symbiosis
Answer: (C)
55. The method for down streaming of ethanol from fermentation broth is
(A) Filtration
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Distillation
(D) Flame Photometry
Answer: (C)
56. The country which uses maximum nuclear power is

(A) U.S.A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Germany
Answer: (C)
57. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
Answer: (A)
58. Which of the following is not a part of Geographic Information Syste (GIS)?
(A) Projection
(B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
(D) Measuring distance and connectivity
Answer: (A)
59. Ultrafiltration can remove

(A) Suspended solids
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to having high calorific value, should have
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) High viscosity
(C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Moderate ignition temperature
Answer: (D)
61. Reserve food material in algae is

(A) Starch
(B) Cellulose
(C) Protein
Answer: (A)
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics can be characterized by

(A) Rate of CO2 formation
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD
Answer: (D)
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could be controlled by

(A) Lowering pH
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime
Answer: (A)
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus belongs to

(A) Soft – rot
(B) Brown – rot
(C) White – rot
(D) Red – rot
Answer: (C)
65. The drastic reduction in the number of intestinal pathogens during activated sludge process is the overall result of
(A) Competition
(B) Competition and adsorption
(C) Predation, competition and adsorption
(D) Competition, adsorption, predation and settling
Answer: (D)
66. Which of the following disinfection method does not result in synthesis of organochlorine?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Chloroamination
(C) Ozonation
Answer: (C)
67. An organism’s niche is

(A) The way the organism uses the range of physical and biological conditions in which it lives.
(B) All the biological and physical factors in the organism’s environment.
(C) The function role played by the organism where it lives.
(D) The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
Answer: (C)
68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in

(A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following chemicals of anthropogenic origin mimics the effect of estrogen in animals?
(A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p’ - DDT
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings caused due to use of water contaminated with
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Silver
(D) Arsenic
Answer: (D)
71. Largest amount of fresh water is present in

(A) Lakes
(B) Rivers
(C) Glaciers
(D) Polar Ice
72. A threatened species is

(A) Only endangered species
(B) Only vulnerable species
(C) Only rare species
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
Assertion (A): Animals adopt various strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason (R): Praying mantis is green in color which emerges with plant foliage.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (A)
75. Match Column – I with Column – II:

a. The Rio Summit 1. 1997
b. Johannesburg Earth Summit 2. 1972
c. Kyoto Protocol 3. 1992
d. The Stockholm Conference 4. 2002
Codes:
abcd
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Answer: (A)
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then the sample size is
(A) 25
(B) 80
(C) 5
(D) 100
Answer: (A)
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10.
The F-ratio is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 0.2
Answer: (B)
3. Which one of the following is not a random sampling method?

(A) Stratified Sampling
(B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Systematic Sampling
(D) Judgement Sampling
Answer: (B)
4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind
speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size h depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
(A) h µ r
(B) h µ r1/3
(C) h µ r2/3
(D) h µ r2
Answer: (D)
5. The acidity of normal rain water is due to

(A) CO2
(B) Cl2
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Answer: (C)
6. Percent of water on the world’s surface representing fresh water is

(A) 97
(B) 50
(C) 10
(D) 3
7. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is

(A) ~ 220 ppm
(B) ~ 280 ppm
(C) ~ 360 ppm
(D) ~ 390 ppm
Answer: (D)
8. Hardness of diamond is due to

(A) Coordinate bonding
(B) Covalent bonding
(C) Electrovalent bonding
(D) van der Waals forces
Answer: (B)
9. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in

(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins and nucleic acids
Answer: (B)
10. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is

(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10
Answer: (C)
11. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem?
(A) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Emperor Penguin
(B) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Squid – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
(C) Phytoplankton – Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Adelic Penguin – Emperor Penguin
(D) Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Phytoplankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
Answer: (B)
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
Answer: (B)
13. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of

(A) Biomass
(B) Energy
(C) Number
Answer: (B)
14. Which of the following is a correct match?

(A) Periyar – Kerala
(B) Ranthambore – M.P.
(C) Panna – U.P.
(D) Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Answer: (A)
15. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed

(A) Primary succession
(B) Secondary succession
(C) Autogenic succession
Answer: (B)
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
(A) Ecotype
(B) Biotype
(C) Ecotone
(D) Meeting place
Answer: (C)
17. Indian wolf has become an important animal because

(A) It’s name appears in Red Data Book.
(B) It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
(C) Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
(D) It has been chosen as a State animal.
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
(A) Organic carbon content of soil
(B) Nitrate content of soil
(C) Phosphate content of soil
(D) Fluoride content of soil
Answer: (A)
19. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil?

(A) Cellulase
(B) Invertase
(C) Protease
(D) Dehydrogenase
Answer: (D)
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
(A) Fulvic acid
(B) Humic acid
(C) Humin
Answer: (C)
21. The sources of thermal pollution are
(A) Power plants
(B) Cooling forests
(C) Industrial effluents
Answer: (D)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (D)
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
Answer: (C)
24. Who issues the Ecomark notification?

(A) Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
(B) Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
(C) Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards
Answer: (A)
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Composting
(C) Incineration
(D) Sanitary Landfill
Answer: (B)
26. A hazardous waste is characterised by

(A) Ignitibility
(B) Reactivity
(C) Toxicity
Answer: (D)
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent respectively?
(A) 17, 2
(B) 12, 3
(C) 35, 2
(D) 17, 3
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following chemical species of mercury is highly toxic to living system?
(A) Mercurous ion
(B) Mercuric ion
(C) Organo mercurials
(D) Atomic mercury
Answer: (C)
29. Natural gas is composed primarily of

(A) Methane
(B) n-butane
(C) n-octane
(D) A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
Answer: (A)
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in Environmental Impact Assessment
Process?www.netugc.com
(A) It can be expanded.
(B) It can be contracted.
(C) It can be contracted and expanded.
(D) It cannot be contracted and expanded.
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following can be considered in Environmental Risk Assessment?

(A) Exposure period
(B) Potency of a toxic material
(C) Quality of models
Answer: (D)
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after environmental clearance is
applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 30
(D) 2
Answer: (B)
33. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
(A) 4.0 – 4.9
(B) 7.0 – 7.9
(C) 6.0 – 6.9
(D) 5.0 – 5.9
Answer: (B)
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino?
(A) Half
(B) One-third
(C) Twice
(D) Two-third
Answer: (A)
35. An element in soil will be considered as a trace element if its concentration is

(A) 1 – 2 wt %
(B) < 0.1 wt %
(C) > 2 wt %
(D) < 1 wt %
Answer: (B)
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System?
(A) Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or polygons mapped in the GIS.
(B) Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
(C) Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element data.
Answer: (D)
37. At Nadir, the LISS – IV camera in IRS-P6 has a spatial resolution of

(A) 5.8 m
(B) 5.9 m
(C) 5.7 m
(D) 5.6 m
Answer: (A)
38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer?

(A) Sodium and Potassium
(B) Cadmium and Cobalt
(C) Chlorine and Bromine
(D) Mercury and Arsenic
Answer: (A)
39. The contribution of CO2 towards global warming has been estimated to be about
(A) 57 – 60%
(B) 60 – 75%
(C) 80 – 85%
(D) 45 – 55%
Answer: (A)
40. The principal components of photochemical smog in urban areas are

(A) SO2 and NO2
(B) SPM and CO
(C) SPM and NO2
(D) Hydrocarbons and Ozone
Answer: (D)
41. Match Lists – I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Aerosol Constituents) List – II (Sources)
(i) Si 1. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
(ii) V 2. Natural sources
(iii) Benzo(a)pyrene 3. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
(iv) Sulfuric acid droplets 4. Incomplete combustion
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (A)
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0 m3/sec. Upstream from the point of
junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be
conservative substance and rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
(A) 6 mg/L
(B) 8 mg/L
(C) 8.5 mg/L
(D) 7.5 mg/L
Answer: (A)
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is proportional to its diameter (D)
as
(A) D
(B) D2
(C) D3/2
(D) /D
Answer: (B)
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 dB is for 1 hour duration, it represents a dose of
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Answer: (A)
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 500 m
(B) 1 – 200 km
(C) 100 – 1000 km
(D) 1000 – 10,000 km
Answer: (B)
46. When an atmosphere has an isothermal profile, it is

(A) very stable
(B) slightly stable
(C) unstable
(D) very unstable (turbulent)
Answer: (B)
47. The wavelength range of UV-C radiation is

(A) 320 – 400 nm
(B) 280 – 320 nm
(C) 100 – 1500 nm
(D) 240 – 280 nm
Answer: (D)
www.netugc.com
48. Lightening in the atmosphere produces
(A) NO
(B) CO
(C) CO2
(D) NH3
Answer: (A)
49. The maximum tidal energy potential in India is

(A) in Gulf of Khambhat
(B) in Gangetic delta in Sundarbans
(C) along the coast of Odisha
(D) along the coast of Chennai
Answer: (A)
50. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a silicon solar cell can be

(A) 45%
(B) 30%
(C) 12%
(D) 50%
Answer: (A
1. Mesoscale Meteorological Phenomena occur over areas of horizontal distance in the range (km)
(A) 100 – 200 km
(B) 1 – 100 km
(C) 10 – 50 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Answer: (B)
2. The Indian monsoon period is from

(A) October to November
(B) December to February
(C) June to September
(D) March to May
Answer: (C)
3. Which of the following is not a reactive oxygen species?

(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Hydroxyl ion
(C) Singlet oxygen
(D) Superoxide anion
Answer: (B)
4. If air quality standard for carbon monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the percentage as in mg/m3 at 1 atm. at 25 °C is
(A) 10.3 mg/m3
(B) 15.2 mg/m3
(C) 20.0 mg/m3
(D) 5.6 mg/m3
Answer: (A)
5. Azaridine, Ethylene dibromide, Bis(chloromethyl) ether are

(A) Alkylating agents
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Hydrazines
(D) Aromatic amines
Answer: (A)
6. Normality of 0.25 M phosphoric acid is

(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 2.50
Answer: (C)
7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(Air Pollutants) (Sources / Activities)
a. Carbon monoxide 1. Coal burning
b. Nitrogen oxide 2. Cigarette Smoking
c. Sulphur dioxide 3. Chemical reaction with VOCs
d. Ozone 4. Power and Industrial Plant
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer: (A)
8. The gaseous material which is used for the synthesis of Methyl isocyanate is
(A) Chloranil
(B) Sevin
(C) Phosgene
(D) Chlorine
Answer: (C)
9. During the determination of COD, sulphanilic acid is added, because

(A) It maintains the acidic nature
(B) It precipitates the mercury ions
(C) It oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) It reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate
Answer: (C)
10. Which year was declared as International Year of Biodiversity?

(A) 2002
(B) 2010
(C) 2020
(D) 1972
Answer: (B)
11. The forest biome characterised by 3-4 tree species/km2 iswww.netugc.com
(A) Tropical
(B) Temperate
(C) Boreal
(D) Taiga
Answer: (B)
12. Which of the following is a type of biodiversity extinction caused primarily due to anthropogenic activities?
(A) Carboniferous rain forestcollapse
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction
(D) Holocene extinction
Answer: (D)
13. The chemical used in a fermenter with molasses as a substrate is

(A) Diammonium sulphate
(B) Diammonium phosphate
(C) Diammonium nitrate
(D) Diammonium chloride
Answer: (B)
14. Which of the following is an example of lotic ecosystem?

(A) Stream ecosystem
(B) Pond ecosystem
(C) Bog ecosystem
(D) Wetland ecosystem
Answer: (A)
15. Which pyramid is always straight?

(A) Pyramid of biomass
(B) Pyramid of number
(C) Pyramid of energy
(D) Pyramid of number and biomass
Answer: (C)
16. Which of the following type of materials present in a landslide suggest that the movement was rotational?
(A) Rockflow, Debris flow, Earthflow
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump, Earth slump
(C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple, Earth topple
Answer: (B)
17. Which of the following parameters is not a good indicator of contamination in ground water?
(A) BOD
(B) Nitrates
(C) Silica
(D) Chlorides
Answer: (C)
18. On an aerial photograph, the distance between the principal point and the conjugate principal point is called
(A) Relief
(B) Tilt
(C) Photo-base
(D) Focal length
Answer: (C)
19. An equatorial west to east remote sensing satellite orbiting the earth at an altitude of 36,000 km is called
(A) Sun-synchronous satellite
(B) Geostationary satellite
(C) Space shuttle
(D) Stereo imager
Answer: (B)
20. Which state of Cr (Chromium) is most toxic?

(A) Cr4+
(B) Cr3+
(C) Cr5+
(D) Cr6+
Answer: (D)
21. Assertion (A): Groundwater may get seriously contaminated in coastal areas.
Reason (R): Groundwater overdrafts near coastal areas can contaminate groundwater supplies by allowing salt water to
intrude into freshwater aquifers.
Codes:
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
22. Assertion (A): Tropical and subtropical seas are most suitable for OTEC.
Reason (R): There is a certain minimum vertical gradient (> 25 °C/km) required for OTEC to become feasible.
Codes:
Answer: (A)
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a total of 500 million tonnes of CO2 is released to the atmosphere. If the entire
amount of CO2 remains in the atmosphere, what will be the rise in the concentration of CO2 in ppm?
(A) ~ 0.236 ppm
(B) ~ 0.128 ppm
(C) ~ 2.312 ppm
(D) ~ 1.216 ppm
Answer: (A)
24. A thermal power station has a heat rate of 12 mJ/kWh. Its thermal efficiency is
(A) 30%
(B) 36%
(C) 40%
(D) 25%
Answer: (A)
25. Assume that world coal production is 6.1 billion tons per year and estimated total recoverable resources of coal are 1.1
trillion tons. How long it would take to use up those reserves at current rate of production?
(A) ~ 180 years
(B) ~ 150 years
(C) ~ 120 years
(D) ~ 90 years
Answer: (A)
26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the salinity generally varies from top to bottom of the pond as
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30%
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35%
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Answer: (A)
27. Which region among the following is not Atmospheric Brown Cloud (ABC) hotspot?
(A) East-Asia
(B) South Africa
(C) Amazon Basin in South America
(D) Australia
28. Prolonged exposure to high levels of noise causes

(i) Hearing loss
(ii) Constriction of blood vessels
(iii) Gastric ulcers
(iv) Toxicity
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)
29. Azolla pinnata is a

(A) Blue green algae
(B) Green algae
(C) Red algae
(D) Fern
Answer: (D)
30. Assertion (A): Eruption of the volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991 spewed sulphur clouds into the upper reaches of the
atmosphere. The following three years were cooler.
Reason (R): Sulphate aerosols reflect sunlight away from the Earth.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Answer: (A)
31. Photolysis of NO2 occurs due to radiations of wavelength

(A) < 600 nm
(B) < 550 nm
(C) < 480 nm
(D) < 390 nm
Answer: (D)
32. The efficiency of removing SO2 from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as high as
(A) 30%
(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Answer: (D)
33. The depth of the oxidation ponds is typically

(A) 1 – 2 m
(B) 2 – 5 m
(C) 5 – 10 m
(D) 10 – 20 m
Answer: (A)
34. In EIA the baseline data describes

(A) The environmental consequences by mapping
(B) Existing environmental status of the identified study area
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis of proposal
(D) Demographic and socioeconomic data
Answer: (B)
35. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts of developmental activities
on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Answer: (D)
36. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the environmental clearance of the
project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (D)
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not discernible, then what step should be
adopted?
(A) Scoping stage is to be followed.
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be conducted.
(C) Detail EIA study is to be conducted.
(D) The project should be given Environmental Clearance.
Answer: (B)
38. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental Management plan reports of a
developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is called
(A) Project Assessment Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
Answer: (B)
39. In a typical municipal solid waste, least percentage of Ash is found in

(A) Textiles
(B) Plastic
(C) Leather
(D) Rubber
Answer: (A)
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals have flash point

(A) Lower than 23 °C
(B) Between 23 and 26 °C
(C) Between 27 and 31 °C
(D) Between 32 and 40 °C
Answer: (A)
41. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
(A) NO
(B) O3
(C) SF6
(D) HFCs
Answer: (A)
42. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of the system is K, the growth
realisation factor is
(A) (K – X) / X
(B) (K – X) / K
(C) (K – X) / K2
(D) (K – X)
Answer: (B)
43. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
(A) The mean is much smaller than median
(B) The range is equal to five times the standard deviation.
(C) The range is larger than interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard deviation.
Answer: (A)
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Answer: (A)
45. Which of the following is an eigen value of the matrix
3 –1
4 –2 ?
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 3
Answer: (A)
46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the
drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Answer: (A)
47. What is Eco mark?

(A) Label given to recycled products
(B) Label given to an environment friendly products
(C) Land mark indicating the boundaries of bio-parks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable products
Answer: (B)
48. An important source of Arsenic in Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is

(A) Pigments in plastics
(B) Rubber products
(C) Batteries
(D) Household pesticides
Answer: (D)
49. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness Programme?
(A) Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE).
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(D) Environmental Education in School System
Answer: (D)
50. REDD stands forwww.netugc.com

(A) Recurring Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(B) Reducing Environmental Degradation and Forest Degradation
(C) Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from Degradable Deposits of Wastes
Answer: (C
1. For an overcast day or night, the atmosphere is
(A) Stable
(B) Neutral
(C) Slightly stable
(D) Unstable
Answer: (B)
2. Assertion (A): The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R): The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the transformation of energy from one trophic
level to the other, 80 – 90% of energy is lost.
Codes:
Answer: (A)
3. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from the given codes:
(Thermodynamic Variables) (Expression)
(Symbols have their usual meanings.)
(a) ΔG i. ΔE + PΔV
(b) ΔG° ii. – n FE°
(c) ΔS iii. RT ln (V1/V2)
(d) ΔH iv. nR ln (V2/ V1)
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer: (B)
4. The environmental lapse rate during day time is governed by

(i) Wind speed
(ii) Sunlight
(iii) Topographical features
(iv) Cloud cover
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iv) only
Answer: (C)
5. The wavelength range of UV–C radiations is

(A) 200 – 280 nm
(B) 180 – 240 nm
(C) 320 – 400 nm
(D) 240 – 300 nm
Answer: (A)
6. In a gas chromatography experiment, the retention factor (Rf) values for pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ in a mixture of
pollutants were 0.5 and 0.125, respectively. If the distance travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the distance (in cms)
travelled by pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ will be
(A) 6 and 1.5
(B) 3 and 1.5
(C) 0.5 and 0.125
(D) 1.5 and 3
Answer: (A)
7. Using the following equations, which can be determined correctly?

Ca(HCO3)2 –––→ Δ CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 (by heating) or Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 –––→ 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O (by addition
of lime)
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbonates
(C) Bicarbonates
(D) Carbonates and Bicarbonates
Answer: (D)
8. Assume that a river having dissolved oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 flowing at 80 m3/sec. converge with another river
having Dissolved Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3 flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after the confluence the Dissolved
Oxygen is 0.59 g/m3, then the BOD is
(A) 0.83 g/m3
(B) 0.43 g/m3
(C) 0.73 g/m3
(D) 0.92 g/m3
Answer: (A)
9. Cells grown in a medium containing phosphorous –32 will show radio labelling in
(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen
(C) Proteins
(D) Nucleic acids
Answer: (A)
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The fraction of the C14 atoms that decays per year is
(A) 1.216 × 10–4
(B) 0.52 × 10–3
(C) 0.78 × 10–4
(D) 2.81 × 10–4
Answer: (A)
11. Assertion (A): Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans and along coasts in the Western
Pacific.
Reason (R): Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.
Codes:
Answer: (B)
12. “Double digging” is a method of

(A) Bio-intensive agriculture
(B) Deforestation
(C) Aforestation
(D) Water conservation
Answer: (A)
13. The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats pertains to
(A) Alpha diversity
(B) Beta diversity
(C) Gamma diversity
(D) Species diversity
Answer: (B)
14. Match the List – I and List – II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(Vegetation development) (Nomenclature of succession)
(a) On a rock i. Psammosere
(b) On sand ii. Lithosere
(c) In aquatic habitat iii. Xerosere
(d) In dry habitat iv. Hydrosere
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
15. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled conditions, the species is said to be
(A) Ecologically extinct
(B) Mass extinct
(C) Wild extinct
(D) Anthropogenic extinct
Answer: (C)
16. Which of the following symbolises correct sequence in hydrosere?

(A) Diatoms → Wolffia → Hydrilla → Cyperus → Populus
(B) Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus → Diatoms
(C) Cyperus → Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Populus
(D) Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus
Answer: (D)
17. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels?
(A) Stagnant water ecosystem
(B) Freshwater ecosystem
(C) Brackish ecosystem
(D) Marine ecosystem
Answer: (A)
18. The K-strategists arewww.netugc.com

(a) Large organisms which have relatively longer life
(b) Provide care for their offsprings
(c) Organisms that stabilise their population at carrying capacity for the area
Choose the correct answer;
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (D)
19. Limnetic zone in freshwater ecosystem is characterised by

(A) Presence of rooted vegetation
(B) Absence of rooted vegetation
(C) Presence of large proportion of lime
(D) Absence of phytoplankton
Answer: (B)
20. Match the List – I with List – II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(Plants) (Family)
(a) Camellia caduca i. Orchidaceae
(b) Picea brachytyla ii. Theaceae
(c) Colchicumluteum iii. Pinaceae
(d) Arachnantha clarkei iv. Liliaceae
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer: (D)
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation
spectrum?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Near infrared
(C) Middle infrared
(D) Visible
Answer: (B)
22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation
spectrum depends upon
(A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) All the above characters
Answer: (D)
23. Given below are statements in the context of biogeochemical cycles:

(i) Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.
(ii) Ecosystem boundaries are permeable to some degree or other.
(iii) The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another via imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) & (ii) only
(B) (ii) & (iii) only
(C) (i) & (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D)
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km, respectively. What is its volcanic
explosivity index value?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 4
Answer: (D)
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is correct for oceans?
(A) Input + change in storage = output
(B) Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
(C) Input – change in storage = output
(D) Precipitation – inflow = evaporation
Answer: (B)
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
(A) Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning – review
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.
(D) Learning – review, emergency plans, preparedness.
Answer: (A)
27. Permafrost represents

(A) Permanently frozen subsurface soil
(B) Frozen leaves of Oak trees
(C) Frozen needles of pine trees
(D) Temporarily frozen subsurface soil
Answer: (A)
28. Assertion (A): Estuaries are productive ecosystems.

Reason (R): Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers that run into them.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow of water. The difference in
their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance
perpendicular to the flow of water is
(A) 25 m3/day per metre
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
(C) 5 m3/day per metre
(D) 1 m3/day per metre
Answer: (C)
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
(A) Clay
(B) Sandstone
(C) Limestone
(D) Quartzite
Answer: (B)
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
(A) Solar
(B) Hydrothermal
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Answer: (C)
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar radiation
intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The
collector efficiency is
(A) ~ 6.6 %
(B) ~ 4.8 %
(C) ~ 12.2 %
(D) ~ 15.2 %
Answer: (A)
33. For the reaction in a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell,

H2 + 1/2 O2 = H2O (l)
Given ΔG° = 240 kJ/gm – mole of H2 and Faraday’s constant = 96,500 Coulomb/gm mole.
The developed voltage in the fuel cell will be
(A) ~ 1.13 Volts
(B) ~ 2.13 Volts
(C) ~ 1.51 Volts
(D) ~ 1.24 Volts
Answer: (D)
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal < Nuclear
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas <Nuclear
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas <Oil
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil <Bituminous coal
Answer: (D)
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
(A) Normal water
(B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
Answer: (D)
36. The minimum temperature gradient (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 60
Answer: (A)
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar energy to electric generation
process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond?
(A) 100 km2
(B) 90 km2
(C) 60 km2
(D) 180 km2
Answer: (A)
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth’s surface?
(A) Ozone
(C) All Greenhouse gases
(D) Sulphates and nitrates
Answer: (B)
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for measurements.
Reason (R): Weighting a filters out unwanted signals.
Codes:
Answer: (C)
40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a sound pressure level of

(A) 0.2 Pa
(B) 0.02 Pa
(C) 20 Pa
(D) 200 Pa
Answer: (A)
41. Asphyxiation is caused by

(A) HCN, COCl2
(B) NOx
(C) CHCl3
(D) AsH3
Answer: (A)
42. Sequence of a typical sewage treatment plant operation process will be

(A) Aeration → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Recarbonation → Filtration → Disinfection
(B) Aeration → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
(C) Flocculation → Aeration →Recarbonation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection
(D) Sedimentation → Flocculation → Aeration → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
Answer: (A)
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
(A) Rn222
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210
(D) Bi210
Answer: (B)
44. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from given codes:www.netugc.com
(Aerosols) (Constituents)
(a) Dust i. Small gas borne particles resulting from combustion
(b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended small liquid droplets
(d) Atmospheric Brown Cloud iv. Solid suspended particles
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
45. Assertion (A): Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.

Reason (R): These compounds contain chlorine, bromine and fluorine.
Codes:
Answer: (C)
46. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin?

(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(C) Myrcene
(D) Acrolein
Answer: (D)
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air?
(A) Lichen
(B) Orchid
(C) Apricot
(D) Tobacco
Answer: (A)
48. Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at removing

(A) NO2 and CO
(B) CO and SO2
(C) Particulates and sulphur
(D) NO2 and SO2
Answer: (C)
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater generated per day. For an average flow rate of 25
m3 per day per sq. metre, what should be the diameter of the circular primary settling tank?
(A) 50.4 m
(B) 30.6 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 25.8 m
Answer: (A)
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s
with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2
(B) ~ 213.5
(C) ~ 153.4
(D) ~ 198.9
Answer: (C)
51. Assertion (A): Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct\ explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)
(Analytical functions) (Activity under the function)
(a) Defining scope of EIA i. Critical Assessment of impacts
(b) Identification of impacts ii. Estimation of the probability that a particular impact will occur
(c) Prediction of Impacts iii. Description of the existing environment system
(d) Impact Evaluation and Analysis iv. Deciding important issues and concerns
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iv iii
Answer: (B)
53. A drawback of checklists is

(A) Preliminary analysis is available in scaling checklist
(B) Checklists are too general or incomplete
(C) Checklists summarises information to make it available to experts
(D) Ecosystem functions can be clearly understood from weighting methods
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
(Scales used in EIA methods) (Example)
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (degrees)
(b) Ordinal ii. Species classification
(c) Interval iii. Map scale
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
Answer: (D)
56. Risk assessment in EIA does not involve

(A) Maximum credible analysis
(B) Hazard and operability studies
(C) Preparation of disaster management plan
(D) Assessment of economic benefit arising out of a project
Answer: (D)
57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical waste is subjected to a temperature

(A) > 120 °C
(B) < 100 °C
(C) > 300 °C
(D) > 800 °C
Answer: (A)
58. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous waste management is

(A) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Recycle / Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(B) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Recycle/Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(C) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
(D) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
Answer: (A)
59. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in the year

(A) 1991
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1997
Answer: (A)
(Convention) (Year)
(a) Convention for the protection of the ozone layer i. 1979
(b) Conservation of migratory species of wild animals ii. 1985
(c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
(d) UN Convention on the law of the sea iv. 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
(Acts) (Year when enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection Act i. 1980
(b) Forest Conservation Act ii. 1972
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iii. 1974
(d) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iv. 1981
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (A)
62. Assertion (A): χ2 distribution is a non-parametric distribution.

Reason (R): χ2 is a sample statistic having no corresponding population parameter.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)
63. In a simple regression analysis of y on x, the standard error of estimate of y on x, Syx = 5, number of observations N is
30, and ∑ y2 = 2000. The unexplained variance is
(A) 1500
(B) 750
(C) 500
(D) 250
Answer: (B)
64. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of sizes 25 and 20, independently
selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F(24, 19) statistic?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2.81
(D) 3.6
Answer: (A)
65. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
Answer: (A)
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H is the effective
height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance (x) from the stack is proportional to
(A) H–1
(B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2)
(D) H–3/2
Answer: (B)
67. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8), (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9,
2.6) is
(A) 0.623
(B) – 0.572
(C) 0.957
(D) 0.823
Answer: (C)
68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an elevation of 300 m will be
(A) 4.9 m/s
(B) 1.2 m/s
(C) 3.6 m/s
(D) 7.9 m/s
Answer: (A)
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area
(B) Ecology of the area
(C) Carbon budget of the area
(D) Water resources of the area
Answer: (C)
70. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
I. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.
III. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I, II and III.
(D) I only.
Answer: (C)
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global warming impact between
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11
Answer: (B)www.netugc.com
72. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas?
(A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)
(D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
Answer: (A)
73. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to
(A) the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
(B) the values that is important to development and economic growth
(C) the conservation values of selected species
(D) the development of genetically modified organisms
Answer: (A)
74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-apyrene) in atmospheric environment is
(A) residential wood burning
(B) gasoline
(C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
Answer: (A)
75. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(Materials) (Applications)
(a) Trichloroethylene 1. Gasoline
(b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
(c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(d) Phenol 4. Mining
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Answer: (A)
Environmental Science Previous Q & A
1. Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?
A. Lead
B. Cadmium
C. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
D. All of the above
Ans: D
2. Which of the following are the main contributors of the e-waste in the world?
I. Refrigerators/freezers, washing machines, dishwashers
II. Small household appliances (toasters, coffee makers, irons, hairdryers)
III. Personal computers, telephones, mobile phones, laptops, printers, scanners,
photocopiers
IV. Gas cylinder, chimneys & home appliances
A. Only I, II, III
B. Only I & II
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
C. Only I, III, IV
D. All of the above
Ans: A
3. How are electronic items dangerous?
A. They degrade over time, releasing cancer-causing chemicals into the air.
B. Lead and mercury in components can cause metabolic changes in users.
C. They leach toxic metals in landfills and into ground water.
D. They create electromagnetic fields that interfere with animal reproduction.
Ans: C
4. Which toxic compound is not found in e-waste?
A. Mercury
B. Cadmium
C. Neon
D. Lead
Ans: C
5. What does e- waste stand for?
A. Environment waste
B. Electronic waste
C. Equipment waste
D. None of the above
Ans: B
6. E-waste contains hazardous substances that are harmful to the environment and
human health if not properly treated or disposed of, therefore they must be handled
with care.
What are the health hazards which can be caused by E-Waste?
A. Lung cancer
B. DNA damage
C. Brain
D. All of the above
Ans: D
7. Which country produces the most e-waste per year?
A. India
B. China
C. USA
D. France
Ans: B
8. How much lead is in a cathode ray tube (CRT), commonly called a picture tube?
A. 1.75 pounds
B. Between 2 and 3 pounds
C. 19 pounds
D. Between 4 and 7 pounds
Ans: D
9. The most valuable part of a PC or TV is the
A. Lead in the CRT
B. Circuit boards that contain silver and gold
C. Copper in the cathode yoke
Ans: C
10. Which of the following is the correct related to E-waste?
A. E-waste is a popular, informal name for electronic products nearing the end of
their "useful life.
B. Computers, televisions, VCRs, stereos, copiers, and fax machines are common
electronic products.
C. Both A and B
Ans: C
11. Which of the following animal found in Tropical Evergreen Forest?
A. Monkey
B. Camel
C. Giraffe
Ans: A
12. In which of the following places Steppe Grassland is found?
A. Central Asia
B. North America
C. Australia
D. South Africa
Ans: A
13. Which of the following animal exclusively eat only eucalyptus leaves and nothing
else?
A. Kangaroo
B. Koala
C. Monkey
D. Greater Glider
Ans: B
14. Kiwi are a symbol for the uniqueness of _______ wildlife and the value of natural
heritage.
A. India
B. Russia
C. New Zealand
D. South Africa
Ans: C
15. Which of the following is a hillstream loach species native to the riverine fauna of
China?
A. Saw fish
B. Silver fish
C. Hammer fish
D. Sucker fish
Ans: D
16. Which of the following living creature known for the loudest sound?
A. Gibbon
B. Donkey
C. Howler monkey
D. Humpback Whales
Ans: D
17. Who among the following for the first time coined the term Biodiversity?
A. E O Wilson
B. R D Barnes
C. N Myers
Ans: A
18. Which of the following agency has evolved to become the world's most
comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species?
A. IUCN
B. NEERI
C. NWAP
D. CITES
Ans: A
19. Who among the following explain the concept of Biodiversity ‘hotspots’?
A. Norman Myers
B. John Muir
C. G Nelson
Ans: A
20. Which of the following is known for the World’s largest Wetland System?
A. Chilka (India)
B. Pantanal (South America)
C. Everglades (USA)
Ans: B
Aptitude Question & Answers
Question1.If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many
days?
a. 4 days
b. 3 days
c. 40 days
d. 100 days
Ans. 100 days
Explanation: if 100 cats kills 100 mice in= 100 days;
Then , 100 cats will kill 1 mouse in = 1 days; => 1 cat will kill 1 mouse in = 100 days;
And, 4 cats will kill 1 mouse in = 25 days;
Hence, 4 cats will kill 4 mouse in = 100 days;
Question2.
a. 4.2 cm
b. 3.1 cm
c. 2.8 cm
d. 2.1 cm
Ans. 2.1 cm
Explanation: AD : BD = 3 : 5;
As the theorem of proportionality states- AE : CE = 3 :5; => AE : AC = 3 : 8;
AE = (3/8) * AC;
AE = 2.1 cm;
Question3.If two circles touch each other internally. The greater circle has its radius as 6 cm
and the distance between the centers of the circles is 2 cm. The radius of the other circle is
a. 3 cms
b. 4 cms
c. 2 cms
d. 5 cms
Ans. 4 cms
Explanation: O2 is the center of the outer circle and O1 is the center of inner circle.
Hence, Radius of outer circle = 6 -O1O2 = 6-2 = 4 cms.
Question4.An office opens at 10 AM and closes at 5 PM. The lunch interval is 30 minutes. The
ratio of lunch interval to the total period of office hours is
a. 1:7
b. 1:14
c. 7:1
d. 14:1
Ans. 1:14
Explanation: Total working hours = 7 hours= 7*60=420 minutes.
Hence, the required ratio= 30/420 = 1: 14;
Question5.A Bookseller allowed 15% discount on the books sold. Sunil purchased books
worth Rs.1500. How much will he have to pay to Bookseller.
a. Rs.1200
b. Rs.1250
c. Rs.1275
d. Rs.1300
Ans. Rs.1275
Explanation: the percentage at which Sunil purchased the book = 100 – 15 = 85%;
The Amount paid to the Book seller= 85% of 1500 = Rs. 1275.
Question6.If the ratio between the profit and sale price of an article is 1:5, then the ratio
between the sale price and the cost price of that article is:
a. 3:2
b. 4:3
c. 5:4
d. 6:5
Ans. 5:4
Explanation: Profit: Sale Price= 1: 5; => Profit = Sale Price/5;
Cost Price = Sale price – Profit;
Cost Price = Sale Price– Sale Price/5; => Cost Price = 4* Sale Price/5;
Sale Price: Cost Price = 5: 4;
Question7.What percent of 1 day is 36 minutes?
a. 25%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.6%
d. 0.25%
Ans. 2.5%
Explanation: 1 day = 24 * 60 minutes = 1440 minutes;
The required percentage = 36*100/1440=2.5%.
Question8. A car covers a certain distance in 25 hrs. If it reduces the speed
by 1/5, the car covers 200 km less in that time. The speed of
car is
a. 60 km/hr
b. 30 km/hr
c. 40 km/hr
d. 50 km/hr
Ans. 40 km/hr
Explanation: Let the distance be x km and speed be y kmph;
x/y = 25 => x =25y; --------eq.(i.)
(x-200)/(4y/5) = 25 =>x-200 = 20y; ---- eq.(ii.)
Put value of x from eq.(i) to eq.(ii.)-
25y-200 = 20y;
5y = 200 => y=40 kmph;
Question 11.If x2+y2+z2 = 14 and xy + yz + zx = 11, then the value of (x+y+z)2 is
a. 16
b. 25
c. 36
d. 49
Ans. 36
Explanation: x2+y2+z2 = 14 -----------eq.(i.)
xy + yz + zx = 11 -------------eq.(ii.)
Adding eq.(i.) and 2 x eq.(ii.), we get-
x2+y2+z2 +2(xy + yz + zx) = 14 + 2*11=36;
(x+y+z)2 =36;
Question 12.
a. 2/3
b. 4/3
c. 2
d. 8/3
Ans. 4/3
Explanation: tan2θ = √6/√2=√3; => tan2θ=tan60;
2θ =60; => θ = 30;
sin θ +√3cos θ-2tan2θ = sin30 + √3cos 30-2tan230;
= ½ + √3*√3/2-2*1/3 =1/2 +3/2 -2/3 = 2-2/3 =4/3;
Question 13.A positive number when decreased by 4, is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of
this number. The number is:
a. 3
b. 7
c. 5
d. 9
Ans. 7
Explanation: Suppose the number =x;
x-4 = 21*(1/x); => x2-4x-21=0;
x2-(7-3)x-21=0;
x2-7x+3x-21=0; => x(x-7)+3(x-7)=0;
(x-7)(x+3)=0; => x=7, -3;
Question 16.
a. 48
b. 1792
c. 4096
d. 570
Ans. 4096
Explanation: x/y = 12/4 =3;
Hence, (x+y)x/y=(12+4)3 =163 =4096;
Question 17.In a triangle PQR, PQ = PR and ∠Q is twice that of ∠P. Then ∠Q is equal to
a. 72°
b. 36°
c. 144°
d. 108°
Ans. 72°
Explanation: Q = 2P (given); Q=R (PQ=PR);
P + Q + R = 180;
Q/2+Q+Q = 180; => 5Q/2 = 180;
Q= 72;
Question 18.If the length of a chord of a circle is 16 cms. and is at a distance of 15 cm from
the centre of the circle, then the radius of the circle (in cm) is:
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 34
Ans. 17
Explanation: r2 = 152 + 82;
r2 = 225 + 64 = 289; => r = 17 cms;
Question 19.On 24th May 2008 the maximum temperature of Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai were
recorded as 35°C, 33°C and 34°C respectively. What was the maximum temperature of
Chennai so that the average maximum temperature of those cities would be 35°?
a. 34° C
b. 35° C
c. 36° C
d. 38° C
Ans. 38° C
Explanation: Average temperature of all cities including Chennai = 35 + 33 + 34 + x= 102 + x;
(102 + x )/4 = 35; x = 140 -102 = 38;
Question 20.The diameter of a sphere is twice the diameter of another sphere. The curved
surface area of the first and the volume of the second are numerically equal. The numerical
value of the radius of the first sphere is
a. 3
b. 24
c. 8
d. 16
Ans. 24
Explanation: Let the diameter of first sphere is d and diameter of second sphere is D.
d=2D;
pi * d2 = 1/3 * pi * (D)3;
put value of d in the above equation-
4D2 = 1/3 *(D3); => D = 12 cms;
d=2*12 = 24 cms.
Question 21.The thread of a kite makes 60° angle with the horizontal plane. If the length of the
thread be 80 m, then the vertical height of the kite will be
a. 40/√3 m
b. 80√3 m
c. 80 m
d. 40√3 m
Ans. 40√3 m
Explanation: h= 80 sin60 =40√3 m;
Question 22.Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents
the percentage of people involved in various occupations. Total number of people = 20000
How many more people are involved in service than in trade?
a. 3660
b. 2660
c. 1660
d. 660
Ans. 2660
Explanation: %Difference in service and trade = 20-6.7 = 13.3%;
Hence, no. of people involved in service than in trade = 13.3*20000/100 = 2660;
The ratio of the people involved in service to that of industry is
a. 1:2
b. 2:3
c. 3:4
d. 3:2
Ans. 2:3
Explanation: The required ratio = 20%: 30% = 2: 3;
The sectorial angle made by the people involved in service in the given pie-chart is
a. 36°
b. 90°
c. 72°
d. 108°
Ans. 72°
Explanation: The sectorial angle made by the people in service sector = 20% of 360 = 72;
The difference between the maximum number of people involved and minimum number of
people involved in various professions is
a. 2640
b. 3640
c. 6320
d. 5320
Ans. 5320
Explanation: The Maximum number of people is involved in agriculture and minimum people
are involved in trade;
Hence, % difference = 33.30 – 6.7 = 26.6%.
Hence, the required number of people = 26.6% of 20000 = 5320;
General English Question & Answers
Question 1.In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
LABYRINTH
a. MAZE
b. PATH
c. SKYSCRAPER
d. IMPASSE
Ans. MAZE
Explanation: The word ‘Labyrinth’ means ‘a complicated irregular network of passages

or paths in which it is difficult to find one's way’. This is similar to ‘Maze’. Hence, option
(a.) is the correct answer.
Question 2.In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word
which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
BARREN
a. FERTILE
b. ABUNDANT
c. HARSH
d. FALLOW
Ans. FERTILE
Explanation: The word ‘Barren’ means ‘too poor to produce much or any vegetation’,
which has opposite meaning of ‘Fertile’.
Question 3.Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
a. Mysogynous
b. Misogynous
c. Mysoginous
d. Misoginous
Ans. Misogynous
Explanation: ‘Miso’ is the Greek word for ‘hate’ and ‘Gyne’ stands for ‘the women’.
Therefore, a Misogynous is a person, who hates woman. Hence, Option(b.) is the
correct answer.
Question 4.In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an
error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free
from error, click the "No error" option.
According to scientists(A)/, there are a lot of(B)/answers about it(C)/No Error(D).
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. C
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“According to scientists, there are a
lot of answers to it.”
They are coming (A)/ straight to (B)/our direction.(C)/No Error(D).
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. B
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“They are coming straight in our
direction.”
The building collapsed(A)/at the afternoon (B)/at about 4 o'clock (C)/No Error(D).
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. B
Explanation: The correct sentence formation will be-“The building collapsed in the
afternoon at about 4 o’ clock.”
Question 7.The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question,
choose the correct alternative.
The police is ________ on his activities.
a. keeping an eye
b. keeping watchful eyes
c. keeping both eyes
d. keeping one eye
Ans. keeping an eye
Explanation: The correct sentence formation will be- “The Police is keeping an eye on
his activities.”
Are you _______ stamp collecting?
a. interested by
b. interested in
c. interested at
d. interested about
Ans. interested in
Explanation: In such cases, the verb ‘interest’ is followed by ‘in’. hence, option (b.) is
the most appropriate answer.
Your report ________ my statement.
a. conforms
b. conforming
c. confirms
d. comforting
Ans. confirms
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“Your report confirms my statement.”
Hence, option(c.) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 10.In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
Idiom/Phrase.
To get cold feet
a. Drenched
b. Fear
c. Felicitate
d. Fever
Ans. Fear
Explanation: ‘To get cold feet’ idiom represents a situation in which a person feels a
wave of timidity or fearfulness in him.
Idiom/Phrase.
Beside the mark
a. Perfect
b. Not to the point
c. Relevant
d. Charming
Ans. Not to the point
Explanation: ‘Beside the mark’ is used for irrelevant things or off the subjects.
Idiom/Phrase.
On tenterhooks
a. Happy and excited
b. In suspense and anxiety
c. Angry and irritated
d. Surprised and shocked
Ans. In suspense and anxiety
Explanation: ‘On tenterhooks’ is used in a state of suspense or agitation because of

uncertainty about a future event.
Question 13.Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentences.
Property inherited from one's father or ancestors.
a. Patrimony
b. Mercenary
c. Hereditary
d. Aristocracy
Ans. Patrimony
Explanation: Patrimony is the correct word to show the inheritance of any property
from father or male ancestor.
A person who is womanish in his habits
a. Feminist
b. Philogynist
c. Effeminate
d. Feminine
Ans. Effeminate
Explanation: Effeminate is an adjective, which is used for a person showing

characteristics regarded as typical of a woman.
One who is converted from one religion to another
a. Pilgrim
b. Polytheist
c. Proselyte
d. Presbyte
Ans. Proselyte
Explanation: ‘Proselyte’ is used for a person, who has converted from one opinion,
religion, or party to another.
Question 16.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
Do you have some sugar?
a. any sugar
b. little sugar
c. small sugar
d. No improvement
Ans. any sugar
Explanation: ‘Some’ is used for countable things, whereas any is used for quantity
related entity. Hence, the correct sentence will be-“Do you have any sugar?”
"No improvement".
Lago lied to Othello about his wife.
a. lay
b. laid
c. lain
d. No improvement
Ans. No improvement
Explanation: The given sentence comply with all the grammar rules. Hence, it needs
no improvement.
"No improvement".
It is not possible to tell the entire story in nutshell.
a. in a nutshell
b. in the nut
c. in a shell
d. No improvement
Ans. in a nutshell
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“It is not possible to tell the entire
story in a nutshell.”
"No improvement".
It is all but same to me whether I am transferred to Mumbai or Kolkata.
a. all or same
b. all the same
c. all one
d. No improvement
Ans. all the same
Explanation: the correct sentence will be after the modification will be-“It is all the same
to me whether I am transferred to Mumbai or Kolkata.”
"No improvement".
Despite his father's financial assistance, he was always hard on.
a. hard in
b. hard up
c. hard out
d. No improvement
Ans. hard up
Explanation: ‘Hard on’ means ‘continuing to be hard’, while ‘hard up’ means
‘penniless’. Hence, option (b.) is the correct answer.
Question 21.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.\
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
Why do a majority of retired elders find retirement tiresome?
a. Because their homes have been turned into hives of worry.
b. Because they do not have hobbies to utilize their free time.
c. Because they had nothing to do.
d. Because they had plenty of free time.
Ans. Because they do not have hobbies to utilize their free time.
Explanation: The answer for this question can be found in the following lines-
“Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when hobbies, instead, could
have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.”
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.
How have the Japanese benefitted from their weekends?
a. They have increased enjoyment in life.
b. They enjoy health and happiness.
c. They use their free time to increase their enjoyment.
d. They become addicts to coffee or hard liquor and gambling.
Ans. They become addicts to coffee or hard liquor and gambling.
Explanation: the supporting answer can be found with the following lines- “In fact,
Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather than increase their
enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and happiness. Unable to while
away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have become addicts to coffee or hard
liquor, and have even taken to gambling.”
The syllabus-loaded education system
a. Places a heavy burden on the youth.
b. Ensures that parents pay attention to the development of children.
c. Lays emphasis on intelligence.
d. Gives students a lot of free time.
Ans. Places a heavy burden on the youth.
Explanation: Consider the following lines to find the answer-“ Ironically, the
syllabus-loaded education system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on
children and youth, laying emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.”
The author thinks that
a. Authorities are more appreciative of the syllabus-loaded education system.
b. Hobbies play an important role in changing the unfortunate situation.
c. Co-curricular activities are discouraged.
d. Only Indians suffer from inability to utilize leisure.
Ans. Hobbies play an important role in changing the unfortunate situation.
Explanation: The author has talked a lot about the hobbies for overcoming the
tiresome boredom.
The passage tells us that
a. Hobbies are a waste of time
b. Hobbies play a crucial role in physical and mental development.
c. Hobbies wreak havoc on man's health and happiness.
d. Hobbies can turn us into addicts of coffee, liquor or gambling.
Ans. Hobbies play a crucial role in physical and mental development.
Explanation: The author has given lot of examples ranging from old retired persons to
the students to support the statement of developing hobbies to combat the physical and
mental stress.
General Science Previous Year Question & Answers
1. Anatomy is a branch of Science which deals with:
A. Structure of animals and plants
B. Functioning of body organs
C. Animal behaviour
D. Cells and tissues
Ans. A
2. Oncology is the study of:
A. Birds
B. Cancer
C. Mammals
D. Soil
Ans. B
3. Numismatics is the study of:
A. Coins
B. Numbers
C. Stamps
D. Space
Ans. A
4. Eugenics is the study of:
A. Different races of mankind
B. Genetics of plants
C. People of European region
D. Altering human beings by changing their genetic components.
Ans. D
5. Ornithology is the:
A. Study of plants
B. Study of bones
C. Study of noise
D. Study of birds
Ans. D
6. Epidemiology is the study of:
A. Endodermis disease
B. Dermis disease
C. Epidemic disease
Ans. C
7. The energy of food is measured in:
A. Calories
B. Celsius
C. Kelvin
Ans. A
8. Name the instrument that is used to measure Relative Humidity?
A. Hygrometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Mercury Thermometer
Ans. A
9. Name an instrument which is used to measure the Density of milk?
A. Lactometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Hygrometer
Ans. A
10. Name an instrument used to measure electric resistance?
A. Ohmmeter
B. Electrometer
C. Galvanometer
D. Spectrometer
Ans. A
11. Which of the following is the first calculating device?
A. Abacus
B. Calculator
C. Turing Machine
D. Pascaline
Ans: A
12. Who invented mechanical calculator called Pascaline?
A. Charles Babbage
B. Blaise Pascal
C. Alan Turing
D. Lee De Forest
Ans: B
13. Who among the following considered as the 'father of artificial intelligence'?
A. Charles Babbage
B. Lee De Forest
C. John McCarthy
D. JP Eckert
Ans: C
14. Which was the world's first successful electronic computer?
A. PARAM
B. CRAY-1
C. Pascaline
D. ENIAC electronic Numerical Integrator and computer
Ans: D
15. Who among the following used the term computer worm for the first time?
A. John Brunner
B. Alan Turing
C. John McCarthy
D. JP Eckert
Ans: A
16. Which was first virus detected on ARPANET, the forerunner of the internet in the
early 1970s?
A. Exe Flie
B. Creeper Virus
C. Peeper Virus
D. Trozen horse
Ans: B
17. Find out the correct definition of Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A. It is a programming language with strong abstraction from the details of the
computer.
B. It is a collection of computers interconnected with each other through cables to
share their data, information and other common hardware resources.
C. A computer network that covers a broad area (i.e., any network, whose
communications links cross metropolitan, regional or national boundaries).
D. A computer network covering a small physical area like a home, office or small
groups of buildings, such as a school or an airport.
Ans: C
18. Select the example of application software of computer:
A. Ms Word
B. Ms Excel
C. Both A and B
D. MS-DOS
Ans: C
19. Which of the following is also called translator?
A. Data representation
B. MS-DOS
C. Operating System
D. Language Processor
Ans: D
20. How the quality of printer is measured?
A. Alphabet per strike
B. Words per Inch
C. Strike per Inch
D. Dots per Inch
Ans: D
21. Anatomy is a branch of Science which deals with:
A. Structure of animals and plants
B. Functioning of body organs
C. Animal behaviour
D. Cells and tissues
Ans. A
22. Oncology is the study of:
A. Birds
B. Cancer
C. Mammals
D. Soil
Ans. B
23. Numismatics is the study of:
A. Coins
B. Numbers
C. Stamps
D. Space
Ans. A
24. Eugenics is the study of:
A. Different races of mankind
B. Genetics of plants
C. People of European region
D. Altering human beings by changing their genetic components.
Ans. D
25. Ornithology is the:
A. Study of plants
B. Study of bones
C. Study of noise
D. Study of birds
Ans. D
26. Epidemiology is the study of:
A. Endodermis disease
B. Dermis disease
C. Epidemic disease
Ans. C
27. The energy of food is measured in:
A. Calories
B. Celsius
C. Kelvin
Ans. A
28. Name the instrument that is used to measure Relative Humidity?
A. Hygrometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Mercury Thermometer
Ans. A
29. Name an instrument which is used to measure the Density of milk?
A. Lactometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Hygrometer
Ans. A
30. Name an instrument used to measure electric resistance?
A. Ohmmeter
B. Electrometer
C. Galvanometer
D. Spectrometer
Ans. A
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
;
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)

2. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
D8 9 1 5 PAPER - II
Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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D-8915 !D-8915-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory.
1. Which one of the following elements contributes maximum to the earth crust by weight ?
(1) Iron (2) Silicon (3) Oxygen (4) Carbon
2. The lowest temperature is observed in which layer of the atmosphere ?

(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere (3) Mesosphere (4) Thermosphere
3. Which of the following gases has the lowest residence time ?

(1) CO 2 (2) N2O (3) CFCs (4) CH4
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Chromium (VI) is highly toxic
(2) Methyl mercury is most toxic mercury species
(3) Arsenic (III) is more toxic than arsenic (V)
(4) Cadmium is a criteria pollutant
5. The most abundant functional group present in fulvic acid, commonly found in soils, is :
(1) Peptide group (2) Carboxylate group
(3) Phenolic group (4) Amino group
6. The source of Stratospheric NOx is :

(1) Atmospheric N2 (2) Tropospheric N2O
(3) Tropospheric NO (4) Tropospheric NO2
7. In troposphere, which of the following processes does not generate hydroxyl radical ?
(1) O(1D)1H2O (2) O(3P)1H2O (3) HCHO1hn (4) HNO21hn
8. The most common form of lead present in pesticide is :

(1) Lead acetate (2) Lead arsenate (3) Lead azide (4) Lead telluride
9. Consider the following four statements about benzo[a]pyrene :

(a) It is a group 1 carcinogen
(b) It is a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) Its molecular formula is C20H12
(d) It has four benzene rings
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
D-8915 !D-8915-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II
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10. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Radon is an inert gas and it is radioactive.
Reason (R) : All inert gases are radioactive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Most of Epiphytes are examples of type of biotic interactions called :

(1) Mutualism (2) Coevolution (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
12. Inhalation of airborne mold spore leads to disease in man such as :

(1) Bronchitis (2) Allergy
(3) Cardiac congestion (4) Eye irritation
13. Biological diversity is mainly a function of :

(a) Latitude
(b) Longitude
(c) Distance from sea
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
14. The ability of a living system to be restored through secondary succession after a more severe
disturbance is known as :
(1) Rehabilitation (2) Resistance (3) Resilience (4) Restoration
15. The characteristic feature of the background extinction is disappearance of a species at a :

(1) low rate (2) fast rate (3) lapse rate (4) intrinsic rate
16. Speciation means :

(1) Natural process of extinction of different species
(2) Artificial process of extinction of different species
(3) One species splits into two or more different species naturally
(4) Characterisation of different species
17. Topological modelling is a well organized cluster of functions in GIS to process :

(a) Spatial data
(b) Attribute data
(c) Physico - chemical data
(d) Species richness data
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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18. A rock body or formation which may be porous enough to hold enough quantity of water
but which by virtue of its other properties does not allow an easy and quick flow through it,
is called :
(1) Aquitard (2) Aquifuge (3) Aquiclude (4) Aquifer
19. For many decades, geologists noted the high number of earthquakes and active volcanoes
occurring around the rim of the Pacific Ocean basin. This is called :
(1) Volcanic ring (2) Ring of fire
(3) Earthquake zone (4) Volcanic hot spot
20. Inversion that occurs near Earths Surface is called :

(1) Radiation inversion (2) Advectional inversion
(3) Subsidence inversion (4) Cold - air - drainage inversion
21. The radiation flux emitted per unit solid angle in a specified direction by a unit area of source
is called :
(1) irradiance (2) radiance (3) exitance (4) radiant flux
22. Mean residence time of soil organic matter in an ecosystem is maximum in :

(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Boreal forest
(3) Temperate coniferous forest (4) Dry deciduous forest
23. Worst affected area by Indian Ocean Tsunami of December 2004 in India was :
(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Odisha
24. Consider solar insolation of 400 W/m2 incident on a single solar cell of area 100 cm2. If only
15% of the photons cause electron - hole pairs and the average energy of incident photons is
~1 eV, the short circuit current of the cell is :
(1) 1.2 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 1.6 A (4) 1.8 A
25. For which of the following renewable resources of energy, sun is not directly responsible ?
(1) Wind (2) Biomass (3) OTEC (4) Tidal
26. In terms of the calorific value, identify the correct sequence :

(1) Methane > hydrogen > ethanol > methanol
(2) Hydrogen > methane > ethanol > methanol
(3) Methane > hydrogen > methanol > ethanol
(4) Hydrogen > ethanol > methane > methanol
27. At a given location the wind speeds are predominantly in the range 6 to 6.4 m/s. This
locations wind power class will be termed as :
(1) Fair (2) Good (3) Excellent (4) Outstanding
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28. Which of the following nuclides does not undergo fission with low energy (slow) neutrons ?
(1) 235 U (2) 238 U (3) 239 Pu (4) 233 U
29. According to CPCB standards, the annual average concentration of PM 2.5 should not
exceed :
(1) 60 mg m23 (2) 40 mg m23 (3) 80 mg m23 (4) 100 mg m23
30. Which of the following is a secondary aerosol ?

(1) Pollens (2) Virus
(3) Sodium Chloride (4) Ammonium Sulphate
31. In the colorimetric determination of ambient SO2 by WEST-GAEKE method, the absorbance
of the colored complex should be measured at which of the following wavelengths ?
(1) 550 nm (2) 650 nm (3) 450 nm (4) 350 nm
32. A healthy human ear, before experiencing pain, can detect sound pressure levels as high
as :
(1) 50 Pa (2) 100 Pa (3) 200 Pa (4) 1000 Pa
33. The resultant of two noise levels of 80 dB and 50 dB will be about :

(1) ~ 80 dB (2) ~ 82 dB (3) ~ 60 dB (4) ~ 130 dB
34. The half life of radioactive iodine 2131 is :

(1) 30 years (2) 15 years (3) 5 years (4) 8 years
35. Which of the following best describes the function of the environmental management plan
as a part of the environmental statement ?
(1) It describes the environmental impacts of the proposal.
(2) It describes the baseline environmental data.
(3) It describes the project proposal in detail.
(4) It describes the actions and auditing procedures needed.
36. India submitted its INDCs related to climate change to the UN recently. What does INDCs
stand for ?
(1) Intended Nationally Devoted Contributions
(2) Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
(3) Intended Notified Decisive Contributions
(4) Indias Nationally Determined Contributions
37. Formal EIA became an integral part of Environmental Management in India by a Notification
for the first time in :
(1) 1988 (2) 1990 (3) 1992 (4) 1994
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38. EIA is necessary because :
(a) Development is not good for environment
(b) Environmental impacts of development are in public interest
(c) There is growing interest in sustainability
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
39. A moist air parcel at 248C has a mixing ratio of 10 g per kg. Its virtual temperature is :
(1) ~ 25.818C (2) ~ 20.688C (3) ~ 31.258C (4) ~ 28.128C
40. The Vienna Convention is basically related to :

(1) International trade in endangered species
(2) Protection of O3 layer
(3) Biodiversity conservation
(4) Preservation of cultural environment
41. According to Wildlife Protection Act in India, who is the authority to issue permission to
hunt rogue animals ?
(1) Chief Minister of the State (2) Chief Wildlife warden
(3) Conservator of Forest (4) Deputy Commissioner
42. According to MOEF (now MOEFCC) notification of 1992, for labelling cosmetics as
environment friendly product, the presence of fluoride (F) in tooth paste/powder should not
exceed :
(1) 20 ppm (2) 50 ppm (3) 100 ppm (4) 10 ppm
43. Which one of the following methods converts decomposed liquid or solid hazardous organic
waste effectively ?
(1) Open incineration (2) Plasma incineration
(3) Sanitory landfill (4) Bioremidiation
44. For a bi-variate sample, the correlation coefficient is 0.25 and it is found to be significantly
different from zero at 5% level of significance. Given t0.0551.645, what is the minimum size
of the sample ?
(1) 43 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 63
45. Which one of the following is non-probability sampling ?

(1) Convenience probability (2) Stratified
(3) Cluster (4) Systemic
46. A parametric test generally used to compare sample variance to a theoretical population
variance, is :
(1) F - test (2) Z - test (3) t - test (4) x2 - text
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47. From a random sample of 36 fish caught in a sample, the mean length X ( ) and sample
standard deviation (sd) were found to be 30 cm and 6 cm respectively. If at 95% confidence
level z is 1.96, then the mean length of fish in this population is in the range :
(1) 27 < X < 33 (2) 27.5 < X < 32.5 (3) 24 < X < 36 (4) 28.04 < X < 32
48. One of the natural causes of occurrence of inland soil alkalinity is the presence of :
(1) Sodium hypochlorite (2) Potassium nitrate
(3) Sodium chloride (4) Sodium carbonate
49. The Supreme Court of India directed the government to implement environmental education
in all educational institutions as compulsory subject in :
(1) 1976 (2) 2003 (3) 1988 (4) 2014
50. Organic wetland soils have :

(1) high cation capacity (2) high bulk density
(3) low porosity (4) high nutrient availability
-o0o-
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Space For Rough Work
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J A 089 1 7 (In words)
Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ì ¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖéÂš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆã ×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï …
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆ»Öê
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿µÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî :
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö‹ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ•Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö
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seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë …
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(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
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the booklet with the information printed on the cover ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û µÖê ¯Öæ¸ê
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or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ÝÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸µÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period »ÖÖî™ ÖÛ ¸ ˆÃÖÛê Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æ ÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë …
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
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should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ë
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. †Öî¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
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In case of discrepancy in the number, the candidate should ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ ×³Ö®®Ö ÆÖë, ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ£Öá ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö / OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ²Ö¤»Ö®Öê
immediately report the matter to the invigilator for Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ Û Öê ŸÖã¸Ó ŸÖ ÃÖæ×“ÖŸÖ Û ¸ë …
replacement of the Test Booklet / OMR Sheet. 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (4) ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê
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and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æî :
the correct response against each item.
Example :
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where (3) is the correct response. •Ö²Ö×Û (3) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî …
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response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛ Ö ´Öæ»µÖÖÓÛ ®Ö ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ …
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , µÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , •ÖîÃÖê ×Û †Ó×Û ŸÖ ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair ˆ¢Ö¸ Û Öê ×´Ö™Ö®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±ê ¤ ÃµÖÖÆß ÃÖê ²Ö¤»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖµÖê
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9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤µÖ Û Öê
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not »ÖÖî™Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛ Æî †Öî¸ ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆ¸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ •ÖÖµÖë … ÆÖ»ÖÖÓ×Û †Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
however, allowed to carry original question booklet on †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
conclusion of examination. 10. Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë …
10. Use only Black Ball point pen. 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æî …
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JA-089-17 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following methods is generally not adopted for the safe disposal of
biomedical waste ?
(1) Incineration (2) Hydroclaving
(3) Landfilling (4) Shredding after disinfection
2. Which of the following prompted the Govt. of India to enact Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986 ?
(1) River Ganga Water Pollution (2) Endosulfan tragedy in Kerala
(3) London Smog (4) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
3. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and wildlife is

emphasized in constitution of India under the Article
(1) 48 A (2) 21
(3) 47 (4) 46
4. Environmental Relief Fund was established under the provisions of
(1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(2) The Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
(3) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(4) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
Paper-II 2 JA-089-17
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5. A type of lake that forms in the depression of the earth’s crust between two parallel faults
is known as
(1) Grade lake (2) Surface lake
(3) Graben lake (4) Glacial lake
6. In case of plumes from a tall stack located on flat terrain ‘Lofting’ type of plume
behaviour is observed when in the atmosphere
(1) inversion conditions prevail below the stack height.
(2) strong lapse rate conditions exist.
(3) inversion conditions exist above the stack height.
(4) weak lapse rate conditions exist.
7. Turbulent updrafts and downdrafts flows are an example of
(1) Synoptic scale phenomena (2) Planetary scale phenomena
(3) Meso-scale phenomena (4) Micro-scale phenomena
8. A niche of the species where there is no competition from other species is called
(1) hyper volume niche (2) habitat
(3) fundamental niche (4) realized niche
9. Dissipative process of energy during photosynthesis in a plant is
(1) Decomposition (2) Senescence
(3) Respiration (4) Mineralization of humus
10. Which of the following substances is generally not considered toxic ?
(1) Carbonic acid (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Benzene

JA-089-17 3 Paper-II
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11. Percentage of tropospheric ozone in relation to total atmospheric ozone is about
(1) 90% (2) 10%
(3) 50% (4) 80%
12. Among the following, which one is the most hazardous chemical in the atmosphere ?
(1) Dioxin (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Halons (4) CFCs
13. The technique, which is fastest for measuring organic carbon is,
(1) COD (2) BOD5
(3) BOD7 (4) TOC
14. With increase in temperature, the specific conductivity of water
(1) remains unchanged (2) increases
(3) decreases (4) makes the water turbid
15. According to ZSI (GOI), which one of the following birds declined by 99% ?
(1) Sparrow (2) Pink-headed Duck
(3) Pond heron (4) White backed Vulture
16. According to Convention on International Trade in Endangered species (CITES) COP 17,
which one of the following is transferred from CITES Appendix II to Appendix I by
January 2017.
(1) Gorilla (2) Pangolin
(3) Tapir (4) Mongoose

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17. Taxonomic diversity of a region with several ecosystems is :
(1) Alpha diversity (2) Beta diversity
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Sigma diversity
18. Soil water available to roots is

(1) Surface water (2) Hygroscopic water
(3) Gravitational water (4) Capillary water
19. C4 plants are commonly found in
(1) Arid and hot environment

(2) Humid and low temperature environment
(3) Temperature environment
(4) Semi-humid and rainy environment
20. The point at which the light intensity is just enough to produce energy by photosynthesis
which equal to the energy used in respiration is called
(1) Equal point (2) Regulatory point
(3) Compensation point (4) Complementary point
21. The global pattern of prevailing winds drives the cell – like circulation pattern of ocean
currents called
(1) Trade winds (2) Gyres
(3) Jet Streams (4) Shallow drifts
22. As the number of species in a food web increases

(1) Food chain length tends to increase.
(2) System tends to be unstable.
(3) Energy flow decreases.
(4) System tends to collapse completely.
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23. Each degree of latitude on the earth’s surface represents approximately
(1) 91 km (2) 101 km
(3) 111 km (4) 121 km
24. Remote sensing satellites for earth observation are normally located in
(1) Elliptical orbit (2) Sun-synchronous orbit
(3) Geo-synchronous orbit (4) Equatorial orbit
25. Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction – 2016 (AMCDRR – 2016) was
held in
(1) Bangkok (2) Beijing
(3) New Delhi (4) Colombo
26. Groundwater movement depends on the following characteristics of rock materials.

(a) Porosity
(b) Permeability
(c) specific yield
(d) specific retention capacity
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
27. Magma starts to crystallise when it loses heat during its upward rise to shallower level
from a deep source. Which among the following is Bowen’s Reaction Series ?
(1) Pyroxene, Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Quartz
(2) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz
(3) Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Pyroxene, Quartz
(4) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz
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28. A 2000 MW dam has maximum head of 200 m. What is the rate of falling water on the
turbines ? (Neglect losses)
(1) ~ 102.00 m3/s (2) ~ 1560.24 m3/s
(3) ~ 1020.41 m3/s (4) ~ 800.00 m3/s
29. A hydro power plant has a reservoir storage capacity of 2 × 103 m3 and its maximum head
is 500 m. What is its potential energy ?
(1) ~ 10 PJ (2) ~ 18.6 PJ
(3) ~ 27.5 PJ (4) ~ 49 PJ
30. The maximum efficiency of hydrogen fuel cell is
(1) 0.96 (2) 0.92
(3) 0.83 (4) 0.72
31. In a biogas digestor having biomass and animal wastes as feed, for optimum methane
production, the value of pH should be such that initially
(1) pH is in the range 6.6 to 7 (2) pH < 6.2
(3) pH is in the range 7 to 7.2 (4) pH is in the range 7.6 to 8
32. Which of the following statements is true in relation to solar flat plate collectors ? Glazing
(glass or plastic) above the absorber plate ?
(1) Reduces convection losses
(2) Reduces conduction losses
(3) Reduces conduction and radiation losses
(4) Enhances the absorption of solar radiation onto the absorber plate.
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33. Marine pollution is caused by
a. Sewage
b. Land runoff
c. Oil spills
d. Ocean mining
(1) a, c, and d only (2) c and d only
(3) a, b, c and d (4) d, c, b only
34. Which of the following wave properties is not taken advantage of in controlling noise ?
(1) Absorption (2) Damping
(3) Interference (4) Diffraction
35. The reaction O2 → 2O, which occurs in the stratosphere, does not occur in the troposphere
to produce ozone due to
(1) lower tropospheric temperature (2) absence of λ < 242 nm radiation

(3) high air pressure (4) high gas molecule concentrations
36. The most important global sink process for aerosols is

(1) Interception (2) Sedimentation
(3) Impaction (4) Wet deposition
37. Identify the correct sequence with reference to environmental clearance process for new
projects :
(1) Appraisal → Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation
(2) Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal
(3) Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal → Screening
(4) Public Consultation → Appraisal → Screening → Scoping
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38. Which of the following elements has the longest oceanic residence time ?
(1) Iron (2) Lead
(3) Calcium (4) Sodium
39. The purpose of offshore islands is focussed for site or landscape restoration to
(1) provide linkage between movement and genetic interchange of species.
(2) foster populations of endangered species without native or introduced predators.
(3) increase the availability of habitats.
(4) increase the stabilization of surface cover and protect the animal corridor on land.
40. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(Series) (Life Cycle Analysis)
(a) ISO 14040 (i) Interpretation
(b) ISO 14041 (ii) Impact assessment
(c) ISO 14042 (iii) Principles and framework
(d) ISO 14043 (iv) Inventory Analysis
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
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41. Which of the following can be used for valuing environmental amenities ?
a. Hedonic pricing
b. Travel cost
c. Contingent valuation
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a, b and c (4) b and c only
42. A graphical representation where frequencies are plotted against class intervals is called
(1) stem and leaf plot (2) Pie chart
(3) Histogram (4) Box plot
43. Which one of the following is a density – independent factor that limits the size of the
natural population ?
(1) Predation (2) Territoriality
(3) Severe drought (4) Sex ratio
44. In a multiple regression analysis, if the variance of the observed variable Y is 1.57 and
variance of the residue is 0.52, then R-square value is
(1) 0.85 (2) 0.67
(3) 0.72 (4) 0.52
45. The median value of the following data :
1, 2, 3, 5, 8 and 100 ; is
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 20
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46. Exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) > 40, and pH > 9.8 are characteristic of
(1) Acidic soil (2) Weak saline soil
(3) Strongly saline soil (4) Eroded soil
47. The climate meet COP-22 was held in which country ?

(1) Morocco (2) South Africa
(3) Malaysia (4) Indonesia
48. In an aquatic system, the presence of noxious gases such as H2S and CH4 is associated
with
(1) abundant algal growth (2) oxygen depletion
(3) absence of macrophytic vegetation (4) excess of dissolved oxygen
49. Severe drought is declared if

(1) Deficit of rainfall is more than 50 percent of the normal.
(2) Deficit of rainfall varies between 25-45 percent of the normal.
(3) Rainfall deficit exceeds 25 percent of the normal.
(4) Rainfall deficit is between 15-25 percent of the normal.
50. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a substance depends on

a. the spectral band of its absorbing wavelengths.
b. its residence time in atmosphere.
c. its number of carbon molecules.
d. concentration of the substance.
(1) a, b and c only (2) b, c and d only
(3) a, c and d only (4) b, d and a only
_______________
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 6 (In words)

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ì ¿Ö
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11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æî …
J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – II
1. Photoionization of gas molecules maintain the temperature profile of which atmospheric

layer ?
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Thermosphere
2. Around the mid latitude, the surface winds are generally

(1) Gradient (2) Geostrophic
(3) Subgeostrophic (4) Cyclonic
3. How many biogeographic regions are reported to exist in India ?

(1) Five (2) Seven
(3) Ten (4) Three
4. Energy transfer and nutrient flow through various trophic levels can be described as
(1) Linear
(2) Cyclic
(3) Linear and cyclic respectively
(4) Cyclic and linear respectively
5. The highest rate at which individuals can be harvested without reducing the population
size is called maximum sustainable yield of a
(1) Population (2) Community
(3) Ecosystem (4) Landscape
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6. Leslie matrix population model is generally used to determine
a. the growth of population.
b. the age distribution within population over time.
c. the prey-predator interactions.
(1) a only (2) a and c only
(3) b and c only (4) a and b only
7. If ΔNn is equal to production of new individual in the population, Δt and N represent time
and initial number of individuals of a population, then natality rate per unit of population
is
ΔNn ΔNn
Δt
(1) (2)
NΔt
ΔNn – NΔt
ΔNn
NΔt
(3) (4)
8. In a health survey, 38 of 120 men and 24 of 80 women are found to be affected by nicotine
by smoking. What is the probability of a randomly selected male being a smoker ?
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.19
(3) 0.38 (4) 0.12
–
9. If for a sample size (N) of 64, the mean (X) and standard deviation (SD) are found to be
82 and 6. Then standard error (SE) for the mean is
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.14
(3) 10.4 (4) 2.2
10. ‘Public hearing’ is not mandatory for project like

(1) building construction project
(2) mining project
(3) oil refinery project
(4) river valley project
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11. The preparedness for prevention of chemical accidents and emergency in industry should
be made according to the statutory framework of
a. The National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1975
b. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
c. The Factories Act, 1948
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(1) a, b and c only (2) b, c and d only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b, c and d
12. The term (life) of a patent from the date of filing is

(1) 5 years (2) 100 years
13. According to the Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989, the limit for
Polyaromatic Hydrocarbons (PAH) in waste oil suitable for recycling should be less than
(1) 8% (2) 10%
(3) 6% (4) 15%
14. The main objectives of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are
a. Restricting hunting, killing or overexploitation of species.
b. Protection of wildlife, preservation of natural habitats and environment.
c. Recognizing the right of people to a healthy environment.
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
15. The signing ceremony of Paris agreement on climate change was held on April 22, 2016 at
UN headquarters. The agreement will be open for signatures by the countries till
(1) December 22, 2016 (2) April 21, 2017
(3) December 21, 2017 (4) March 21, 2018
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16. The committee, which reviews the EIA and EMP reports of developmental projects in
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is called
(1) Project Assessment Committee
(2) Environment Appraisal Committee
(3) Project Evaluation Committee
(4) Environmental Clearance Committee
17. In EIA, after official notification, time given to hold public hearing is
(1) 10 days (2) 15 days
(3) 30 days (4) 50 days
18. The corporate social responsibility has been made mandatory since
(1) 2010 (2) 2014
(3) 2015 (4) 2013
19. The guiding principles for the National Land Utilization Policy are as follows :
a. Inclusive growth, poverty eradication and gender equality – equal opportunities.
b. Balanced development and intergenerational justice.
c. Efficient utilization of resources and mitigation of impacts.
d. Integrated and comprehensive development planning.
(1) a and b only (2) a, b and c only
(3) b, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d
20. Degradation of different categories of pesticides by soil microorganism is called
(1) Biotransformation (2) Biomineralization
(3) Bioaugmentation (4) Biomagnification
J-89-16 5 Paper-II
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : CO can contribute to the photochemical smog problem in cities.
Reason (R) : It aids in formation of surface ozone.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
22. For spherical aerosol particles smaller than about 30 μm and with density much greater
than air, their settling velocity varies with their size (d) as
(1) ∝d (2) ∝ d–1
(3) ∝ d–2 (4) ∝ d2
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sound barriers alongside motorways in urban areas are very effective
in controlling noise.
Reason (R) : They act as reflectors of sound back into motorways and upwards.
24. The effect of sulphate aerosol in the Earth’s atmosphere is to

(1) decrease precipitation
(2) destroy ozone
(3) cool global climate
(4) warm global climate
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25. Solar radiation of average energy ~ 1.25 eV and intensity 500 W/m2 are incident on the
surface of a solar flat plate collector. What is the approximate photon flux density
impinging on the surface of the collector ?
(1) ~ 5 × 1022 photons m–2s–1
(2) ~ 2 × 1022 photons m–2s–1
(3) ~ 2.5 × 1020 photons m–2s–1
(4) ~ 2.5 × 1021 photons m–2s–1
26. A solar pond based electricity generation plant has an efficiency of 5% and power output
of 500 mW. If the solar insolation is 1000 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond ?
(1) 5 km2 (2) 10 km2
(3) 1.0 km2 (4) 20 km2
27. Intended nationally determined contribution of India envisages reduction in carbon

intensity by 2030 below 2005 level by what percentage ?
(1) 22 – 25 % (2) 33 – 35 %
(3) 35 – 40 % (4) 40 – 50 %
28. By the year 2022, India’s target of producing power from wind energy is
(1) 50 GW (2) 60 GW
(3) 75 GW (4) 120 GW
29. Which among the following surfaces has maximum albedo ?

(1) Leafy crops (2) Dry sand
(3) Calm sea water (4) Dark asphalt
30. A wetland ecosystem has a very high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD). Which of the
following statement about such a wetland is correct ?
(1) It has high level of microbial pollution.
(2) It has very low level of microbial pollution.
(3) There is no microbial pollution.
(4) It is highly turbid.
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31. Desertification is the process of
(1) increase in desert area
(2) sand dune movement
(3) land degradation
(4) arid zone management
32. Ecological restoration is the process of rebuilding a degraded ecosystem till
(1) it becomes pollution free and provides solace to the people.
(2) it becomes free of disturbance.
(3) its structure and functions are restored.
(4) it starts providing some ecosystem services.
33. Consider the following four statements about wetland ecosystems :
a. They are the transitional zones between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
b. They are highly productive.
c. They are the source of greenhouse gases.
d. They normally occur in the floodplain of rivers.
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c only
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d
34. In soil conservation programme, the tillage where residues of previous crops are left in the
soil is called
(1) Reduced tillage (2) No tillage
(3) Conservation tillage (4) Contour plowing
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35. Which of the following will provide the most valuable information for determining risk of
mass wasting of an area ?
(1) Seismometer
(2) Analysis of stereo satellite data
(3) Measurement of acceleration due to gravity
(4) Geological map of the region
36. The rapid downslope movement of ice or snow is called as
(1) Mudflow (2) Solifluction
(3) Lahars (4) Avalanches
37. The landform created by subglacial meltwater is known as
(1) Moraine (2) Eskers
(3) Cirques (4) Kames
38. Among the following gases, which is not emitted by volcano ?
(1) NOx (2) SOx
(3) CO2 (4) H2S
39. In remote sensing, ground truth data is generally required for
a. calibration of sensor
b. analysis of remotely sensed data
c. accuracy assessment
(1) a only (2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c (4) a and b only
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40. A species the population of which is low enough for it to be at risk of becoming extinct,
but not low enough that it is in imminent danger of extinction is called
(1) Endangered species
(2) Threatened species
(3) Vulnerable species
(4) Rare species
41. Landscape mosaic comprises
(1) matrices and patches
(2) patches and corridors
(3) matrices, patches and corridors
(4) matrices and corridors
42. Which of the following country is not a megadiversity centre of biodiversity ?
(1) Columbia (2) India
(3) Brazil (4) Argentina
43. Sclerophyllous leaves are the characteristic features of
(1) Chaparral Vegetation
(2) Grassland Vegetation
(3) Tropical Vegetation
(4) Alpine Vegetation
44. Among the plants listed below, which is not producing allergenic pollen grain ?
(1) Mango (2) Neem
(3) Fan Palm (4) Pine
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45. A species having a dominating influence on the structure and function of a community or
ecosystem is known as
(1) Fundamental species
(2) Functional species
(3) Keystone species
(4) Indicator species
46. Which of the following trace atmospheric gases is not an acid rain precursor ?
(1) Dimethyl sulfide (2) Hydrogen sulfide
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Nitric oxide
47. According to WHO report 2015, out of 20 most polluted cities of the world, India has
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 10 (4) 13
48. With respect to sea, increase in CO2 abundance is not responsible for which of the
following ?
(1) Increase in pH of sea water.
(2) Increase in concentration of bicarbonate ions.
(3) Coral bleaching.
(4) Enhanced dissolution of calcareous materials.
49. Elements that cycle in the environment and that also have a gaseous phase at some point
in their cycle include which of the following ?
a. Phosphorus
b. Sulphur
c. Carbon
(3) b and c only (4) a and c only
50. Poor aeration and high water holding capacity are characteristic features of
(1) Sandy soil (2) Loam soil
(3) Clay soil (4) Sandy Loam soil
______________
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1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
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J 0 8 9 1 8 PAPER - II (In words)
Time : 2 hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES [Maximum Marks : 200

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J-08918 !J-08918-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
1. For a thermally comfortable, seated bare bodied person at 258C, the maximum energy loss is
due to :
(1) Radiation (2) Convection (3) Conduction (4) Evaporation
2. High concentrations of pollutants at ground level during winter season are due to :
(1) Radiation inversion (2) Subsidence inversion
(3) Frontal inversion (4) Landscape induced inversion
3. The theme ‘Transforming our world : 2030 Agenda’ pertains to :

(1) Protection of ozone layer (2) Climate change - Action plans
(3) Sustainable development goals (4) Millennium development goals
4. At a latitude of 308, there is pressure gradient of 5.0 mb per 100 km. Given the density of air
~ 1.25 kg/m3, the geostrophic winds will have velocity (m/s) :
(1) 5.48 m/s (2) 54.86 m/s (3) 109.72 m/s (4) 27.43 m/s
5. The basic nature of lithosphere does not arise from element(s) :

(1) Na and K (2) Ca (3) Mg (4) Si
6. If the tropospheric lapse rate be 6.58C/km and if T denotes temperature and Z denotes the
altitude then :
dT dT
(1) = 6.5 C/km (2) = − 6.5 C/km
dZ dZ
dZ dZ
(3) = 6.5 C/km (4) = − 6.5 C/km
dT dT
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7. Identify the statement, which best describes the second law of thermodynamics :
(1) The internal energy of the universe is constant.
(2) Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
(3) At absolute zero, entropy of a substance is considered to be zero.
(4) When an isolated system undergoes a spontaneous change, the entropy of the universe
increases.
8. Tropical cyclones occur on :

(1) Meso - scale (2) Micro - scale
(3) Planetary scale (4) Synoptic scale
9. If e and p are vapour pressure of water and total pressure of moist air, the equation of state
for moist atmosphere can be written as :
 e  e
(1) PV ≃ RT  1 +  (2) PV ≃ RT 1 − 
 p  p
 e  e
(3) PV = RT  1 + 0.38  (4) PV = RT  1 + 0.62 
 p  p
10. Select the incorrect statement about the redox potential of aqueous solutions :
(1) As the concentration of molecular oxygen increases, the redox potential increases.
(2) As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the redox potential increases.
(3) As the concentration of molecular oxygen decreases, the redox potential decreases.
(4) As the concentration of hydrogen ions decreases, the redox potential increases.
11. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Analyte) (Method)
(a) Lead (i) Winkler Method
(b) Dissolved oxygen (ii) Gravimetric Method
(c) SO 2 (iii) GC-MS
(d) PAH (iv) West Gaeke Method
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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12. The main acidic component of the present atmosphere is :
(1) HCl (2) NOx (3) SO 2 (4) CO 2
13. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PCBs :

(1) These are water soluble and hence bioaccumulate.
(2) These are fire resistant.
(3) These are stable at high temperatures.
(4) These have high electrical resistance.
14. Toxicity of which of the following metals is not due to reaction with sulfhydryl group ?
(1) Arsenic (2) Cadmium
(3) Lead (4) Chromium
15. By chemical reaction, the hydroxyl radicals fail to remove which of the following trace gases
from the atmosphere ?
(1) CO (2) NO (3) SO 2 (4) CFCs
16. How many gram of acetic acid (molar mass = 60 g/mole) are present in 100 ml of 0.1 M
acetic acid ?
(1) 0.6 g (2) 0.06 g (3) 6.0 g (4) 60.0 g
17. Three coloured sheets of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs 20%
of light incident upon it. What is the intensity of light transmitted after the third plate ?
(1) 9.0% (2) 10.5%
(3) 51.2% (4) 40.0%
18. In a volumetric titration, a 20 ml aqueous HCl solution, needs 10 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for
complete neutralization.
The concentration of HCl solution is :
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.002 N
(3) 0.01 N (4) 0.05 N
19. The best way for assessing the organic component of a water sample is the determination
of :
(1) TOC (2) COD (3) BOD (4) DO
20. Biogas produced by the anerobic digestion is a mixture of :

(1) CO2, SO2, N2O, CH4 and H2O
(2) CO, CO2, H2S, CH4 and natural gas
(3) CH4, CO2 NH3, H2S and H2O
(4) CO2, NH3, C2H5OH and H2O
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21. The percentage concentration of which of the following ions is highest in sea water ?
(1) Bicarbonate (2) Chloride
(3) Sulfate (4) Sodium
22. In which of the following ecosystems, the food web involves more species and more trophic
levels ?
(1) Rain forest (2) Ocean
(3) Desert (4) Glacier
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The available energy of an ecosystem decreases with the length of food
chain.
Reason (R) : At each transfer of energy in food chain, a large proportion of potential
energy is lost as heat.
(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
24. The origin of eukaryotic cell on earth took place :

(1) 1500 Million years ago (2) 1850 Million years ago
(3) 850 Million years ago (4) 1000 Million years ago
25. Ratio of energy transfer at different trophic levels in the food chain is called :
(1) Metabolic efficiency (2) Ecological efficiency
(3) Energy flow rate (4) Food chain complexity
26. At which stage of ecological succession, an ecosystem exhibits, photosynthesis

(P) = Respiration (R) :
(1) Pioneer stage (2) Mid seral stage
(3) Climax stage (4) Early seral stage
27. The species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in a community,
are called :
(1) Indicator species (2) Keystone species
(3) Dominant species (4) Endemic species
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28. Biodiversity :
(a) Increases towards the Arctic region
(b) Decreases towards the Arctic region
(c) Increases towards the equator
(d) Decreases towards the equator
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
29. Arctic Tundra is situated around :

(1) 66.58 N (2) 55.58 N
(3) 458 N (4) 66.58 S
30. Main limiting factor governing primary productivity in pelagic zone of the ocean is :
(a) Light
(b) Available nutrients
(c) Number of primary producers
(d) Tidal current
31. The nature of food web at the developmental stage of a succession is :

(1) linear, predominantly grazing (2) linear, predominantly detritus
(3) weblike, predominantly detritus (4) weblike, predominantly grazing
32. Based on the casualties reported worldwide, which one of the following is most deadly airborne
bacterial disease ?
(1) Diphtheria (2) Whooping cough
(3) Pneumonia (4) Meningitis
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33. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Endangered animals) (Distribution)
(a) Lion tailed Macaque (i) Himalayan foothills
(b) Golden Langur (ii) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Spotted Linsang (iii) Western Ghats
(d) Pallas’s cat (iv) Central and Eastern Himalayas
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
34. Reproductive isolation of populations leads to :

(1) infertility (2) population explosion
(3) speciation (4) population decline
35. In the context of local environment, heleoplankton refers to :

(1) Saltwater plankton (2) Pond plankton
(3) Stream plankton (4) Lake plankton
36. According to India State Forest Report (ISFR), 2017 of MOEFCC, GOI, the increase in forest
cover of the country with reference to the year 2015 is :
(1) 1.8% (2) 2.0% (3) 2.2% (4) 1.0%
37. Which one of the following is a cultivable species of tropical earthworm ?

(1) Elsenia fetida (2) Lumbricus rubellus
(3) Drawida nepalensis (4) Polypheretima elongata
38. Slow downslope movement of water saturated rock mass which is not confined to a definite
channel, is called :
(1) Soil creep (2) Debris flow (3) Mudslide (4) Solifluction
39. Isogons are the points which join beds of :

(1) Equal dip amount (2) Same strike direction
(3) Equal thickness (4) Opposite strike direction
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40. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Ecosystem service) (Function)
(a) Provisioning (i) Nutrient cycling
(b) Regulating (ii) Recreational
(c) Cultural (iii) Carbon sequestration
(d) Supporting (iv) Pharmaceuticals
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
41. Cartostat - 2 satellite has a spatial resolution of :

(1) better than 1 m (2) 2m (3) 5.8 m (4) 23 m
42. L - band in microwave remote sensing provides information about scattering from :
(a) Volume (b) Soil (c) Canopy (d) Trunks and boles
(1) (a) only (2) (a), (b), only
(3) (a), (b), (c) (4) (a), (b), (d) only
43. In temperate lakes upwelling replenishes nutrients turnover during :

(a) Autumn and spring (b) Autumn and winter
(c) Summer and winter (d) Summer and spring
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (c) only (4) (d) only
44. Soil pollution is caused by :

(a) Industrial waste (b) Agrochemicals
(c) Petrochemicals (d) Detergents
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d) only
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45. In an aquifer having a coefficient of permeability k = 0.1 mm/s and water table sloping at a
rate of 1 m over a distance of 200 m, the value of groundwater flow is :
(1) 0.005 mm/s (2) 0.0010 mm/s
(3) 0.0015 mm/s (4) 0.0025 mm/s
46. Seismic waves travel faster through :

(1) Gas (2) Liquid (3) Solid (4) Lava
47. Urban Heat Island effect is best studied using remote sensing in the following spectral region :
(a) 0.5 - 0.9 µm (b) 3 - 5 µm (c) 10 - 12 µm (d) 3 - 6 cm
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only
48. In landscape ecological studies, the term landscape process includes :

(a) The exchange of materials and energy
(b) Exchange or movement of organisms
(c) Patch, matrix and corridor
(d) Porosity
49. A drowned river valley estuary is formed when ?

(1) a barrier island or sand bar separates a section of the coast where fresh water enters.
(2) sea level rose at the end of the last glacial age invading low lands and rivers.
(3) a deep valley is created by retreating glaciers.
(4) land sinks due to movements of the crust.
50. Fringing reef generally develops :

(1) as a narrow band close to a shore.
(2) at some distance from the coast.
(3) as a ring around central lagoon.
(4) as a patch in the pelagic zone of the sea.
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51. According to River Continuum Concept of Vannote et. al (1980), the major sources of energy
in medium - sized streams are :
(a) Fine particulate organic matter
(b) Coarse particulate organic matter
(c) Algae
(d) Aquatic plants
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c), and (d)
52. Self purification of running streams may be due to :
(1) oxidation, sedimentation and coagulation
(2) sedimentation, dilution and oxidation
(3) dilution, sedimentation and coagulation
(4) dilution, oxidation and coagulation
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a PV cell is limited by the quantum processes involving
incident photons and the electrons in the cell.
Reason (R) : The band gap energy of the semiconducting material used to fabricate PV
cell is less in comparison to the energies of photons of insolation.
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54. Given below are two statements. one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The recoverable renewable energy is a fraction of the resource base of the
renewable sources available in the world.
Reason (R) : Much of the renewable energy is either of high entropy or too inaccessible
to use.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Tidal range is a critical factor in determining whether an estuary would be
useful for tidal power generation.
Reason (R) : Tidal power is proportional to tidal range.
(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
56. A single solar cell on illumination by insolation of about 800 Wm−2 produces a voltage of
0.5 V and a current upto 2.0 A. The efficiency of the solar cell is 12.5%. The area of the cell is :
(1) 2×10−2 m2 (2) 5×10−3 m2
(3) 4×10−4 m2 (4) 10−2 m2
57. If the ion density in a high temperature fusion plasma consisting of deuterium and tritium
fuel is 2.5×1020 m−3 , the minimum confinement time required for nuclear fusion to produce
net energy will be :
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.4 s (3) 0.25 s (4) 4.0 s
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58. At present, which geothermal resource is exploited on commercial scale in the world ?
(1) Magma (2) Hot dry rock
(3) Geopressured (4) Hydrothermal
59. Which of the following substances has the maximum energy content (MJ/m3) ?
(1) Methane gas (2) Liquid butane
(3) Natural gas (4) Hydrogen gas
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The nuclei of elements such as plutonium and uranium have extremely
large energy potentials.
Reason (R) : They are in states of thermodynamic non-equilibrium.
235
61. In a nuclear fission reaction involving U 92 and a slow neutron, the mass defect is found to
235
be 0.223 u. How much energy will be released from 5.0 gram of U 92 ? (1u = 1.66 ×10−27kg)
(1) 426.7 GJ (2) 85.3 GJ (3) 170.6 GJ (4) 42.6 GJ
62. Which of the following biofuels is produced from acidification and distillation of woody
crops ?
(1) Methanol (2) Ethanol (3) Producer gas (4) Esters
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63. How thick a sound barrier be made if it is to attenuate efficiently sound transmitted at
5.0 kHz ?
(1) ~ 2.0 cm (2) ~ 3.3 cm (3) ~ 6.6 cm (4) ~ 2.0 m
64. Identify the most reducing water sample as inferred from pE values given below :
(1) pE = 15 (2) pE = 12 (3) pE = 7 (4) pE = 5
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In an unpolluted and dust free atmosphere, rainwater pH is ~ 5.6.
Reason (R) : Dissolution of carbon dioxide in rainwater produces hydrogen ions.
66. As per BIS, the recommended pH for drinking water is :
(1) 5.0 - 6.5 (2) 6.5 - 8.5 (3) 7.5 - 9.0 (4) 8 - 10
67. In the disinfection of water by chlorine, the most reactive chlorine species is :
(1) Cl2 (2) ClO− (3) HOCl (4) Cl−
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68. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Black carbon contributes to global warming.
Reason (R) : Black carbon behaves like a black body.
69. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photochemical smog ?
(a) Oxides of nitrogen (b) Ozone
(c) Unburnt hydrocarbons (d) Sulphur dioxide
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only
70. Temporary hardness is caused by :
(1) Calcium sulfate (2) Magnesium sulfate
(3) Magnesium carbonate (4) Magnesium chloride
71. Bioremediation of soil is not achieved readily if :
(1) Contaminant is a lighter molecule.
(2) Contaminant has high aromaticity.
(3) Contaminant is a polar molecule.
(4) Contaminant is non-halogenated.
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Traffic policemen in urban centres generally suffer from oxygen deficiency.
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide forms a very strong complex with haemoglobin.
73. A bar graph whose bars are drawn in decreasing order of frequency is :
(1) histogram (2) frequency polygon
(3) pareto chart (4) cumulative bar chart
74. If four groups of vehicles consisting of 5, 10, 12 and 8 cars reported the gaseous pollutant
emissions of 1.2 kg, 2.1 kg, 3.0 kg and 1.5 kg per day respectively, then the mean emission of
gaseous pollutant from all cars is :
(1) 4.43 kg/day (2) 2.14 kg/day (3) 4.80 kg/day (4) 3.12 kg/day
75. A sample of 10 measurements of diameter of trees in a survey gives a mean of 43.8 cm and a
standard deviation of 0.6 cm. Given t = 2.26, the 95% confidence limit for the actual diameter
is in between :
(1) 41.54 and 46.06 cm (2) 43.348 and 44.252 cm
(3) 43.20 and 44.812 cm (4) 43.252 and 44.348 cm
76. In a fish population of a pond it is believed that males and females are in equal proportion. If
out of 200 fish in a catch, 120 are male and 80 are female, then the Chi square (χ2) value is :
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 12
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77. In multiple regression analysis, the value that refers to the extent of possible variance in the
dependent variable that can be accounted for, by the independent variable is :
(1) R Value (2) Adjusted R2 Value
(3) ‘r’ Value (4) 1/R Value
78. A population size at t=0 is 80 and has a growth rate of 0.12. If the population follows
logistic growth, what is the growth rate constant if the carrying capacity is 240 ?
(1) 5.32 (2) 9.60 (3) 0.18 (4) 3.80
79. In a city of area (8 km×8 km), the vehicular traffic is releasing 10−5 g/m2−s of CO during
the winter season between 4 pm and 8 pm. During this period mixing height is 100 m. The
wind is blowing in the city at a speed of 4.0 m/s along the side of the city. If the initial
concentration of CO at 4 pm was negligible, the estimated concentration of CO after 4 hours
should be :
(1) 0.2 mg/m3 (2) 3.2 mg/m3
(3) 2.0 mg/m3 (4) 20.0 mg/m3
80. In the Gaussian plume model, the effective stack height is the sum of actual stack height and
the plume rise which depends on :
(a) buoyancy of exhaust gases
(b) momentum of exhaust gases
(c) stability of the atmosphere
(d) emission rate of the pollutants
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Global shipping is a source of net cooling of atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Ships are responsible for significant amounts of sulphur emissions.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ozone depletion in stratosphere causes melanoma.
Reason (R) : Ozone is a gas which largely absorbs UV - A radiation.
83. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to saline and alkaline soil :
(1) These show white incrustation of salts of calcium, magnesium and sodium on the soil
surface.
(2) These soils are infertile.
(3) These soils are poor in drainage.
(4) These soils are pervious.
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Phosphorus limits eutrophication if nitrogen is eight times more abundant
(weight wise) than phosphorus in fresh water.
Reason (R) : About eight times more nitrogen (weight wise) is required than phosphorus
for plant growth.
85. World Biodiversity day is celebrated every year on :
(1) March 22 (2) May 22 (3) July 22 (4) November 22
86. To achieve its objectives, the International Solar Alliance aims to mobilize financial investment
over :
(1) Z 1 trillion
(2) Z 100 billion
(3) Z 500 billion
(4) Z 200 billion
87. A Ramsar site not able to perform its ecological functions comes under :
(1) Montreal protocol
(2) Montreux record
(3) Montreal record
(4) Montreaux protocol
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88. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills ?
(1) Bacillus denitrificans
(2) Pseudomonas denitrificans
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Bacillus subtillis
89. For the scientific research or investigations, the chief wildlife warden may grant the permission
to public to enter a sanctuary under the section :
(1) 35 of The wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
(2) 28 of The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
(3) 72 of The Indian Forest Act 1922
(4) 73 of The Indian Forest Act 1927
90. Power to issue notification reserving the trees or class of trees in a protected forest lies with :
(1) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, GOI
(2) Biodiversity Board
(3) State Government
(4) Central Government
91. In which stage of decomposition of landfilled waste, the bacteria acetogen helps to reduce
the pH of leachate and allows heavy metals to be solubilized ?
(1) Aerobic Phase
(2) Acid Phase
(3) Unsteady Methanogenisis Stage
(4) Steady Methanogenisis Stage
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92. Choose the correct sequence in resource recovery for mixed solid waste :
(1) Screening → Air classifier → Shredder → Magnetic separation
(2) Magnetic separation → Shredder → Screening → Air classifier
(3) Shredder → Screening → Air classifier → Magnetic separation
(4) Screening → Shredder → Magnetic separation → Air classifier
93. Onsight mulching and composting of waste is a component of integrated solid waste
management under the process of :
(1) recycling
(2) disposal
(3) source reduction
(4) disinfection
94. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Waste types) (Disposal methods)
(a) Human tissues (i) Disinfection and shredding
(b) Laboratory wastes (ii) Disinfection and discharge into drains
(c) Waste sharps (iii) Autoclaving
(d) Liquid waste (iv) Incineration and deep burial
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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95. Which of the following materials are used as landfill sealants for the control of gas and
leachate ?
(a) Fly ash
(b) Lime
(c) Bentonite
(d) Butyl rubber
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (d) and (a) only
96. Select the correct sequence with reference to Environmental Management System ISO1401 :
(1) Environmental policy → Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective

action → Management review
(2) Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective action → Management review
→ Environmental policy
(3) Implementation and operation → Environmental policy → Checking and corrective

action → Management review
(4) Checking and corrective action → Management review → Implementation and operation
→ Environmental policy
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List-I List-II
(EIA process) (Features)
(a) Environmental Baseline (i) Systematic Appraisal of EIS
(b) Development Action (ii) Avoid, reduce and remedy for impacts
(c) Mitigation measures (iii) Rationale of the project
(d) Review (iv) Establishment of present and future state of

environment
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
98. The type of project in ‘B’ category in the schedule attached with EIA notification of 14th
September 2006, needs environmental clearance from :
(a) Central Govt. without the recommendation of the Expert Appraisal Committee.
(b) State Govt. on the recommendation of the State Expert Appraisal Committee.
(c) State Environmental Impact Assessment Authority on the recommendation of State

Expert Appraisal Committee.
(3) (c) only
(4) (c) and (a) only
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List-I List-II
(Process) (Description)
(a) Development action (i) Compensation for adverse impacts
(b) Environmental baseline (ii) Development stages and processes
(c) Impacts prediction (iii) Establishment of future and present state of
environment
(d) Mitigation measures (iv) Magnitude of identified change in environment
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
100. Battelle - Columbus environmental evaluation system is used to assess the impact of :
(1) Mining development projects.
(2) Pulp and paper mill projects.
(3) Water resources projects.
(4) Highway projects.
-oOo-
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Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
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1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)

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J-8915 !J-8915-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - II
are compulsory.
1. An endotherms basal metabolic rate stays constant throughout a range of environmental

temperatures known as the :
(I) Lower critical temperature zone
(II) Thermoneutral zone
(III) Higher critical temperature zone
(1) (I) only (2) (II) only (3) (I) and (II) only (4) (II) and (III) only
2. Which state has the largest coastline in India ?

(1) West Bengal (2) Karnataka (3) Gujarat (4) Odisha
3. Indicators for sustainable development are :

(I) environmental pressures
(II) environmental quality
(III) societys response
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (II) and (III) only(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
4. Stoichiometric calculations are based on :

(1) Moles (2) Atomic weight (3) Atomic number (4) Loss of mass
5. BOD of the effluents discharged on land for irrigation should not exceed :
(1) 30 mg/L (2) 100 mg/L (3) 300 mg/L (4) 60 mg/L
6. Which of the following adds to the carbon dioxide concentration in atmosphere ?

(I) Volcanic action (II) Respiration
(III) Photosynthesis (IV) Decay of organic matter
(1) (I) and (III) only (2) (II) only
(3) (I), (II) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
7. Corrosion normally occurs when an electrochemical cell is set up on a metal surface.

The corroded area is :
(1) cathode (2) anode
(3) electrolyte (4) entire metal surface
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8. Acid sulphate soils are characteristic of marine coastal plains in areas rich in :
(I) Organic matter
(II) Brackish water
(III) Mangrove swamps
(1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (II) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
9. The amount of energy at one trophic level divided by the amount of energy at the trophic
level immediately below it is termed as :
(1) Trophic efficiency (2) Consumption efficiency
(3) Assimilation efficiency (4) Production efficiency
10. Blue whale is placed under the category of :

(1) Endangered species (2) Critically endangered species
(3) Vulnerable species (4) Extinct species
11. Maximum density of detritivorus micro organisms in pond ecosystem are present in :
(1) Limnetic zone (2) Photic zone (3) Littoral zone (4) Benthic zone
12. Species diversity show a marked pattern as one moves from equator to the poles. Species
diversity :
(1) increases as one moves towards the poles from the equator
(2) decreases as one moves from equator to poles
(3) remains constant as one moves from equator to poles
(4) is highest in the arctic and antartic regions
13. Coral reefs are mainly distributed globally in :

(1) Temperate waters (2) Tropical waters
(3) Antartic waters (4) Arctic waters
14. Most common soil borne bacterial pathogen that manipulates plant by injecting its DNA
segment into plant cell is :
(1) Acidaminococcus fermentans (2) Clostridium thermoacetium
(3) Rhizobium leguminosarum (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
15. Which among the following are the best tools/techniques to study landscape
fragmentation ?
(I) Remote sensing (II) Geodesy
(III) Cartography (IV) Geographical Information System
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(3) (II), (III) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
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16. An earthquakes epicentre is :
(1) usually in the lower part of the mantle
(2) determined by analysing S - wave arrival time at seismic stations
(3) determined by analysing P - wave arrival time at seismic station
(4) a point on the surface directly above the focus
17. Water entrapped at the time of formation of the sedimentary rocks is called :
(1) Meteoric water (2) Connate water (3) Juvenile water (4) Groundwater
18. Which of the following pairs of igneous rocks have the same mineral composition ?
(1) Granite - basalt (2) Andesite - rhyolite
(3) Basalt - gabbro (4) Pumic - basalt
19. Traps for petroleum and natural gas formed by deformation such as folding and fracturing
of rocks are known as :
(1) Lithification traps (2) Reservoir traps
(3) Structural traps (4) Stratigraphic traps
20. In which one of the following areas does radiant drainage fully develop ?
(1) On a point bar (2) Around an ox-bow lake
(3) Near a delta (4) Around a volcano
21. Which of the following countries produce highest amount of hydropower ?

(1) Australia (2) Canada (3) Italy (4) India
22. A solar cell of area 10 cm310 cm produces a voltage of 0.6 V and a current upto 2 A. If solar
insolation is 1000 Wm22, the efficiency of the solar cell is :
(1) 15% (2) 12% (3) 25% (4) 24%
23. An ocean wave has a height of 3 m and has time period of 10 sec. The power available for
extraction from this wave in the units of kW per meter of the wavefront is approximately :
(1) 30 (2) 45 (3) 90 (4) 300
24. In the case of Silicon solar cell (Eg51.12 eV), the maximum wavelength of solar radiations
for production of electron-hole pairs is :
(1) : 560 nm (2) : 480 nm (3) : 720 nm (4) : 1100 nm
25. The share of India in the total annual GHG emissions of the world is approximately :
(1) 5 - 7% (2) 10 - 12% (3) 17 - 20% (4) 20 - 25%
26. In biogas, the percentage (%) of methane is in the range of :

(1) 50 - 70% (2) 30 - 40% (3) 70 - 90% (4) 40 - 50%
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27. Indira Gandhi canal passes through the following state :
(I) Punjab (II) Haryana (III) Uttar Pradesh (IV) Rajasthan
(1) (I), (II) only (2) (I), (II), (III) only
(3) (I), (II), (IV) only (4) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
28. Trichloromonofluoromethane is :
(I) Freon - II
(II) A spray can propellent
(III) A chlorofluorocarbon
(1) (I) only (2) (II) and (III) only(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
29. Which of the following air pollutants are released by thermal power plants ?
(I) Oxides of nitrogen (II) Oxides of sulphur
(III) Ammonia (IV) Carbon monoxide
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) (II) and (III) only
(3) (I), (II) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II, (III) and (IV)
30. The Noise Index Leq for a specific duration is a measure of :

(1) acoustic energy content
(2) average noise amplitude
(3) sum of instantaneous sound pressure levels
(4) fluctuations in noise levels
31. When DDT enters the human body, it is :

(1) water soluble and easily excreted in urine
(2) stored in the bones
(3) fat soluble and stored in fat tissues
(4) processed by enzymes and becomes a different compound which is toxic
32. In which EIA guidelines notification, developmental projects were categorized as A and B
in India ?
(1) EIA guidelines notification, 1994 (2) EIA guidelines notification, 1986
(3) EIA guidelines notification, 2006 (4) EIA guidelines notification, 2000
33. Three important rivers of Indian sub-continent have their source near the Mansarovar lake
in Tibet. These rivers are :
(1) Indus, Jhelum, Ganga (2) Indus, Sutlej, Yamuna
(3) Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra (4) Yamuna, Brahmaputra, Gandak
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34. Which state in India has the highest area of wastelands under barren/stony/rock category ?
(1) Jammu and Kashmir (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Uttarakhand
35. During clearance of any developmental project, the minimum distance required for site
selection from eco-sensitive zone is :
(1) 5 km (2) 10 km (3) 15 km (4) 20 km
36. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India ?
(I) It is largely practiced in N-E India
(II) Fertility is exhausted in a few years
(III) It is referred as Slash and Burn technique
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I) and (III) only
37. Compensatory afforestation provisions are covered under the Environment Act names as :
(1) Indian Forest Act (Revised), 1982 (2) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(3) Forest Conservation Act, 1980 (4) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1981
38. When a disaster has occured, the early action in a Disaster Management Plan could be :
(1) Response and Rescue (2) Warning and preparedness
(3) Relief and Rehabilitation (4) Shelter and Food supply
39. An environmental problem associated with landfill waste disposal site is :

(I) Methane production
(II) Ground water pollution
(III) Incomplete decomposition
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I), (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (II) and (III) only
40. Eco-labelling of commercial products is regulated by :

(1) ISO 14020 (2) ISO 14010 (3) ISO 14030 (4) ISO 14040
41. Which one of the following is not a part of Waste Reduction strategy ?
(1) Reduced use of raw material (2) Material Reuse
(3) Recycling of waste (4) Decreased toxicity
42. The expanded form of ISWM is :

(1) International Standards of Waste Management
(2) Indian Standards for Waste Material
(3) Integrated Solid Waste Management
(4) International Solid Waste Management
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43. Municipal Solid Waste (Handling and Management) rule and Biomedical Waste (Handling
and Management) rule were implemented in the years respectively :
(1) 2000 and 1998 (2) 1998 and 2002 (3) 1996 and 1998 (4) 1990 and 1985
44. If a phosphorous limited lake having surface area equal to 803106 m2 is fed by stream with
flow rate 20 m3/s that has phosphorous concentration of 0.01 mg/L, then the phosphorous
loading from the incoming stream is :
(1) 4.0 g/s (2) 0.2 g/s (3) 0.4 g/s (4) 0.6 g/s
45. If K is the carrying capacity of a population N in an ecosystem following the logistic growth,
its growth rate becomes zero when :
(1) N/K50 (2) Mortality > Natality
(3) N/K51 (4) N5Half of the carrying capacity of the habitat
46. A good sample design should result in :

(1) A truely representative sample (2) Highly varied sampling error
(3) Low level of confidence (4) Unsystemic bias
47. The mean of a Poissons distribution is 8. Its standard deviation is :

8
(1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 4 (4)
5
48. Destructive powers of Tsunami result mainly from its :

(1) Incredible Height
(2) Unpredictability
(3) Momentum and long wavelength
(4) Cold water
49. Which one of the following is not correct for drip irrigation ?
(1) Drip consists of a network of perforated plastic tubing below the ground surface
(2) Drip irrigation increases fertilizer use and water pollution from fertilizer run-off
(3) Small holes in the tubing drops off water at a slow rate close to plant roots
(4) This technique was developed in Israel in the 1960s
50. The non-formal Environmental Education in India provides support to :

(I) Eco-clubs
(II) GLOBE
(III) Environmental appreciation courses
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (II) and (III) only
(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
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2. (Signature)
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N0 8 9 1 7 PAPER - II (In words)
Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES [Maximum Marks : 100

this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ¬øÊ‚ ’„ÈÁfl∑ À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥–
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will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑ Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ¡Ê°ø ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ
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at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not Ÿ ‹∑ ⁄ ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑ •Ê¬ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄ ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ÃÕÊ OMR
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N-08917 !N-08917-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - II
are compulsory.
1. The innermost layer of the earth is made up of :

(1) Silicon and alumina (2) Silicon and magnesium
(3) Silicon and nickel (4) Nickel and iron
2. The heat is distributed through a vertical mixing process called :

(1) Advection (2) Diffusion
(3) Convection (4) Turbulance
3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for an isothermal process ?

(a) There is no change in enthalpy
(b) There is no change in internal energy
(c) There is change in temperature
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
List-I List-II
(Aerosol) (Source)
(a) Primary natural aerosol (i) Organic matter from biogenic gases
(b) Secondary natural aerosol (ii) Soot from biomass burning
(c) Primary anthropogenic aerosol (iii) Sulphate aerosol from powerplant SO 2
emissions
(d) Secondary anthropogenic aerosol (iv) Soil dust
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
5. Which of the following is not a heavy metal ?

(1) Lead (2) Mercury (3) Bismuth (4) Aluminum
6. The dominant dissolved carbon dioxide species in sea water is :

(1) Bicarbonate ion (2) Carbonate ion
(3) Carbonic acid (4) Aquated carbon dioxide
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7. A solution of chemical ‘A’ having its 0.14 mol L−1 concentration has an absorbance of 0.42.
Another solution of ‘A’ under the same conditions has an absorbance of 0.36. What is the
concentration of this solution of ‘A’ ?
(1) 0.108 mol L−1 (2) 0.35 mol L−1 (3) 0.12 mol L−1 (4) 0.10 mol L−1
8. Which one of the following is not a soil micronutrient ?

(1) Sulphur (2) Boron (3) Iron (4) Zinc
9. If life of NO2 be 0.693 day, its residence time is :

(1) 1.44 days (2) 1.0 day (3) 0.693 day (4) 0.48 day
10. The general molecular formula of PAN type compound is :

(1) CX HYOONO2 (2) CX HYOO2NO2 (3) Cx HxOO2NO2 (4) Cx HYONO2
11. In an ecosystem, which one of the following is a micro-consumer ?

(1) Herbivores (2) Omnivores (3) Carnivores (4) Saprotrophs
12. A structure with hundreds of species non-linearly interlinked for their livelyhood is called :
(1) Guild (2) Food chain (3) Food web (4) Pyramid
13. The process of examination of change in species diversity between ecosystems is a measure
of :
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Genetic diversity
14. Red tide is caused by :

(1) Diatoms (2) Dianoflagillates (3) Navicula (4) Desmids
15. The unidirectional series of changes from an uninhabited water body to a water body inhabited
by a stable aquatic community are called :
(1) Eutrophication (2) Succession (3) Regeneration (4) Reclamation
16. Under the clear Sunny day, the maximum depth of the ocean at which photosynthesis can
occur is :
(1) 10 m (2) 250 m (3) 80 m (4) 600 m
17. The organism likely to be most similar to the first life form that evolved on the earth is :
(1) Blue - green algae (2) Methane producing bacteria
(3) Protozoan (4) Red algae
18. A landform that results from free fall of rocks is called :

(1) Alluvial fan (2) Debris flow (3) Talus slope (4) Valley fills
19. In India lignite is mined in :

(1) Neyveli (2) Jharia (3) Singrauli (4) Singareni
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20. Tree height can be measured using remote sensing data from :
(1) Resourcesat (2) Landsat (3) Cartosat (4) RISAT
21. Ecosystem restoration deals with restoring :

(1) Ecosystem integrity (2) Biodiversity
(3) Physical environment (4) Ecosystem resistance
22. A single solar cell (10 cm×10 cm) produces a voltage of 0.5 V and a current upto 2.5 A. If the
solar insolation is 800 W/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is :
(1) ~ 15.6 % (2) ~ 24.6 % (3) ~ 12.3 % (4) ~ 10.2 %
23. Which of the following atoms is not fissile ?

238 235 233 239
(1) 92 U (2) 92 U (3) 92 U (4) 9 4U
24. Which of the following fuels has minimum nitrogen content ?

(1) Crude oil (2) CNG (3) Producer gas (4) LPG
25. Maximum sulfur content is found in which grade of coal ?

(1) Bituminous (2) Sub - bituminous
(3) Lignite (4) Anthracite
26. Which of the following solar cell materials has maximum efficiency ?
(1) Cd Te, thin film (2) Si, polycrystalline
(3) Amorphous Si : Ge : H film (4) Ga As, single crystal
27. Noise level of 70 dB corresponds to sound intensity of :

(1) 10 −5 Wm−2 (2) 10 −7 Wm−2 (3) 10 −4 Wm−2 (4) 10−3.5Wm−2
28. At 258C and 1 atm. pressure, 1 ppm concentration of SO2 is equivalent to :

(1) 1310 µg/m3 (2) 1826 µg/m3 (3) 2620 µg/m3 (4) 5240 µg/m3
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Arsenic (III) is more toxic than arsenic (V).
Reason (R) : Arsenic (V) binds the sulfhydryl group more strongly than arsenic (III).
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
30. The half life period of a radioactive substance is 32 h. How much time it would take for its
75% disintegration ?
(1) 16 h (2) 96 h (3) 128 h (4) 64 h
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List-I List-II
(Pesticides) (Target)
(a) Avicide (i) Fish
(b) Disinfectant (ii) Plants
(c) Herbicide (iii) Birds
(d) Piscicide (iv) Micro-organisms
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
32. Nitrogen fixation in nature is not accomplished by :

(1) Lightning (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Rotifers (4) Bacteria in root nodules of Leguminous plants
33. Which country has opted out of Paris Agreement on climate change ?
(1) USA (2) Canada (3) Australia (4) Russia
34. Under the EIA notification of 14th September, 2006, preparation of EIA is not required for
the projects falling in the :
(1) Category ‘A’ projects (2) Category ‘B’ projects
(3) Category B1 projects (4) Category B2 projects
35. Which type of projects usually require an EIA ?

(1) Community garden development
(2) Mining and mineral development projects
(3) Outdoor recreation
(4) Development of community wells
List-I List-II
(Series) (Environmental labelling)
(a) ISO 14021 (i) Principles and procedures
(b) ISO 14022 (ii) Self declaration of environmental claims
(c) ISO 14023 (iii) Symbols
(d) ISO 14024 (iv) Testing and verification methods
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
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List-I List-II
(Acts) (Year )
(a) Environmental Protection Act (i) 1991
(b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (ii) 1977
(c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (iii) 1981
(d) Public Liability Insurance Act (iv) 1986
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
38. Articles 21, 48-A and 51-A(g), which aim to protect and improve the environment and safe
guard forests and wildlife, incorporate which of the following principles of environmental
law ?
(1) Polluter pays principle (2) Precautionary principle
(3) Principle of strict liability (4) Moral duty of the state
39. Which is the correct classification of forests under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 ?
(1) Grasslands, tropical forests, wetlands
(2) Protected forest, reserved forest, village forest
(3) Wildlife sanctuary, national parks, biosphere reserve
(4) Private forest, social forest, town forest
40. Hardening of the steel releases the hazardous waste containing :

(1) Brine sludge containing mercury (2) Cyanide - nitrate containing sludge
(3) Lead bearing residues (4) Tar containing waste
41. Red coloured containers in the hospitals are used to dump :

(1) Waste from laboratory cultures (2) House keeping waste
(3) Human anatomical waste (4) Waste sharps
42. Mercury pollution is considered hazardous to human health because,

(1) Mercury is a pure metal and hard to digest
(2) Mercury accumulates and its concentration increases high up in the food chain
(3) Mercury is highly soluble in water and easily absorbed by human body
(4) Mercury is heavy and is not dispersed by the wind
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43. In the context of Gaussian Plume Dispersion model assumptions, consider the following
statements :
(a) The pollutants have the same density as the air surrounding them.
(b) The atmosphere is stable.
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true (2) (a) is true, (b) is false
(3) (a) is false, (b) is true (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
44. Graphically depicting a group of numerical data through their Quartile is :

(1) Histogram (2) Frequency polygon
(3) Box plot (4) Pie chart
45. If, out of 50 fish of a pond, 12 had no ectoparasite and remaining had varying numbers of
parasites on them, then how many of fish had at least one parasite ?
(1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 38 (4) 16
46. In a One-way ANOVA, explained variance was found to be 8.0 and unexplained variance
was 3.67. The F-ratio is :
(1) 0.46 (2) 4.26 (3) 2.0 (4) 2.18
47. In total global emissions of CO2 , India’s contribution is about :

(1) ~ 3% (2) ~ 6% (3) ~ 9% (4) ~ 12%
48. According to IPCC, in order to restrict global mean temperature rise to 28C by the year 2050,
global energy related CO2 emissions (reference year 2005) need to be cut down by the year
2050 by :
(1) ~ 50% (2) ~ 90% (3) ~ 40% (4) ~ 30%
49. Global average water consumption (L/person/day) is :

(1) ~ 53 (2) ~ 20 (3) ~ 42 (4) ~ 80
50. In a city, half a million cars travel approximately 20 km on a given day. The average HC
emission rate is 2.0 g per car km. Assuming that the average molecular weight of all the
emitted HCs is equal to that of CH4 , how much volume of HC is released in the city each
day ?
(1) 1.4×104 m3 /day (2) 2.8×104 m3 /day
(3) 6.1×104 m3 /day (4) 11.3×104 m3 /day
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 6 (In words)

(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã ‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
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in the booklet with the information printed on the ÝÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸µÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖË ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately ‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
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given. †Öî¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (4) ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî •ÖîÃÖÖ
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Paper – II
1. In term of atmospheric residence times, identify the correct sequence :

(1) NOx > CF4 > CH3Br > CH3 (2) CH3 > CH3Br > CF4 > NOx
(3) CH3Br > NOx > CH3 > CH4 (4) CF4 > NOx > CH4 > CH3Br
2. The surface winds generally blow from the east in the areas over
(1) Tropical Equator zone (2) Midlatitudinal zone
(3) High latitudinal zone (4) Subtropical zone
3. Period (epoch) associated with the interference of human beings with nature is termed as
(1) Eocene (2) Miocene
(3) Anthropocene (4) Holocene
4. The harmonic mean of the number 5, 10 and 20 is

(1) ~ 2.51 (2) ~ 6.25
(3) ~ 8.57 (4) ~ 2.857
5. Choose the correct statement among the following :

(1) The upper asymptote of the sigmoid curve of a population represents carrying
capacity.
(2) In ‘J’ form of population growth, the equilibrium level is not imposed by
environmental factors.
(3) All population growth forms are independent of environment.
(4) In ‘J’ shaped growth curve, a relatively un-restricted growth suddenly halt only due
to diapause.
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6. Trophic relationship between an arbitrary number of species can best be explained using
(1) Leslies matrix model
(2) Lefkovitch matrix
(3) Generalized Lotka-Volterra equation
(4) Box model
7. The length (cm) of six earthworms used in an experiment are 5.37, 5.11, 6.42, 7.26, 3.99
and 2.6. Corresponding weight (g) are 5.88, 6.35, 8.11, 8.36, 4.40 and 3.5 respectively.
The relationship between length and weight of the earthworms is
(1) –vely correlated (2) +vely correlated
(3) non-correlated (4) insignificantly correlated
8. The geometric mean of the number 1, 4 and 16 is :
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2
9. Mercury is particularly hazardous to the human health because :
(1) As a pure metal it is soluble in water, hence can easily be absorbed through drinking
water.
(2) It is light and volatile and so is widely dispersed through the environment.
(3) It bioaccumulate high up in the food chain.
(4) It can cause serious impact by physical contact.
10. According to the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, the inquiry on an application for
relief is conducted by
(1) C.E.O. (2) Session Judge
(3) Collector (4) Police Commissioner

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11. Discarded paint drums, pesticide cans, CFL bulbs, tube lights, expired medicines, broken
mercury thermometers, used batteries etc., generated at the household level are collected
as
(1) Household dry waste (2) e-waste
(3) Domestic hazardous waste (4) Composite waste
12. Which one of the following is a Schedule-I animal of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 ?
(1) Ferret Badgers (2) Himalayan Crestless Porcupine
(3) Bengal Porcupine (4) Fishing Cat
13. The effluent and emission standards for industries have been notified under ;
(1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(2) Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
(3) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
(4) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
14. Which one of the following does not belong to the EIA process ?
(1) Establishing the baseline environmental status.
(2) Identification, prediction and assessment of environmental impacts.
(3) Suggesting the mitigation and compensation measures.
(4) Implementation of EMS auditing procedures.
15. In India, the validity of EIA clearance period for a mining project is
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16. According to EIA notification of 2006, which category of projects does not need EIA
clearance ?
(1) Category B2 (2) Category B1
(3) Category A (4) Category A and B1
17. The mitigation measures in EIA should include
(a) Avoiding the impacts
(b) Rectifying the impacts
(c) Not compensating for the impacts
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
18. Ministry of Corporate Affairs enhanced the scope of CSR activities in Clean Ganga Fund
set-up by the Central Government for rejuvenation of the river Ganga vide notification
made in the year
(1) 2013 (2) 2011
(3) 2015 (4) 2014
19. In open oceans, a permanent thermocline normally occurs at a depth of
(1) 100 – 200 m (2) 200 – 400 m
(3) 500 – 800 m (4) 800 – 1100 m
20. A certain type of coal is burnt at a rate of 0.5 kg/s. If the sulfur content of the coal is 5%
and 5% of sulfur remains in ash, how much sulfur dioxide is formed per day ?
(1) 4104 kg/day (2) 7776 kg/day
(3) 1800 kg/day (4) 3600 kg/day
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : On combustion, natural gas produces more NOx than coal.
Reason (R) : Natural gas burns at a relatively high temperature than coal.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Measurement of noise by a sound level meter are almost universally
expressed in dB(A).
Reason (R) : dB(A) scale represents flat frequency response of healthy persons to an
auditory stimulus.
23. Groundwater pollution through chemical contamination in Ganga-Brahmaputra delta

region are primarily due to
(1) Chromium, Lead, Arsenic (2) Arsenic, Fluoride, Nitrate
(3) Cadmium, Mercury, Iron (4) Nickel, Zinc, Manganese
24. With respect to water content (%) identify the correct sequence of various types of coals.
(1) Lignite > Sub-bituminous coal > Anthracite
(2) Sub-bituminous coal > Lignite > Anthracite
(3) Lignite > Anthracite > Sub-bituminous coal
(4) Anthracite > Lignite > Sub-bituminous coal
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25. In India, target for generating electric power from small hydropower projects by the year
2022 is
(1) 5 GW (2) 10 GW
(3) 50 GW (4) 500 GW
26. The band gap in GaAs solar cell is :

(1) ~ 1.4 eV (2) ~ 0.7 eV
(3) ~ 1.1 eV (4) ~ 0.6 eV
27. For a given energy and duration of exposure, the radioactivity associated with which of
the following is more harmful in biological terms ?
(1) X-rays (2) Fast neutrons
(3) Fast protons (4) Heavy ions
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The main greenhouse gases other than CO2 have global warming
potentials much higher than that of CO2.
Reason (R) : They absorb shorter wavelengths between 7 µm and 13 µm which overlap
with atmospheric window.
29. Which among the following wetlands are under Montreux Record ?
(1) Chilka Lake (2) Keoladeo National Park
(3) Tso Moriri (4) Nal Sarovar
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30. International year of Desert and desertification was observed in
(1) 1996 (2) 2006
(3) 1999 (4) 2009
31. In longitudinal zonation of stream, Rhithron refers to
(1) Sédimentation accumulation zone (2) Head water zone
(3) Sediment deposition zone (4) Meandering zone of the river
32. Habitat fragmentation in a forest ecosystem leads to
(a) Reduction of species diversity
(b) Increase in species diversity
(c) Increase the number of habitat patch
(d) Increase the connectivity between fragments
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (d) only
33. Consider the following four statements and choose the correct statement :
(a) Warm temperature lakes are monomictic.
(b) Warm tropical lakes are polymictic.
(c) High altitude lakes are amictic.
(d) Deep tropical lakes are oligomictic.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
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34. Which one of the following type of faults is likely to be connected with the most
dangerous earthquakes ?
(1) Transform (2) Strike-slip
(3) Reverse dip-slip (4) Normal dip-slip
35. The drainage which has streams flowing outwards in all directions from a central elevated
tract is called as :
(1) Dendritic drainage (2) Parallel drainage
(3) Trellis drainage (4) Radial drainage
36. The largest fresh water lake of the world is

(1) Lake Victoria (2) Lake Superior
(3) Lake Baikal (4) Great Bear Lake
37. For depiction of gradation in slope, which of the following method is used in GIS ?
(1) Raster GIS (2) Vector GIS
(3) CAD (4) CAM
38. Which of the following National Parks are declared as Tiger Reserve by National Tiger
Conservation Authority of India in 2015 ?
(1) Kanha and Ranthambhor National Parks
(2) Sariska and Nagarahole National Parks
(3) Dudhwa and Periyar National Parks
(4) Kudremukh and Rajaji National Parks
39. A species selected to represent an environmental cause and symbol for a defined habitat is
called :
(1) Flagship species (2) Umbrella species
(3) Keystone species (4) Indicator species
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40. Intermediate disturbance in a community result in
(1) Maximum number of species
(2) Minimum number of species
(3) Average number of species
(4) Decrease the number of species
41. Access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from
their utilization was the main objective of
(1) Earth Summit (2) Millennium Development Goal
(3) Nagoya Protocol (4) Montreal Protocol
42. Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) in developing
countries covers activities of
(a) Reducing emission from deforestation
(b) Reducing emission from forest degradation
(c) Conservation of forest carbon stocks
(d) Sustainable management of forests
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
43. Commercial vermicomposting was done by which of the following earthworm ?

(1) Lumbricus terrestris (2) Dendrobaena rubidus
(3) Eisenia fetida (4) Haliodrilus oculantus
44. Which aquatic macrophyte can be considered as invasive alien species ?

(1) Lotus (2) Alligator weed
(3) Water ferns (4) Duck weed
Paper-II 10 J-89-16
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45. Keeling curve presents the yearly variations in the concentration of
(1) Ozone (2) Methane
(3) Sulfur dioxide (4) Carbon dioxide
46. 3.0 × 1018 molecules of NO2 are present in 1.5 × 1025 molecules of air at 25 °C and 1.0
atmosphere pressure. Calculate the concentration of NO2 in ppb.
(1) 20 (2) 200
(3) 5000 (4) 2 × 10–7
47. Which one of the following is not an organochlorine insecticide ?

(1) Aldrin (2) Aldicarb
(3) Chlordane (4) Endosulfan
48. Out of vanadium, molybdenum and iron, the metals involved in nitrogenase enzyme in
nitrogen fixation in soil is/are
(1) vanadium and molybdenum only (2) vanadium, molybdenum and iron
(3) molybdenum only (4) vanadium only
49. The dominant carbon dioxide species in sea water in equilibrium with CO2 is :
(1) CO2(g) (2) CO2.H2O
(3) HCO–3 (4) CO2–

3
50. The forest in oxisol is

(1) Tropical rainforest with wet and hot climates.
(2) Temperate grassland with hot summer and cold winter.
(3) Evergreen forest with cold climate.
(4) Temperate deciduous forest with hot summer and cold winter.
_____________
J-89-16 11 Paper-II
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Paper-II 12 J-89-16
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OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
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D-8915 !D-8915-PAPER-III! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
1. Which one of the following statements is not true in the case of point source Gaussian Plume
Model ?
(1) Wind speeds are constant in time.
(2) Pollutants are conservative
(3) Rate of emission of pollutants from the stack is constant
(4) The ground level concentration is inversely proportional to effective stack height
2. Consider the simple regression equation Y5a1bX between the variables Y and X. If the
standard deviation SX and SY are 3 and 2 respectively and correlation coefficient r50.75,
the estimate of b is :
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.125 (4) 1.5
3. Consider two normal populations with variances of 10 and 20, respectively. If two
independent random samples drawn from the two populations are of the sizes 30 and 24
and their variances 10 and 15 respectively, the value of static F(29,23) is :
(1) 1.33 (2) 2.50 (3) 1.56 (4) 3.0
4. A normal population has s2=6. The sum of squares of deviations of 15 sample values from
their mean being 120, what is the x2 (chi-square) value ?
(1) 9 (2) 48 (3) 20 (4) 1.33
5. Choose the correct sequence of phases associated with a population growth that exhibits
dN  N
logistic model represented by = rN  1 2  .
dt  k
(1) Stationary phase ® Exponential phase ® Lag phase
(2) Lag phase ® Stationary phase ® Exponential phase
(3) Lag phase ® Exponential phase ® Stationary phase
(4) Exponential phase ® Stationary phase ® Lag phase
D-8915 !D-8915-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III
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6. The toxic substances of special concern emitted during incineration process from waste to
energy plants are :
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Dioxins (d) Furans
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (c) and (d) only
7. Sanitary land fills have following properties. They :

(a) reduce trash volume in a short time
(b) release CH4 and CO2
(c) eventually produce leachate which contaminate ground water
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
8. For providing information related to environment to decision makers, policy makers, scientists
and environmental engineers all over the country, ENVIS was established in the year belonging
to :
(1) Sixties (2) Seventies (3) Eighties (4) Nineties
9. The total radiative forcing of all major and minor green-house gases in the year 2014 is
estimated to be :
(1) ~ 2.51 W/m2 (2) ~ 2.93 W/m2 (3) ~ 1.87 W/m2 (4) ~ 2.7 W/m2
10. For the range of temperatures observed in the earths atmosphere, the saturation mixing
ratio (Ws) and the total pressure are related as :
1 3 23
(1) Ws ∝
p (2) Ws µ p (3) Ws ∝ p 2 (4) Ws ∝ p 2
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11. A thermal power plant based on coal produces 100 MW of electrical power with conversion
efficiency of 30%. If the ash content of coal is 5% and net heating value is 30 MJ per kg, how
much ash is produced daily ?
(1) 48 metric tons (2) 24 metric tons (3) 90 metric tons (4) 60 metric tons
12. Under which section of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, the state government can declare an
area closed to hunting for a specified period ?
(1) Section 35 (2) Section 27 (3) Section 38 - A (4) Section 37
13. Which one of the following criteria should not contribute to the process of establishing
significance of the impact of a developmental project on environment ?
(1) Sensitivity of surrounding environment
(2) Probability of the impact occurring
(3) Views and values of the developer
(4) Views and suggestions of the public
14. The following benefits may accrue as a result of environmental audit :

(a) Material audit leads to improvement in the production efficiency and cost
(b) Pollution monitoring leads to environmental quality improvement
(c) Approach towards zero discharge and zero emission leads to clean development
(d) Incentive for pollution abatement in the form of reduction in import tax leads to cleaner
environment
(1) (a) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
15. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was incorporated under which one of the following
legislations ?
(1) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981
(2) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1981
(3) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(4) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986
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16. A company operating a vehicle Manufacturing plant has developed Environmental
Management System (EMS) to enhance its performance and to improve quality of its products.
The key aspects of this EMS would include :
(1) Audit of manufacturing plant safety procedure
(2) Maximizing returns to stakeholders of the company
(3) The development of an overall framework for environmental affairs of the company
(4) The aspects of costs involved in developing an environmental policy.
17. Best practice in scoping requires :

(a) A site visit
(b) Relevant experience of other similar developmental projects
(c) Employing formal scoping techniques
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
18. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Stages in EIA) (Actions in EIA)
(a) Screening (i) Reduce or avoid the impacts
(b) Scoping (ii) Establish present and future stages of environment
(c) Baseline description (iii) Early indication of crucial impacts
(d) Mitigation measures (iv) Narrowing the application of EIA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
19. The decision making process in EIA generally does not include :
(1) Cost - benefit analysis (2) Procedural information
(3) Socio - economic aspects (4) Operational management
20. Which of the following actions may be recommended for acidified lakes ?
(1) Ammoniation (2) Liming (3) Ozonation (4) Chlorination
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All types of aerosols contribute to radiative forcing.
Reason (R) : Aerosol effectively absorb electromagnetic radiations.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of fuel cells is not limited by the second law of
thermodynamics.
Reason (R) : There is no intermediate heat to work conversion in a fuel cell.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : A wind rose with approximately equal length spokes (or petals) represents
great variation of wind direction over a given duration.
Reason (R) : The length of the spokes is a measure of wind speeds in a given duration.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Large scale OTEC development may exacerbate the green-house effect.
Reason (R) : Methane is a green-house gas.
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25. In a spectrophotometric cell of 2.0 cm pathlength, the solution of a substance shows the
absorbance value of 1.0. If the molar absorptivity of the compound is 23104 L mol21 cm21,
calculate the concentration of the substance in solution. What is the concentration of the
substance in that solution ?
(1) 2.5 3 1025 mol L21 (2) 4.0 3 1024 mol L21
(3) 1.0 3 104 mol L21 (4) 5.0 3 1024 mol L21
26. In order to obtain useful fusion energy from a thermonuclear fusion reactor, if the confinement
time of the D+T Plasma ions is 1 m sec, the ion density (per m3) must be :
(1) /1026 m23 (2) /1023 m23 (3) /1020 m23 (4) /1014 m23
27. Which of the following is not a detrivore ?

(1) Vultures (2) Earthworms (3) Insects (4) Hydrilla
28. Secondary succession begins at :

(1) base rock (2) newly cooled lava
(3) burnt forest (4) newly created shallow pond
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : It is generally agreed that life on earth began between 3.5 and 4.5 billion
years ago.
Reason (R) : The first form of life was the anaerobic bacteria as environment was devoid
of oxygen.
30. The total number of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) announced by UN in 2015 are :
(1) 15 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 21
31. The total area of productive ecosystem required to support the population sustainably is
known as :
(1) Ecological footprint (2) Ecological handprint
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Ecological services
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32. Carrying capacity of a population determines that a particular habitat for a given species
can sustain :
(1) Minimum Population (2) Maximum Population
(3) Average Population (4) A Fraction of Migrating Population
33. Which one of the following is the most productive ecosystem ?

(1) Lakes and Streams (2) Estuaries
(3) Continental shelf (4) Open ocean
34. A measure that combines the number of species and their relative abundances compared
with one another is termed :
(1) Species richness (2) Species evenness
(3) Species diversity (4) Species relationships
35. The figures of humanitys global footprint (million hectares) for different countries estimated
by WWF and Global Footprint Network in 2008 fall in the sequence :
(1) US > China > European Union > Japan > India
(2) China > US > Japan > India > European Union
(3) European Union > US > China > Japan > India
(4) US > European Union > China > India > Japan
36. A common features of the synoptic and mesoscale motions in the atmosphere is that their :
(1) Vertical motion component is more in magnitude than the horizontal wind component.
(2) Vertical motion component is roughly comparable to horizontal wind component.
(3) Vertical motion component is an order of magnitude smaller than the horizontal wind
component.
(4) Properties can be studied by conventional synoptic networks.
37. The shape of a plume from a tall stack located on a flat terrain is found to be of fanning
type. It implies that the atmosphere is under the condition of :
(1) Strong lapse rate (2) Weak lapse rate
(3) Inversion (4) Weak lapse rate below inversion
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Thunderstorm is a violent convective event accompanied by thunder and
lightening.
Reason (R) : Thunderstorm is not associated with vertical air movement, humidity and
instability.
39. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards in India, the permissible 24 hour
average concentration of lead in ambient air of an industrial area is :
(1) 1.0 mg/m3 (2) 2.0 mg/m3 (3) 3.03 mg/m3 (4) 4.0 mg/m3
40. Peat soils, which have undergone prolonged drought in the forests are prone for :
(a) ground forest fire
(b) underground forest fire
(c) tree crown fire
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
41. Insect pests can be controlled by the use of :

(a) Insecticide (b) Pheromones
(c) Juvenile Hormones (d) Nitrophosphate
42. Dioxins and Furans are two toxic gaseous pollutants which can be measured by :
(1) GC - MS (2) TLC (3) ICP - AES (4) AAS
43. Based on the pE value for four water samples given below, the concentration of dissolved
oxygen shall be highest in :
(1) pE = 24.1 (2) pE = 13.9 (3) pE = 1.0 (4) pE = 7.0
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44. A total of 10 instantaneous sound pressure level measurements at 10 sec intervals for a traffic
site are given in the table below :
S. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
SPL (dB) 71 75 70 78 80 84 76 74 75 74
The estimated L90 from these measurement is :

(1) ~ 71 dB (2) ~ 70 dB (3) ~ 74 dB (4) ~ 75 dB
45. The composition of rhizospheric micro organisms are dependent on the soil :
(a) Texture (b) Organic matter (c) pH (d) Elasticity
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The fundamental goal of a dose - response assessment is to obtain a
mathematical relationship between the amount of a toxicant that a human
is exposed to and the risk that there will be.
Reason (R) : To apply dose - response data obtained from animal bioassay to humans, a
scaling factor must be introduced.
47. Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as :

(1) Taigas (2) Steppe (3) Savannas (4) Meadows
48. On 18th April 2015, Global Alliance to Eliminate Lead Paint (GAELP) announced the goal of
eliminating lead paint around the world by :
(1) 2020 (2) 2025 (3) 2028 (4) 2022
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49. The form of coal/fuel in the ascending order of heating value can be best represented as :
(1) Lignite < Peat < Bituminous < Anthracite
(2) Bituminous < Lignite < Peat < Anthracite
(3) Peat < Lignite < Bituminous < Anthracite
(4) Peat < Lignite < Anthracite < Bituminous
50. In India wetland conservation is presently done by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change under :
(1) National Wetland Conservation Programme
(2) National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems
(3) National Lake Conservation Programme
(4) Coastal Regulation Zone
51. Soil salination is not caused by :

(1) Agricultural area with high ground water irrigation
(2) Coastal swampy area
(3) Flood prone area
(4) Upland lateritic area with waste water irrigation
52. Ground water occurs under :

(a) Unconfined condition in shallow aquifers
(b) Semi Confined aquifers
(c) Confined aquifers
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
53. DEM (Digital Elevation Model) is best represented using :

(1) Vector Data Models (2) Raster Data Models
(3) Coverage Data Structure (4) Non - Topological Data Structure
54. Delta are classified into six basic types taking cognissance and importance of :
(a) Rivers (b) Waves (c) Tides
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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55. Large elongated depression with steep walls formed by the downward displacement of a
block of the earth surface between nearly parallel faults or fault system :
(1) Thrust faults (2) Horst (3) Grabben (4) Rift Valley
56. Which form of scattering in visible region in the atmosphere is not dependent on
wavelength ?
(a) Rayleigh (b) Mie (c) Non-Selective
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
57. Best spatial configuration for designing a core natural area is :

(1) Circular (2) Rectangular (3) Square (4) Triangle
58. Ecosystem resilience is the capacity of an ecosystem to sustain its :

(a) Fundamental function
(b) Structure
(c) Feedbacks in the face of a spectrum of shock and perturbations
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
59. With regard to ozone depletion over Antarctica, select the false statement :
(1) Circumpolar vortex acts as a reaction chamber
(2) Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) are formed within the vortex
(3) There is very low temperature inside the vortex
(4) The heterogenous reaction
ClONO2(s)+ HCl(g) ® Cl2(g)+HNO3(s) takes over PSCs
60. Match the Lists - I and - II. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Horizon) (Type/Characteristics)
(a) A - horizon (i) Subsoil
(b) O - horizon (ii) Leaf litter
(c) C - horizon (iii) Parent material
(d) B - horizon (iv) Top soil
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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61. A laboratory analysis of a waste water sample indicated BOD of 750 mg L21 with rate
constant (K) 0.20 day21 at 208C. The 5-day BOD at 208C is :
(1) 675 mg L21 (2) 650 mg L21 (3) 400 mg L21 (4) 600 mg L21
62. A stream with a flow of 0.2 m3/sec and a chloride concentration of 50 mg/L receives a
discharge of mine drainage water with a flow of 0.05 m3/sec and chloride concentration of
1500 mg/L. The downstream concentration of chloride is :
(1) 150 mg/L (2) 200 mg/L (3) 340 mg/L (4) 380 mg/L
63. Four students (List A) working independently in a chromatographic analysis (List B)

reported the Retention Factor (Rf) values :
List - A List - B
(Students) (Rf Values)
(a) R ® (i) 0
(b) S ® (ii) 0.5
(c) T ® (iii) 1.3
(d) U ® (iv) 1.0
The result of which student(s) is (are) definitely incorrect :
(1) R and U (2) S and T (3) S, T and U (4) T
64. The mechanism of the formation of gaseous N2O5 from NO2 and O2 gases in the gas phase
within clouds is :
NO2(g) 1O3(g) ® NO3(g)1O2(g) (i)
NO3(g) 1NO2(g) ® N2O5(g) (ii)
The experimentally determined rate law is

2d [NO2(g)] /dt
5K [NO2(g)] [O3(g)]
Based on the information provided which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Overall reaction is : 2NO(g) +O3(g) ® N2O5(g) + O2(g)
(2) The reaction intermediate is NO3
(3) The rate determining step is reaction (i)
(4) The rate reaction (ii) is slower than the rate of reaction (i)
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65. In a rain water sample of pH=8.45, the dominant species of dissolved sulphur dioxide shall
be :
(1) SO2. H2O (2) HSO32 (3) SO 322 (4) S2O522
66. An aquifer of sand has a saturated column of cross - sectional area 0.235 m and a depth of
3 m. If the specific yield of sand is 25% , how much water can be extracted from the
aquifer ?
(1) 0.5 m3 (2) 0.75 m3 (3) 1.2 m3 (4) 1.5 m3
67. Atmospheric life times of CFCs is typically in the range :

(1) 50 - 102 years (2) 140 - 200 years (3) 200 - 400 years (4) 152 - 210 years
68. With respect to CO2, Global Warming Potential (GWP) for N2O over a time horizon of
100 years is estimated to be :
(1) 156 (2) 210 (3) 296 (4) 240
69. The green-house gas N2O strongly absorbs infra-red radiations of wavelength(s) :
(1) ~ 4.5 mm (2) ~ 7.8 mm and 8.6 mm
(3) ~ 9.6 mm (4) ~ 10.6 mm
70. By the year 2022, Indian government has set a new target of Solar Power generation of :
(1) 4 GW (2) 60 GW (3) 75 GW (4) 100 GW
71. Match the Lists - I and - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List - I List - II
(Causes) (Effects)
(a) Soil organisms (i) Algal bloom
(b) Phosphorous assimilation (ii) Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
(c) Water pollution (iii) Decomposition
(d) Air pollution (iv) Complexing agent
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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72. The Wavelengths that are most important in the context of stratospheric ozone depletion
are :
(1) 280 - 320 nm (2) 400 - 700 nm (3) 700 - 900 nm (4) > 900 nm
73. Remote sensing satellites such as RESOURCESAT are usually placed in polar :
(a) Low Earth Polar orbit
(b) Sunsynchronous orbit
(c) Geosynchronous orbit
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
74. Gills of marine fishes perform the functions of the following :

(1) Water loss and salt excretion (2) Water gain and salt excretion
(3) Water uptake and solute uptake (4) Water loss and solute uptake
75. The instrument used for determination of soil water loss by percolation, evapotranspiration
and run off is called :
(1) Lysimeter (2) Rain Gauze
(3) Soil moisture meter (4) Soil porosity meter
-o0o-
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
J A 089
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
1 7 (In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150

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JA-089-17 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – III
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Vertical velocity often equals or exceeds horizontal velocity in mesoscale
meteorological systems.
Reason (R) : Rising thermals are susceptible to undergo non-hydrostatic processes such
as buoyant acceleration or acceleration through a narrow mountain pass.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Geostrophic wind velocity is independent of latitude.
Reason (R) : Geostrophic wind velocity is determined by pressure gradient force only.
3. Mixing height during night is typically in the range

(1) < few hundred metres (2) 1 km – 2 km
(3) 2 km – 3 km (4) 3 km – 4 km
At a given urban location, the temperature at an elevation of 25 m above ground is 15 °C.

If the inversion conditions prevail and the environmental lapse rate is 1.25 °C per 100 m,
4.
the temperature at an elevation of 200 m will be

(1) 12.5 °C (2) 17.5 °C
(3) 12.75 °C (4) 17.25 °C
5. When the temperature of the atmosphere falls at a rate greater than the dry adiabatic lapse
rate, the atmosphere is
(1) stable (2) highly stable
(3) unstable (4) conditionally unstable
Paper-III 2 JA-089-17
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6. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is
(1) net rate of carbon gain by the plant after respiration losses.
(2) total energy used to convert the sugar during growth.
(3) photosynthetic fixation rate of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
(4) rate of release of oxygen through respiration of a plant.
7. The oxygen atom species, which reacts with water to form hydroxyl radical, is produced
by the photodissociation of
(1) O2 (2) O3
(3) NO2 (4) H2O
8. Match the List – I and List – II given below :

(Element) (Classification)
a. Sodium i. Chalcogen
b. Calcium ii. Alkali Metal
c. Chromium iii. Alkaline Earth Element
d. Sulfur iv. Transition Element
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii i ii iv
(4) iv ii i iii
9. Identify the incorrect statement about carbon isotopes :

(1) C-13 is less abundant in vegetation than in oceans.
(2) C-12 is most abundant in nature.
(3) C-14 is absent in fossil fuels.
(4) C-13 is used for carbon-dating.
10. Among the following insecticides, which one is relatively more soluble in water ?
(1) Aldicarb (2) Carbaryl
(3) Malathion (4) Aldrin
At 25 °C, hydrogen ion concentration in an environmental aqueous solution is found to be

5 × 10–4 mol L–1. This implies that the concentration of hydroxyl ions is
11.
(1) 2 × 10–3 mol L–1 (2) 1 × 10–7 mol L–1

(3) 2 × 10–11 mol L–1 (4) 2 × 10–19 mol L–1
JA-089-17 3 Paper-III
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12. Identify the incorrect statement about humus.
(1) Humus acts as a reservoir of nitrogen for plants.
(2) By decaying, humus supplies nitrogen to plants.
(3) Its rate of decay and rate of nitrogen release follow plant growth.
(4) Rate of nitrogen release to plants is slow during warm growing season and fast
during winter months.
13. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(Terms) (Chromatographic action)
a. Effluent i. The eluted solute
b. Eluate ii. The mobile phase
c. Eluent iii. The solute-mobile phase mixture
which exits the column
d. Eluite iv. The stream flowing out of the column
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) iii i ii iv
(4) iv iii ii i
14. A textile industry effluent containing 1 × 10–6 mol L–1 of an organic dye has 0.6 absorbance
(1) 6 × 104 L mol–1 cm–1 (2) 6 × 10–7 L mol–1 cm–1

in a cell of 1.0 cm path length. The molar extinction coefficient of the dye is
(3) 1.66 × 10–5 L mol–1 cm–1 (4) 6.0 × 106 L mol–1 cm–1
15. Characteristics of successful invasive plant species are :

a. Rapid growth and early flowering.
b. High phenotypic plasticity
c. Production of large number of seeds
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
16. Drugs that prevent the formation of bacterial cell wall are
(1) Quinolones (2) Beta-lactams
(3) Tetracyclines (4) Aminoglycocides
17. As a result of El Nino, it has been observed that phytoplankton productivity increases in
Eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia and Gulf of Mexico. This increase is probably due to
(a) Increased rainfall
(b) More nutrient inflow
(c) Turbulence in surface waters
Codes :
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18. Vermi composting process depends on
(a) Quality of organic resources
(b) Types of earthworms
(c) Moisture content of the organic wastes
19. Photosynthesis in plants is associated with

(a) decrease in entropy
(b) increase in entropy
(c) increase in Gibbs free energy
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
20. The predominant bioparticulate allergens in the air are

(1) Insect debris and house dust mites
(2) Pollen grains and fungal spores
(3) Animal dander and house dust
(4) Wool particles and cockroach calyx
21. The enhancement of the fitness of a recipient individual by acts that reduce the
evolutionary fitness of the donor individual is
(1) Amensalism (2) Altruism
(3) Commonsalism (4) Parasitism
22. The greater proportion of the edges in a national park indicates a

(a) less functional habitat
(b) highly functional habitat
(c) degraded habitat
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c) only
23. The change in species composition that is imposed by factors external to the biotic
community is known as
(1) Autogenic succession (2) Allogenic succession
(3) Xerarch (4) Hydrarch
24. Which ecosystem type produces maximum litter mass ?

(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Tropical seasonal forest
(3) Temperate deciduous forest (4) Boreal forest
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25. Cyclomorphism is a phenomenon observed in certain planktonic crustaceans and is
generally attributed as a response to
(a) changes in environmental variables of water.
(b) ensure adaptive significance.
(c) growth, reproduction and sudden genetic change
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
26. Microbes in the environment are likely to be

I. living in biofilms on surfaces.
II. non-culturable
III. living solitary and planktonic lines
(1) I only (2) II and III only
(3) I and III only (4) I and II only
27. Which magma type contains the greatest amount of silica ?

(1) Basaltic (2) Andesitic
(3) Rhyolitic (4) Peridotic
28. Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(Stratigraphic Unit) (Deposits)
a. Bailadila Group i. Mn
b. Nallamalai Group ii. Phosphorite
c. Udaipur Group iii. Banded Iron Formation
d. Sansar Group iv. Pb-Zn
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv i iii ii
(3) i ii iv iii
(4) ii iii i iv
29. Which group of following factors determine the discharge of a stream ?

(1) Width, length and depth (2) Width, length and velocity
(3) Width, depth and velocity (4) Length, depth and run-off
30. Which among the following zones has the highest erosion rate in the journey of a river ?
(1) Head water (2) Potamon
(3) Mouth (4) Sediment transforming zone
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31. In the decreasing order of hardness on Moh’s scale, choose the correct sequence from the
following :
(1) Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite, Talc (2) Feldspar, Calcite, Talc, Quartz
(3) Talc, Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite (4) Quartz, Calcite, Feldspar, Talc
32. Wind transport of materials entails the following processes :

I. Saltation II. Reptation
III. Suspension IV. Creep
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III and IV only
(3) III and IV only (4) I and II only
33. According to Darcy’s law for ground water movement, velocity is proportional to
(1) Hydraulic gradient. (2) Square of hydraulic gradient.
(3) Square root of hydraulic gradient, (4) Reciprocal of hydraulic gradient.
34. Which of the following types of coal has maximum ash content (%) ?
(1) Anthracite (2) Sub-Bituminous
(3) Lignite (4) High volatile Bituminous
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The amount of energy available in a single fusion event is small compared
to a fission event.
Reason (R) : Isotopes of hydrogen are much lighter than uranium.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The thermal efficiency of nuclear reactors is lower than that of fossil
fuelled steam plants.
Reason (R) : Temperature of water generating stream in a nuclear reactor has relatively
lower values compared to fossil fuelled steam plants.
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Natural gas contributes less to smog formation than gasoline.
Reason (R) : Unburnt CH4 molecules are considerably less reactive with respect to the
free radical chemistry for smog than the hydrocarbon molecules with more than one
C atom.
38. Consider ocean waves of amplitude 2.0 m and wavelength 200 m. Assuming the gravity to
be the only active force, the power available per metre perpendicular to the propagation of
the wave is
(1) 86.24 kW m–1 (2) 172.48 kW m–1
(3) 344.90 kW m–1 (4) 800.00 kW m–1
39. A wind mill has cross-sectional area 25.0 m2. The wind speed is 6.0 m/s. What will be the
power generated by the wind mill in the Betz limit ?
(1) ~ 2.064 kW (2) ~ 3.483 kW
(3) ~ 11.162 kW (4) ~ 18.321 kW
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The power output from an OTEC system installed at a tropical site is
steady.
Reason (R) : At tropical sites, the temperatures of warm surface water and cold water in
the depth of ocean hardly vary from season to season.
can achieve temperature of about 700 °C to operate a heat engine to generate electricity. If
41. An electric power plant based on solar energy uses collectors with concentrators which
the solar insolation is 1 kW/m2, how much total collector area will be required to supply
on average 10 MW of electricity ? (Take ambient air temperature to be 25 °C)
(1) 5.15 × 103 m2 (2) 1.44 × 103 m2
(3) 3.18 × 103 m2 (4) 10.61 × 103 m2
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42. The potency factor of CHCl3 is 6.1 × 10–3 kg-day/mg. The concentration in drinking water
that would result in 2 × 10–6 risk for a 70-kg man, who drinks 2L/day throughout of his
(1) 11.4 μg/L (2) 20.6 μg/L

life, is
(3) 6 μg/L (4) 25 μg/L
43. Which of the following compounds used for disinfection of water is not stable but is
prepared in situ ?
(1) Cl2 (2) Ca(OCl)2
(3) NaOCl (4) HOCl
44. Identify the incorrect statement from the following regarding soil pollution by heavy
metals :
(1) Soils act as a sink for heavy metals.
(2) Humic materials have great affinity for heavy metal cations.
(3) Humic materials extract heavy metals from soil water by forming complexes.
(4) Complexes formed by humic acids are normally water soluble.
45. A point source of noise produces a sound of 60 dB at a distance of 10 m from it. If the
sound is measured at a distance of 40 m, what will be its value ?
(1) 48 dB (2) 54 dB
(3) 57 dB (4) 44 dB
46. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to water purification by coagulation.
(1) Particles suspended in water are in colloidal form.
(2) Suspended particles carry a positive charge.
(3) Suspended particles due to similar charge repel each other.
(4) When alum is added it works as a coagulant.
47. In relation to drinking water source without conventional treatment but after disinfection,
water parameters and their permissible values are given in the lists given below :
Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(Water parameters) (Permissible values)
a. Total coliform organism MPN i. 6.5 – 8.5
per 100 ml
b. pH ii. < 50 per 100 mL
d. BOD (5 days, 20 °C)

c. DO iii. 2 mg/L or less
iv. 6 mg/L or more
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iv iii
(2) ii i iii iv
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iv ii iii i
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ozone depletion is much less over arctic stratosphere than over Antarctic
stratosphere.
Reason (R) : Antarctic atmosphere is on an average about 10 °C cooler than the arctic
stratosphere.
(Water type) (Conductivity (μS cm–1))
a. Fresh water i. > 500
b. Clean tap water ii. < 300
c. Clean upland river iii. 60 – 100
d. Organically enriched river iv. 2–4
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i iv iii ii
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) iii ii i iv
(Auditing types) (Set of terms)
a. Implementation audit i. External review of the procedures used
b. Performance audit ii. Compare actual with predicted impacts
c. Project impact audit iii. To cover full operation
d. Procedures audit iv. To cover a start-up
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) ii iii iv i
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecological restoration is a difficult proposition both in principle and
in practice.
Reason (R) : Identity and population sizes of plants and animals once present at a
particular site are largely unknown.
52. During the EIA process under the EIA notification of September 14, 2006, no public
hearing is required for
(a) all A' category projects
(b) all ‘B1’ category projects
(c) all ‘B2’ category projects
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) only
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Evaporation of surface water is reduced due to black carbon in
atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Presence of aerosols having black carbon is responsible for dimming effect.
(Methods) (Description)
a. Network Method i. Possible impacts by composite environmental parameters.
b. Overlays Method ii. Structured approaches by involving scaling-weighing
techniques.
c. Checklists Method iii. Environmental systems as a complex web of relationships.
d. Adhoc Method iv. Spatial distribution of environmental impacts using GIS.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iii iv ii i
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55. In environmental Impact Assessment, the baseline studies describe the
(1) socio-economic mapping of the area.
(2) consequences of the development activity.
(3) assessment of the risk involved during project implementation.
(4) environmental setting existing in the project area.
56. An ecosystem restoration project should have the outcomes which are
I. Specific II. Measurable
III. General IV. Realistic
V. Time bound
(1) I, II, III, V (2) I, II, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV, V (4) I, II, III, IV
57. When applied to field populations, Lotka-Volterra equations suffer from the following :
I. Competition coefficients are assumed to be constant.
II. Carrying capacity is assumed to be constant.
III. There are no time lags.
IV. Maximal rate of increase is assumed to be constant.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
58. In a city, the daily per capita inhalation (m3) values of contaminated air over a period of 5
days are 6.3, 6.3, 6.2, 6.4 and 5.8, respectively. The sample mean with standard deviation
of the data is
(1) 6.2 + 0.02 (2) 6.2 + 0.23
(3) 6.0 + 0.15 (4) 6.2 + 0.18
59. The population (N) of fish in a pond follows the logistic equation
dN 2
dt = 0.1 N – 0.001 N .
What is the maximum sustainable yield ?
(1) 100 (2) 50
(3) 25 (4) 200
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For power stations and polluting industries, tall stacks are installed.
Reason (R) : The maximum ground level concentration of a pollutant released from a
stack is inversely proportion to the height of the stack.
61. Consider a box model for an airshed over a city and assume that the initial concentration
of a pollutant is zero and that the air entering the box is clean. If the length of the box is 10
km and the wind speed along the length of the box is 5 m/s, what is the time taken for the
pollutant concentration to reach ~ 95% of its final value ?
(1) 1 h 40 minutes (2) 1 h 7 minutes
(3) 33 minutes 20 seconds (4) 2 h 13 minutes 20 seconds
–
5.667 and 0.934, respectively. If the population mean is μ = 5.2, then t – statistic is
62. For a sample size n = 16, the mean (X) value and standard deviation (S) are found to be
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.47

(3) 1.76 (4) 2.0
63. Which of the following are sources of the greenhouse gas methane (CH4) ?
(a) Coal mining areas (b) Ruminants
(c) Wetlands (d) Low land paddy
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
64. Which of the following convention/protocols/treaties is legally binding on the signatory

countries ?
(1) Basel Convention (2) Montreal Protocol
(3) Kyoto Protocol (4) Paris Agreement
65. For untreated municipal wastewater, BOD/COD ratio is in the range

(1) 1.3 – 3 (2) 0.3 – 0.8
(3) 3.0 – 6.5 (4) > 10
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66. Organic wetland soils have
I. High porosity II. Low density
III. High Ion exchange capacity IV. Low nutrient availability
Choose the right answer :
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III, IV only
(3) III, IV only (4) I, II only
67. Consider following statements about the ozone hole ?

I. Ozone formation and destruction keeps on happening.
II. Ozone destruction rate is higher than its formation rate.
III. Ozone destruction rate is equal to its formation rate.
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) I and III only (4) III only
68. Consider following statements about an estuary :

I. Estuary is the ecotonal region between fresh water and oceanic water.
II. This area is highly productive.
III. This area is highly unproductive.
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) III only (4) I and III only
69. The ionic species, O+, O2+ and N2+ are found generally in
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Heterosphere
70. As part of recently signed international agreement on phasing out synthetic

hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), India will start phasing them out from the year
(1) 2019 (2) 2024
(3) 2028 (4) 2032
71. In the tropospheric ozone formation reaction sequence, which of the following chemical
species does not act as a catalyst ?
(1) OH (2) HO2
(3) NO2 (4) O2
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72. Which of the following are useful indicators of pollution potential of organic effluents ?
(a) Total Organic Carbon (TOC)
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Turbidity
(d) Conductivity
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
73. Which of the following power plants releases radioactive materials as well as hazardous
metals such as lead and arsenic under normal operating conditions ?
(1) Nuclear power plant (2) Solar power installations
(3) Hydro power (4) Coal based thermal power plants
(Convention) (Purpose)
a. Paris Convention 1992 i. Transboundary Movement of Waste
b. Vienna Convention 1985 ii. Protection of Marine Environment
c. Bamako Convention 1998 iii. Protection of ozone layer
d. Basel convention 1992 iv. Ban on import of hazardous waste to Africa
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i ii iii iv
(Colour Codes) (Hospital Wastes)
a. Yellow Bags i. Infected metal sharps
b. Red Bags ii. Outdated Medicine bottles
c. Blue Bags iii. Used Catheters
d. Black Carboy iv. Infectious waste placenta
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) i iv iii ii
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 6 (In words)

this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆ¢Ö¸ ²ÖÆã ×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßμÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï …
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3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×¤μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿μÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî :
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in the booklet with the information printed on the ÝÖμÖê ÆÖë μÖÖ ÃÖß×¸μÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß
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at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆ¸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ •ÖÖμÖë … ÆÖ»ÖÖÓ×Û †Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö C.B.S.E. «Ö¸Ö ¯ÖÏ¤Ö®Ö ×Û μÖê ÝÖμÖê Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E. 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – III
1. In India audit on conservation and protection of tigers in all 28 Tiger reserves was
conducted in
(1) 2001 (2) 2004
(3) 2006 (4) 2007
2. In the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a development project is not discernible,
then what step should be adopted ?
(1) Scoping stage ought to be initiated
(2) Detailed EIA study ought to be conducted
(3) A rapid EIA study ought to be conducted
(4) The project may not be given environmental clearance
3. Biodiversity hotspots are regions of high

(1) stationary population of common species
(2) richness of endemic species
(3) migratory population
(4) richness of dominant species
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) plants have very low
efficiencies.
Reason (R) : The temperature difference between warm surface water and cold deeper
ocean water is not all that great.
5. In respect of geothermal power production, identify the correct sequence of the countries :
(1) Iceland > Russia > Japan > USA
(2) Japan > Iceland > USA > Russia
(3) USA > Iceland > Japan > Russia
(4) USA > Japan > Iceland > Russia
Paper-III 2 J-89-16
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6. Among the forest types of India, which category of forest covers maximum geographical
area :
(1) Tropical grassland (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (4) Temperate evergreen forest
7. The overall diversity of a landscape comprising several ecosystems is known as

(3) Gamma diversity (4) Delta diversity
8. The ratio between the amount of radiation emitted by earth upto the wavelength at which
maximum radiation is emitted and total amount of radiation emitted by earth is
approximately
(1) ~ 25% (2) ~ 50%
(3) ~ 40% (4) ~ 66%
9. Milankovitch cycles refer to

(1) Shifts in the temperature of surface water in the middle latitudes of the Pacific
Ocean.
(2) The timing of the northern lights in the thermosphere.
(3) The changes in the Earth’s rotation and orbit around the sun that may trigger climate
variation.
(4) Upwelling and down-welling in the ocean.
10. El Nino and La Nina phenomena

(1) decrease water temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean
(2) increase water temperatures in the Gulf of Mexico
(3) occur in a definite pattern every ten years
(4) cause changes in global temperature and precipitation pattern
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : At a constant temperature, the solubility of ammonia in water increases
with decrease in pH.
Reason (R) : The solubility of all gases increase with decrease in pH.
J-89-16 3 Paper-III
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature of sea water generally decreases with increasing latitude.
Reason (R) : Surface layers of sea water tend to contract and sink in cold waters.
13. A normal sand dune is characterized by

(1) Gentle windward and steeper leeward sides.
(2) Both gentle sides.
(3) Steeper windward and gentle leeward sides.
(4) Both steeper sides.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The distribution of animals over the world is much more complex and
irregular compared to plants.
Reason (R) : The animals are mobile and therefore capable of more rapid dispersal.
15. Consider the following statements in case of Gaussian Plume Model.

a. The wind speed is constant both in time and with elevation.
b. The emission rate from the source is constant.
c. The pollutant is conservative.
Choose the answer :
(3) a and b only (4) a, b and c
16. A stream flowing at 5.0 m3/s converges with another stream with the same flow rate. The
concentration of the phosphate upstream to the junction is 10.0 mg/L and that in the other
stream is 5.0 mg/L. The downstream concentration of phosphate is
(1) 2.5 mg/L (2) 5.0 mg/L
(3) 7.5 mg/L (4) 10 mg/L
Paper-III 4 J-89-16
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17. Lotka-Volterra model for an ecosystem can be used to study
a. oscillations in prey-predator population.
b. effect of predator on prey population.
c. effect of prey on predator population.
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
18. In an ecosystem following logistic growth model initial population was 900 with growth
rate constant of 0.1. If the carrying capacity of the ecosystem is 1000, what is the
instantaneous rate of change of population ?
(1) 10 (2) 25
(3) 1.1 (4) 9
19. Choose an appropriate hypothesis testing method for the condition where the variance is
(2) χ2-test
an unknown parameter of a population of independent observations :
(1) Z-test
(3) t-test (4) F-test
20. For sampling error of 1.96σ; where σ is the standard deviation, and at critical value of
1.96, the significance level is
(1) 5.0 % (2) 1.0 %
(3) 2.7 % (4) 4.5 %
21. Qualitatively a sampling error in a survey based environmental experiment is the sum of
(1) Frame error + Response error + chance error
(2) Frame error + non-sampling error
(3) Chance error + Frame error + Systematic error
(4) Non-sampling error + Chance error + Systematic error
22. Ecosensitive zones are declared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and climate
change, Govt. of India under the provisions of
(1) Forest Act, 1927
(2) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(3) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(4) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
23. Basel convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste and disposal was
adopted in the year
(1) 1969 (2) 1979
(3) 1999 (4) 1989
24. Which method reduces the volume of waste but could release toxic air emissions into the
atmosphere ?
(1) Biological treatment (2) Sanitary landfill
(3) Incineration (4) Chemical treatment
J-89-16 5 Paper-III
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25. As per CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) 2011 Notification, which of the following
activities is permitted ?
(1) Dumping of untreated sewage, effluents or solid waste.
(2) Traditional fishing and allied activities.
(3) Construction of Housing Complexes.
(4) Infrastructural projects.
(Biomedical Waste) (Treatment/Disposal)
a. Human tissues i. Incineration
b. Scalpels ii. Autoclaving
c. Solid plaster casts iii. Microwave mutilation
d. Catheters iv. Deep burial
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) i iii ii iv
27. An organisation implementing an EMS under ISO 14001 should set environmental targets
in order to achieve environmental objectives within a specified time-frame. The target
should be
(1) implemented on a trial basis
(2) generic in nature
(3) related to financial aspects
(4) measurable and specific
28. ISO 14001 requires an organisation to
(1) set improvement targets for every department.
(2) define a quality policy within the defined scope of its EMS.
(3) define the scope of its EMS.
(4) define the scope of its audit.
29. Cost-benefit analysis is performed during
(1) Design phase (2) Feasibility study phase
(3) Implementation (4) Maintenance phase
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to the construction
of a dam on it.
Reason (R) : The area in upper catchment of the river gets inundated.
Paper-III 6 J-89-16
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(Auditing) (Actions)
a. Implementation audit i. External review
b. Predictive techniques audit ii. Initial activities
c. Performance audit iii. Validation of impacts
d. Procedures audit iv. Comprehensive operational activities
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i ii iii iv
32. The interaction matrix developed by Leopold consists of how many parameters ?
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 90
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The goal of the National Land Utilisation Policy is to achieve
improvement of livelihood, food and water security under the umbrella
of sustainable development in India.
Reason (R) : The National Land Utilisation Policy envisages a guiding framework for
state specific needs, potentials, priorities and legal provisions.
34. Which of the following is a major photochemical oxidant ?

(1) PAN
(2) Ozone
(3) Aldehydes
(4) Peroxybenzoyl nitrates (PBzN)
35. In terms of toxicity, identify the correct sequence :

(1) Arsenic > Cadmium > Methylene chloride
(2) Cadmium > Arsenic > Methylene chloride
(3) Methylene chloride > Cadmium > Arsenic
(4) Methylene chloride > Arsenic > Cadmium
J-89-16 7 Paper-III
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36. Upwelling of oceanic waters is important for
(1) enrichment of nutrients in pelagic waters.
(2) balancing water circulation pattern in oceans and seas.
(3) making the pelagic waters nutrient deficient.
(4) helping survival of benthic organisms.
37. Arrange the following in terms of increasing productivity :

a. Antarctica sea b. Arctic sea
c. Dead sea d. Arabian sea
(1) c < a < d < b (2) c < a < b < d
(3) d < b < c < a (4) a < c < d < b
(Process/Event) (Consequences/Links)
a. Assimilative capacity i. DO, BOD, Coliform
b. Critical water parameter ii. Cadmium
c. Itai-Itai disease iii. Blue baby syndrome
d. Excess nitrate in water iv. Waste discharge
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii iii i iv
39. Which type of plume behaviour one would expect from a tall stack located on a flat terrain
if adiabatic lapse rate (Γ) and environmental lapse rate (Γenv) are as shown in the diagram
below :
Γenv
Γ
(1) looping (2) fanning

(3) coning (4) trapping
Paper-III 8 J-89-16
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40. A road carrying heavy traffic has an average noise level of 90 dB when measured at a
distance of 10 metres. What would be the noise level at 20 metres distance ?
(1) 87 dB (2) 84 dB
(3) 60 dB (4) 45 dB
41. When biomass is converted to CO and H2O, the energy made available is ~ 450 kJ per
mol of carbon per unit of reduction level. What would be the heat of combustion per gram
of methane ?
(1) 28.125 kJ/g (2) 56.25 kJ/g
(3) 67.5 kJ/g (4) 135 kJ/g
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen, as a fuel, when burned, does produce some amount of
pollution.
Reason (R) : Heat produced during combustion of hydrogen chemically combines N2
and O2 in atmosphere to produce NOx.
43. Given standard enthalpies for methane, carbon dioxide and water vapour as ~ 75 kJ/mol,
394 kJ/mol and 240 kJ/mol, respectively. What is the net heat of combustion of methane ?
(1) – 799 kJ/mol (2) – 802 kJ/mol
(3) + 1598 kJ/mol (4) + 799 kJ/mol
44. In an ideal magnetohydrodynamic power plant, the speed of flow of the hot ionized gas is
u m/s. The maximum power output from the plant varies as
(1) ∝ u (2) ∝ u3/2
(3) ∝ u2 (4) ∝ u3
45. An ideal wind turbine located on a hill top produces electrical power. If wind speed
changes by 5%, by what percentage the electrical power will change ?
(1) 12.5 % (2) 25 %
(3) 30 % (4) 15 %
46. A person working in a nuclear reactor is exposed to a beam of thermal neutrons and
receives a dose of 20 millirads per hour for an exposure of 12 minutes. What is the
equivalent dose in millirems, the person is exposed to ?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
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47. What is the approximate increase in radiative forcing if the CO2 concentration increases
from 400 ppm to 800 ppm ?
(1) ~ 4.37 W/m2 (2) ~ 3.81 W/m2
(3) ~ 2.72 W/m2 (4) ~ 1.62 W/m2
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Large parts of India have already become water stressed.
Reason (R) : Climate change may be the main reason.
49. Ecosystem degradation refers to

a. loss or decrease in biodiversity.
b. modification in structure of abiotic components.
c. impairment of ecosystem processes such as nutrient cycling.
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
50. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by
(1) reducing the albedo of the earth’s surface
(2) absorbing solar radiation
(3) blocking UV-B radiation on earth
(4) absorbing terrestrial radiation
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : As per equilibrium theory of island biogeography, distance of the islands
from the mainland determines the dispersal rate of new species.
Reason (R) : Size of an island is important in determining number of species.
Paper-III 10 J-89-16
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All cloud processes have implications for climate change.
Reason (R) : Clouds strongly affect the flux of both shortwave and infra-red light
through atmosphere.
53. Using remote sensing for height measurement of trees, which microwave band is most
suitable ?
(1) X (2) C
(3) S (4) L
54. For public use, Survey of India publishes topographical maps on 1 : 50, 000 scale. These
maps use
(1) UTM projection and WGS 84 datum
(2) Polyconic projection and WGS84 datum
(3) UTM projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
(4) Polyconic projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
55. Sub-geostrophic winds in the earth-atmospheric system are caused by the balance
involving
(1) pressure gradient force, Coriolis force and frictional force
(2) pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
(3) pressure gradient force and frictional force
(4) Coriolis force and frictional force
56. Which one of the following is not a set of polymorphous minerals ?

(1) Calcite, aragonite, vaterite
(2) Quartz, coesite, tridymite
(3) Graphite, anthracite, diamond
(4) Kyanite, alusite and sillimanite
J-89-16 11 Paper-III
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(Geological events) (Processes)
a. Exfoliation dome i. Landform change
b. Rift valleys ii. Ultisols
c. Palaeomagnetism iii. Mechanical weathering
d. Pedogenesis iv. Seafloor spreading
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv ii i iii
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Soil development begins with physical, chemical and biological
weathering of rocks.
Reason (R) : Anthropogenic factors play a major role in soil formation.
59. The most common ferromagnesian rock forming minerals are as follows :
(1) Amphibole and Biotite Mica
(2) Muscovita mica and Quartz
(3) Galena and Pyrite
(4) Calcite and Dolomite
60. Underground coal mine fires can best be monitored by remote sensing technique in the
spectral region
(1) 3 – 5 μm (2) 10 – 12 μm
(3) 1 – 3 μm (4) 1 mm – 10 mm
61. Our inability to address the conflict between short term individual well-being and long
term societal welfare is responsible for the
(1) Tragedy of the population (2) Tragedy of the community
(3) Tragedy of the environment (4) Tragedy of the commons
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62. Proportion of representation of each species allows ecologists to compare different
communities through graphical representation. Such a graph is called
(1) Rank abundance curve
(2) Species accumulation curve
(3) Survivorship curve
(4) Sigmoid curve
63. Lincoln index is a mark-recapture method used in animals to estimate the

(1) total population density (2) total number
(3) total frequency (4) total dominance
64. K-selected population during ecological succession tends to dominate in

(1) mature stages (2) early stages
(3) pioneer stages (4) seral stages
65. Evolution can be viewed as

a. genetic change over time
b. a process of descent with modification
c. a sudden change in organism
d. a man-made change in oraganism
(3) c and d only (4) a and d only
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : C4 photosynthesis lowers photorespiratory energy loss.
Reason (R) : The greater supply of CO2 lowers the rate of O2 uptake by rubisco
substantially reducing photorespiration.
67. Symbiotic blue-green algal biofertilizer is obtained from

(1) Nostoc species (2) Rhizobium species
(3) Azolla mass culture (4) Azospirillum mass culture
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68. With reference to smog consider the following statements :
a. Los Angeles smog is oxidizing.
b. London smog is reducing.
(1) Both a and b are false.
(2) Both a and b are true.
(3) a is false but b is true.
(4) a is true but b is false.
(Chemical Species) (Measurement Techniques)
a. DO i. West-Gaeke Method
b. SO2 ii. Non-dispersive infrared analyser
c. CO iii. Chemiluminescence
d. NO iv. Winkler’s Method
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i iv iii ii
88 86
70. Disintegration of 226 Ra yields 222 Rn owing to the emission of
(1) two β-particles
(2) one α-particle
(3) γ-radiation
(4) one β-particle followed by an α-particle
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature in stratosphere increases with increase in altitude.
Reason (R) : Photodissociation of O2 in stratosphere makes the lapse rate positive.
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72. At 15 °C, a manufacturer dissolves CO2 at 2.4 atm in water in a bottle. If Henry’s law
constant of CO2 in water be 0.045 mol L–1 atm–1 at 15 °C, calculate the concentration of
CO2 dissolved in water.
(1) 5.6 mol L–1 (2) 0.019 mol L–1
(3) 0.098 mol L–1 (4) 0.108 mol L–1
(Pesticides) (Purpose)
a. Malathion i. Molluscicide
b. Metaldehyde ii. Fungicide
c. Diethyl Tolumide (DEET) iii. Insecticide
d. Chloroneb iv. Insect repellant
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) iii i iv ii
74. Which of the following is not an Advanced Oxidation Process for the treatment of waste
water ?
(1) PhotoFenton Process
(2) Photocatalytic TiO2 Process
(3) UV/H2O2 Process
(4) Acidified Potassium Dichromate Oxidation Process
75. If a material containing humic substances is extracted with a strong base, and the resulting
solution is acidified, products are
a. humin
b. humic acid
c. fulvic acid
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c only
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Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
J-8915 !J-8915-PAPER-III! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - III
1. Biological zonation in the ocean is determined by :

(I) Ocean depth
(II) Light availability
(III) Bottom substrate
(1) (I) only
(2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (I), (II) and (III)
(4) (II) and (III) only
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Methanogenic archae (methanogens) grow in swamps and sewage.
Reason (R) : Methanogens are obligate anaerobes
3. Filamentous Cyanobacteria differentiate 5 to 10% of their vegetative cells into heterocysts.

Heterocysts are characterized by :
(I) Thick cell wall
(II) Only PSI activity
(III) Nitrogenase activity
(1) (I) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
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4. A critically endangered species :
(1) Do not exist in wild habitat
(2) Face extremely high risk of extinction in immediate future
(3) Face high risk of extinction in the medium term future
(4) Will not face any risk of extinction in future 1000 years
5. Which of the following characteristics of desert animals are physiological adaptation to

conserve water ?
(I) Thick outer covering
(II) Release dry faeces
(III) Avoid exposure to direct sunlight
(1) (I) and (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
6. The balance between photosynthesis and photorespiration is related to :

(I) The ratio of O2 and CO2 in the atmosphere
(II) Temperature
(III) Kranz anatomy
(IV) The ratio of CO2 and H2O
(2) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(3) (I), (II) and (III) only
(4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
7. Individual organism respond to environmental change through short-term adjustment(s)

by :
(1) Physiological changes (2) Cytological changes
(3) Genetic changes (4) Phytochemical and genetic alterations
8. The hurricanes have spatial scale of :

(1) 100 Km - 1000 Km (2) 10 Km - 100 Km
(3) 100 m - 100 Km (4) 100 m - 10 Km
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9. In SDS - PAGE :
(1) Polymeric proteins are not only converted into monomers, but monomers are also
denatured by SDS.
(2) Polymeric proteins converted into monomeric units, but monomers are not denatured.
(3) Polymeric proteins are retained as single unit.
(4) SDS donot have any negative impact on native structure of monomers.
10. Which of the following is the major source of mercury pollution in India ?
(1) Coal based thermal power plants
(2) Pesticides manufacturing
(3) Dental amalgam fillings
(4) Electrical and electronic gadgets
11. A non-metal X occurs in nature in free state. It combines with hydrogen to form a gas,
which is colourless and highly toxic. Apart from this, X is oxidized to XO2 which is a
colourless, pungent and irritating gas. X represents :
(1) Sulphur (2) Carbon (3) Phosphorus (4) Nitrogen
12. Elemental carbon influences the regional climate because :

(1) It influences the radiative flux in the atmosphere due to its absorbing properties.
(2) It reacts with other pollutants.
(3) It coagulates with other atmospheric pollutants.
(4) Its concentration is usually more in the atmosphere.
13. Bioremediation of xenobiotics (like melathion) through hydrolysis involves their detoxification
by :
(1) Removal of water
(2) Addition of water
(3) Both removal and addition of water
(4) Removal of phosphate
14. To determine the cation-exchange capacity, it is necessary to calculate the total positive charge
associated with ions like :
(1) Ca21, Mg21, K1, Na1 (2) Ca21, Mn21, Fe31, Cr31
(3) Mg21, Fe31, Ni21, Cd21 (4) K1, BO21, Pb21, Hg21
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Organometals/organometalloids such as trimethylarsine and
dimethylmercury are more toxic to living systems (including humans)
compared to their inorganic forms.
Reason (R) : Organometals/organometalloids are more hydrophilic than their inorganic
forms and hence can move easily across lipid bilayer.
16. Project elephant was launched in the year :

(1) 1973 (2) 1985 (3) 1992 (4) 1998
17. Biological communities in a stream vary based on :

(I) Water velocity
(II) Allochthnous material
(III) Size of the particle on the stream bed
(IV) Depth of the stream
(3) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
18. Champion and Seth (1968) classify Indian forests based on :

(I) Floristic Composition
(II) Precipitation
(III) Distance from Sea
(1) (I) Only
(3) (II) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
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19. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) The solubility of gases varies considerably with pressure.
(2) Hydrocarbons chiefly occur in coal, natural gas and petroleum.
(3) Polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons are present in coal tar and fossil fuels.
(4) All hydrocarbons are hydrophilic in nature.
20. Gauss exclusion principle states that :

(1) Complete competitors co-exist
(2) Complete competitors cannot co-exist
(3) Complete competitors tend to co-operate
(4) Symbionts evolve into complete competitors
21. Parasites in a population/community can :

(I) Influence host population cycles
(II) Change ecological communities
(III) Change community structure
(1) (I), (II) and (III)
(3) (III) only
(4) (I) only
22. Long - term patterns of evolution are shaped by large scale process(s) such as :
(I) Speciation
(II) Mass extinction
(III) Adaptive radiation
(1) (I) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
23. Match the List - I with List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(Organism) (Interaction)
(a) Albugo and Indian mustard (i) Symbiosis
(b) Penicillium and Staphyllococcus (ii) Ammensalism
(c) Lichens (iii) Commensalism
(d) Barnacles and whales (iv) Parasitism
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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24. Extreme of seasonal variation (as much as 808C swing) from summer to winter is represented
by :
(1) Boreal forest (2) Tropical forests
(3) Deciduous forest (4) Evergreen forest
25. Aeromycoflora can be trapped and quantified by :

(1) Rotorod air sampler (2) Anderson air sampler
(3) Gregory air sampler (4) Respirable dust sampler
26. Which among the following frequencies in microwave region of electromagnetic spectrum is
better suited for determination of tree height ?
(1) C - band (4 - 8 GHz) (2) X - band (8 - 12.5 GHz)
(3) P - band (0.3 - 1.0 GHz) (4) K - band (18 - 26.5 GHz)
27. Which of the common mineral is not a silicate ?

(1) Quartz (2) Calcite (3) Pyroxene (4) Feldspar
28. Which among the following is the best model in GIS spatial relationships ?
(1) Spaghetti model (2) Topological model
(3) Relational database model (4) Parent-child model
29. One of the warning signs of an impending volcanic eruption is volcanic tremor, which is :
(1) A change in ground levels
(2) Inflation of a volcano as magma rises
(3) Ground shaking lasting for minutes or hours
(4) Emission of large quantities of gases
30. Time slot for measuring thermal inertia (TI) differences between land and water is :
(1) 1000 hrs. (2) 1100 hrs. (3) 1200 hrs. (4) 1400 hrs.
31. Slump is a complex slide which consists of :

(1) Curved shear surface (2) Curved and planar shear surfaces
(3) Planar shear surface (4) No definite shear surface
32. In rainwater harvesting, the purpose of percolation tank is :

(1) Recharge groundwater only
(2) Surface water supply for irrigation
(3) Both surface water supply and groundwater recharge
(4) Drinking water supply
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33. Which of the following minerals causes fluoride pollution in the groundwater ?
(1) Fluorite and Apatite (2) Olivine and Haematite
(3) Calcite and Magnetite (4) Quartz and Orthoclase
34. Indian monsoon is greatly influenced by :

(I) Sea surface temperature in pre-monsoon season
(II) El Nino
(III) La Nina
(IV) Depression over Tibet
(3) (III) and (IV) only (4) (IV) only
35. The important continental silicate mineral weathering process of lowering carbon dioxide
levels is :
(1) Hydrolysis (2) Oxidation (3) Carbonation (4) Reduction
36. The set of processes by which soil and rock are loosened and move downhill are called :
(1) Erosion (2) Saltation (3) Weathering (4) Abrasion
37. Wind mills are most suited for :

(I) Deserts (II) Offshore
(III) High altitude (IV) Roof tops
(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (II), (III) and (IV) only
38. Main source of energy for a tropical cyclone formation comes from :
(I) Heat of condensation of water vapours in the atmosphere
(II) Torrential rains
(III) Large ocean waves
(1) (I) only (2) (II) only
(3) (III) and (II) only (4) (I) and (III) only
39. In the following nuclear fusion reaction 12 D 1 12 D 5 23 He 1 01 n 1 E the value of the energy E
is :
(1) 17.6 MeV (2) 18.3 MeV (3) 4.03 MeV (4) 3.27 MeV
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40. Fast neutrons produced in nuclear fission reactions involving 235U have average energy of
the order of :
(1) 2 MeV (2) 5 MeV (3) 100 MeV (4) 200 MeV
41. As the population growth rate increases the doubling time :

(1) Increase (2) Double
(3) Remain constant (4) Decrease
42. A tidal estuary of tidal range 2 m has trapped water area 5000 m 2. If g59.8 m/s2, the
maximum energy available per tidal cycle is :
(1) 2.45 kW (2) 9.8 kW (3) 98 kW (4) 19.6 kW
43. The power (P) from an ocean wave varies with time period (T) of the wave as :
1 1
(1) P;T (2) P ; T2 (3) P; (4) P; 2
T T
44. With reference to pre-industrial times, the present day average global surface temperature is
higher approximately by :
(1) ~ 0.56 8C (2) ~ 0.85 8C (3) ~1.3 8C (4) ~1.5 8C
45. Burning of 1 mol of CH4 liberates 890 kJ of energy and 1 mol of CO2. Since 1 mol of CO2 has
12 g of carbon, the higher heating value (HHV) of methane is :
(1) 13.5 gC/MJ (2) 18.5 gC/MJ (3) 12.0 gC/MJ (4) 10.0 gC/MJ
46. pH of 1 mM HCl is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 11
47. Priority air pollutants included in the air quality index for urban areas in India are :
(1) CO, NOx, PM10 and PM2.5, SOx, O3, ammonia and Pb
(2) CO, NOx, SOx and Pb
(3) NOx, SOx, O3, and Pb
(4) PM10 and PM2.5, NOx, SOx, O3, and Pb
48. Present day advanced anaerobic digestors can generate power in the range :
(1) 2 - 10 MW (2) 20 - 100 MW (3) 100 - 200 MW (4) 200 - 500 MW
49. Cement dust is characterized by very fine particulates. Which of the following air pollution
control devices is appropriate for removing them from hot exhaust gases emanating from
cement kiln ?
(1) Baghouse (2) Cyclones
(3) Venturi scrubber (4) Electrostatic precipitator
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50. The sources of aliphatic hydrocarbons in indoor environment are :
(1) Paints, adhesives and gasoline (2) Aerosol sprays and solvents
(3) Spirits and cleansers (4) Solvents and vinyl flooring
51. Given the following data of sound pressure levels measured at equal intervals:60dB, 62 dB,
63 dB, 59 dB, 60 dB, 80 dB, 58 dB, 59 dB, 65 dB, 57 dB, 62 dB. The value of the background
noise level (L90) is :
(1) 62.5 dB (2) 57 dB (3) 61 dB (4) 58 dB
52. The air-to-fuel ratio (A/F) for complete combustion in an internal combustion engine is
about :
(1) 14.6 (2) 11.2 (3) 12.1 (4) 15.5
53. Phytovolatalization of mercuric pollutants involves volatalization of mercury in :

(1) Elemental state (2) Ionic state
(3) Organic state (4) Both ionic and organic state
lists :
List - I List - II
(a) Texture (i) Vertical zonation
(b) Profile (ii) Land degradation
(c) Erosion (iii) Planting tree
(d) Conservation (iv) Mineral particle size
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
55. Environmental Management Plan is associated with :

(1) EIS (2) Environmental audit
(3) ISO 14000 (4) LCA
56. ISO 14000 is connected with :

(1) Adoption of environmental safety guideline
(2) Energy audit in Industries
(3) Adoption of clean development
(4) Adoption of environmental management system in industry/organisation
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57. CAPART in India stands for :
(1) Committee for Advancement and Promotion of Rural Technology
(2) Council for Advancement of Rural Technology
(3) Council for Advancement of Peoples Action and Rural Technology
(4) Committee for Advancement and Privatization of Rural Technology
58. EIA of Port and Harbour projects involve impact assessment on :

(I) Biological environment
(II) Air environment
(III) Soil environment
(IV) Social environment
(1) (I) only
(2) (II) only
(3) (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (IV) only
59. Which act provided provisions for enforcing levy and collection of a tax on water consumed
by industries ?
(1) Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act 1974
(2) Water (prevention and control of pollution) Cess Act 1977
(3) Environment (protection) Act 1986
(4) Public Liability Insurance Act 1991
60. Disaster risk reduction in degraded wilderness areas is better achieved using :
(1) Peoples participation
(2) Ecosystem based management
(3) Strengthening of peoples economic conditions
(4) Afforestation
61. The major conventions of Rio Earth Summit are :

(1) CBD and climate change (2) Kyoto protocol and Montreal protocol
(3) CDM and Nagoya protocol (4) Basel convention and Bameco convention
62. If where and are saturated adiabatic lapse rate, environmental

lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is :
(1) Stable (2) Conditionally unstable
(3) Unstable (4) Neutral
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lists :
List - I List - II
(Tests) (Application)
(a) Z - test (i) Judging the significance of differences between
means of two small samples
(b) t - test (ii) Judging the significance of mean, median,
mode
(c) Chi - square (x2) test (iii) Compare the variance of two - independent
samples
(d) F - test (iv) Compare sample variance to a theoretical
population variance
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
64. Chocolates of 250 g produced in a factory were observed to have standard deviation of 2 g.
A random sample of 20 chocolates showed a standard deviation of 1.5 g. What is the x2
value for the sample ?
(1) 7.2 (2) 6.0 (3) 12.0 (4) 33.3
65. Which one of the following would indicate that a dataset is NOT distributed in a
bell - shape ?
(1) The range is equal to 5 standard deviation
(2) The range is larger than the inter quartile range
(3) The mean is much smaller than the median
(4) There are no outliers
66. In a random sample of x516, the mean ( X ) is 40, and the standard deviation (sd) is 4.0. The
95% confidence interval (Z51.96) for the mean is :
(1) 64.0 (2) 61.96 (3) 60.25 (4) 60.30
67. The title of the Brundtland report is :

(1) Caring for Earth (2) Caring of Biosphere
(3) Our Common Future (4) The Silent Spring
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68. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the maximum ground level concentration (C) varies
with height (H) of chimney :
1 22 21 23
(1) C; (2) C;H (3) C;H 2 (4) C;H 2
H
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : A wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux
Record.
Reason (R) : The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit
any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.
70. Which of the following methods related to fly ash utilization has future ecofriendly and
economic benefits ?
(I) Direct application to cropland
(II) Converting to Bricks
(III) Using as a road-sub-base material
Codes :
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
71. Which of the following is NOT one of the twelve principles of green chemistry ?
(1) Minimize or eliminate the need for waste cleanup by emphasizing waste prevention
(2) Minimize energy consumption
(3) Maximize use of products from green plants
(4) Avoid the use and generation of hazardous substances that may harm humans or the
environment
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72. Match the List - I with List -II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(Halocarbons) (Atmospheric residence time)
(a) CF4 (i) ~ 50 years
(b) CF2Cl2 (ii) ~ 50,000 years
(c) CFCl3 (iii) ~ 65 years
(d) CF3Br (iv) ~ 102 years
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
73. Climate change has become a buzz word throughout the world. In case of the Himalayas the
best way to infer whether there is a climate change or not is to :
(I) Monitor tree line
(II) Monitor migration of glaciers
(III) Study alteration in species composition
(1) (I) only
(3) (II) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
74. Landslide hazards in the Himalayan region are the consequence of :

(I) Road cutting
(II) Seismic activity
(III) Deforestation
(IV) Urbanization
(1) (I) only
(4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
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75. Consider the following International agreements.
(I) The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
(II) The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(III) The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity ?
(2) (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
-o0o-
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(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name) Roll No.
(In words)
N0 8 9 1 7 PAPER - III
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES [Maximum Marks : 150
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of 2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ¬ø„ûÊ⁄ ’„ÈÁfl∑ À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥–
questions. 3. ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄ê÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê •Ê¬∑ Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹ ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑ Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ¡Ê°ø ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested ¡Êÿ¢ª, Á¡‚∑ Ë ¡Ê°ø •Ê¬∑ Ù •fl‡ÿ ∑ ⁄ŸË „Ò —
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ¬⁄ ‹ªË ∑ Êª¡ ∑ Ë ‚Ë‹ ∑ Ê
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept » Ê«∏ ‹¢ – πÈ‹Ë „Èß¸ ÿÊ Á’ŸÊ S≈Ë∑ ⁄-‚Ë‹ ∑ Ë ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê SflË∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ ∑ ⁄¢ –
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open (ii) ∑ fl⁄ ¬ÎD ¬⁄ ¿¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ ¬ÎD ÃÕÊ ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑ Ë
booklet. ‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑ Ù •ë¿Ë Ã⁄„ øÒ∑ ∑ ⁄ ‹¢ Á∑ ÿ ¬Í⁄ „Ò¢ – ŒÙ·¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎD /¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ ◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄Ê •Ê ªÿ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄ÿ‹ ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
•ÕÊ¸Ã˜ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë òÊÈÁ≈¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê SflË∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ ∑ ⁄¢ ÃÕÊ
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a ‹¢– ß‚∑ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈ ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period •Ê¬∑ Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê flÊ¬‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄ Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑ Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄Q
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
(iii) ß‚ ¡Ê°ø ∑ ’ÊŒ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ Ê Ÿ¥’⁄ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ •¢Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄¢
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¬˝àÿ∑ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ Áfl∑ À¬ (1), (2), (3) ÃÕÊ (4) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢–
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) •Ê¬∑ Ù ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ∑ flÎûÊ ∑ Ù ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄∑ ⁄ ∑ Ê‹Ê ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò ¡Ò‚Ê Á∑ ŸËø
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
©ŒÊ„⁄áÊ — ¡’Á∑ (3) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ „Ò–
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑ ©ûÊ⁄ ∑ fl‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ •ãŒ⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ „Ë
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. •ãŒ⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑ Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑ ¬…∏¢ –
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. ∑ ìÊÊ ∑ Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎD ¬⁄ ∑ ⁄¢ –
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ ÁŸÿÃ SÕÊŸ ∑ •‹ÊflÊ •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊, ⁄Ê‹ Ÿê’⁄,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or ’Œ‹ŸÊ ÃÊ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ∑ Á‹ÿ •ÿÊÇÿ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑ ÿ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
9. •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ ¬⁄ ◊Í‹ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ÁŸ⁄ËˇÊ∑ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑ Ù ‹ı≈ÊŸÊ
disqualification.
•Êfl‡ÿ∑ „Ò •ı⁄ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not Ÿ ‹∑ ⁄ ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑ •Ê¬ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄ ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ÃÕÊ OMR
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are ¬òÊ∑ ∑ Ë «È å‹Ë∑ ≈ ¬˝ÁÃ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and 10. ∑ fl‹ ŸË‹/∑ Ê‹ ’Ê‹ åflÊßZ≈ ¬Ÿ ∑ Ê „Ë ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄¢ –
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
11. Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑ (∑Ò ‹∑È ‹≈ ⁄) ÿÊ ‹Êª ≈ ’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑ Ê
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
N-08917 !N-08917-PAPER-III! 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER - III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. The sum of the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is known as :
(1) Enthalpy (2) Gibbs free energy
(3) Entropy (4) Helmholtz free energy
2. If at latitude φ = 308, pressure gradient is 15 mb per 1000 km, the geostrophic wind velocity
will be :
(1) ~ 20.54 m/s (2) ~ 15.92 m/s (3) ~ 7.96 m/s (4) ~ 10.27 m/s
3. In a cloud free weather, there is an atmospheric window, which is transparent to terrestrial

radiation in the wavelength band :
(1) 1618 nm - 23400 nm (2) 2168 nm - 4610 nm
(3) 12500 nm - 17000 nm (4) 7000 nm - 13500 nm
4. If , where and are environmental and dry adiabatic lapse rates respectively,
<
which of the following types of plume emitted from a stack of a thermal power plant is
observed ?
(1) Fanning (2) Fumigating (3) Looping (4) Coning
5. Out of the following two statements, identify the correct one(s) :

(a) An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline.
(b) An aqueous solution of carbon dioxide is acidic.
(1) (a) is correct, (b) is incorrect (2) (a) is incorrect, (b) is correct
(3) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct
6. The photodissociation of NO2 yields which oxygen species ?

(1) O(3P) (2) O( 1D) (3) O + (4) O−
7. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene above its ideal dilute aqueous solution of molality
0.1 mol kg−1 is 24.0 kPa. Calculate the Henry’s law constant of bromobenzene :
(1) 240 kPa kg mol−1 (2) 220 kPa kg mol−1
(3) 460 kPa kg mol−1 (4) 400 kPa kg mol−1
N-08917 !N-08917-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III
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8. In the Spectrophotometric Study, if a sample has transmittance of 50%, then its absorbance
is :
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.7
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sandy soil helps promote good drainage and aeration.
Reason (R) : Sandy soil particles have size in the range 0.05 - 2.0 mm.
10. Night–time tropospheric chemistry is dominated by which of the following radicals ?

(1) NO3 (2) OH (3) HO2 (4) O
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Chlorine, which is widely used as an effective and relatively inexpensive
disinfectant in water, generates toxic organochlorine compounds in water.
Reason (R) : Hypochlorous acid reacts rapidly with humic acids and hydroxobenzenes.
12. In the context of argentometric titration of chloride ions in a water sample, identify the
incorrect statement :
(1) Titrant is silver nitrate solution
(2) Indicator is potassium chromate
(3) Colour of the end - point is lemon - yellow
(4) pH of water sample should be less than 5
13. The reaction of OH radicals with which of the following species generates hydrogen atom ?
(1) CH4 (2) NH3 (3) CO (4) NO2
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14. Which of the following statements is true for an ideal dilute solution ?
(1) Solute and solvent both obey Raoult’s law
(2) Solute obeys Raoult’s law and solvent obeys Henry’s law
(3) Solute obeys Henry’s law and solvent obeys Raoult’s law
(4) Solute and solvent both obey Henry’s law
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The living components of ecosystems are not immortal.
Reason (R) : Depending on the biological longevity, all living systems become abiotic
constituents.
16. The movement of energy from primary producers to consumers is effected by :

(1) The process of eating (2) The rate of rainfall
(3) The rate of evaporation (4) The rate of transpiration
17. The result of removal of primary producers and subsequent reduction in population size
leading to change in community attributes is referred to as :
(1) Top - down cascade (2) Bottom - up cascade
(3) Population decline (4) Community collapse
18. The amount of accumulated dead organic matter in different forest types :
(1) Decreases from pole to equator.
(2) Increases from tropic of cancer to tropic of Capricorn.
(3) Increases from pole to equator.
(4) Stabilizes at any point between two poles.
19. Which one of the following termite gut microbe contributes to degradation of cellulose ?
(1) Trichonympha sp. (2) Enterococcus sp.
(3) Enterobacter sp. (4) Citrobacter sp.
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20. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Group of Plankton) (Example)
(a) Macroplankton (i) Rotifera
(b) Nanoplankton (ii) Copepoda
(c) Mesoplankton (iii) Pyrrophyta
(d) Microplankton (iv) Amphipoda
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
21. The size of the Femtoplankton is in the range :

(1) 0.2 - 2.0 µm (2) < 0.2 µm (3) > 5.0 µm (4) 0.5 - 1.0 µm
22. As of July 2017, the total number of National Parks existing in India is :
(1) 127 (2) 103 (3) 97 (4) 100
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Some infectious particles loose their infectious - ability in territories closer to
equator, with high average of daily sunshine hours.
Reason (R) : UV incidence can determine the survival of infectious particles.
24. An organism that represents both primary producer and primary consumer of an aquatic
ecosystem is :
(1) Phytoplankton (2) Bacterioplankton
(3) Benthic algae (4) Zooplankton
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The 18O/16O ratio in a natural system can be used as a thermometer.
Reason (R) : The fractions of 18O/16O depend on temperature.
26. Most suitable spectral region for studying Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect is :
(1) 3 - 5 µm (2) 8 - 10 µm (3) 10 - 12 µm (4) 1 - 3 µm
27. Which factor(s) may affect species richness on island ?

(a) Area of the island
(b) Distance from the mainland
(c) Shape of the island
28. Delineation of water - nonwater boundary in remote sensing is best done using :
(1) 0.5 - 0.6 µm (2) 0.6 - 0.7 µm (3) 0.7 - 0.9 µm (4) 1 - 3 µm
29. Environmentalists oppose the mining of antarctic mineral resources because :

(1) The demand for minerals is expected to decline as the world’s nations become more
industrialized.
(2) Environment of Antarctica is extremely vulnerable and fragile to the disturbance that
would occur with the development.
(3) Territorial claims to Antarctica are unresolved.
(4) Currenty known reserves of minerals and metals are considered inexhaustible.
30. Which of the following statements is not true for the solubility of CO2 in seawater ?
(1) It increases with increase in partial pressure of CO2.
(2) It increases with increase in pH.
(3) It increases with increase in temperature.
(4) It decrease with increase in salinity.
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31. What was the theme for the International Ozone Day (year 2017 ) ?
(1) ‘Caring for all life under the Sun’
(2) ‘Ozone : All there is between you and UV’
(3) ‘Ozone and Climate : Restored by a World United’
(4) ‘30 years of healing Ozone Together’
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : OTEC power plants have low efficiences.
Reason (R) : Efficiency is governed by 2nd law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a silicon solar cell decreases with increase in temperature.
Reason (R) : The intrinsic resistance of the solar cell increases with rise in temperature.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The rotor blades of wind - turbine execute rotational motion when moving
air impinges on them.
Reason (R) : The momentum of the moving air is transferred to the moving blades.
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35. A tidal power station has basin area =10,000 m2 and water trapped at height =2.0 m above
low tide. If the density of sea water is 1025 kgm−3, the potential energy available for every
tidal period is :
(1) ~ 201 MJ (2) ~ 402 MJ (3) ~ 240 MJ (4) ~ 480 MJ
36. A typical fission reaction involving an atom of 235

92 U leads to a mass defect =0.37×10
−27kg.
How much energy is going to be released by 1.0 g of 235

92 U ?
(1) 3.33×10 −11 MJ (2) 2.23×10 12MJ (3) 2.56×104 MJ (4) 8.53×104 MJ
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : To exploit renewable energy, quite large structures are required relative to
the power produced.
Reason (R) : Power flux densities of renewable energy sources are appreciably lower
compared to fossil fuels.
38. Biodiesel is produced from oils and fats using :

(1) Transesterification (2) Anaerobic digestion
(3) Pyrolysis (4) Fermentation
39. On take - off, an aeroplane generates noise level of 120 dB. If 5 such aeroplanes take - off
simultaneously what will be the noise level ?
(1) ~ 126.98 dB (2) ~ 124.98 dB
(3) ~ 123.86 dB (4) ~ 122.98 dB
40. CRIEGEE intermediate is formed in which of the following atmospheric reactions ?

(1) Olefin and Ozone (2) Ethane and Ozone
(3) Acedaldehyde and Ozone (4) NO2 and Ozone
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41. In the purification of drinking water, the purpose of aeration is not to :
(1) Remove dissolved gases such as H2S
(2) Remove volatile organic compounds
(3) Oxidize soluble Fe2+ to Fe3+
(4) Precipitate colloidal particles
42. Which of the following is an organocarbamate insecticide ?

(1) Parathion (2) Chloropyritos (3) Aldicarb (4) Malathion
43. A bag containing a mixed feitilizer is labelled 5 - 10 - 5. It indicates :

(1) 5% P ; 10% N ; 5% K
(2) 5% N ; 10% P2O5 ; 5% K2O
(3) 5% N2O ; 10% PH3 ; 5% K2O
(4) 5% N ; 10% PH3 ; 5% K2O
44. The bioremediation technique of a contaminated soil does not require the fulfilment of which
of the following conditions ?
(1) Waste must be present in a physical form that is susceptible to microbes.
(2) Waste must be susceptible to biodegradation.
(3) Environmental conditions such as pH, temperature and oxygen level must be
appropriate.
(4) Microbes of any type must be available.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Organophosphate insecticides have lower values of partition coefficient,
Kow, than organochlorine pesticides.
Reason (R) : Organophosphate insecticide molecules have lower ability to form hydrogen
bonds with water than organochlorine pesticides.
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Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : NOX and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are primary precursors in
photochemical smog formation.
Reason (R) : NOX and VOCs form oxidants by thermal reactions.
47. The dominant species, which removes hydroxyl radical in troposphere, is :

(1) CH4 (2) CO (3) NO (4) NO2
48. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List -II
(EIA methods) (Features)
(a) Overlays (i) Environmental Evaluation System
(b) Networks (ii) Adaptive environmental assessment
(c) Battelle Columbus (iii) Environmental Systems as a complex web
(d) Simulation modelling (iv) Composite impact by superimposing maps
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
49. The baseline studies in EIA pertain to :

(1) Collection of demographic data only
(2) Prediction of significant residual environmental impact
(3) Existing environmental setting of the proposed development area
(4) Selection of the best project option available
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50. Which one of the following steps is not included in the scoping process ?
(1) Baseline descriptions and potential additional data collection needs
(2) Description of environmental impacts and creation of contingency plan
(3) Defining a set of criteria to assess the project
(4) Setting of experts team that will conduct EIA
51. A company conducted an environmental risk assessment to evaluate the possible impacts of
releasing various levels of pollutants from a chemical plant. An environmental risk assessment
should focus on :
(1) Beneficial aspects of the products produced by the plant
(2) The legislative requirements related to the human health effects as a result of exposure
to the pollutant
(3) The quantification of hazards to the local environment from pollutants released
(4) Detailed outline of the management process to reduce the health effects related to
exposure to the pollutants
52. In EIA the multi - attribute utility theory is used to describe :

(1) The identification of the alternatives to be evaluated and structuring of environmental
parameters
(2) Existing environmental quality of study area
(3) The socio - economic status of the area
(4) The risk involved in a development project
53. Under the Air Act, 1981, which body is empowered to set standard for ambient air quality ?
(1) MOEFCC
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
(4) State Ministry of Home Affairs
54. What is meant by the doctrine of riparian rights ?

(1) Prevention is better than cure.
(2) One who pollutes the water, must pay for it.
(3) Every owner has a right to get unpolluted water without alteration.
(4) All of the above.
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55. Which environmental legislation in India makes it compulsory to obtain prior approval of
the Central Government for diversion of forest lands for non - forest purposes ?
(1) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(2) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(3) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
(4) Traditional forest - Dwellers (Forest rights) Act, 2006
56. The Lime stabilization and drying of biosolids ensure :

(a) Creating unfavourable condition to vector
(b) High pH of contents in biosolids
(c) Reduction of all toxic elements
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) only
57. Which one of the following waste may undergo exothermic self - accelerating decomposition ?
(1) Organic peroxides (2) Arsenic bearing sludges
(3) Organo - Chlorines (4) Vinylchlorides
58. According to Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2011, recycling of the plastic
should be done according to :
(1) IS/ISO 14852 : 1991 (2) IS/ISO 17088 : 2008
(3) IS 9833 : 1981 (4) IS 14534 : 1998
59. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal ?

(1) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(2) Eradicating extreme hunger and poverty
(3) Developing global partnership for development
(4) Achieving universal energy security
60. The definition of ‘air pollutant’ as per section 2(a) of Air Act, 1981 includes :
(1) Liquid and gaseous substances
(2) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances including noise
(3) Gaseous substances
(4) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances
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61. In a population of 210 individuals, 72 are smokers and 138 are non - smokers. If a person is
selected with an equal chance to each category, what is the probability of that person being
a smoker ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.34 (4) 0.75
62. If the mean value (X) of a normally distributed data is 10 and number of observation (n)=36
with an standard deviation (sd) of 0.3, then 90% confidence interval is :
(1) 10±0.08 (2) 10±8.23 (3) 10±0.16 (4) 10±4.15
63. Consider a tall stack emitting a pollutant at the rate 5.0 gms−1 in the atmosphere where wind
is blowing in X-direction with an average velocity of 2.0 ms−1 at the stack height. What will
be the maximum ground level concentration if the effective stack height is 30.0 m and the
Gaussian plume is assumed with dispersion parameters σy=50. 0 m and σz=30.0 m ?
(1) ~ 180 µgm−3 (2) ~ 320 µgm−3 (3) ~ 240 µgm−3 (4) ~ 415 µgm−3
64. Which of the following material(s) are used as land fill liner for the control of gas and leachate
movement ?
(a) Sand (b) Bentonite (c) Fly ash (d) Butyle rubber
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only (3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
65. Assume that the population (N) of a species follows the logistic growth represented by following
equation -
dN
= 0.8N − 0.01N 2
dt
At what value of N, the population exhibits maximum growth ?
(1) 40 (2) 80 (3) 160 (4) 800
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In regression analysis, smaller the p - values, the more significant is the
result of the experiment.
Reason (R) : The magnitude of p - value is an indicator of the association between the
changes in the predictor’s value and the changes in the response variable.
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67. The mean and median of a moderately skewed distribution are 21 and 20 respectively. The
mode of the distribution is :
(1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 26
68. The 90th percentile value for the data : 6, 6, 6.5, 7.0, 7.5, 6.5, 6, 7.5 and 8 is :
(1) 7.50 (2) 6.50 (3) 7.75 (4) 7.00
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sustainable mountain development should be the global priority.
Reason (R) : Mountain people are particularly vulnerable to impacts of climate change
and natural disasters.
70. In the total global ecological footprint, which country has the maximum share :
(1) USA (2) China (3) India (4) Brazil
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Climate change induced monsoon variability may have serious
consequences for Indian agriculture.
Reason (R) : Two third (2/3rd) of area under cultivation in India is rain dependent.
72. Namami Gange (Integrated Ganga Conservation Mission / Programme under National Ganga
River Basin Authority) programme was launched in which year ?
(1) 2014 (2) 2015 (3) 1989 (4) 2012
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73. Which state in India is pioneer in making rain water harvesting as a compulsory measure in
towns to avoid ground water depletion ?
(1) Kerala (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Tamilnadu (4) Maharashtra
74. Environmental education :

(a) Increases public awareness
(b) Provides knowledge of environmental issues
(c) Does not provide disciplinary focus
(d) Sensitizes individuals about the necessity of sustainable development
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
75. The greenhouse gas, ozone, absorbs and emits long wave radiation near the wavelength :
(1) 9.6 µm (2) 11.2 µm (3) 6.9 µm (4) 17.3 µm
-oOo-
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 6 (In words)

this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆ¢Ö¸ ²ÖÆã ×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï …
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3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿µÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî :
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(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number Û ¸ë †Öî¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR ¤ë …
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (4) ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê
where (3) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ûê †®¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Æß †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸®Öê Æï … µÖ×¤ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
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response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ …
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. †®¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. µÖ×¤ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸Öê»Ö
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white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤µÖ Û Öê
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö C.B.S.E. «Ö¸Ö ¯ÖÏ¤Ö®Ö ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E. 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – III
1. A stream with a flow rate of 0.2 m3/s and a chloride concentration of 50 mg/L receives a
discharge of mine drainage water with a flow rate of 0.05 m3/s and chloride concentration
of 1500 mg/L. The downstream concentration of chloride is
(1) 450 mg/L (2) 200 mg/L
(3) 250 mg/L (4) 340 mg/L
2. Reclamation of Usar soil can be done by

(a) addition of gypsum
(b) addition of compost
(c) blue green algal biofertilizer use
(d) addition of inorganic nitrogenous fertilizer
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only
3. The equilibrium reaction N2 + O2 2NO is characterised by

(a) decrease in the Gibbs free energy of forward reaction
(b) increase in the Gibbs free energy of the backward reaction
(c) minimum Gibbs free energy at equilibrium
(d) change in Gibbs free energy to be zero at equilibrium
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (c) only
P
4. In profundal zone, P and R ratio, is
R
(1) >1 (2) <1
(3) =1 (4) > 0.1
5. Consider the following statements about deritovores :

(a) They consume the organic matter originating from plant remains.
(b) They consume the organic matter originating from animal remains.
(c) They are abundant in aquatic habitats.
(d) They are abundant in terrestrial habitats.
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Paper-III 2 J-89-16
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6. The Box model for an airshed over a city has the following parameter values :
Length of the airshed (L) = 24 km
Average wind speed (µ) = 4 m/s
If the initial concentration of a pollutant over the city is zero, estimate the time in which
the concentration of the pollutant in the airshed reaches ~ 63% of its final value.
(1) 1 hr 10 minutes (2) 1 hr 20 minutes
(3) 2 hrs 30 minutes (4) 1 hr 40 minutes
(Organic compound) (Source)
a. Terpene i. Ruminants
b. Methane ii. Soil
c. Humic acid iii. Coal tar
d. Benzo [a] pyrene iv. Plants
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii i iii iv
8. Among the following taxonomic groups which one has the least number of known species ?
(1) Nematodes (2) Fungi
(3) Porifera (4) Insecta
9. At the average surface temperature of the earth, what is the wavelength at which
maximum terrestrial radiation are emitted ?
(1) ~ 8.08 µm (2) ~ 11.52 µm
(3) ~ 10.06 µm (4) ~ 3.48 µm
10. About ~ 97% of all atmospheric mass in the atmosphere lies upto an approximate height
of
(1) ~ 10 km (2) ~ 15 km
(3) ~ 20 km (4) ~ 30 km
11. Which of the following materials is the most efficient absorber of terrestrial and solar
radiation ?
(1) Suspended dust particles (2) Ice particles
(3) Fly ash particles (4) Black carbon particles
J-89-16 3 Paper-III
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12. An infinitesimal air parcel rises slowly upwards in the atmosphere. In this context, which
of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Heat change, dq is zero.
(2) Internal energy decreases.
(3) Temperature during ascent decreases.
(4) Lapse rate has a negative numerical value.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ratio 18O/16 in natural systems can be used as a thermometer.
O
18
Reason (R) : The ratio O/16 depends on the temperature.
O
14. Ecosphere comprises of the following :

(1) Biosphere and Troposphere.
(2) Biosphere, Troposphere and Hydrosphere.
(3) Biosphere, Hydrosphere and Lithosphere.
(4) Biosphere, Atmosphere, Hydrosphere and Lithosphere.
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In an exponential growth phase of the Logistic growth model, the
population growth is maximum.
Reason (R) : After a lag phase, the population is well supported by environmental
resources.
Paper-III 4 J-89-16
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16. An anemometer at a height of 10 m above the ground measures a wind speed of 0.5 m/s.
For a neutral atmosphere with wind profile exponent p = 0.25, the wind speed at an
elevation of 160 m will be
(1) 1 m/s (2) ~ 1.8 m/s
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
17. In Leslie matrix model, the dynamics of a population explains

(a) growth of the population
(b) decreasing trend in the population
(c) stable condition
18. In the initial stages of landfill, which of the following gas is predominantly released ?
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane and Ammonia
(3) Methane (4) Hydrogen Sulphide
(Goal) (Statistical test)
a. To quantify association between two i. Mean and standard
variables with normal distribution deviation
b. To compare two unpaired groups ii. Pearson correlation
under non-normal distribution
c. To compare three or more unmatched iii. Mann-Whitney test
groups in binomial distribution
d. To describe a group of data under iv. χ2 test
normal distribution
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
J-89-16 5 Paper-III
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20. A sampling error of 2.5758 σ; where σ is the standard deviation along with critical value
of 2.5758 represents the significance level of
(1) 5.0% (2) 1.0%
(3) 2.7% (4) 4.55%
21. In random samples of 64 boats out of a total 2400 boats, the mean number of defective
boats is 3.2 with a sample standard deviation 0.8. The standard error of the mean is
(1) ~ 0.107 (2) ~ 0.40
(3) ~ 0.97 (4) ~ 0.097
22. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) was started by Government of India in the
year
(1) 2002 (2) 2004
(3) 2006 (4) 2008
23. According to CRZ notification 2011, which of the following activities is permissible in
CRZ-I ?
(1) Removal of mangroves for housing activities.
(2) Storage of hazardous cargo.
(3) Pipelines, conveying systems including transmission lines.
(4) Reclamation of salt marshes and nesting grounds.
24. Among the following methods, the most cost effective method for treating the infectious
waste from hospitals is
(1) Autoclaving (2) Deep burial
(3) Incineration (4) Fumigation
(Protocols/Acts) (Subject)
a. Nagoya Protocol i. Intellectual Property Rights
b. Air (Pollution Prevention and Control) ii. Biodiversity
Act, 1981
c. Indian Patent Act, 1970 iii. Noise Pollution
d. Environmental Protection Act, 1986 iv. Environmental Audit
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) iii iv ii i
Paper-III 6 J-89-16
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26. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, permission for hunting of a rogue
animal which is dangerous to human life can be granted only by
(1) Chief Wildlife Warden
(2) Conservator of Forests
(3) Deputy Conservator of Forests
(4) Chief Secretary of the Government
(Ecolabels) (Country)
a. Green Seal i. India
b. Blue Angel ii. USA
c. Eco-mark iii. Belgium
d. Eco Garantie iv. Germany
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) iv ii iii i
(4) i iii iv ii
28. Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of

(1) right of the grazing domain (2) principle of empowerment
(3) tragedy of the commons (4) swapping of debt for nature
29. Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving
(1) social development (2) economic development
(3) sustainable development (4) ecological development
30. A management system enabling an establishment to identify and control the

environmental impacts due to its activities
(1) ISO 14020 (2) ISO 14001
(3) ISO 14004 (4) ISO 19011
J-89-16 7 Paper-III
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(Principle/Process) (Objectives)
a. Cradle to grave i. Economic strategy for pollution control
b. Polluter pays ii. Environmental impact of production,
use and disposal
c. Precautionary principles iii. Cleaner production
d. Waste prevention and minimization iv. Cost effective measures to prevent
environmental degradation
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
(Steps in EIA) (Description)
a. Impact prediction i. Environmental status of an area
b. Baseline data collection ii. Hazard probability
c. Decision making iii. Impact assessment authority
d. Risk assessment iv. Reversible and irreversible impacts
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) i ii iv iii
(EIA Methods) (Developed by)
a. Interaction Matrix i. J. Sorenson
b. Environmental Evaluation System ii. D. Carsten
c. Network Method iii. L.B. Leopold
d. Descriptive Checklist iv. Battelle Columbus
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Paper-III 8 J-89-16
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34. Which of the following in soil is an essential micronutrient ?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium
(3) Magnesium (4) Chlorine
(Pollutant) (Ambient Indian Standards 24 hrs.)
a. NO2 i. 60 µg/m3
b. PM2.5 ii. 80 µg/m3
c. Ammonia iii. 100 µg/m3
d. PM10 iv. 400 µg/m3
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iv iii
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iv ii iii i
36. Coral bleaching observed in marine environment is caused by

(1) sea floor rise.
(2) decline in zooxanthellae due to climate change.
(3) addition of bleaching powder by ships.
(4) death of fishes due to toxic algal blooms.
37. Ultrafilteration does not allow which of the following to pass through ?
(1) Small organic molecules (2) Colloidal particles
(3) Viruses (4) Bacteria
38. Consider dry atmosphere which has temperatures of 14.5 °C and 12.5 °C at elevations of
2 m and 252 m, respectively. The atmosphere is :
(1) conditionally unstable (2) unstable
(3) neutral (4) stable
J-89-16 9 Paper-III
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39. An electrostatic precipitator has collection efficiency of 98% for fine particles of a dirty
gas. Its collection area of plates is 50 m2 and gas flow rate is 20 m3/s. If the migration
velocity of the particles is changed by 0.1 m/s by changing the electric field, what will be
the change in collection efficiency ?
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.10
(3) 0.005 (4) 0.001
40. A person is exposed to two sound levels of 80 dB and 100 dB simultaneously. What is the
average noise level the person experiences ?
(1) ~ 97 dB (2) ~ 87 dB
(3) ~ 90 dB (4) ~ 93 dB
41. An ocean wave of 2 m height has a time period of 10 sec. Approximate power associated
with per meter of wavefront is
(1) ~ 40 kW m–1 (2) ~ 20 kW m–1
(3) ~ 80 kW m–1 (4) ~ 2.5 kW m–1
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Presence of moisture in biomass often leads to significant loss in useful
thermal output.
Reason (R) : Evaporation of water requires significant amount of energy.
43. For thermonuclear fusion to occur what must be the minimum confinement time of the hot
plasma of ion density 1022 per m3 ?
(1) 10 µs (2) 1 ms
(3) 100 µs (4) 10 ms
44. An insolation of 1000 W/m2 is incident on a single Si solar cell of area 80 cm2. Assuming
that 5% of photons create electron-hole pairs and that the average energy of the photons is
1 eV. What is the short circuit current of the cell ?
(1) 1.6 A (2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.4 A (4) 3.2 A
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45. A tidal estuary of tidal range 5 m has an area of water trapped 10 km2. If we assume
density of water 103 kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2, what is the maximum theoretical energy
available per cycle ?
(1) 24.5 × 1011 J (2) 12.25 × 1011 J
(3) 24.5 × 108 J (4) 12.25 × 1010 J
46. Among the following types of fuel cells, which one has the lowest operating temperature ?
(1) Solid oxide (2) Proton-exchange membrane
(3) Molten carbonate (4) Phosphoric acid
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Global warming potential for nitrous oxide is similar whether expressed
over 20 years or 100 years.
Reason (R) : The life time of nitrous oxide in atmosphere is about 10 years.
48. Suppose the world’s energy consumption per year grows exponentially at a growth rate of
2% per year. In how much time, the energy consumption per year will double from the
present value ?
(1) ~ 35 years (2) ~ 70 years
(3) ~ 50 years (4) ~ 40 years
49. Eutrophication in inland wetlands such as lakes is caused by

(1) enrichment of water by chlorides (2) enrichment of water by phosphates
(3) addition of detritus (4) silt from the catchment
50. Parameters used in the computation of urban Air Quality Index are
(1) PM2.5, NOx, SOx and Pb
(2) PM10, BTX, CO, NOx, SOx and Cl
(3) PM10, PM2.5, NO2, Pb, NH3, CO and SO2
(4) PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb
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51. Identify the correct order of aquatic ecosystems based on their primary productivity
(1) reservoir < river < marsh < swamp
(2) marsh < swamp < reservoir < river
(3) swamp < marsh < reservoir < river
(4) river < reservoir < marsh < swamp
52. Adaptive management of an ecosystem restoration programme involves

(1) conservation programme for a finite period.
(2) top-down approach.
(3) monitoring, review and mid-course correction.
(4) implementation and monitoring of a conservation plan.
53. For estimation of inundated areas which spectral region is best suited ?
(1) Visible (2) Near infra-red
(3) Far infra-red (4) Microwave
54. What percentage of water on earth is fresh water (liquid/solid form) ?

(1) ~ 7.5% (2) ~ 3.5%
(3) ~ 2.5% (4) ~ 1.5%
55. The maximum velocity of Indian Plate is observed in

(1) Kathmandu (2) Maldives
(3) Kolkata (4) Daman and Diu
56. Tropical cyclones develop as a result of balance between forces of

→ →
(1) Pressure gradient force (|Pn|) and centrifugal force (|Cf|)
→ →
(2) (|Pn|) and coriolis force (|CH|)
→ →
(3) (|Cf|) and (|CH|)
→ →
(4) (|CH|), (|Pn|) and frictional force
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(Rock type) (Mineral)
a. Bailadila group i. Mn
b. Nallamalai group ii. Phosphate
c. Udaipur group iii. BIF
d. Sausar group iv. Pb-Zn
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii iv i ii
(Rock/Minerals) (Chemical
Composition)
a. Quartz i. Fe3O4
b. Magnetite ii. CaF2
c. Fluorite iii. SiO2
d. Calcite iv. CaCO3
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) i ii iv iii
59. The sum of deep sub-surface and delayed shallow surface flows in humid climate is
known as
(1) Sub-surface flow (2) Base flow
(3) Pipe flow (4) Inter flow
60. Urban heat island effect can best be monitored in the following spectral region
(1) 1 – 3 µm (2) 3 – 5 µm
(3) 10 – 12 µm (4) 3 – 6 µm
61. The final seral stage of succession is governed by which of the following concepts ?
(1) Seral climax (2) Poly climax
(3) Null climax (4) Micro climax
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62. In a natural ecosystem pollination pertains to
(1) supporting services (2) regulating services
(3) cultural services (4) provisioning services
63. Balanoglossus – a unique protochordata is conserved in marine protected areas of

(1) Saint Mary’s Island (2) Jambudweep Island
(3) Car Nicobar Island (4) Kurusadai Island
64. A group of species, that make their living by exploiting the same class of resources in a
similar way, is known as
(1) Pride (2) Guild
(3) Bunch (4) Herd
65. In comparison to C3 plants, the C4 plants are adapted to

(1) low light and low temperature.
(2) bright light and high temperature.
(3) low light and medium temperature.
(4) very low light and average temperature.
66. The life style that an organism pursues and the resources it utilizes, is referred to as
(1) Fundamental niche (2) Realized niche
(3) Actualized niche (4) Mechanized niche
67. The evolution of two interacting species, each in response to selection pressure imposed
by the other is called
(1) Coevolution (2) Adaptation
(3) Mitigation (4) Mutualism
68. Methanogenesis occurs in natural aquatic environments at a redox potential of about

(1) – 200 mV (2) + 150 mV
(3) + 250 mV (4) – 300 mV
69. Which of the following trace atmospheric constituents has no natural source ?
(1) Methyl bromide (2) Dimethyl sulfide
(3) Carbonyl sulfide (4) Trichlorofluoromethane
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : High temperature makes N2 and O2 to react and produce pollutant NO.
Reason (R) : The reaction N2 + O2 is exothermic.
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71. In a cuvette of path length 1.0 cm, a 0.01 M solution of a compound is filled. If the
transmittance of the solution be 50%, what is its absorbance ?
(1) 6.90 (2) 2.00
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.30
(Analysis) (Instruments)
a. Protein i. Gravimetry
b. SOx, NOx ii. Flame photometry
c. Sulphate iii. Electrophoresis
d. Sodium iv. Spectrophotometry
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii
73. Which one of the following is not a Phase-I reaction component in biotransformation of
pesticides ?
(1) Oxidation (2) Conjugation
(3) Reduction (4) Hydrolysis
74. Solubilization and transport of iron in natural water is generally done by

(1) Humin (2) Fulvic acid
(3) Humic acid (4) EDTA
75. In a water body suffering from mercury pollution, the most toxic species among the
following is
(1) Mercurous ion (2) Mercuric ion
(3) Methylmercury cation (4) Dimethylmercury
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PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks_ Attempt all of them.
Air quality standards are based on

(A) Oimateandtopography (B) Ambietair quality alone
om
(q Doseofapollutant (D) Methodofmeasurement
2. The unleaded petrol, as an automotive fud, should not have the lead levels exceeding
(A) 0059/L (B) 0159/L (q 0259/L (D) 0509/L
A maJor part of air pollution load lies in
.c
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (D) Ionosphere
4. Which is the correct order of the degree of weathering of the following rocks
ce
(A) Dunite >Basalt> Granite> Rhyolite
(B) Basalt> Dunite >Granite> Rhyolite
(q Granite> Basalt> Dunite >Rhyolite
(D) Rhyolite >Granite > Dunite > Basalt
ra
Interior of the earth is inferred through
(A) Deep continental drilling (B) Deep oa.an drilling
(q Seismicsoundings (D) Heatflowmeasurements
m
The minimum thickness to be used in biodegradsble carry bags should be

(A) 5microns (B) 10microns (q 15microns (D) 20microns
xa
The criteria indicators of water pollution are

(A) pH,COD,BOD,DO (B) pH Coliform, COD, DO
(q Coliform, COD, BOD (D) BOD, DO, Coliform
.e
The cation exchange capacity of silty loams is

(A)01 (B)15 (q515 (D) 15 30
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9. Air Pollution Tolerance Index (APTI) of vegetation is calculated using

(A) Pb content, 50 2 content and NOx content in air
(B) Ascorbic acid, total chlorophyl and pH of water content on vegetation
w
(q SPM,pHofwater andsoiltypesofthearea
(D) Lanilscape of the area; 50 2 and NO X levels in air
w
10. The state having the largest forest rover in India is

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Orissa (q Maharashtra (D) Utattisgarh
11. Coal mine workers are proneto victims of one of thefollowing diseases
(A) Pneumoconiosis (B) Byssinosis (q Asbestosis (D) Silicosis
12. The numberofoxygenmokcules required for the complete combustion of1mokcuk tf propane is
w 2 (B) 3 (q 4 ｾ＠ 5
D-8905
13. Which one of the following is necessary for the growth and maintenance of animal bones and
"""
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (q Phosphates (D) Sulphur
14 . Which of the£ollowing org anisrns are use d as components of biofertilisers

(A) Blue greenalgaeonly (B) Coliform bacteria and mushrooms
(q N-fixing bacteria only (D) Blue green algae andN-fixing bacteria
om
15. Which one of thdollowing photochemical reactions is correct
(A) N,O+ hv-------7 N, + 0 •
(D) O,+hv-------+D,+e
.c
16. Assertion (A}: CFCs destroyozonemoleculesinstratosphere
Reason (R} CFCs have very high global warming potential
ce
(A) Both (A} and (R} aretrue and (R} is thecorrect explanation of (A}
(B) Both (A}and (R} are true but (R} is notthe correct explanation of (A}
(q (A} is true; (R} is false
(D) (A} is false; (R} is true
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17. Match the lists I and II Select the correct answer using the code given below the
'""
m
list-I list- II
1•1 Environmental Protection Act 1991
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
'" 1974
"
(iij
xa
(c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (iii) 1981

1'1 Public liability lnsurana. Act (iv) 1986
Co do: 1•1 ., (c) 1'1

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(A) (ii) (iv) (iii)

'"
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
"
(q (iij (iv) (iii)
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(D) (iii) (i)

'"
(ii) (iv)
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18. 2 ppm of CO at 25"C and 760mm ofHg pressure is equivalent to

(A) 1250 r.cgjm3 (B) 1145 r.cgjm3
(q 2500 r.cg/m3 (D) 2290 r.cg/m3
w
19. 1kW-hourofenergyisequivakntto
(A) 460 KCal (B) 1250 KCal (q 860 KCal (D) 760 KCal
20. The dominant gas in biogas is

(A) CH4 (B) C2H5
D-8905 P.T.O.
'
21. Match the following lists I and ll and sdect the correct answer using the code given bdow the lists
list" I list" II
1•1 Fluvial (i) Moraines
(ii)
ＧｾＢ＠
Shallow Marine
"
(c)
1'1
Glacial
Eolisn
(iii)
(iv)
Oxbow lake
Spits and Bar
Code:
(A)
1•1
(iii)
.,
(iv)
(c) 1'1
(ii)
"
(iij
'"
(iii) (iv)
om
(q
(D) '"
(iv)
(iii)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(ii)
(i)
(i)
22. Which of thefollowing pairs is not correctly matched

(A) Tropicalzone Hot,winterless
(B) Sub-tropical zone Hot with cool winter
.c
(q Tanperatezone Warms\liTlrrlerwithpronouncedwinter
(D) Alpinezone Longsummerwithshortseverewinter
ce
23 . The hydraulic conductivity or the coefficient of pamea bility of which of the following media is the
highest
(A) Oay (B) Sand (q Gravd (D) Sandstone
Aquatic organisms are very sensitive to

ra
24.
(A) Salinity (B) pH (q Temperature (D) Dissolvedoxygen
25. Which of thdollowing acts as a trigger for a landslideto occur

m
(A) Vegd:ationloss (B) Rainfall
(q Anirnalmovement (D) Vehicularmovanent
26. After sodiumdJoride, which of the following compounds has the rnaximumconcentrationin sea
xa
water
(A) Magnesiumsulphate (B) Calciumsulphate
(q Magnesiumchloride (D) Potassiumsulphate
.e
27. The directions for the regulation, prohibition or the closure of any industry are given
"'
(A)
(q
Stategovernrnent
State Pollution Control Board
(B)
(D)
Centralgovanment
Central Pollution Control Brnrd
w
28. Match the lists I andll Select the correct answer using the rode given bdow the lists
list" I list" II
w
(Category of Area} (Daytime Noise standards in dB}

1•1 Commercial area (i) 75
Residential area (ii) so
"
w
(c) Industrial area (iii) 65

1'1 Silence zones (iv) 55
Code:
(A)
1•1 .,
(iij
(c)
(iv)
1'1
(iii)
"
(q '"
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
(iii)
'"
(ii)
(ii)
(i)
(D) (iij (iv) (iii)
D-8905
'"
'
29. Which of thdollDwing sets has the rna>imum dispersion
(A) 10, 11, 12, 10, 11, 10, 10, 11, 10,11 (B) 1,2, 1,2, 1,2, 1,2, 1, 2
(q 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 (D) 5,5,6,6,5,5,6,5,6,5
30. Which of the following methods is suitable for hypothesis testing

(A) Two way analysis of variance (B) !-test
(q Ouster Analysis (D) Corrdationandregression
31. Boxmoddis mainly employed for analysing the
om
(A) dispersal of atmospheric pollutants
(B) Predictor and Prey populations
(q Birthanddeathrates
(D) Discharge of a waste into groundwaters
.c
32. The geometricmeanof2,2,3and3 is
(A) 6 (D) 16
ce
Match the lists I and II Select the correct answer using the code given below the
" '""
list-I list-II
1•1 Tropical forest (i) 5underbans
ra
"
Conifer forest (iij Himachal Pradesh
(c) Mangroves (iii) Rapsthan
1'1 Deciduous forest (iv) Silent valley
.,
m
Co do: 1•1 (c) 1'1

(A) (ii) (iv) (iii)
'" '"
(iij (iv) (iii)
xa
"
(q
(D)
'"
(iv)
(iv)
(iij
(iij (iii)
(iii)
Imhoff tank is used for '"

"
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(A) Filtera lion and Floccula lion

"
Sludge digestion and sedimentation
(q Demineralization (D) Distillation
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A solar edt is basically a

" (A) p type semiconductor n type semiconductor
(q p-n diode
"
(D) p-n-p transistor
w
36. The information system useful to identify the location of a point is

w
(A) GIS (B) CPS (q Oinometer (D) Compass
37. The global warming potential ofNP relative to CO:> is

(A) 25 (B) 10,000 (q 05 (D) 230
38. The size distribution of aerosols in ambient urban environment tends to follow
(A) Normal distribution (B) Exponential distribution
(q Junge's distribution (D) Poisson distribution
D-8905 P.T.O.
39. The temperaturerequired to fuse Deuterium and Tritiumnudeiis of the order of
(A) -10 5 "k (B) -10 8 1< (q -10'1< (D) -10°"k
40. Landfill .sites can be permitted in

(A) wetlands
(B) flood plains
(q habitats of endsngered species and recharge zones for local drinking water supplies
(D) abandoned mines with impermeable barrier at the bottom with a leachate recycling system
om
41. The satdlite which has been put into orbit recently capable of producing high resolution thematic
data is
(A) IRS-2D (B) IDUSAT (q RISClURCISAT (D) lANDSAT
.c
42. The atmosphere is chemically homogenous upto an altitude of
(A) 10krn (B) 30km (q 50krn (D) SOkrn
ce
43. At which stage of an ecological succession, an ecosystem exhibits total photosynthesis equal to
respiration?
(A) Pioneer (B) Oirnax (q Virgin (D) Mid-seral
ra
44. When in a community a species has the same abundance and density, the frequency of the species
shall be
(A) 20% 50% (q 90% (D) 100%
m
45. For determination of primary productivity in a lake, which is the most appropriate time for
sampling?
xa
(A) SAM (B) SAM (q 12Noon (D) 3PM
46. Which is the best and simple method to determination of fluorine in ground water?
(A) AtomicAbrorptionspectrometry (B) Spectrophotometry
.e
(q Flamephotornetry (D) lon-sekctivedectrode
Road tho passage bdow and answor quos hans that follow basod an your undorsfu:ndmg of tho
w
passage:
Forests in India are fast disappearing at a rate of about 0 6% per year equivalent to about 7 3
million ha This renders all the dosed tropical forests diaappear within 177 years, At this rate of
w
destruction of tropical forests, a bout 20-25% of the worlds plant species would have been lost by the
year 2000 By another estimate 90% of tropical forest area containing about 505 varieties of world
plant species will be destroyed during the next 20 years By another estimate 1000 species/year
w
would become extinct This figure is expected to riae to 10,000 species/year During the next 20
years, about one million species are likdy to disappear
Loss ofbiodiver.sity is severe ina gri=ltural ecosystems too During greenrev olution, thousands
of wild crop varieties were replaced with a few hybrid species This resulted in slight disappearance
of genetic resources of crop plants, especially of wheat and rice With the disappearance of the
plants, the associated microorganisms and fauna were also lost Further indiscriminate use of
f atilizas and insect:icid es reduced the microbial species diversity live stock popula lions are already
homogenised and their diversity is extinct
D-8905
'
Much of the fr agite breeding and feeding grounds of almost 2/3rd of the world's oa.anic fish
have been destroyed Endangered rnarindife inlndia lists about 8 species of marine mammals, 5
species of marine turtles, 1 species of hemichorda te, 3 species of csphalochor date, 10 species of crab
de
MaJill cause oflos.s ofbiodivasity is the expansion of a grirultural practices Biological diversity
is r splace d by biological uniformity or rnonoculture in the name of green revolution in a griculture,
white revolution in dairying and blue revolution in fisheries The purpose of all these revolutions is
to ensure food security and prevent "hunger disaster"
Biodiversity is also lost due to reclamation for building dams, factories highways, mining
om
operations de in the forested regions illegal trade and poaChing of witd life also damaged
biodiversity Thus, biodiversity is destroyed by anthropogenic activities
47. Loss of biodiversity is primarily due to

(B)
.c
(A) Greenrevolution Whiterevolution
(q Bluerevolution (D) Mining Activity
ce
48 . Decrease in India's f ores! rov a is a !tribute d mainly to
(A) Urbanization and Industrialisation (B) AgrirultureandDairying
(q RaitandRoadConstruction (D) Mining and Power Plants
ra
49. About 90% of tropical forest area containing _____ varieties of world's plant species in the
next twenty years
m
(A) 73rnillion (B) 505 (q 10,000 (D) 1000

xa
50. Thereduction of microbial species is dueto

(A) Miningopaations (B) Application of chanica! fertilizers
(q Lossofwitdlife (D) Constructionofhighways
.e
-oOo-
w
w
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D-8905 P.T.O.
PAPER-II
Note: 11-us paper con tams fifty (5J) mulhple-ch01ce queshons, each queshon carrymg
hvo (2) marks Attempt all of them
1. Due to Cornohs effect '\OJ!nd m the

(A) Northern Herrusphere move to the left'\OJ!th respect to the rotahng earth
om
(B) Northern Herrnsphere move to the nght
(C) Southern Herrusphere move nortfw.Jard
(D) Both Herrusphere move mdependent of ea:h other
.c
2. Prectpitahon of CaC03 may oo:ur h"hen
(A) Sea "\'Vater iS shall ow and ｃｾ＠ iS 1os t
(B) Sea "\'Vater iS "\OJarffi and C0 2 iS bemg 1os t
ce
(C) Sea "\'Vater iS cold and C0 2 iS bemg 1os t
(D) Sea "\'Vater iS deep and C0 2 iS bemg added
ra
ｃｾ＠ m sod and ｃｾ＠ m ahnosphere differ
(A) by a fa: tor of 2 (B) by a fa: tor of 1
(C) by a factor of 3 5 (D) by a fa: tor of 4
m
4. Consider the earth to be a blackbody'\OJ!th average temperature 15° C and surfa:e area
5 1 x 1014 m 2 Fmd the rate at wh!ch energy iS radiated by the earth and the "\'JaVe
xa
length at h"hich max1mum power iS radiated

(Hmt Stefan-Boltzman Constant ｾ＠ 5 67x w- 8 W/m2-K4 and use VVien's Rule)
(A) 4xl017 W,202)Lm (B) 1xl0 17 W,51)Lm
(C) 15xl017 w, 75 ｾＢｭ＠ (D) 2x1017 w, 101 ｾＢｭ＠
.e
5. Trappmg plume occurs h"hen

w
(A) Temperature mcreases '\OJ!th height

(B) Temperature decreases '\OJ!th height
(C) Temperature remams steady'\OJ!th height
w
(D) Plume hes m a lapse reg10n and sanclv.-!ched between mvers10n layers
w
6. The pH of a soluhon contammg hydrogen ions concentrahon of w- 5 mol;L iS

(A) 50 (B) 70 (C) 20 (D) 90
7. Malath!on iS
(A) OrganoPhosphorus Peshcide (B) Organo Chloro Peshctde
(C) Organo Carbamate Peshcide (D) NotaPeshctde
D-8906
'
8. Cn heal pomt for "\'Vater maP - T chagram Suggests (One statement only 1s correct)
(A) Water 1s unstable
(B) Steam 1s the only stab! e phase
(C) Both 1ce and steam are stable phases
(D) Steam.hqu1d "\'Vater and 1ce are stable phases
9. The range of pH for nver water m Incha 1s

(A) 1 -14 (B) 4-5 (C) 65-BO (D) 7-12
om
w. In all fresh "\'Vater m Incha. the dorrunan t 10n 1s
(A) HC03 - (B) cl- (C) ca+ 2 (D) so - 2
'
11. Ozone toX!c!ly to plants 1s generally due to the mvolvement of v..tuch unsaturated
.c
hydrocarbons
(A) Unsaturated fatty a:1d (B) Methylene
ce
(C) Ethylene (D) None of the above
12. In V!lro pollen gerrrunahon 1s mh1b1ted by

(A) so 2 (B) 03
ra
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
13. VVh!ch one of the fol!Dh"!ng 1s the most produchve ecosystem 7

m
(A) Ohgotroph!c lake (B) H1gh Sea

(C) Estucuy (D) Savanna
xa
14. Verrrucul lure technology 1s used m

(A) Produchon of F1sh (B) Ammal Husbanda!y
(C) PoulhyFarrrung (D) Orgaruc Farrrung
.e
15. VVh!ch one of the follmvmg sequence represent mcrerumg order of lox1c1ly of metals 7
(A) Ca. Zn. Cd. Mn (B) Ca. Mn. Zn. Cd
w
(C) Zn. Mn. Cd. Ca (D) Mn. Cd. Zn. Ca

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16. Energyflmvmanecosystem1s
(A) Cychc (B) Mul hchrechonal
(C) Sequenhal (D) Umchrechonal
w
17. Removal of key-stone spec1es -would cause

(A) Drashc change m commuruty compos! hon
(B) Drashc change m ecological system
(C) Drashc change m food cham
(D) Drashc change m energy flmv
D-8906 P.T.O.
'"· Match L1sl-I and L1sl-II and select correct ans"Wer
List -I List - n
Mesozmc ,, ) Terhaty
'"'
ｾＩ＠
(c)
Proterozmc
Cenozmc
(11) Tnass1c
(111) Pre Cambnan
(d) Paleozmc (!v) Perm1an
b d
(A) " '
"' " '"
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ｾＩ＠
(C) " "' '"
(D)
" "' '"
"' " '"
19. Correct order of mcrerumg energycontentfor vanous types of coal1s
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(A) Anlhractte. Peat B!l-coat L1gmte (B) L1gmte. Peat B1l-coat Anthra:1le
(C) Peat L1gmte. B1l-coat Anthra:1le (D) Peat L1grute. Anthra:1te. B!l-coal
ce
20. S1hca content of granochon te 1s m the range of
(A) 22-44% (B) 66-38% (C) 44-56% (D) 44-E£%
"· Formahon of sechmenlaty chalcopynte requ1res

ra
(A) H1gh pH. !-ugh Eh (B) Low pH. h1gh Eh
(C) Only low Eh (D) LowEh.lowpH
m
22. Bowen"s law bas1cally tell us
(A) How a sechmenlatyrock 1s formed
(B) How vanous 1gneous rrunerals are formed
xa
(C) How some econorruc rrunerals are formed

(D) Both A and B are correct
"· Match the 24 hourly average amb1ent atr quahty standards from L1sls I and L1sls II
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List -I List -II

Sulphur chox1de ),, 100 )Lg/rrf3
'"'
ｾＩ＠ OX!des of mtrogen (11) 200 )Lg/rri3
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(c) Suspended parhculate matter (111) 30)Lg/rri3

(d) Resp1rable p=rrhculate matter (!v) 20 )Lg/rri3
Codes :
,,
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(o) (b) ) (d)

(A)
"' '" "
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ｾＩ＠
(C) '" "' "
(D)
"' '" "
" '" '"
24. The most abundant alkalme component of the ahnosphere 1s
(A) Ammoma (B) N1lrogen
(C) Sulphur choX!de (D) Carbon O!oX!de
D-8906
'
25. The faecalmchcator ba:tenais
(A) Stat?hy!ococeus aureus (B) Streptococeus faecal!S
(C) Ercbeqcb!a llll.J. (D) faJmopella ｾ＠
26. The maximum perrrussible level of BOD (mg;l) m "\'JaStev..-ater that iS let mto nver iS
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 10
om
27. Coral reefs are vulnerable to
(A) Sil tahon (B) Flood "\'Vater (C) Nutrients (D) Salt flow
28. .Asserhon (A) The mangroves are nursety ground for hsh and larvae
Reason (R) The mangroves are covered "With mangrove plants that ennches the
.c
environment
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) iS the correct explanahon of (A)
ce
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) iS not the correct explanahon of (A)
(C) (A) iS true but (R) iS false
(D) (A) iS false but (R) iS true
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29. In an mdustrial envuonment h"hat iS the smgle most important factor m an a:C!dent
prevenhon programme 7
(A) A "\OJ!"itten programme (B) Trammg
m
(C) Safety engmeers (D) Management support

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30. Match the follo"\OJ!ng List-! and List- II and select the correct answer usmg the codes
g!Ven below
List - I List - II
Pubhc hearmg iS reqwred (i) Moderrusahon of exishngirngahon
'"'
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proJects
ｾＩ＠ Pubhc hearmgis not required (11) Highway proJects
(c) Basehne rur quahty data iS collected (111) Once m ea:h season
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(d) Basehne nmse level data is collected (iv) 24 hourly Rv!ce a week
Codes :
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b d
(A)
" '
'" " "'
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ｾＩ＠
(CJ
" '" "'
(D)
"' '" "
'" "' "
31. All lands "\OJ!th tree cover of canopy density of 40% and above iS nohhed as
(A) Scrub (B) Open forest (C) Dense forest (D) Forest cover
D-8906 P.T.O.
'
32. Match the L1sl-I and L1sl-II and select the correct ans"Wer usmg the codes gtven belmv
List - I List - II
(Power generation ca:padty) (stack ｨ･ｩｾｴ＠ (m))
(a) 5JO MVV and more (1) H ｾＱＴ＠ (Q'} 3
(b) 200/210MVVandabovebutlessthan5COMVV (u) 275
(c) less than 200/210 MVV (111) 220
(d) steam generahon capa:!ly less than B 5 MT (1v) 9
Note H ｾｐｨｹｳＱ｣｡ｬ＠ sta:k he1ght m metres
Q ｾｅｲｵｳｷｮ＠ rate of ｓｾ＠ m kg!hr
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Codes :
b d
(A) " '
ｾＩ＠
" '" '"
(C) " "' '"
"' '" "
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(D)
'" " "'
33. The Water (Prevenhon and Control of Polluhon) Act 1974
(A) Regulates the chscharge of hazardous pollutants mto the nahons surface Ｇｾｊ｡ｬ･ｲ＠
ce
(B) Regulates the erruss10n of hazardous rur pollutants
(C) Regulates '\'JaSle chsposal of sea
(D) Regulates the transportahon of hazardous matenals
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34. The harmomc mean of the numbers 0. 2. 4. 6 1s
ｾ＠ 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) )
35. Asserhon (A) Wetlands are often descnbed as ecotones

m
Reason (R) Wetlands are bwlogtcally nch dynarruc zones of trans1hon between
two chfferent ecosystems
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) 1s the correct explanahon of (A)
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(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) 1s not the correct explanahon of (A)
(C) (A) 1s true but (R) 1s false
(D) (A) 1s false but (R) 1s true
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36. The hrst Nahonal Park established m Incha1s

(A) Inchra Gancfru Nahonal Park (B) Indravah Nahonal Park
(C) Corbett Nahonal Park (D) Kazuanga Nahonal Park
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37. The ma1n pollutant m veh1de errusswn 1s

(A) co (B) co 2 (C) so 2 (D) so3
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38. Adev1ceh tied to the exhaustsystem of a petrol dnvenmotor veh!de to reduce errusswns
of pollutants 1s called as
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(A) Convers10n System (B) Converswn K1t

(C) Catalyhc Converter (D) Catalyhc Box
39. The parhcle Am the followmg equahon 1s

=92 u +A-+
=92u
(A) p ｾＩ＠ ' (C) n (D) "
D-8906
40. Theaveragesolarconstantis
(A) 12 cal/cm2jsec (B) 35 caljcm2jsec
(C) 12kcal;cm2jsec (D) 2 cal/cm2/sec
41. VVh!ch one of the fol!Dh"!ng group of plants iS most resistant to iorusmgrachahons 7
(A) Coruferous Forest (B) Gress Land
(C) Lichen and Mosses (D) Mixed Forest
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42. Hmv many moles of oxygen are reqwred to burn one mole of propane 7
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
43. VI/hat percentage of Incha"s populahon hves m Urban Centres

(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 10 (D) 50
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44. The recent asbestos controversy about the French sh!p gomg to Alang wa; pnmanly
due to
ce
(A) Vwlahon of Inchan Coastal Zone La1V3
(B) Vwlahon of Transnahonal Movement of Hazardous Waste
(C) Gu1arat State Polluhon Control La1V3
(D) Inchan .A!r Polluhon La1V3
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45. Due to the increrumg energy use the ozone layer over the arc he iS
(A) Increrumg (B) Decrerumg
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(C) Notshifhngmsize (D) Notaffectedatall
46. Ecolog1cal restorahon of degraded sites are rumed to

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(A) Restore all bwphysical chara:tenshcs of pnshne ecosystem

(B) Restore social desirable and econorrucally feasible charactenshcs of ong1nal
ecosystem
(C) Leave it alone and allmv natural regenerahon
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(D) Proh!bit all human a:hV!ly m the area
47. The hrst EnVironmental Law m Incha "\OJas ena:ted m

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(A) 1947 (B) 1950 (C) 1972 (D) 19B2
48. The perrrussi ble .Ars eruc 1evels m dnnhng "\'Vater iS

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(A) 20 )J.g/1 (B) 50 )J.g/1 (C) 75 )J.g;l (D) 5J mg/1

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49. The mean annual ramfall m Incha iS

(A) llO mm (B) 110 em (C) B5 em (D) llOm
SO. The me chan of a set of numbers 2. 5. B. 10. 12. 16. 20. 23

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 12 5 (D) 9
- 0 0 0-
D-8906 P.T.O.
'
PAPER-II
1. Wind rose of a given location represents :

(A) Frequency distribution of wind speeds in the fonn of a histogram_
om
(B) Frequeru:y distribution of wind speeds in percentage tenns in the fonn of a TI
chart_
(C) Frequency distribution of wind speed associated with a cyclase_
(D) Frequency distribution of wind speed and direction in polar coordinates_
.c
2. Assertion (A) : Sustainable production of hay or green fodder is essential for
uninterrupted supply of animal products_
Reason (R) : Environmental coru:erns are detrimental for sustainsble production
ce
of hay or green fodder_
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
For a clear sunny dsy with sun higher than 6IY above horizon and wind speed greater
m
3.
than 6 m/ sec, the abnosphere is :
(A) Stable (B) Slightly unstable
(C) Moderately unstable (D) Very unstable
xa
4. The mass of the earth's crust is approximately :

(A) 25x10 25 gm (B) 3.2x1o 20 gm
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(C) 2.8 X 1032 gm (D) 1.8 X 1035 gm
5. The time scale of meso-scale meteorological phenomenon is :

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(A) Hours to a dsy (B) 3-4 dsys

(C) Few weeks (D) Few weeks to several months
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6. The reaction is in equilibrium if Gibb' s free eTif<rgy (G) :

(A) lru:reases i.e_, Jl.G>O (B) Decreases i.e_, Jl.G<O
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(C) Remains same i.e_, ｊｬＮｇｾｏ＠ (D) Varies i.e_, Jl.G>O or Jl.G<O
7. How CO emitted by automobiles prevents transfer of 0 2 in the body tissue :

(A) By changing 0 2 into CO
(B) By destroying the haemoglobin
(C) By fanning stable compound with haemoglobin
(D) By obstructing the reaction of 0 2 with haemoglobin
D-8907
8. In qualitative analysis the sulphides of Group-ll are precipitated in preseru:e of dilute
HCl, while of Group-IV are precipitated only in the preseru:e of NH40H. It is because:
(A) Solubility product of sulphides of Group-II is greater than that of Group-IV
(B) Solubility product of sulphides of Group-II is less than that of Group-IV
(C) Sulphides of Group-II are insoluble in acids
(D) Sulphides of Group-IV are insoluble in alkalies
9. Arrange the following abnospheric gases in the decreasing order of their abundance :
I. Oxygen II. Carbon di-oxide Ill. Argon IV. Methane
om
Code:
(A) I>lll>ll>N (B) ll>I>lll>IV
(C) I>lll>ll>N (D) lll>I>IV>ll
10. Which of the following is equivalent to the number of substrate molecules converted to
.c
product ina given unit of time by a single enzyme molecule when the enzyme is saturated
with substrate ?
(A) Specific constant (B) Michaelis constant
ce
(C) Dissociation constant (D) Tum-over number
11. DDT is hannful from the ecological point of view mainly because it undergoes :
(A) Biotransfonnation (B) Bioaccumulation
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(C) Biomagnification (D) Biodegradation
12. Which of the following radiations continuously act on 14N to produce 14c isotope in
the abnosphere ?
m
(A) X-rays (B) ,.-rays (C) UV-rays (D) Cosmic rays
13. The proteins in the cell walls of microorganisms have an overall nfl negative charge at
xa
pH of most soil environments, because :

(A) the pH of the environment is greater than the pi
(B) the pH of the environment is less than the pi
(C) the pH of the environment is the same as pi
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(D) noTif< of the above
14. Oxidoreductases:
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(A) oxidize a substrate by removing a pair of electrons and the accompanying

hydrogen atoms
(B) break molecules apart by adding water across bonds
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(C) hydrolyse the substrate

(D) put molecules together
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Which of the following is a nematofungus ?

(A) Rhizoctonia solani (B) Penicillium sp.
(C) Phanerochaete chrysosporium (D) ]l..fucor mucedo
16. The diaatomaceous earth is used as a:

(A) chemical insecticide (B) non-chemical insecticide
(C) fungicide (D) bacterocide
D-8907 P.T.O.
'
17. Assertion (A) : Among micro-organisms white-rot fungi most efficiently degrade
lignin.
Reason (R) : White-rot fungi produce ligninolytic enzymes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
om
18. In deep oceans the phenomenon of inverted biomass pyramid occurs mainly due to :
I. Fast growth rate and high nutrient requirement of producers.
II. Rapid turnover rate and short life span of producers.
Ill. Slow growth rate and high nutrient requirement of herbivores.
IV. Slow turnover and long life span of herbivores.
.c
Which of the following combinations is correct ?
W>-ill ｾ＠ >-N ｾｄＭｩｬ＠ｾｬｩＭｎ＠
ce
19. Alpha diversity represents:
(A) species richness (B) species evelll1f<ss
(C) species richTif<ss and evenness (D) species ridmess and dominaru:e
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20. Populations of two species may interact in several ways. One of these called
protocooperation occurs when :
(A) OTif< population inhibits the other
m
(B) Interaction is favourable to both but not obligatory
(C) Interaction is favourable to both but obligatory
(D) Neither population affects the other
xa
21. The tenn benthos refers to communities which grow :

(A) Attached on the bark of trees
(B) Attached on submerged plants
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(C) Attached at the bottom of a waterbody

(D) Attached on submerged woody roots
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22. Pelagic sediments are found in the :

(A) continental shelf (B) continents] slope
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(C) mid-oceanic ridges (D) deep oceanic plains

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23. Pleistocene period began :

(A) 5.0 million years ago (B) 1.7 million years ago
(C) 10 million years ago (D) 28 million years ago
24. Sodium and Potassium in rock and soil materials are generally estimated by :
(A) lN- Visible spectrophotometry (B) Flame photometry
(C) HPLC (D) Colorimetry
D-8907
'
25. l\1atch the L1St-I and Ust-II in respect of the geochemical affinity of the elements :
List-I List-II
(a) Chalcophile (i) Carbon
(b) Uthophile (ii) Nitrogen
(c) Siderophile (iii) Sulphur
(d) Atmophile (iv) Oxygen
(e) Biophile (v) Iron
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
om
(B) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
(Q (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
"· l\1atch the Ust-I and List-II :

List-I List-II
.c
(Sedimentary Environment) (Rock Material)
ＨｾＩ＠ Deep Sea (i) ill]
ｾＩ＠ Lh• (ii) loess
ce
(c) Desert (iii) evaporite
(d) Glacier J\.fargins (iv) ooze
(b) (c) (d)
(A) '"'
(iv) (iii) (ii) (<)
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ｾＩ＠ (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(Q (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (<)
m
27. Chemical weathering of rock material is most effective in which of the following
regions ?
(A) Aravalli Hills (B) Vindhyan Hills (C) Ladakh (D) Westem Ghats
xa
28. Fission of 1 gm of 235 u liberates energy equivalent to about:

(A) 1 metric ton of coal (B) 1.5 metric ton of coal
(C) 2.2 metric ton of coal (D) 2.7 metric ton of coal
.e
29. Under operating conditions of maximum power output from an ideal

l\1agnflohydrodynamic power plant, the electrical efficieru:y is :
(A) 50 % (B) 25 % (C) 75 % (D) 100 %
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30. The maximum value of the coefficient of perfonnaru:e for a wind turbine is :
w
n
(A) ｾＩ＠ (Q (D)
"
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31. Assertion (A) : Electrostatic precipitators are very efficient devices for removal of
particulate matter from the gas stream.
Reason (R) : Corona discharge helps in charging of particulate matter which are
collected on the grounded electrodes (plates).
(Q (A) is true but (R) is false
D-8907 P.T.O.
32. Stratospheric ozone is produced by electromagnetic radiations of wavelength in the
range:
(A) 180 - 240 mn (B) 280 - 320 mn
(C) 320 - 400 mn (D) 150 - 180 mn
33. ｾＵｲ･ｦｳｴｯＺ＠
(A) mass of particles of size less than 2.5 )J.m.
(B) mass of particles of size greater than 2.5 )J.m.
(C) number of particles of size less than 2.5 )J.m.
om
(D) number of particles of size greater than 2.5 )J.m.
34. A person is exposed to noise of 87 dB for 2 hours. If 100% noise dose corresponds to
90 dB noise exposure for 8 hours, the person is subjected to a noise dose of :
(A) 50 % (B) 2.5 % (C) 12.5 % (D) 6.25 %
.c
35. If the EIA indicates that another state is likely to be affected, the state, in which EIA is
planned, has to :
ce
(A) transmit to the affected state any relevant information from the EIA
coru:eming it
(B) keep the relevant infonnation fully secret
(C) handover the infonnation to the central pollution control board
ra
(D) noTif< of the above
36. The combination of primary and secondary treabnent reduces the original sewage BOD
m
by'
(A) 30 - 40 % (B) 50- 60 % (C) 60 - 70% (D) 80 - 90 %
xa
37. A simple and relatively inexpensive film.flow type of aerobic treabnent method is :
(A) Septic tank (B) Activated sludge process
(C) Percolating filter system (D) All the above
.e
38. Which of the following is not a molecular method for the detection of microbial
population from water/ soil ?
(A) Dot-blot hybridization (B) MPN (C) RT-PCR (D) PCR
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39. Under Kyoto Protocol, the percentage reduction sought to be achieved in C0 2 emissions
from 1990 levels by the year 2012 is :
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(A) -10% (B) -52% (C) -152% (D) -20.5%
40. In a simple regression model Y ｾ｡Ｋ＠ f3X + t (Y ｾ､･ｰｮｴ＠ variable, ｘｾｩｮ､･ｰｴ＠

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variable, a, f3 are regression coefficients, ｴｾｲ｡ｮ､ｯｭ＠ error), the variaru:e oft is:
(A) 0 (B)
•'
132
(C) (D) &'; ＨＢｾｳｴ｡ｮ､ｲ＠ deviation)
D-8907
'
41. In the Box-model the pollutant coru:entration (C) over an area varies with mtxing height
(H) as '
(A) C"H ｾＩ＠ c"-

H ' (C) '
C a H2 (D) C a H-2 '
"· For a Binomial distribution, the first moment is :
(A) ｾＩ＠ e (C)
_, (D) 0
'
"·
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The Hannonic mean of the data 2, 2, 1 is :
(A) ' ｾＩ＠ ' (C)

' (D) '
44.
' '
For a Nonnal distribution, the moment coefficient of skewness is :
'
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(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) -1
45. Which of the following water purification tedmology removes minerals from d:rinldng
ce
water?
(A) Filteration (B) Ultra-filteration
(C) Reverse osmosis (D) lN treabnent
ra
46. Identify the correct sequeru:e of gases in the decreasing order of their contribution to
global wanning :
(A) C0 2 > CFCs > rn 4 > N 20 (B) C0 2 > rn4 > N 20 > CFCs
(C) C0 2 > rn4 > CFCs > N 20 (D) C0 2 > N 20 > CH4 > CFCs
m
47. Convention on Biological Diversity, adopted at the UN Conference on Environment

and Development in 1992, aims to curb destruction of :
xa
(A) Biologicalspecies (B) Habitats

(C) &osystems (D) All of the above
48. According to IPCC, during the 20th century earth's mean surface temperature has
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risen by :
ｗＭｍｾ＠ｾ＠Ｍｍｾ＠ｾ＠Ｍｾ＠ｾＭＬﾷ＠
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49. According to US water standards, the maximum permissible coliform count

(number/100 ml) in recreational waters is:
(A) 10,000 (B) 5,000 (C) 1,000 (D) 500
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50. Assertion (A) : At present in Indis, the use of solar eTif<rgy is rather limited.
Reason (R) : Large scale use of solar energy has uncertain environmental
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implications.
-0 0 0-
D-8907 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
2. (Signature) Roll No.
(In words)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERII
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
1. Plants suitable for biomonitoring of SO2 pollution are :
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(A) White pine, moss and lichens
(B) Tobacco, grapes and garden bean
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(C) Apricot, peach and gladiolas
(D) Tomato and lettuce
ce
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2. Which of the following survive by forming spores ?
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(A) Escherichia coli (B) Rhizobium

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(C) Clostridium (D) Salmonella

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3. Deinococcus and Deinobacter are radiation resistant bacteria because :

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(A) They have effective repair mechanism for damaged DNA and have high
oncentration of carotenoids
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(B) They do not absorb radiations
(C) They have RNA instead of DNA
(D) They grow in ice
D8908 2
4. The orchid seeds do not germinate under ordinary conditions because :
(A) Orchid seeds are too large for dispersal
(B) Orchid seeds do not have endosperm
(C) Orchid seeds undergo a dormancy period
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(D) They germinate under very dry conditions
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5. Which of the following is for rhizosphere ?
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(A) Region where soil and roots make contact
(B) Apical part of root

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(C) Epidermal part of the root
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(D) Root hairs

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6. Suppose the number of individual prey population is N1 and their intrinsic rate of
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population increase N1, where :
r15b2m
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b5birth rate per individual

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m5mortality rate per individual, then the rate of change of the prey population
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( N1/dt) (without immigration and emigration) is as below :
1
(A) r N (B) r1N1
2 1 1
(C) (r1N1)2 (D) (r1N1)1/2
D8908 3 P.T.O.
7. The photosynthetic zone is limited to the upper layers of water in the soil with a high
intensity of productivity per unit volume, yielding an average of about :
(A) 300 mg c m22 hr21 (B) 250 mg c m22 hr21
(C) 100 mg c m22 hr21 (D) 75 mg c m22 hr21
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8. Assertion (A) : Copper - T is used as a contraceptive.
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Reason (R) : Copper of Copper - T disrupts production of some reproductive
hormone.
(A)
ce
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
ra
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
m

xa
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9. Asbestos use is banned in many countries. It is known to cause :

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(A) Cardiac diseases (B) Urinary diseases

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(C) Lung cancer (D) Cataract

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10. Which of the following is used as a carrier for the Rhizobium biofertilization ?
(A) Peat bog (B) Salt (C) Sand (D) Cow dung
D8908 4
11. The flow in natural streams is almost always turbulent and may be assumed to be
incompressible, consequently the applicable equations of motion for the fluid are the :
(A) Bed-load equation (B) Reynolds equation
(C) Lanes model (D) Laceys equation
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12. Suspended sediment load is that part of the sediment load which is transported within
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the main body flow. The primary mechanism of maintaining the sediment particles in
suspension is :
(A) Channel flow (B)
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Particle size
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(C) Turbulent diffusion (D) Dissolved gasses
m
xa
13. A highly vesicular material derived from acidic lavas and produced in very large
quantities is known as :
(A) Scoriae (B) Volcanic bomb

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(C) Pumi e (D) Tuff

w
w
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14. Half life (T) of a radioactive sample is given by :
(A) 0.693/l (B) 1.693/l (C) 0.693/2l (D) 1.693/2l
Where l is the disintegration constant
D8908 5 P.T.O.
15. At the present time volcanoes are confined to certain limited areas of the Earths surface.
This special zone is called :
(A) Trans-Atlantic volcanic zone
(B) Circum-Pacific Ring of fire
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(C) Central-Asian inter-continental zone
(D) Indian-Ocean volcanic belt
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ce
16. When the cavities between the mineral grains in a rock contains fluid, it is called :
(A) Permeable rock (B) Porous rock

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(C) Cavernous rock (D) Fractured rock
m
xa
17. Temperature in the troposphere :

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(A) Decreases with height (B) Rapidly increases with height

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(C) Slowly increases with height (D) Remains constant

w
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18. Failure to explain the black body radiation emission spectrum in the ultraviolet region
(ultraviolet catastrophe) has occurred in :
(A) Plancks radiation law (B) Rayleigh Jeans law
(C) Wiens Displacement law (D) Stephans Boltzmann law
D8908 6
19. A noise signal can be characterized through its amplitude/energy content in the signal.
The signal can be expressed in various forms like root mean square value, given as :
1/2 1/2
1 T   1 T 
(A) 
T ∫ a 2 (t) dt 

(B) 
 2T ∫ a 2 (t) dt 

 0   0 
om
1 T   1 T 
(C)

T ∫ a . dt 
 (D)

 2T ∫ a . dt 

 0   0 
.c
ce
Where T is the relevant time period over which the averaging takes place and a(t) the
instantaneous amplitude.
ra
m
20. Sound pressure level (dB) can be expressed as :
xa
 Measured pressure 
(A) 20 log10  

 Reference pressure 
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 Reference pressure 
(B) 20 log10  
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
 Measured pressure 
w
1/2
 Reference pressure 
(C) 20 log10  
w
 Measured pressure 
 
1/2
 Measured pressure 
(D) 20 log10  
 Reference pressure 
 
D8908 7 P.T.O.
21. Relationship regarding wave particle duality (P5h/l, P5momentum, h5Plancks
constant and l The wave length), was given by :
(A) Heisenberg (B) De Broglie
(C) Neils Bohr (D) Schroedinger
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22. The effect of low level non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation effects on bilogical systems
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can be classified in the following category :
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(A) Instantaneous (B)
ra Delayed
(C) Not at all (D) Prolonged

m
23. Which of the following is a recalcitrant ?

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(A) Sugarcane waste (B) DDT

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(C) Lignin (D) Cellulose

w
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24. A small reduction in ozone concentration can lead to a large increase in the amount of
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harmful ultraviolet radiations reaching the earth in the wavelength region :
(A) 200205 nm (B) 220225 nm
(C) 260265 nm (D) 295300 nm
D8908 8
25. The planet nearest to the Sun is :
(A) Earth (B) Mercury (C) Moon (D) Jupitor
26. Steel units generate which of the following air pollutants :
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(A) Particulates, smoke, carbon monoxide, fluoride
(B) SO2, acid mist
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(C) NOx, SO2, particulates
(D) SO2, NOx, particulates, smoke

ce
ra
m
27. In a soil profile, O2 concentration :
xa
(A) Increases vertically from top to bottom
(B) Increases hori ontally but not vertically

.e
(C) Decreases vertically from top to bottom

w
(D) Both vertically and horizontally increases randomly

w
w
28. Mobile phone frequencies are in the range of :
(A) 1kHz 100kHz (B) 100kHz 100MHz
(C) 100MHz 700MHz (D) 800MHz 2200MHz
D8908 9 P.T.O.
29. Elements in sea water present in order of increasing residence time :
(A) Na > Cl > Mg > Ca > K > Fe > P
(B) Cl > Na > Mg > Ca > K > P > Fe
(C) Cl > Mg > Ca > Na > K > Fe > P
om
(D) Mg > Ca > Cl > Na > K > P > Fe
.c
30. Assertion (A) : Aerosols heave potential for modifying the climate
Reason (R) :
(A) ce
Aerosols interact with both short wave and infra-red radiation.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
ra
m

xa

.e
31. Out of the following which is not a green-house gas :

w
(A) CH4 (B) CO 2 (C) N 2O (D) SO 2

w
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32. Ozone hole in the stratosphere was discovered over the continent of :
(A) North America (B) Australia
(C) Antarctica (D) Greenland
D8908 10
33. Which of the following layers of Earth have the composition of peridotite ?
(A) Upper Mantle (B) Inner Core
(C) Outer Core (D) Continental Crust
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34. Sedimentary component which is produced in-situ within the pore spaces is called :
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(A) Primary (B) Authigeni
(C) Allogenic (D) Orogeni

ra
m
xa
1
35. Stokes law of settling velocity simplified as V ∝ n suggest that :
d
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(A) A large particle 100mm in diameter will settle slowly compared to a smaller
10 mm particle
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(B) A large particle 100 mm in diameter, will settle faster than a smaller particle
w
10 mm
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(C) Both a large 100 mm particle and a small 10 mm particle will settle in a column of
10 cm. at the same time.
(D) Small particle 10 mm in diameter will settle faster, while coarser particle of
100 mm diameter will remain in suspension.
D8908 11 P.T.O.
36. Which of these remote sensing tool is commonly used for groundwater exploration and
soil moisture determinations :
(A) Colour composite imageries
(B) Band 5 spectra
(C) Infra Red spectra
om
(D) Black and white Aerial photos
.c
37. The atmosphere is divided in four layers. The layer in contact with the surface of the
Earth is called :
(A) Stratosphere (B)
ce
Troposphere
ra
(C) Mesosphere (D) Ionosphere
m
38. A ship (X) moving due North with a velocity (n) observes that another ship (Y) is moving
due west. the actual velocity of (Y) is :
xa
(A) (n) is due East (B) ( 2 n) is towards North West

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(C) (n) is towards South East (D) ( 2 n) is towards North East

w
39. The solubility of Fe in water :

w
(A) Increases with increasing pH

w
(B) Decreases with increasing pH
(C) Independent of pH
(D) Dependent only on redox potential and not pH
D8908 12
40. A cube of ice with radius of 100 mm is formed at 38 C. When ice melts, the final volume
will be :
(A) 1000 cm3 (B) 1250 cm3
(C) 1000 mm3 (D) 1750 mm3
om
41. Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the wave model of light, but
not by the particle model ?
.c
(A) Pressure is exerted by a light beam
(B)
ce
All of the energy emitted by an atom, as light can later be completely transferred
to another atom
ra
(C) A light beam changes direction when passing from one medium to another
m
(D) Light can reach the geometrical shadow of an obstacle in its path
xa
42. 2 ppm of CO at 258 C and 7 0 mm of Hg pressure is equivalent to :

.e
(A) 1250 mg/m3 (B) 1145 mg/m3

w
(C) 2500 mg/m3 (D) 2290 mg/m3

w
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43. Which waves carry most energy ?
(A) UV light (B) Infra-red light
(C) Microwaves (D) Millimeter waves
D8908 13 P.T.O.
44. If one wishes to measure total As, As13 and As15 in a sample the most suitable analytical
tool is :
(A) Atomic Absorption spectrophotometer
(B) Ion chromatograph
(C) Scanning Electron Microscope
om
(D) Gas chromatograph
.c
45. The acid rains result from chemical transformation and transport of :
(A) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
ce
ra
(B) Phosphorus pentaoxide and sulfur compound
(C) Chlorine gas and nitrous oxide

m
(D) Iron oxide and copper nitrate

xa
46. Any particulate matter, gas, or combination thereof other than water vapour is
.e
called :
(A) Air curtain (B) Air emission

w
(C) Air monitoring (D) Air contaminant

w
w
47. The chemical system for removal of the ions of salt, is called :
(A) Ion transfer (B) Ionization
(C) Ion exchange (D) Ion vaporization
D8908 14
48. At ordinary temperatures, the molecules of a diatomic gas have only translational and
rotational kinetic energies. At high temperatures, they may have vibrational energy.
As a result of this, compared to lower temperatures, a diatomic gas at higher
temperatures will have :
(A) Lower molar heat capacity (B) Higher molar heat capacity
(C) Lower isothermal compressibility (D) Higher isothermal compressibility
om
.c
49. In the periodic table of elements :
(A) Non-metallic property increases vertically
(B) Metallic property increases from right to left

ce
ra
(C) Non-metallic property increases from right to left
m
(D) Metallic property increases left to right and from top to bottom
xa
50. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) which cause environmental exposure risk have these
important properties :
.e
(A) Very high volatility in air

w
(B) Chemically unstable and highly reactive

w
(C) Heat stable and have no flash or fire point

w
(D) Highly soluble in water and poorly soluble in oils and organic solvents
-oOo-
D8908 15 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
w
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D8908 16
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
1. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.____________________________
(Name) ____________________________
(In words)
D-8909 Test Booklet No.
Time : 1 1/4 hours] PAPER-II [Maximum Marks : 100

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë ê ×»Ö ×Ö¤ì¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂ ê ¯Ö¸ ×ÖµÖÖ Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×Ö
this page. 2. ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯ÖÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆã ×¾Ö »¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö Æï
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖêÖê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö Ö¯Ö Öê ¤ê ¤ß ÖÖµÖêÖß ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖÖÑÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet ×´ÖÖ Ö¯Ö Öê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ÖÖê»ÖÖê Ö£ÖÖ ÃÖ ß ×Ö´Ö×»Ö×ÖÖ ÖÖÑÖ ê
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested ×»Ö ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê ×ÖÃÖ ß ÖÖÑÖ Ö¯Ö Öê ¾Ö¿µÖ ¸Öß Æî :
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
(i) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ÖÖê»ÖÖê ê ×»Ö ÃÖê ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖêÖ ¯Ö¸ »ÖÖß ÖÖÖ ß
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet ÃÖß»Ö Öê ± ÖÍ »Öë Öã»Öß Æã Ô µÖÖ ×²ÖÖÖ Ãß ¸-ÃÖß»Ö ß ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ã¾Öß Ö¸ Ö ¸ë
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions (ii) ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖéÂ ¯Ö¸ ¯Öê ×Ö¤ì¿ÖÖÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ê ¯ÖéÂ Ö£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
in the booklet with the information printed on the ß ÃÖÓµÖÖ Öê ß Ö¸Æ Öî ¸ »Öë × µÖê ¯Öæ¸ê Æï ¤ÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÖÔ
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ×ÖÖ´Öë ¯ÖéÂ/¯ÖÏ¿Ö ´Ö ÆÖë µÖÖ ¤ã²ÖÖ¸Ö Ö ÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸µÖ»Ö
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any ´Öë Ö ÆÖë £ÖÖÔÖ × ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏ Ö¸ ß ¡Öã×¯ÖæÖÔ ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö Ã¾Öß Ö¸ Ö
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately ¸ë Ö£ÖÖ ÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ÃÖê »ÖÖî Ö ¸ ÃÖê Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¤æ ÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö »Öê »Öë ÃÖê ×»Ö Ö¯Ö Öê ¯ÖÖÑÖ ×´ÖÖ ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
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given. Æß Ö¯Ö Öê ×Ö×¸Ö ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤µÖÖ ÖÖµÖêÖÖ
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ÃÖ ÖÖÑÖ ê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ß Î ´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Ó× Ö ¸ë Öî¸ OMR ¯Ö¡Ö ß Î ´Ö ÃÖÓµÖÖ ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ¯Ö¸
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. Ó× Ö ¸ ¤ë
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. ¯ÖÏµÖê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö ê ×»Ö ÖÖ¸ ¢Ö¸ ×¾Ö »¯Ö (A), (B), (C) Ö£ÖÖ (D) ×¤µÖê ÖµÖê
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the Æï Ö¯Ö Öê ÃÖÆß ¢Ö¸ ê ¤ßÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö Öê ¯ÖêÖ ÃÖê ³Ö¸ ¸ Ö»ÖÖ ¸ÖÖ Æî ÖîÃÖÖ
correct response against each item. × ÖßÖê ×¤ÖÖµÖÖ ÖµÖÖ Æî
Example : A B D ¤ÖÆ¸Ö : A B D
where (C) is the correct response. Ö²Ö× (C) ÃÖÆß ¢Ö¸ Æî
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer 5. ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë ê ¢Ö¸ ê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿Ö ¯Ö¡Ö I ê ¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÖµÖê ¢Ö¸-¯Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸ Æß
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at Ó× Ö ¸Öê Æï µÖ×¤ Ö¯Ö ¢Ö¸ ¯Ö¡Ö ¯Ö¸ ×¤µÖê ÖµÖê ¤ßÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö ê »ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will × ÃÖß µÖ Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¢Ö¸ ×ÖÅÖÖÓ× Ö ¸Öê Æï , ÖÖê ÃÖ Ö ´Öæ»µÖÖÓ Ö ÖÆà
not be evaluated.
ÆÖêÖÖ
6. ¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÖµÖê ×Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Öê ¬µÖÖÖ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ¯ÖÍë
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. ÖÖ Ö´Ö (Rough Work) ÃÖ ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ê ÛÖ´Ö ¯ÖéÂ ¯Ö¸ ¸ë
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test
booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,
8. µÖ×¤ Ö¯Ö ¢Ö¸-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÖÖ ÖÖ´Ö µÖÖ êÃÖÖ ÖêÔ ³Öß ×Ö¿ÖÖÖ ×ÖÃÖÃÖê
which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
Ö¯Ö ß ¯ÖÆÖÖÖ ÆÖê ÃÖê , × ÃÖß ³Öß ³ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¤¿ÖÖÔÖê µÖÖ Ó× Ö ¸Öê Æï ÖÖê
liable to disqualification. ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ê ×»ÖµÖê µÖÖêµÖ ÖÖê×ÂÖÖ ¸ ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. Ö¯Ö Öê ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯Ö ÆÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ¾ÖÓ OMR ¢Ö¸-¯Ö¡Ö
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ×Ö¸ßÖ ´ÖÆÖê¤ µÖ Öê »ÖÖî ÖÖÖ Ö¾Ö¿µÖ Æî Öî¸ ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖÛ¯Ö ê ²ÖÖ¤ ÃÖê
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ¯ÖÖê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ³Ö¾ÖÖ ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆ¸ Ö »Öê ¸ ÖÖµÖë
Examination Hall. 10. ê ¾Ö»Ö Öß»Öê/ Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖÕ ¯ÖîÖ Ö Æß ÃÖê´ÖÖ»Ö ¸ë
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. × ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏ Ö¸ Ö ÃÖÓÖÖ (î »Öã »Öê ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÖ ê ²Ö»Ö Ö×¤ Ö
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÖ ¾ÖÙÖÖ Æî
12. Negative Marking :- For each incorrect answer, 0.5 marks 12. ÖêÖê×¾Ö Ó ¯ÖÏÖÖ»Öß : ¯ÖÏµÖê Ö»ÖÖ ¢Ö¸ ê ×»Ö 0.5 Ó Öê
shall be deducted. ÖÖÑÖê
D-8909 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of
(A) Luteinizing hormone (B) Testosterone
(C) Estrogen (D) All of the above
2. The ionizing radiation, which affects the activities of most of the enzymes is due to
(A) Photoemission of electron
(B) Interaction of α-particles, β-and γ-rays with enzymes
(C) Interaction of electron with body.
(D) Interaction of radiation with tissues.
3. SDS-PAGE of tissue proteins under denaturation determines the

(A) Hydrogen bond breakage (B) Sulfide bridge breakage
(C) Subunits of protein (D) None of the above
4. Intake of lead may primarily cause the damage of

(A) Brain (B) Lung
(C) Liver (D) Kidney
5. Parallelism among the standard curves can be determined by one of the following.
(A) ANOVA (B) Student’s-t test
(C) Chi square (D) ANCOVA
6. Liquid ammonia can be used in refrigeration because of its

(A) High basicity (B) High dipole moment
(C) High heat of vaporization (D) Non-toxic nature
7. The pair of molecules forming strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonds are

(A) H2O and H2 (B) HCOOH and CH3COOH
(C) CH3COCH3 and CHCl3 (D) SiH4 and SiF6
8. Which of these requires quantum nature of light for their explanation ?

(A) Diffraction (B) Polarisation
(C) Black body spectrum (D) Interference
Paper-II 2 D-8909
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9. The mass of 1 mole of electron is equal to
(A) 9.1094 × 6.16 × 10–28 g
(B) 9.1094 × 10–31 × 6.023 × 1023 kg
(C) (9.1094 × 10–31) / 6.023 × 1023 kg
(D) (6.023 × 1023) / 6.1094 × 10–28 gm
10. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation

a. H2O2 + b. KMnO4 + c. H2SO4 → d. K2SO4 + e. Mn SO4 + f. H2O + g. O2
a b c d e f g
(A) 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(B) 1 2 3 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 5 3 2 1 8 5
(D) 5 2 3 1 2 8 5
11. Which of the transmutation does not take place by α-decay ?

(A) 238U92 → 234Th90 (B) 213Bi83 → 213Po84
(C) 226Ra 222Rn (D) 227Ac 223Fr
88 → 86 89 → 87
12. Which radioactive element is considered under Indoor pollutants category ?

(A) O –16 (B) N –13
(C) Carbon 14 (D) Radon
13. Industries generating hazardous waste are classified as

(A) Brown (B) Green
(C) Yellow (D) Red
14. One of the following methods for disposal of municipal solid waste known to be
scientific is
(A) Open land disposal (B) Incerination
(C) Landfill method (D) Sanitary landfill method
15. One of the following is not an In situ conservation for biological resources.
(A) Biosphere reserve (B) National Parks
(C) Protected areas (D) Breeding under confined areas
16. Solar ponds are used for

(A) Salt production (B) Aquaculture
(C) Power generation (D) All of the above
D-8909 3 Paper-II
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17. Biodiesel is produced in India presently from
(A) Calotropis sp (B) Catharanthus sp
(C) Jatropha sp (D) Delonix sp
18. Ozone depletion is caused by the increase in the level of

(A) Water vapour (B) Chlorofluro carbon
(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon monoxide
19. Thermal power generation in India is carried out by burning

(A) Natural gas (B) Coal
(C) Oil (D) All of the above
20. Biogas production is the outcome of

(A) Methanogenesis (B) Pyrolysis
(C) Methanogenesis and Gasification (D) Gasification
21. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for

(A) Botanical Garden
(B) Monitoring sea level rise since 1950
(C) Biggest collection of mammals fossils
(D) Continuous monitoring of atmospheric CO2 since 1957.
22. To generate environmental awareness Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in

(A) 1998 (B) 1968
(C) 1992 (D) 1994
23. General Circulation Model (GCM’s) are used to

(A) predict climate (B) predict cyclones
(C) study ocean currents (D) study temperature on wind
24. Among the following which country has lowest per capita green house gas emission ?
(A) France (B) India
(C) China (D) Mexico
25. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974, industries are allowed to release
waste in inland water having BOD level
(A) 100 mg/l (B) 30 mg/l
(C) 150 mg/l (D) 80 mg/l
26. Richael Carsson in her book Silent Spring has raised concern on
(A) Economical & social impacts
(B) Deforestation
(C) Climate change
(D) Impacts of agro-chemicals on ecological functions
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27. The term oligotrophic refers to
(A) Higher nutrients in water (B) High aquatic productivity
(C) Low nutrients and low productivity (D) Algal blooms
28. Following initiative under International efforts made to have household eco-friendly
refrigerators :
(A) Kyoto Protocol (B) Basal Convention
(C) Montreal Protocol (D) CITES
29. The ‘mean’ that stands for relative importance of different items in a data set is
(A) Weighted mean (B) Harmonic mean
(C) Arithmetic mean (D) Geometric mean
30. In symmetrical distribution pattern

(A) Median, Mean and Mode coincide (B) Mean & Median coincide
(C) Mean & Mode coincide (D) Mode & Median coincide
31. Which statistical device helps in analysing the co-variation of two or more variables ?
(A) Regression (B) Correlation
(C) Standard deviation (D) Mean of the variables
32. Stoke’s Law of Settling Velocity is represented by

1
(A) V ∝ d (B) V∝ n
a
1
(C) V = d (D) V = cd
33. Correct arrangement in order of decreasing soil particle size

(A) Sand, clay, silt (B) Silt, sand, clay
(C) Sand, silt, clay (D) Clay, silt, sand
34. Comparing continental and oceanic crust

(A) the chemical composition of crust does not vary.
(B) the Fe content in continental crust is more than that of oceanic crust.
(C) the Si and Al content in continental crust is more than that of oceanic crust.
(D) the Na, Ca, Al content in oceanic crust is more than that of continental crust.
35. The size distribution of particles in soil and sediments generally follow
(A) binomial distribution (B) normal distribution
(C) linear distribution (D) log-normal distribution
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36. Maximum density of water is at
(A) 0 °C (B) 100 °C
(C) – 4 °C (D) 4 °C
37. The geochemical weathering process can be viewed as

(A) Clay minerals + CO2 Quartz + Al2O3
–
(B) Primary silicate + CO2 + H2O clay minerals + cations + HCO3 + H4 SiO4 + H+
(C) Primary silicate + H2O Al2O3 + SiO2 + CaO + H+
(D) Clay minerals + H2O Fe2O3 + Al2O3 + SiO2 + CaO
38. Which group of minerals represent

(A) Polymorphic transformation
(B) Non-substitutional representation
(C) Isomorphic substitution
(D) Unmixed presence of different non silicates
39. Garnet is a metamorphic product of

(A) Feldspar (B) Quartzite
(C) Mica (D) Serpentine
40. Formation of marble can be represented by

(A) CaSiO3 +2 –2 (B) CaO + CO2
Ca + SiO3 CaCO3
(C) CaCO3 CaO + CO2 (D) CaCO3 + SiO2 CaSiO3 + CO2
41. For the precipitation of CaCO3 from water

Ca+2 + CO3–2 – CaCO3
the equilibrium constant K is 10–8.3 . This indicates that
(A) Ca+2 & CO3–2 concentration are equal in water
(B) m CO –2 >> m Ca+2
3
(C) m Ca+2 < m Co –2
3
1
(D) m Ca+2 = m Co –2
3
42. How many sites as potential areas for biosphere reserves have been identified by the
National MAB Committee for the Department of Environment ?
(A) 13 (B) 23
(C) 33 (D) 43
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43. Which one of the following is not a permitting cryoprotectant ?
(A) Glycerol (B) DMSO
(C) Sucrose (D) 1, 2 – propanediol
44. The aggregation of all eco systems on the earth is referred to as

(A) Atmosphere (B) Ecosphere
(C) Stratosphere (D) Ionosphere
45. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?

(A) Aquatic ferns
(B) Blue-green algae
(C) Phosphate-Solubilising micro-organisms
(D) Vermicompost
46. Who first used and defined “Ecology” in 1866 ?

(A) H. Reiter (B) Haeckel
(C) Charles Elton (D) Odum
47. CITES has following schedules in order of priority to protect animals and plants from
trade :
(A) Schedule I, II, III (B) Schedule I, I, III
(C) Schedule III, III, I (D) Schedule II, I, III
48. Methamoglobinemia is actually caused by water pollution containing

–
(A) NO2 (B) NO3
+ –
(C) NH4 (D) NO2
49. Environmental Impact Assessment is mandatory for certain developmental project

under one of the following legislation :
(A) The Factories’ Act (B) Forest Act
(C) Environment (Protection) Act (D) Air (Pollution and Control) Act
50. Which one of the following air pollution control device has highest efficiency in
controlling dust ?
(A) Wet Scruber (B) Electrostatic precipitator
(C) Venturi Scruber (D) Cyclonic spray scruber
__________
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Space for Rough Work
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Paper – II
1. What are the steps necessary for 5. Nanda Devi and Sunderbans are
sustainable management of examples of Indian
renewable resources ? (A) National Parks
(A) Avoiding over-exploitation (B) Sanctuaries
and pollution of biotic (C) International heritage areas
systems. (D) Biosphere reserves
(B) Strengthening the resource
base and augmenting 6. Match the List – I and II and select
regenerability of biotic the correct answer from the codes
systems. given below the lists :
(C) Use of alternative resources.
(Analytical (Measured
(D) All of these. techniques) items)
(a) XRF 1. Functional
groups
2. Fluxes of heat, water vapour and
momentum are constant in (b) Nephelometry 2. Elements
(c) IR 3. Turbidity
(A) upper atmosphere spectroscopy
(B) middle atmosphere (d) UV-visible 4. Aromatics
(C) Ekman layer spectroscopy
Codes :
(D) surface boundary layer
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
3. Inversions occur when atmosphere is (B) 1 3 4 2
(A) unstable (C) 3 2 4 1
(B) neutral (D) 2 3 1 4
(C) slightly stable
7. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl
(D) most stable is
(A) 2 (B) 4
4. When one species limits access of (C) 3 (D) 1
another species to a resource
regardless of whether the resource is 8. The primitive atmosphere of earth
abundant or scarce, it is called consisted of
(A) interspecific competition (A) CO2, NO2, NH3, SO2
(B) intraspecific competition (B) H2, NH3, CH4, H2O
(C) interference competition (C) CO, N2O3, SO3, H3N
(D) exploitative competition (D) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
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9. Which of the following is the major 14. Match the items under List – I and
source of mercury pollution in India ? List – II and select the correct
(A) Coal based thermal power answer using codes given below :
plants List – I List – II
(B) Pesticides (a) Tissue (i). Green
(C) Dental amalgam fillings culture revolution
(D) Electrical and electronic technique
gadgets (b) Vermiculture (ii). Storage of
technique propagules
10. Nitrite causes methaemoglobinemia (c) Breeding (iii). Micro-
by technique propagation
(A) oxidizing membrane proteins (d) Cryo (iv). Organic
(B) reacting with calcium of bones preservation farming
technique
(C) oxidizing haemoglobin
Codes :
(D) oxidizing membrane lipids
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. Solubility (S) of a sparingly soluble (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
salt of the type AB is related to the (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
solubility product (KSP) by the (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
relation
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2
(A) S = KSP (B) S = 2 KSP
(C) S= KSP (D) S = KSP 15. Successive increase in concentration
of some chemicals through different
food level organisms is called
12. The amount of biomass which can be (A) Biogeochemical cycle
sustained under steady state
(B) Biological magnification
condition of an ecosystem is termed
as (C) Chemical production
(A) Primary productivity (D) Biodegradation
(B) System homeostasis
(C) Sustainable yield 16. Which of the following is a correct
sequence found in a grassland
(D) Carrying capacity ecosystem ?
(A) Grasses → Diatoms → deer →
13. Which of the following regions dog
generally possess large diversity in
(B) Grasses → rabbit → wolves →
their species composition ?
tiger
(A) Arctic regions
(C) Trees → birds → hawks →
(B) Antarctic regions wolves
(C) Snow-clad mountains (D) Grasses → snakes → deer →
(D) Subtropical regions dog
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17. Reservoir triggered seismicity in 22. The maximum value of power
case of hydropower projects with coefficient for a wind turbine can be
large pondage is most likely to occur (A) 0.59 (B) 0.49
when (C) 0.92 (D) 0.72
(A) thrust fault passes through the
reservoir
23. Average value of solar insolation
(B) strike-slip fault passes through w
the reservoir at the earth’s surface is
m2
(C) Large flood strikes the project (A) 250 (B) 350
(D) Final reservoir level drops (C) 450 (D) 550
18. Where the amplitude of Tsunami 24. Fuel cells are devises that generate
waves would be maximum ? electricity by converting the energy
(A) At Deep Ocean released by
(B) Near the Coast (A) electrochemical reactions
(C) On Flood Plains without going through
combustion process.
(D) At Mid Oceanic Ridges
(B) biochemical reactions without
going through combustion
19. Given below are scales of four process.
topographic maps. Maps of which
scale will have more clarity ? (C) electrochemical reactions
involving combustion process
(A) 1 : 50,000
(D) biochemical reactions
(B) 1 : 25,000 involving combustion process
(C) 1 : 250,000
(D) 1 : 1,000,000 25. Chemically coal is composed of
(i) Carbon
20. Soil surveys involve which of the (ii) Hydrogen
following ? (iii) Oxygen
(A) Soil series mapping (iv) Sulphur and / or Nitrogen
(B) Soil depth mapping (A) All of above
(C) Soil horizons mapping (B) Only (i) and (ii)
(D) All of these (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. As we go down the discontinuous
Bowen’s reaction series (Olivine – 26. Which of the following gases has the
Pyroxene – Amphibole – Biotite) the maximum global warming potential
(Na+K) / Al ratio increases from (GWP) ?
(A) 0 to 1 (A) Carbon-di-oxide
(B) 0 to 2 (B) Methane
(C) 0 to 3 (C) Nitrous oxide
(D) 0 to 4 (D) Water vapour
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27. Acid rain has pH 33. For efficient crop productivity, the
(A) < 7.6 (B) > 7 level (kg/ha) of N, P, K in soils
should, respectively, be
(C) ≤ 5.6 (D) < 1.6
(A) > 300, > 80 and > 360
(B) < 50, < 15 and < 120
28. Which of the following gases
facilitates formation of tropospheric (C) < 100, < 30 and < 180
ozone ? (D) 150, 50 and 240
(A) NO2 (B) SO2
34. Identify the correct sequence of
(C) CO (D) NH3 stages of obtaining Environmental
clearance for new projects
(A) Appraisal, Screening, Scoping,
29. The sound power from a voice
Public Consultation
shouting is 0.001 Watt. The sound
level in dB is (B) Screening, Public Consultation,
Scoping, Appraisal
(A) 90 dB (B) 60 dB
(C) Screening, Appraisal, Scoping,
(C) 30 dB (D) 120 dB
Public Consultation
(D) Screening, Scoping, Public
30. According to WHO maximum Consultation, Appraisal
permissible level of iron in drinking
water is 35. Assertion (A) : Cost benefit
(A) 1 mg/L analysis converts the benefits
(B) 5 mg/L from the development,
(C) 10 mg/L damages and control measures
into monetary values.
(D) 50 mg/L
Reason (R) : Cost benefit
analysis compares the cost of
31. The particle sizes associated with damage caused by
ambient aerosols in the atmosphere developmental activity with
have the range the cost of control measures
(A) < 100 µm adopted and provides the
(B) 5 – 10 µm optimum solution for a given
environmental quality.
(C) 1 – 5 µm
Which one of the following codes is
(D) < 1 µm correct ?
Codes :
32. An aquatic system is essentially a (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
single phase system while terrestrial (R) is the correct explanation
system is a of (A).
(A) two phase system (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(B) three phase system (R) is not the correct
(C) four phase system explanation of (A).
(D) multiple phase system higher (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
than having four phases (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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36. Match the items in List – I with 38. Hazardous substances have the
List – II and select the correct following attributes :
answers using codes given below : (A) Ignitability
List – I List – II (B) Ignitability, Reactivity and
(Developmental (Validity time Corrosivity
project) period for
(C) Reactivity and Toxicity
Environmental
Impact (D) Corrosivity and Toxicity
Assessment
Report) 39. Among bio-medical wastes, human
(a) Mining (i) 10 years anatomical wastes fall under
Projects category
(b) River Valley (ii) 30 years (A) 4 (B) 2
Projects
(c) Area (iii) 5 years (C) 3 (D) 1
Development
Projects 40. To test whether there is a significant
(d) Other Projects (iv) Limited difference between the means of two
period sets of observations, one employs
Codes : the following statistical technique :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Regression
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) χ2 test (chi square test)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) t-test
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (D) F-test
37. Match the List – I and List – II. 41. For any finite set of positive
Identify the correct answer from the numbers, which is the correct
codes given below the lists : relationship involving Harmonic
List – I List – II Mean (HM), Geometric Mean (GM)
(Domain) (Effects) and Arithmetic Mean (AM) ?
(a) Socioeconomics (i) Barrier to (A) HM ≤ GM ≤ AM
travel
(B) AM ≤ GM ≤ HM
corridors
(b) Wildlife (ii) Employment (C) AM ≤ HM ≤ GM
opportunities (D) GM ≤ HM ≤ AM
(c) Water quality (iii) Erosivity &
Erodability
42. The population (N) of an ecosystem
(d) Soil (iv) BOD and follows logistic growth. If K is its
environment COD carrying capacity, then the
Codes : environmental resistance is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
N N
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (A) (B) 1 –
K K
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) N2
(C) K (D) NK
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (iii)
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43. For the following Poisson 47. About what percentage of earth’s
distribution drylands are deserts ?
2x e–2 (A) 10 – 20%
P(X) = x! ; X = 0, 1, 2,…… (B) 23 – 26%
the value of the mean is (C) 33 – 36%
(A) 2 (B) 4 (D) 43 – 53%
1
(C) 1 (D)
2
48. ‘Ring of Fire’ surrounds which ocean ?
(A) Indian Ocean
44. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the
plume rise, under neutral or unstable (B) Atlantic Ocean
atmospheric conditions, varies with (C) Arctic Ocean
the average wind speed (u m/sec) at (D) Pacific Ocean
stack height as
(A) u
1 49. Assertion (A) : Available data
(B) suggest that the first cells on
u
1 earth were anaerobic
(C) heterotrophs.
u2
1 Reason (R) : In the beginning, the
(D) 1 earth’s atmosphere probably
u3 lacked free oxygen.
Identify the correct answer :
45. Which of the following steps can be Codes :
used to raise the assimilative
capacity of natural systems ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
(A) Turn barren land into eutrophic
of (A).
system.
(B) Avoid concentration of (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
polluting industry at a (R) is not the correct
particular place. explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (B). (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) None of these. (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
46. Kyoto Protocol on climate change 50. Chemical formula for CFC-113 is
was envisaged in which year ? (A) C Cl2F2
(A) 1992
(B) C Cl3F3
(B) 1994
(C) 1997 (C) C2 Cl3F3
(D) 2002 (D) C Cl2F3
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
D 891
1 3 (In words)
Time : 1 /4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

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paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë …
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ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) ÝÖμÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî
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Example : •Ö²Ö×Û (C) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî …
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Ö¡Ö I Ûê †®¤¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ Æß
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9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤ μÖ Û Öê »ÖÖî™ Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿μÖÛ Æî †Öî¸ ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤
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compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ ¯Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ›ã ¯»ÖßÛê ™ ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
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PAPER – II
5. Azaridine, Ethylene dibromide,

1. Mesoscale Meteorological
Bis(chloromethyl) ether are
Phenomena occur over areas of
horizontal distance in the range (km) (A) Alkylating agents
(A) 100 – 200 km (B) Hydrocarbons
(B) 1 – 100 km (C) Hydrazines
(C) 10 – 50 km (D) Aromatic amines
(D) 1 – 10 km
6. Normality of 0.25 M phosphoric acid
is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.75 (D) 2.50
7. Match List – I with List – II and
(D) March to May
choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :
3. Which of the following is not a List – I List – II
reactive oxygen species ? (Air (Sources /
(A) Hydrogen peroxide Pollutants) Activities)
(B) Hydroxyl ion a. Carbon 1. Coal burning

monoxide
(C) Singlet oxygen b. Nitrogen 2. Cigarette
(D) Superoxide anion oxide Smoking
c. Sulphur 3. Chemical reaction
dioxide with VOCs
4. If air quality standard for carbon
d. Ozone 4. Power and
monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the Industrial Plant
percentage as in mg/m3 at 1 atm. at
25 °C is Codes :
a b c d
(A) 10.3 mg/m3
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 15.2 mg/m3
(B) 1 2 3 4
3
(C) 20.0 mg/m (C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 5.6 mg/m3 (D) 4 3 2 1
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8. The gaseous material which is used 13. The chemical used in a fermenter
for the synthesis of Methyl with molasses as a substrate is
isocyanate is (A) Diammonium sulphate
(A) Chloranil (B) Diammonium phosphate
(B) Sevin (C) Diammonium nitrate
(C) Phosgene (D) Diammonium chloride
(D) Chlorine
14. Which of the following is an example
of lotic ecosystem ?
9. During the determination of COD,
sulphanilic acid is added, because
(B) Pond ecosystem
(A) it maintains the acidic nature
(C) Bog ecosystem
(B) it precipitates the mercury ions
(C) it oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) it reacts with ferrous 15. Which pyramid is always straight ?
ammonium sulphate
10. Which year was declared as (C) Pyramid of energy
International Year of Biodiversity ?
(D) Pyramid of number and
(A) 2002 (B) 2010 biomass
(C) 2020 (D) 1972
16. Which of the following type of
materials present in a landslide
11. The forest biome characterised by suggest that the movement was
3-4 tree species/km2 is rotational ?
(A) Tropical (B) Temperate (A) Rockflow, Debris flow,
Earthflow
(C) Boreal (D) Taiga
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump,
Earth slump
12. Which of the following is a type of (C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
biodiversity extinction caused
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple,
primarily due to anthropogenic
Earth topple
activities ?
(A) Carboniferous rain forest
collapse 17. Which of the following parameters is
not a good indicator of contamination
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction in ground water ?
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction (A) BOD (B) Nitrates
(D) Holocene extinction (C) Silica (D) Chlorides
D-89-13 3 Paper-II
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18. On an aerial photograph, the distance 22. Assertion (A) : Tropical and
between the principal point and the subtropical seas are most
conjugate principal point is called suitable for OTEC.
(A) Relief Reason (R) : There is a certain
(> 25 °C/km) required for

(B) Tilt minimum vertical gradient
(C) Photo-base OTEC to become feasible.
(D) Focal length
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
19. An equatorial west to east remote (R) is the correct explanation .
sensing satellite orbiting the earth at
an altitude of 36,000 km is called (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct
(A) Sun-synchronous satellite explanation.
(B) Geostationary satellite (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Space shuttle (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Stereo imager
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a

20. Which state of Cr (Chromium) is total of 500 million tonnes of CO2 is
most toxic ? released to the atmosphere. If the
(A) Cr4+ (B) Cr3+ entire amount of CO2 remains in the
atmosphere, what will be the rise in
(C) Cr5+ (D) Cr6+
the concentration of CO2 in ppm ?
(A) ~ 0.236 ppm (B) ~ 0.128 ppm
21. Assertion (A) : Groundwater may
get seriously contaminated in (C) ~ 2.312 ppm (D) ~ 1.216 ppm
coastal areas.
Reason (R) : Groundwater 24. A thermal power station has a heat
overdrafts near coastal areas rate of 12 mJ/kWh. Its thermal
can contaminate groundwater efficiency is
supplies by allowing salt water
to intrude into freshwater (A) 30% (B) 36%
aquifers. (C) 40% (D) 25%
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 25. Assume that world coal production is
(R) is the correct explanation of 6.1 billion tons per year and
(A). estimated total recoverable resources
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but of coal is 1.1 trillion tons. How long
(R) is not the correct it would take to use up those reserves
explanation of (A). at current rate of production ?
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (A) ~ 180 years (B) ~ 150 years
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. (C) ~ 120 years (D) ~ 90 years
Paper-II 4 D-89-13
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26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the 30. Assertion (A) : Eruption of the
salinity generally varies from top to volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991
bottom of the pond as spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
atmosphere. The following
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30% three years were cooler.
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35% Reason (R) : Sulphate aerosols
reflect sunlight away from the
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Earth.
Codes :
27. Which region among the following is (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
not Atmospheric Brown Cloud and (R) is correct explanation
(ABC) hotspot ? of (A).
(A) East-Asia (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B) South Africa and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(C) Amazon Basin in South
America (C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(D) Australia
31. Photolysis of NO2 occurs due to

28. Prolonged exposure to high levels of
radiations of wavelength
noise causes
(A) < 600 nm
(i) Hearing loss
(B) < 550 nm
(C) < 480 nm
(D) < 390 nm
(iv) Toxicity
Identify the correct answer : 32. The efficiency of removing SO2 from
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only the flue gas by limestone in wet
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only scrubbers can be as high as
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (A) 30% (B) 50%
(C) 70% (D) 90%
33. The depth of the oxidation ponds is

29. Azolla pinnata is a typically
(A) Blue green algae (A) 1 – 2 m
(B) Green algae (B) 2–5m
(C) Red algae (C) 5 – 10 m
(D) Fern (D) 10 – 20 m
D-89-13 5 Paper-II
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34. In EIA the baseline data describes 38. The Committee which reviews the
(A) The environmental Environmental Impact Assessment
consequences by mapping and Environmental Management plan
reports of a developmental project in
(B) Existing environmental status Ministry of Environment and Forest
of the identified study area is called
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis (A) Project Assessment Committee
of proposal
(D) Demographic and socio-
economic data (C) Project Evaluation Committee
35. Which one of the following does not
belong to EIA methods used for 39. In a typical municipal solid waste,
assessing the impacts of least percentage of Ash is found in
developmental activities on the
environment ? (A) Textiles (B) Plastic
(A) Checklist (B) Adhoc (C) Leather (D) Rubber
(C) Network (D) Flexible
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals
have flash point
(A) lower than 23 °C
36. The EIA report of a hydropower
project would be valid upto how
between 23 and 26 °C
many years after the environmental
(B)
clearance of the project ?
(A) 5 years (C)
(B) 6 years (D) between 32 and 40 °C
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years 41. Which one of the following does not
contribute to climate change ?
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the (A) NO (B) O3

impact level of a developmental (C) SF6 (D) HFCs
project is not discernible, then what
step should be adopted ?
(A) Scoping stage is to be 42. A population (X) in an ecosystem
followed. follows logistic growth curve. If the
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be carrying capacity of the system is K,
conducted. the growth realisation factor is
(C) Detail EIA study is to be K–X K–X
(A) X (B) K
conducted.
(D) The project should be given K–X
(C) (D) (K – X)
Environmental Clearance. K2
Paper-II 6 D-89-13
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43. Which one of the following 47. What is Ecomark ?
conditions would indicate that the (A) Label given to recycled
dataset is not bell shaped ? products
(A) The mean is much smaller than (B) Label given to an environment
median friendly products
(B) The range is equal to five times (C) Land mark indicating the
the standard deviation. boundaries of bioparks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable
(C) The range is larger than products
interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard 48. An important source of Arsenic in
deviation. Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the (B) Rubber products
mean (μ) of the t-distribution is (C) Batteries
(A) Zero (D) Household pesticides
(B) 1
49. Which of the following is not a non-
(C) depends on df formal Environment Education and
Awareness Programme ?
(D) 2
(A) Global Learning and
Observations to Benefit the
Environment (GLOBE).
⎡ 3 –1 ⎤
45. Which of the following is an eigen
value of the matrix ⎢ ⎥?

(B) National Environment
⎣ 4 –2 ⎦ Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(A) 2 (B) 0
(D) Environmental Education in
(C) 1 (D) 3 School System
50. REDD stands for

46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of
water everyday for 70 years with a (A) Recurring Emission from
chloroform concentration of Deforestation and Forest
0.10 mg/L (the drinking water Degradation
standard), upper bound cancer risk (B) Reducing Environmental
for these individual will be Degradation and Forest
Degradation
(A) 17 in 1 million
(C) Reducing Emissions from
(B) 25 in 1 million Deforestation and Forest
(C) 37 in 1 million Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from
(D) 5 in 1 million Degradable Deposits of Wastes
D-89-13 7 Paper-II
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
D 891
1 3 (In words)

(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the Û ß ÃÖß»Ö Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã ‡Ô μÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë …
‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ ×¤μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö
ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be †×ŸÖ×¸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ×¤μÖÖ •ÖÖμÖêÝÖÖ …
given. (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ÛÎ ´Ö ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¯ÖÏŸμÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) ×¤μÖê
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) ÝÖμÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî …
D-89-13 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – II
5. Azaridine, Ethylene dibromide,

1. Mesoscale Meteorological
Bis(chloromethyl) ether are
Phenomena occur over areas of
horizontal distance in the range (km) (A) Alkylating agents
(A) 100 – 200 km (B) Hydrocarbons
(B) 1 – 100 km (C) Hydrazines
(C) 10 – 50 km (D) Aromatic amines
(D) 1 – 10 km
6. Normality of 0.25 M phosphoric acid
is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.75 (D) 2.50
(D) March to May
codes given below :
3. Which of the following is not a List – I List – II
reactive oxygen species ? (Air (Sources /
(A) Hydrogen peroxide Pollutants) Activities)
(B) Hydroxyl ion a. Carbon 1. Coal burning

monoxide
(C) Singlet oxygen b. Nitrogen 2. Cigarette
(D) Superoxide anion oxide Smoking
c. Sulphur 3. Chemical reaction
dioxide with VOCs
4. If air quality standard for carbon
d. Ozone 4. Power and
monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the Industrial Plant
percentage as in mg/m3 at 1 atm. at
25 °C is Codes :
a b c d
(A) 10.3 mg/m3
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 15.2 mg/m3
(B) 1 2 3 4
3
(C) 20.0 mg/m (C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 5.6 mg/m3 (D) 4 3 2 1
Paper-II 2 D-89-13
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8. The gaseous material which is used 13. The chemical used in a fermenter
for the synthesis of Methyl with molasses as a substrate is
isocyanate is (A) Diammonium sulphate
(A) Chloranil (B) Diammonium phosphate
(B) Sevin (C) Diammonium nitrate
(C) Phosgene (D) Diammonium chloride
(D) Chlorine
of lotic ecosystem ?
9. During the determination of COD,
sulphanilic acid is added, because
(B) Pond ecosystem
(A) it maintains the acidic nature
(C) Bog ecosystem
(B) it precipitates the mercury ions
(C) it oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) it reacts with ferrous 15. Which pyramid is always straight ?
ammonium sulphate
10. Which year was declared as (C) Pyramid of energy
International Year of Biodiversity ?
(D) Pyramid of number and
(A) 2002 (B) 2010 biomass
(C) 2020 (D) 1972
16. Which of the following type of
materials present in a landslide
11. The forest biome characterised by suggest that the movement was
3-4 tree species/km2 is rotational ?
(A) Tropical (B) Temperate (A) Rockflow, Debris flow,
Earthflow
(C) Boreal (D) Taiga
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump,
Earth slump
12. Which of the following is a type of (C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
biodiversity extinction caused
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple,
primarily due to anthropogenic
Earth topple
activities ?
(A) Carboniferous rain forest
collapse 17. Which of the following parameters is
not a good indicator of contamination
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction in ground water ?
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction (A) BOD (B) Nitrates
(D) Holocene extinction (C) Silica (D) Chlorides
D-89-13 3 Paper-II
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18. On an aerial photograph, the distance 22. Assertion (A) : Tropical and
between the principal point and the subtropical seas are most
conjugate principal point is called suitable for OTEC.
(A) Relief Reason (R) : There is a certain
(> 25 °C/km) required for

(B) Tilt minimum vertical gradient
(C) Photo-base OTEC to become feasible.
(D) Focal length
Codes :
19. An equatorial west to east remote (R) is the correct explanation .
sensing satellite orbiting the earth at
an altitude of 36,000 km is called (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(A) Sun-synchronous satellite explanation.
(B) Geostationary satellite (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Space shuttle (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Stereo imager
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a

20. Which state of Cr (Chromium) is total of 500 million tonnes of CO2 is
most toxic ? released to the atmosphere. If the
(A) Cr4+ (B) Cr3+ entire amount of CO2 remains in the
atmosphere, what will be the rise in
(C) Cr5+ (D) Cr6+
the concentration of CO2 in ppm ?
(A) ~ 0.236 ppm (B) ~ 0.128 ppm
21. Assertion (A) : Groundwater may
get seriously contaminated in (C) ~ 2.312 ppm (D) ~ 1.216 ppm
coastal areas.
Reason (R) : Groundwater 24. A thermal power station has a heat
overdrafts near coastal areas rate of 12 mJ/kWh. Its thermal
can contaminate groundwater efficiency is
supplies by allowing salt water
to intrude into freshwater (A) 30% (B) 36%
aquifers. (C) 40% (D) 25%
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 25. Assume that world coal production is
(R) is the correct explanation of 6.1 billion tons per year and
(A). estimated total recoverable resources
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but of coal is 1.1 trillion tons. How long
(R) is not the correct it would take to use up those reserves
explanation of (A). at current rate of production ?
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (A) ~ 180 years (B) ~ 150 years
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. (C) ~ 120 years (D) ~ 90 years
Paper-II 4 D-89-13
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26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the 30. Assertion (A) : Eruption of the
salinity generally varies from top to volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991
bottom of the pond as spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
atmosphere. The following
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30% three years were cooler.
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35% Reason (R) : Sulphate aerosols
reflect sunlight away from the
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Earth.
Codes :
27. Which region among the following is (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
not Atmospheric Brown Cloud and (R) is correct explanation
(ABC) hotspot ? of (A).
(A) East-Asia (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B) South Africa and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(C) Amazon Basin in South
America (C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(D) Australia
31. Photolysis of NO2 occurs due to

28. Prolonged exposure to high levels of
radiations of wavelength
noise causes
(A) < 600 nm
(i) Hearing loss
(B) < 550 nm
(C) < 480 nm
(D) < 390 nm
(iv) Toxicity
Identify the correct answer : 32. The efficiency of removing SO2 from
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only the flue gas by limestone in wet
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only scrubbers can be as high as
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (A) 30% (B) 50%
(C) 70% (D) 90%
33. The depth of the oxidation ponds is

29. Azolla pinnata is a typically
(A) Blue green algae (A) 1 – 2 m
(B) Green algae (B) 2–5m
(C) Red algae (C) 5 – 10 m
(D) Fern (D) 10 – 20 m
D-89-13 5 Paper-II
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34. In EIA the baseline data describes 38. The Committee which reviews the
(A) The environmental Environmental Impact Assessment
consequences by mapping and Environmental Management plan
reports of a developmental project in
(B) Existing environmental status Ministry of Environment and Forest
of the identified study area is called
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis (A) Project Assessment Committee
of proposal
(D) Demographic and socio-
economic data (C) Project Evaluation Committee
35. Which one of the following does not
belong to EIA methods used for 39. In a typical municipal solid waste,
assessing the impacts of least percentage of Ash is found in
developmental activities on the
environment ? (A) Textiles (B) Plastic
(A) Checklist (B) Adhoc (C) Leather (D) Rubber
(C) Network (D) Flexible
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals
have flash point
(A) lower than 23 °C
36. The EIA report of a hydropower
project would be valid upto how
many years after the environmental
(B)
clearance of the project ?
(A) 5 years (C)
(B) 6 years (D) between 32 and 40 °C
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years 41. Which one of the following does not
contribute to climate change ?
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the (A) NO (B) O3

impact level of a developmental (C) SF6 (D) HFCs
project is not discernible, then what
step should be adopted ?
(A) Scoping stage is to be 42. A population (X) in an ecosystem
followed. follows logistic growth curve. If the
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be carrying capacity of the system is K,
conducted. the growth realisation factor is
(C) Detail EIA study is to be K–X K–X
(A) X (B) K
conducted.
(D) The project should be given K–X
(C) (D) (K – X)
Environmental Clearance. K2
Paper-II 6 D-89-13
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43. Which one of the following 47. What is Ecomark ?
conditions would indicate that the (A) Label given to recycled
dataset is not bell shaped ? products
(A) The mean is much smaller than (B) Label given to an environment
median friendly products
(B) The range is equal to five times (C) Land mark indicating the
the standard deviation. boundaries of bioparks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable
(C) The range is larger than products
interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard 48. An important source of Arsenic in
deviation. Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the (B) Rubber products
mean (μ) of the t-distribution is (C) Batteries
(A) Zero (D) Household pesticides
(B) 1
49. Which of the following is not a non-
(C) depends on df formal Environment Education and
Awareness Programme ?
(D) 2
(A) Global Learning and
Observations to Benefit the
Environment (GLOBE).
⎡ 3 –1 ⎤
45. Which of the following is an eigen
value of the matrix ⎢ ⎥?

(B) National Environment
⎣ 4 –2 ⎦ Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(A) 2 (B) 0
(D) Environmental Education in
(C) 1 (D) 3 School System
50. REDD stands for

46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of
water everyday for 70 years with a (A) Recurring Emission from
chloroform concentration of Deforestation and Forest
0.10 mg/L (the drinking water Degradation
standard), upper bound cancer risk (B) Reducing Environmental
for these individual will be Degradation and Forest
Degradation
(A) 17 in 1 million
(C) Reducing Emissions from
(B) 25 in 1 million Deforestation and Forest
(C) 37 in 1 million Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from
(D) 5 in 1 million Degradable Deposits of Wastes
D-89-13 7 Paper-II
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
D 89 1 4 (In words)

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ìü¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖéÂšü Ûêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü …
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛúß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×¤üµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ Ûú¸ü®Öß Æîü :
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛêú Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÝÖß ÛúÖÝÖ•Ö
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the Ûúß ÃÖß»Ö ÛúÖê ±úÖ›Ìü »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™üßÛú¸ü-ÃÖß»Ö Ûúß
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a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open (ii) Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯ÖéÂšü ¯Ö¸ü ”û¯Öê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯ÖéÂšü ŸÖ£ÖÖ
booklet. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûúß ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ ÛúÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “ÖîÛú Ûú¸ü »Öë ×Ûú µÖê ¯Öæ¸êü
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions Æïü … ¤üÖÂê Ö¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯ÖéÂšü/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûú´Ö ÆüÖë µÖÖ ¤ãü²ÖÖ¸üÖ †Ö
in the booklet with the information printed on the ÝÖµÖê ÆüÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸üµÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖË ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûúß
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö Ûú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any »ÖÖî™üÖÛú¸ü ˆÃÖÛêú Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ¤æüÃÖ¸üß ÃÖÆüß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ »Öê »Öë …
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately ‡ÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü ×¤üµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ®Ö
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ü ®Ö Æüß †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question †×ŸÖ×¸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ
given. ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) ×¤üµÖê
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
ÝÖµÖê Æïü … †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú ¾Öé¢Ö ÛúÖê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸üÛú¸ü ÛúÖ»ÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ Æîü
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß“Öê ×¤üÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
the correct response against each item. ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ :
Example : •Ö²Ö×Ûúú(C) ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Æîü …
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Ö¡Ö I Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü Æüß
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Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark ×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ ´Öæ»µÖÖÓÛú®Ö
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
not be evaluated. 6. †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ûêú †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯ÖéÂšü ¯Ö¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. µÖ×¤ü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸üÖê»Ö
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ®Ö´²Ö¸ü, ±úÖê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖê
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, •ÖîÃÖê ×Ûú †Ó×ÛúŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê ÝÖµÖê
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖê ×´Ö™üÖ®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±êú¤ü ÃµÖÖÆüß ÃÖê ²Ö¤ü»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê
means such as change of response by scratching or using †µÖÖêÝµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
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compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë … ÆüÖ»ÖÖÓ×Ûú †Ö¯Ö
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ ¯Ö¸ü ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
conclusion of examination. 10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ü ÛúÖ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô ®ÖÛúÖ¸üÖŸ´ÖÛú †ÓÛú ®ÖÆüà Æïü …
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. µÖ×¤ü †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß µÖÖ ØÆü¤üß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ ´Öë ÛúÖê‡Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×ŸÖ ÆüÖê, ŸÖÖê †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ
D-89-14 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – II
1. Thermal stratification of aquatic ecosystems takes place in

(A) tropical lakes (B) temperate lakes
(C) glacier lakes (D) meandering rivers
2. The scale length of pressure variations in atmosphere in vertical direction is about

(A) 3 km (B) 4.8 km
(C) 7 km (D) 12 km
3. Which radioactive element is considered as an indoor pollutant ?

(A) Oxygen – 18 (B) Nitrogen – 15
(C) Carbon – 13 (D) Radon
4. In a closed thermodynamic system, across its boundaries

(A) no transfer of heat is possible.
(B) no transfer of work is possible.
(C) transfer of heat is possible but not of work.
(D) transfer of heat and work is possible.
5. In an urban area, moist air at 27 °C has a mixing ratio of 50 gm per kg. Its virtual
temperature is
(A) 33.69 °C (B) 38.15 °C
(C) 36.15 °C (D) 32.30 °C
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6. Under aerobic biodegradation of DDT, which of the following compound is formed ?
(A) DDD (B) DDE
(C) DDN (D) DDS
7. Among the following heavy metals, which has highest concentration in earth’s crust ?
(A) Chromium (B) Copper
(C) Nickel (D) Zinc
8. Composition-wise halons are related to
(A) CFCs (B) Halides
(C) Hydrocarbons (D) Peptides
9. Which of the following gases has highest absorption co-efficient for solubility in water ?
(A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon dioxide
10. Quantity of glucose (MW 180) required to prepare 1000 ml of 5% solution is
(A) 5 g (B) 50 g
(C) 900 g (D) 9000 g
11. Endemic species are
(A) Uniformly distributed across the landscape
(B) Widely distributed
(C) Restricted to a particular area
(D) Continuously distributed globally
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12. Which of the following is the in-situ biodiversity conservation site ?
(A) Arboretum (B) Botanical garden
(C) Biosphere reserve (D) Orchidarium
13. The largest unit of climax communities representing well defined climatic zone is referred
to as
(A) Biosphere (B) Biome
(C) Biota (D) Landscape
14. An active, adaptive control process which is able to maintain the overall balance is known
as
(A) Bohr’s Hypothesis (B) Miller Hypothesis
(C) Gaia Hypothesis (D) Kepler’s Law
15. Niche of an organism is

(A) Address (B) Profession
(C) Location (D) Range
16. Out of the total fresh water volume of the frozen form constitutes
(A) 60 % (B) 70 %
(C) 80 % (D) 50 %
17. If Q = stream flow, P = precipitation, E = evapotranspiration, ∆S = net change in storage

and ∆T = net underground transfers, then the basic water balance equation is
(A) Q = (P + E) – (∆S + ∆T)
(B) Q = (P – E) – (∆S + ∆T)
(C) Q = (P – E) + (∆S + ∆T)
(D) Q = (P – E) – (∆S – ∆T)
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18. Particles with a diameter smaller than 0.002 mm are classed as
(A) Cobble (B) Pebble
(C) Silt (D) Colloids
19. Water storage capacity of which soil is maximum ?
(A) Sandy loam
(B) Loam
(C) Clay loam
(D) Heavy clay
20. Which among the following is not a hot desert ?
(A) Sahara (B) Kalahari
(C) Thar (D) Gobi
21. In an ideal MHD power generator, the maximum power P output varies with the velocity
(u) of conducting fuel as
(A) Pmax ∝ u (B) Pmax ∝ u2
(C) Pmax ∝ u3 (D) Pmax ∝ u3/2
22. Which is the most efficient energy source for producing electricity ?
(A) Nuclear power
(B) Hydro power
(C) Wind power
(D) Solar power
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23. Which of the following types of coal has highest water content ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Bituminous coal
(C) Lignite
(D) Subbituminous coal
24. Energy intensity is the amount of energy
(A) produced per unit gross domestic product
(B) consumed per unit gross domestic product
(C) produced per year per unit area of the country
(D) consumed per year per unit area of the country
25. Which is the cleanest fuel for power generation ?
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Water
26. The mountain that rises a kilometre or more above the surrounding sea floor is called
(A) Oceanic island
(B) Atoll
(C) Seamount
(D) Island arc
Paper-II 6 D-89-14
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27. Which form of As is most toxic ?
(A) As+3 (B) As+2
(C) As+6 (D) As+4
28. Noise climate is represented by
(A) L10 – L90
(B) Leq
(C) L50
(D) (L10 – L90)2 / 60
29. The classical smog is mainly composed of
(A) NOx and smoke particulates
(B) O3 and SO2
(C) SO2 and NOx
(D) SO2 and smoke particulates
30. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards the annual average concentration of
SPM in a residential area should not exceed
(A) 80 µg/m3 (B) 100 µg/m3
(C) 140 µg/m3 (D) 200 µg/m3
31. “Blue baby syndrome” is caused due to intake of water high in
(A) Ammonia (B) Nitrates
(C) Sulphates (D) Sulphides
D-89-14 7 Paper-II
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32. EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on
I. Geological Environment
II. Biological Environment
III. Aerial Environment
Codes :
(A) I only (B) II and III only
(C) I and III only (D) I, II and III
33. Accreditation of Environmental Consultant Organizations in India is done by
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(B) Central Pollution Control Board
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Quality Council of India
34. Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) does not include
(A) Life Cycle Inventory of the product
(B) Quantitative improvement in the process of the product
(C) Life Cycle Impact Analysis
(D) Emergency Preparedness Plan
35. A developmental project requires both environmental clearance as well as approval under
(A) Water Act, 1974
(B) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(C) National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995
(D) Air Act, 1981
Paper-II 8 D-89-14
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36. The best practice of disposal of construction and demolition (C & D) debris is
(A) Incineration (B) Recycling
(C) Land fills (D) Solidification
37. Pyrolysis of Solid Waste refers to
(A) High temperature aerobic incineration
(B) High temperature anaerobic distillation of waste for energy generation
(C) Ambient aerobic distillation
(D) Ambient anaerobic distillation
38. Kyoto Protocol of 1997 introduced the concept of carbon trading in the year of
(A) 2000 (B) 2004
(C) 2001 (D) 2002
39. Citizen’s Charter on Environment in the Constitution of India is embodied in
(A) Article 48 (B) Article 48A
(C) Article 49A (D) Article 51A
40. United Nation’s Conference on Environment and Development was held in
(A) December, 1993 (B) June, 1992
(C) December, 1995 (D) November, 1996
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41. The geometric mean of the numbers 4, 6 and 9 is
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 5 (D) 7
42. A complete enumerate of all items in the population is
(A) Unrestricted sampling
(B) Non-probability sampling
(C) Census
(D) Sample survey
43. The term ‘parameter’ is an attribute associated with the data pertaining to
(A) sample (B) population
(C) descriptive statistics (D) sampling technique
44. A solar cell of surface area = 5 cm2 delivers a current of 0.1 A at 0.6 V. If the intensity of
solar radiation impinging on the solar cell is 1.0 kW/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is
(A) 6 % (B) 3%
(C) 30 % (D) 12 %
45. Assertion (A) : Living systems exposed to drought salinity and freezing show enhanced
levels of osmolytes.
Reason (R) : Drought, salinity and freezing stress induce water deficit.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Paper-II 10 D-89-14
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46. UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development is
(A) 2000 – 2009 (B) 2005 – 2014
(C) 2010 – 2019 (D) 2020 – 2031
47. Two kinds of the values distinguished in environmental ethics are
(A) Instrumental value and intrinsic value
(B) Direct use values and social values
(C) Social values and existence value
(D) Indirect use value and aesthetic value
48. The natural sources of methyl bromide in the atmosphere is
(A) Ocean (B) Volcanoes
(C) Landslide (D) Vegetation
49. The part of an actual resource which can be developed profitably in the future is
(A) Non-renewable resources
(B) Potential resources
(C) Reserved resources
(D) Stock resources
50. Trophic state index of aquatic ecosystem is determined by the concentration of
(A) Chlorophyll-a (B) NO–

3
(C) PO4–3 (D) NO–

2
D-89-14 11 Paper-II
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Paper-II 12 D-89-14
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PAPER-II
1. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of abundance of the given elements in the
Earth's crust is :
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(A) iron, oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, aluminium, silicon, iron
(C) silicon, oxygen, iron, aluminium
(D) oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron
.c
2. Consider the following statement about the Himalayan orogeny :
(i) The orogeny resulted from the southward movement of the Indian plate
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(ii) The orogeny began about 25 million years ago
(iii) The orogeny closed about 1 million year ago
(iv) The Himalaya have a root of relatively light crustal rock projecting in the denser
=rnle
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Of the statements :
(A) (i) and (li) are correct
(B) (iii) and (iv) are correct
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(C) (i) and (iii) are correct

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct
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3. Which one of the following statement is true of braided stream ?

(A) Width of charmel is less than its depth
(B) Width and depth of a charmel are equal
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(C) Width of channel is greater than the depth

(D) Width and depth of a channel are unrelated
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4. Consider the following plagic deposits :

(i) Diatom ooze
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(ii) Globigerina ooze

(iii) Pteropod ooze
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(iv) Radiolarian ooze

The correct sequeru:e of occurrence of these pelagic deposits with increasing depth of
the ocean is:
(A) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
J-8906
5. Whlch one of the followllig pall-s of metals is commonly associated with copper ores ?
(A) Gold and molybdenum (B) Tin and lead
(C) J\.fangaTif<se and chromium (D) Platinum and nickel
6. In a vertical section across a sulphide deposit, the site representing the best situation for
supergene enrichment would be :
(A) above the water table (B) below the water table
(C) in the oxidation zoTif< (D) in the zoTif< rich in humus
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7. Who coined the tenn "Chronobiology" ?
(A) Franz Halberg (B) M.K. Chandrasekhar
(C) D.S. Farner (D) E. Bunning
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8. Addrainisdueto:
(A) production of S0 2 gas
(B) ｓｾ＠ gas converted to H 2S04
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(C) production of C02
(D) Hydrocarbon containing varying amount of hydrogen and carbon
If noctumal animal in the light dark cycle of 12 h light and 12 h dar:kn£,ss kept in constant
ra
9.
dar:kn£,ss for 10 days, then what will happen to the on set of its daily activities :
(A) start earlier than what was before
(B) start later than what was before
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(C) no change in the activity time

(D) activities remain on throughout the dark period
xa
10. Whenever there is high BOD, DO is less so much that fish cannot survive, because :
(A) Fish utilize all oxygen (B) Bacteria utilize all oxygen
(C) Algae utilize all oxygen (D) Biological compounds are toxic to fish
.e
11. The drinking water contaminated with E. Coli is not safe even after ordinary filtration,
but if subjected to RO treabnent it is much safe, because :
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(A) RO treatment kills bacteria

(B) RO treabnent geTif<rates 0 3 that kills bacteria
(C) There is a filtration at molecular level in RO system
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(D) RO treatment geTif<rate chlorinf< gas that kills bacteria

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12. In a water body, there was food chain starting from planton to eagle. 0.3 PPT DDT
was the coru:entration in the water, but in eagle's body it was found to be 25 PPNI,
This'
(A) phenomenon is called as bioabsorption
(B) phenomenon is called as biodesorption
(C) phenomenon is called as biomagnification
(D) phenomenon is called as biotransfonnation
J-8906 P.T.O.
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13. For the vehicles using petrol OTif< must carry valid PUC. To get such certificate one
must have following parameters, in exhaust, below limits as prescribed by the
authorities :
(A) Oz 0 3 and SPM
(B) CO, HC
(C) CO and C0 2
(D) CO, C0 2 and the temperature of the exhaust
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14. You are estimating a 'X' compound by colorimetry. Final, stable colour is pink. Which
filter you will use to record your reading ? Filter having maximum transmission at:
(A) 420 run (B) 540 run (C) 660 run (D) 700 run
15. Carbon moxide is poisonous to human because :
.c
(A) ltcausesmutations (B) ltisverysolubleinblood
(C) It is combustible gas (D) It strongly binds to heme
16.
ce
Separation of compounds in Gas Onomatography (GC) depend upon:
(A) Molecular weight
(B) Solubility in carrier gas
ra
(C) Solubility in stationary phase
(D) Solubility in carrier gas and liquid phase
m
17. To understand the 3D structure of the molecule following technique is used :

(A) X ray diffraction
(B) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
xa
(C) MPTLC
(D) GC- MS/MS
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18. Which element carmot be estimated by flame photometry ?

(A) Na+ (B) K (C) U (D) Fe
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19. Electrophoresis cannot resolve molecules like :

(A) Proteins (B) Nucleic Adds
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(C) DNA fragments (D) Simple lipids
Which of the following instrument is most suitable to estimate heavy metals from the
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20.
effluent ?
(A) Chromatography (B) Atomic Absorption spectrophotometer
(C) Flame photometer (D) Electrophoresis
21. Which compound initiates the curling of root hairs in legumes ?

(A) IAA (B) Gibberellin (C) Ethylene oxide (D) Auxin
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22. Whlch one of the followllig is the microsymbiont in Azalia Anabaena symbiosis ?
(A) Azalia (B) Anabaena
(C) None of the above (D) Both (A) and (B)
23. Whlch of the followllig bacterium produces Bt toxin?

(A) Bacillussubtilis (B) Bacillus tlrrungeTif<sis
(C) Bacillus stereothennophillus (D) Bacillus thennoruber
om
24. The scientist who got the first patent for geTif<tically modified bacterium used for
biodegradation of oil :
(A) Wickerham (B) Chakraborty (C) Khurana (D) Beijemick
25. U.guminous plants are recommended for rotation of crops, because they :
.c
(A) kill insects (B) require little amount of water
(C) help in nitrogen fixation (D) are cash crops
ce
26. The compounds responsible for the proliferation of algal blooms in water bodies are :
(A) Nitrates and chlorides (B) Nitrates and phosphates
(C) Phosphates and silicates (D) Nitrates and carbonates
ra
27. Whlch of the chlorinf< compound is used for the disinfection of municipal supply water?
(A) Hypochlorite (B) Calcium chloride
(C) Potassium pennanganate
m
(D) l\1agnesium chloride
28. The colour of golden rice is due to the presence of :

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(A) Vitamin (B) Carotenoid (C) Flavonoid (D) Dye
29. The fungi most commonly involved in ectomycorrhizal association are :

(A) Basidiomycetes (B) Ascomycetes
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(C) Phycomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes
30. The pinK colouration of the root nodules of leguminous plants is due to :
w
(A) Hemoglobin (B) U.ghemoglobin (C) Nitrosoamine (D) Bilirubin

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31. Upto 100 km, the scale length of the variation in pressure with altitude is :
(A) - 12 km (B) - 1.8 km (C) -7 km (D) - 3.2 km
w
32. The third moment of the data set 1, 2, 0, 3, 4 is :

(A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 4
33. If the coefficient of correlation is r, then the coefficient of detennination is :
(A) .Jr (C) r (D) ,,

-o
J-8906 P.T.O.
34. For a Binomial distr:ibutionifp is the probability of happening of aneventandq ｾＱＭｰＬ＠
then the variaru:e in a sample of N observations would be :
(A) Npq (B) JNpq (C) .JN/pq (D) ｰｱＯｾ＠
35. In fusion reaction involving Deuterium atoms D+ ｄｾｈＮＬｊ＠ +n +X, the eTif<rgy released
Xis:
(A) - 17.6 ]l..ff,V (B) - 32 MeV (C) -1 MeV (D) -4MeV
om
36. Which of the following noise indices is used in ascertaining the quality of noise
environment according to VIIHO standards ?
(A) Lso (B) Lw
.c
(C) Leq for 8 hours (D) Instantaneous sound pressure level
37. The contribution of ｃｾ＠ in climate change is estimated to be about :
ce
(A) -57% (B) - 85% (C) - 90% (D) - 80%
38. Cost- Benefit Analysis seeks to analyse cost and benef:ita of a project in tenns of :
ra
(A) Monetary gains
(B) Social gain/loss
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(C) Environmental and moTif<tary gains/losses
(D) Social and Environmental costa and gains
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39. The size distribution of suspended particulate matter in urban environment tends to
follow which of the following distributions :
(A) Binomial (B) Poisson (C) Nonnal (D) Lognonnal
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40. An increase of 1 ppm in atmospheric coru:entration of C0 2 corresponds to an increase

of carbon in atmosphere equivalent to an amount :
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(A) -5.1x106Tons (B) -12.5x1o6Tons

(C) - 1.4x 109 Tons (D) - 2.12 Gigatons
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41. Precautionary principle is a guiding rule in:

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(A) Cost benefit analysis (B) Cost effective analysis

(C) Environmental impact analysis (D) Environmental Audit
42. A company or organization can go to ISO 14000 certification providedithas an ongoing

EnvironmentalJ\.fanagement System in operation for atleast :
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 1 year (D) 5 years
J -8906
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43. The National ambient air quality standard for Respirable Suspended Particulate ]\.fatter
(RSPM) in residential area recommends annual average coru:entrations in (l!.gjm3) not
exceeding :
(A) 100 )J.g/m3 (B) 200 )J.g/m 3 (C) 400 )J.g/m3 (D) 500 )J.g/m3
44. For dumping of radio active nuclear waste which of the following is the recommended
site:
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(A) Saltmines (B) Oceans (C) Deserts (D) River beds
45. Which of the following coal types has the highest calorific value ?
(A) Peat ｾＩ＠ Ugnite (C) Anthracite (D) Bituminous
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"· Which is the largest ecosystem in the world ?
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(A) Forests ｾＩ＠ Deserts (C) Oceans (D) Rivers
"· Which is the most abundant element in hot water springs ?

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(A) nitrogen ｾＩ＠ sulphur (C) carbon (D) phosphorous
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48. Assertion (A) Tropospheric ozoTif< eilits in urban areas.
Reason (R) The photochemical reactions involving oxides of nitrogen
produces 0 3.
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(C) (A)istruebut(R)isfalse
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49. A protein can be fanned from any sequence of amino adds. How many different
sequeru:es can be obtained from a protein composed of 100 amino acids ?
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(A) 100 (B) 10020 (C) 10o4° (D) 20100

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50. The last Earth Summit was held in which city?

(A) Rio de jaTif<iro (B) Kyoto
(C) Hague (D) johannesburg
-0 0 0-
J -8906 P.T.O.
PAPER-II
1. Which of the following statement about Fjord is incorrect ?
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(A) Most Fjords were formed due to raise in sea level after the melting of
PleistoceTif< ice
(B) It is an emergent coast that was originally submerged
(C) It is a long narrow inlet of the sea bound by steep slopes
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(D) It is a glaciated valley that has been inundated by the sea
2.
between 'd' and 'V' is given by :
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Given 'd' as particle size and 'V' settling velocity in em/ sec_, the correct relationship
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(A) ｶｾＭ
'
d"
ｾＩ＠
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ｶｾ､ｮ＠
(C) ｶｾ､＠
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(D) ｶｾＭ
'
d"
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3. Residence time of water molecule in the ocean is :

(A) 3.5 years
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ｾＩ＠ 3.5 million years

(C) 35 years
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(D) 35000 years

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4. Hyperplasia means:
(A) excessive motility of a muscle
(B) Voracious eating
(C) Abnonnal increase in number of cells
(D) An iru:rease in size of a cell
J-8907
5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation in the range :
(A) 5.5 and 7 microns
(B) Greater than 27 microns
(q 8 to 13 microns
(D) 0.1 to 30 microns
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6. Sodium is usually estimated by which of the following analytical technique:
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(A) Flame Photometry
(B) Coulometry
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(Q High pressure liquid chromatography
(D) Visible spectrophotometry

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7. Which combination of the following elements constitute a major portion of earth
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c=•
(A) Oxygen and Silicon
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(B) Oxygen and Iron
(Q Silicon and Iron

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(D) Aluminium and Iron

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8. Assertion (A) : Gtlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.

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Reason (R) : These compounds contsin Gtlorine, Bromine and FluoriTif<.

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(Q (A)istruebut(R)isfalse
J -8907 P.T.O.
'
9. The chemical composition of CFC-115 is:
(A) C 2F5 Cl
(B) C 2FC15
(C) CHOF2
(D) ｃＲｊＭｇｆＲｃｾ＠
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10. J\.faximum Density of water is at:
(A) 4°C
(B) ooc
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(C) 100°C
(D) 27YC
11. The cause of lung cancer Mesothalemia is :

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(A) Asbestos
ｾＩ＠ Arsenic
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(C) Mercury
(D) Chromium
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12. Which of the following pattem of evolution accounts for all the diversity present on
earth today ?
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(A) Microevolution
ｾＩ＠ Mega evolution

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(C) Biodiversity
(D) Speciation
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13. Group of individuals of the same species that share common attributes are called :
(A) Community
ｾＩ＠ Population
(C) &otype
(D) Society
J -8907
'
14. Whlch one of the followllig is the correct food chain?
(A) Algae-+ Daphnia-+ Dragon Fly Nymph-+ Newt-+ Grass Snake
(B) Daphnia-+ Dragon Fly Nymph--tNewt--tAlgae--tGrass Snake
(C) Grass Snake-+Newt-+Dragon Fly Nymph-+ Daphnia-+Algae
(D) Newt--tGrass Snake--tDragon Fly Nymph--tAlgae--t Daphnia
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15. l\1ab:h the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answers using codes
given below :
.c
Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ Fohn wllid (i) Analogous to rainbow
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ｾＩ＠ Fog bow (ii) Herbivorous plants
(c) Forbs (iii) W ann winds descending from mountains

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(d) Fore shock (iv) Earthquake
Code:
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(b) (c) (d)
(A) '"'
(i) (li) (iii) (lv)
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ｾＩ＠ (iii) (ii) (lv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (lv)
"'
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(D) (iii) (i) (ri) (lv)

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16. Assertion (A) : ]l..funsoonal rainfall is very high both on the west coast and northeast
India.
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Reason (R) : The duration of monsoon over west coast and northeast India is longer
than other parts of India.
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J -8907 P.T.O.
17. l\1ab:h the climatic categories in List- II for places in List- I using the codes given
below:
Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ Delhi (i) Arid
ｾＩ＠ Mumbai (ii) Semi Arid
(c) jodhpur (iii) Moist Sub humid
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(d) Shillong (iv) Per Humid
Code:
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(b) (c) (d)
(A)
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(ii) (iii) (i) (lv)
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ｾＩ＠ (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) "'

"'
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(D) (i) (li) (lv) (iii)
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18. l\1ab:h the items in List - I with List - II and select the correct answers using codes
given below :
xa
Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ Lignite (i) Bikaner

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ｾＩ＠ Asbestos (ii) Chotanagpur
(c) Titanium (iii) Southem l\1alabar

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(d) Iron (iv) Ratnagiri

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Code:
(b) (c) (d)

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(A) (i) (li) (lii) (lv)
ｾＩ＠ (i) (li) (lv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (lii) (lv)
(D) (ii) (i) (lv) (iii)
J-8907
'
19. Whlch one of the following statements reganling ELNINO is NOT true ?
(A) It is an extension of equitorial current towards the westem coast of South
America.
(B) It is an occasional wann currentleadingto an increase of about10T in subsurface
water temperature.
(Q It develops as temporary replacement of usual cold Peruvian Current.
(D) It causes an iru:rease in planKton thriving in cold Peruvian current.
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20. The process of alluviation indicates :
(A) Removal of particles from the upper layer of soil
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(B) Removal of particles from lower layer of soil
(Q Deposition of soil particles in sub-soil layer
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(D) Transportation of soil particles in the B-horizon
21. Whlch one of the following is the cleanest source of eTif<rgy ?

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(A) Hydropower
(B) Fossilfuel
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(Q Nuclear power
(D) Wind energy
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22. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using codes given
below:
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Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ CCC (>) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
co,
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ｾＩ＠ (ri) Global Wanning

(c) 'OD (rii) Ozone depletion
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(d) we (lv) Water pollution

Code:
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(b) (c) (d)
(A) '"'
(iii) (ii) (lv) (i)
ｾＩ＠ (iv) (iii) (i) (li)
(C) (i) (li) (iii) (lv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
J-8907 P.T.O.
23. The global warrrringefficiency of a CFC molecule in relation to a C0 2 molecule is higher
by a factor of :
(A) 125
(B) 25
(C) 20,000
(D) 1500
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24. Arsenic problem in India is primarily due to :
(A) Overexploitation of arsenopyrite in the hinterland
(B) Overexploitation of coal in Bihar and Bengal
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(C) Overexploitation of ground water in the affected areas
(D) Overexploitation of surface water in the affected areas
"· Add rain is caused by :

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(A) CO and C02
ｾＩ＠ so2 and o 2

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(C) S02 and N02
(D) N0 2 and 0 2
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26. What will be the outcome of eutrophication of surface waters ?

(A) Overproduction of biomass
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(B) Decrease in nitrogen concentration

(C) Decrease in phosphorus concentration
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(D) Decrease in both nitrogen and phosphorus concentrations.

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27. Assertion (A) : Negatively charged soil particles attract positive ions like ca++ and
Mgff
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Reason (R) : The attraction keeps the ions at soil level for ready availability.
J -8907
below:
Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ The audible frequency range is (i) 201'-Pa to 200Pa
ｾＩ＠ The audible sound level pressure is (ii) 20 - 20,000 Hz
(c) Ratio of Intensity to a reference (iii) Equivalent continuous sound
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Intensity of sound expressed in level (Leq)
log scale is
(d) Energy content for varying sound (iv) Decibel

levels
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Code:
(b) (c) (d)

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(A)
ｾＩ＠
(ii)
(i)
(i)
(li)
(iv)
(iii)
(rii)
(lv)
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(Q (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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29. Cost Benefit analysis is required in case of proposals involving clearance of forest
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land:
(A) Greater than 10ha but less than 20ha

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(B) Greater than 20ha
(Q Greater than 5ha but less than 10ha

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(D) Greater than 40ha only

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30. &ologically sensitive and important areas, breeding and spawnllig grounds of marine
life etc., are categorized in coastal Regulation ZoTif< as :
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(A) CRZ-N
ｾＩ＠ 0\.Z -II
(Q 0\.Z -Ill
(D) CRZ _,
J -8907 9 P.T.O.
31. A management tool comprisillg a systematic, periodic and objective evaluation of how
well an environmental organization, management and equipment are perfonning is
known as:
(A) Raw material balaru:e
(B) Input- output analysis
(C) Acturities at site
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(D) Environmental audit
32. Choose right expansion of CITES of 1975:
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(A) Centre for International Training in Endangered Species of VIT:ild Fauna and Flora
(B) Committee on International Trade and Environment and Sustainable
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Development
(C) Council of Indian Trade and Environmental Survey of VIT:ild Fauna and Flora
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(D) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of VIT:ild Fauna and
Flora
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33. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer usillg codes given
below:
xa
Ust- I Ust- II
ＨｾＩ＠ Montreal Convention (1) Ozone depletion

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ｾＩ＠ Rio- Summit (ii) Greenhouse gas
(c) Ramsah Convention (iii) Convention on Biological diversity

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(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlanda convention

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Code:
(b) (c) (d)

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(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (lv)
ｾＩ＠ (iv) (iii) (i) (ri)
(C) (i) (lii) (iv) (ri)
(D) (i) (li) (lv) (iii)
J-8907
34. The least preferred technique in the disposal of municipal solid waste is :
(A) incineration
ｾＩ＠ composting
(Q land filling
(D) bricketting
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35. Bacterial decomposition of biological material under aerobic condition is:
(A) Fermentation
ｾＩ＠ Fertilization
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(Q Contamination
(D) Composting
36.
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When you go for shopping. what are you expected to do to save environment?
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(A) Shop for products that have as little packaging as possible.
(B) In any store, use a bag even it is not T!ff<ded.
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(Q Do not reduce the frequency of shopping.
(D) Buy paper towels and napkins.
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below:
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Ust- I Ust- II
(a) polyethyleTif< terephthalate (1) detergent bottles

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(b) high density polyethyleTif< (ii) beverage bottles

(c) vinyl low density polyethyleTif< (iii) shampoo bottles
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(d) polypropylene (iv) cooking oil bottles

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Code:
(A) (a) and (ii)
ｾＩ＠ (b) and (lii)
(Q (c) and (i)

(D) (d) and (iv)
J-8907 n P.T.O.
38. In the analysis of 15 water samples, Ca and Mg gave a correlation of +0.95. It
means:
(A) Ca came from soil and Mg came from biota
(B) Ca and Mg both came from the same type of water
(C) Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
(D) Ca and ]l..fg came from different sources.
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39. If a piece of metal weighs 10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and 7.8g in another liquid, then
what will be the specific gravity of the liquid?
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(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C)
(D)
2.0
3.0
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40. The geometric mean of the numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is :
m
(A) 12
(B) 16
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(C) 8
(D) 32
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41. The correlation coefficient between the variables X, Y as given in the following table :
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X e 0 9 11 14
' ' '
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is:
' ' ' ' '
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(A) -0.977
ｾＩ＠ -0.517
(C) +0.977
(D) +0.217
J -8907
42. Climatic stress is caused by insufficient and/ or excessive regime of :
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
(Q Solar radiation
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(D) All the above
43. The chemical that is used to ripen mangoes is :
.c
(A) Calcium sulphide
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(B) Calcium carbide
(Q Calcium carbonate
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(D) Calcium chloride
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44. Which two of the following statements regarding ISO 14000 series of standards are
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true? Answer choosing the code given below :
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based on a principle assumption that better
envirollll"\ental management will lead to better environmental perfonnaru:e.
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(ii) ISO 14000 standards are regulatory standards developed by ISO

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(iii) ISO 14000 standsrds are market driven and therefore are based on voluntary
involvement of all interests in the market place.
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(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a one time commibnent

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(A) (i) and (ii)
ｾＩ＠ (ii) and (lii)
(Q (i) and (lii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
J-8907 P.T.O.
"
45. Organisms that generate eTif<rgy using light are :
(A) oligotrophs
(B) chaemorganotrophs
(C) chaemolithotrophs
(D) photoautotrophs
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46. Conversion of 2§4ru to 2§!u involves the following types of decay :
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(A) a and 13
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(B) aandy
(C) l3and y
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(D) onlyl3
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47. Land use pattem is usually studied by the following technique :

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(A) Aerial photography
(B) Satellite imaging

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(C) Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
(D) Satellite imaging. G. I. S. and G. P. S.

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48. To conserve coral reefs the Govt. of India declared one of the following as marine
park:
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(A) Gulf of Kutch
(B) Lakshadweep islands
(C) Gulf of J\.farmar
(D) Andaman Islands
J -8907 14
49. Whlch OTif< of the following does not contribute to conservation of water :
(A) Waste water treabnent
(B) Waste land development
(Q Water shed protection
(D) Rain water harvesting
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50. Particle size in soil can be classified as clay : 1-4 micron. Silt 4-62 micron.
Sand: 62-1000 micron ; Boulder: >1000 micron It is heru:e correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution follows :
(A) Binomial distribution
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(B) Lognonnal distribution
(Q Unear distribution
(D) Nonnal distribution
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-0 0 0-
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J-8907 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
2. (Signature) Roll No.
(In words)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
J8 9 0 8 PAPERII
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J8908 1 P.T.O.
PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
1. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is necessary for the survival of human race
Reason (R) : Rapid economic growth without environmental concerns cannot be
om
sustained.
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false
(B) (A) is false and (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation
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(D) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct explanation
2. The spatial scale of meso scale meteorological phenomena is approximately :
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(A) 2 - 3 km to 5 - 6 km (B) few km to 100 km
(C) few 100 m to few km (D) 10 mm to 1 km
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3. The mass of the earths mantle is approximately :
(A) 231025 gm (B) 8 131017 gm
(C) 4.0531027 gm (D) 3.131022 gm
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4. When the environmental lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere
xa
is :
(A) Stable (B) Moderately unstable
(C) Highly unstable (D) Neutral
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5. The standard hydrogen electrode, the pressure of hydrogen and hydrogen ion
concentration respectively are :
(A) 1 atm ; 10 m (B) 10 atm ; 1m
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(C) 1 atm ; 1 m (D) 1 atm ; m/10

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6. Consider the following statements :

(i) Entropy in a spontaneous reaction increases
w
(ii) Free energy in a spontaneous reaction increases

(iii) Free energy remains constant when reaction is in equilibrium
(iv) Free energy increases in a reverse reaction
Which of these are correct :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) none of the above
J8908 2
7. Assertion (A) : Increased level of Arsenic in water is a health hazard.
Reason (R) : Arsenic has antagonistic behaviour with other metals, its dietary
requirement is in trace amount and shows speciation.
(A) Both (A) and (R) true
(B) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
om
8. One liter of water contains :
(A) 55.536.0231023 H2O molecules
(B) 25.536.0231023 H2O molecules
(C) 1.036.0231023 H2O molecules
(D) 100036.0231023 H2O molecules
.c
9. When terrestrial plant communities progress with time from successional to climax
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stage :
(i) Standing crop biomass increases
(ii) Net ecosystem productivity increases
(iii) Gross productivity per unit of standing crop biomass decreases
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(iv) Biomass supported per unit of energy flow decreases.
Which of the following combination is correct :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i)) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
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10. Assertion (A) : Hot spots are the region showing richness of endemic species.
Reason (R) : The distribution of endemic species are confined to a specific region.
xa
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
.e
(D) (A) is false but R) is true
11. Trophic structure may be shown graphically by ecological pyramids; which of the
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following ecological pyramid will always have a true upright pyramid shape :
(A) Pyramid of numbers (B) Pyramid of biomass
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(C) Pyramid of energy (D) All of the above
12. Species diversity is generally higher in ecosystem experiencing :

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(A) No disturbance (B) Moderate disturbance

(C) High disturbance (D) Drastic disturbance
13. Those Planktons which have dimensions in the range of 2 - 20mm are known as :
(A) Micro plankton (B) Nano plankton
(C) Peri plankton (D) Pico plankton
J8908 3 P.T.O.
14. Assertion (A) : Plants are not auxotrophs.
Reason (R) : Plants can synthesize all the growth factors they need.
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true
(D) (A) is true and (R) is false
15. Assertion (A) : Decomposition of hydrocarbons is favoured in neutral soil.
om
Reason (R) : Neutral pH favours the greatest populations of micro organisms.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) (A) is true (R) is false
.c
16. A majority of the antibiotics are derived from actinomycetes come from members of the
genus :
ce
(A) Nocardia (B) Streptomyces
(C) Micromonospora (D) Actinomyces
17. Germanys poison gas in World War I was developed by :

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(A) Knowels (B) Haber (C) Hitlor (D) Stevenson
18. Which of the following nitrogen fixers is found in philosophers :

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(A) Azotobacter (B) Clostridium

(C) Klebsiella (D) Rhodospirillum
xa
19. Thiobacillus and Beggiatoa play an important role in the :

(A) water cycle on Earth (B) Phosphorus cycle
(C) Sulfur cycle in the soil (D) Breakdown of sewage
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20. One of the purpose of secondary treatment of industrial waste water and sewage is
to :
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(A) increase the chlorine content (B) reduce the BOD

(C) encourage the formation of PCBs (D) discourage ammonification
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21. AGENDA 21 specifically advocates to devise strategies to :

(A) Promote economic growth to support increasing human population with adequate
w
environment care
(B) Control human population explosion, resource over use and deteriorating
environmental quality
(C) Halt and reverse the effects of environmental degradation to promote sustainable
and environmentally sound development
(D) Promote economic development and environmental with a view to reduce poverty
and faster human welfare
J8908 4
22. Eutrophication of water bodies is triggered by :
(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(B) Excessive growth of fishes
(C) Excessive inflow of nutrients
(D) Bright sunlight
23. Under montreal protocol, developing countries are required to phase out the HCFCs
by the year :
(A) 2030 (B) 2010 (C) 2020 (D) 2040
om
24. Identify the correct sequence of gases in the increasing order of their global warming
potential :
(A) CH4 < N2O < CFC < SF6 (B) CO2 < N2O < CH4 < CFC
(C) CO2 < CH4 < SF6 < CFC (D) N2O < CH4 < CO2 < CFC
.c
25. In a simple regression consisting of dependent variable Y, independent variable X and
random error term e, Y5a1bX1e , the expectation value < e > is :
ce
(A) 0 (B) a/b (C) b/a (D) (b2a)
26. If p and q are the probabilities of success and failure, respectively in a trial and N is the
total number of trials, the variance is :
ra
p q
(A) npq (B) npq (C) n (D) n
q p
m
27. If S54 is the standard deviation of sample size 20 drawn from a normal distribution
with standard deviation s52, the value of Ψ 2 (chi-square) statistic is :
xa
(A) 40 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 80
28. Under unstable atmospheric conditions, the plum rise (Dh) above the stack varies with
wind speed (u) at stack height as :
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(A) Dh;u (B) Dh; 1/u (C) Dh;u1/3 (D) Dh;u21/3
29. The geometric mean of the data 2, 4, 27 is :

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(A) 6 (B) 6 6 (C) 16.5 (D) 33

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30. Bulking of sewage sludge is frequently associated with :

(A) High C : N ratio (B) High C : P ratio
(C) High dissolved oxygen (D) All of the above
w
31. Which of the following is removed from waste water by :

(A) Phosphates (B) Organic Compounds
(C) Ammonia (D) Sulphates
32. The bacteria responsible for deposition of iron oxide in water pipes :
(A) Gallionella (B) Klebsiella (C) Thermococcus (D) Helicobacter
J8908 5 P.T.O.
33. Assertion (A) : In electrostatic precipitator corona discharge is used for removing
particulate particles from the gas stream.
Reason (R) : The corona discharge creates an electric field, which makes the particles
settle down.
om
34. Which of the following affects the ozone concentration in troposphere :
(A) CO (B) N2 (C) SO 2 (D) CO 2
35. Assertion (A) : While characterizing the size of an aerosol particle aerod namic
diameter is used.
Reason (R) : The aerosol particle may be of irregular shape.
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(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
ce
36. The noise index Lgo refers to :

(A) Background noise level (B) Peak noise level
ra
(C) Average noise level (D) 90%
37. Fission of 1 gm of 235U liberates energy equivalent to about :

m
(A) 5.7 barrels of crude oil (B) 13.7 barrels of crude oil
(C) 18.7 barrels of crude oil (D) 22.7 barrels of crude oil
xa
38. To increase the power output from a MHD power plant, which of the following
compounds is used :
(A) ZnO (B) Fe2O3 (C) Cs2O3 (D) SiO2
.e
39. Assertion (A) : Geothermal reservoirs with temperatures above 1808C are useful for
generating electric power.
Reason (R) : High temperature steam can be used to drive turbines to generate
w
electricity.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the ecorrect explanation of (A)
w

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40. The optimum range of wind speeds for wind power generation is :
(A) 2 - 4 m/sec (B) 1 - 2 m/sec
(C) 4 - 12 m/sec (D) 15 - 20 m/sec
41. Deep sea ferromanganese nodules are found on :

(A) Oceanic plateau (B) Oceanic ridges
(C) Oceanic islands (D) Oceanic plains
J8908 6
42. In ocean regime carbonate compensation depth (CCD) implies :
(A) Precipitation of carbonate (B) Dissolution of carbonate
(C) Evaporation of carbonate (D) Sublimation of carbonate
43. Which of the following statement is NOT correct :

Carcinogenic agents like pesticides are mutagens which may cause.
(A) Change in chromosome
(B) Change in nucleotide sequence in DNA of sperms or eggs, which is inherited
(C) Change in nucleotide sequence in DNA of somatic cells is inherited
om
(D) Change in DNA sequence may be due to generation of free radicals in the cells
44. According to the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, what is the upper monetary limit
for drawing insurance policies by the owners for handling any hazardous substance :
(A) Rs. 5 Crores (B) Rs. 50 Crores
.c
(C) Rs. 500 Crores (D) Rs. 1000 Crores
45. Hospital waste has to be disposed off by :
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(A) handing over to hazardous waste management site
(B) burring 3 meters below the ground
(C) burring 10 meters below the ground
(D) incineration
ra
46. Which of the following industries do not produce hazardous waste :
(A) Electroplating (B) Chemical
(C) Sugar (D) Pharmaceutical
m
47. Four stages viz Initiation, Inventory analysis, Impact assessment and improvement
assessment are associated with :
xa
(A) LCA (B) EIA

(C) Environmental Audit (D) Environmental Impact - Statement
48. When industry with Red category is to be established, it is necessary to have public
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hearing or inquiry under the procedure called as :

(A) Environmental Health Hazard (EHH)
(B) Environmental Litigation (EL)
w
(C) En ironmental Management System (EMS)

(D) Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
w
49. The National Ambient Air Quality Standard for 1 hour average concentration
(mg/m3) of CO in restricted area is :
w
( ) 2 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 20
50. For aerosol particles of size comparable to wavelengths of either shortwave radiation
or infra-red radiation, the following type of scattering takes place :
(A) Rayleigh scattering (B) Mie scattering
(C) Raman scattering (D) Brillouin scattering
-oOo-
J8908 7 P.T.O.
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.c
ce
ra
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xa
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J8908 8
PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1
1 1 (In words)

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
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(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û µÖê ¯Öæ¸ê
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or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a »ÖÖî™ÖÛ ¸ ˆÃÖÛê Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë …
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of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. †×ŸÖ×¸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤µÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
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should be entered on this Test Booklet. ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
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and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the ÝÖµÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¤ß‘ÖÔ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ
correct response against each item. Æî •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æî …
Example : A B D ˆ¤ÖÆ¸ÞÖ : A B D
where (C) is the correct response. •Ö²Ö×Û (C) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî …
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not be evaluated. ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ …
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6. †®¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë …
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any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the ®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ µÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ“ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖê
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , µÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêÝµÖ
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û µÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ‹¾ÖÓ OMR ˆ¢Ö¸-¯Ö¡ÖÛ
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤ µÖ Û Öê »ÖÖî™ Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛ Æî †Öî¸ ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆ¸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ •ÖÖµÖë …
Examination Hall. 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë …
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸Öë Ûê ×»Ö‹ Û Öê‡Ô †ÓÛ Û Ö™ê ®ÖÆà •ÖÖ‹ÑÝÖê …
J-89-11 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – II
1. Identify the correct sequence of 5. Utilitarian conservation theory was

energy flow through various levels established by
of an ecosystem : (A) Roosevelt and Pinchot
(A) Sun’s energy → Primary (B) John Muir
producers → Carnivores (C) Rachel Carson
(B) Sun’s energy → Primary (D) Brundtland
producers → Carnivores →
Herbivores 6. Ozone undergoes photolysis due to
(C) Sun’s energy → Herbivores → ultra-violet radiations of wavelength
Primary producers (A) < 315 nm
(D) Sun’s energy → Primary (B) < 400 nm
producers → Herbivores → (C) < 500 nm
Carnivores (D) < 600 nm
2. When environmental lapse rate is 7. Which of the following types of

more than dry adiabatic lapse rate, pesticides are least biodegradable ?
the atmosphere is said to be in
(A) Organo chloro compounds
(A) Stable state (B) Organo phosphorous
(B) Unstable state compounds
(C) Neutral state (C) Organo carbamates
(D) Conditionally stable state (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following accounts for 8. MgSO4 can be expressed as

nearly 75% of the available fresh (A) 120 equivalent of CaCO3
water in the world ?
(A) Groundwater (B) 117 equivalent of CaCO3
(B) Glaciers (C) 195 equivalent of CaCO3
(C) River water (D) 84 equivalent of CaCO3
(D) Lakes
9. Cattle waste has COD several times
4. The summers in Taiga climatic zone higher than BOD because of
are (A) high levels of fibre
(A) hot, humid and long (B) high levels of microflora
(B) warm and short (C) high levels of cellulose
(C) cool, rainy and short (D) high levels of fibre, cellulose
(D) hot and dry and lignin
Paper-II 2 J-89-11
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10. In urban areas, the main constituents 14. Hyporhric biodiversity is linked with
of photochemical smog in winter (A) Ecotone of surface water and
season are groundwater
(A) SO2 + NOx + PAN (B) Ecotone of terrestrial and
aquatic ecosystem
(B) Hydrocarbons + CO + PAN (C) Groundwater
(C) Hydrocarbons + SO2 + PAN (D) Asian region
(D) Hydrocarbons + NOx + O3 +

15. E. coli displays diauxic growth
PAN
pattern when grown in a medium
containing
11. Redox potential in soil is governed (A) glucose and fructose
by (B) glucose and citrate
(C) glucose and lactose
(A) strong oxidizing agent
(D) glucose alone
(B) weak oxidizing agent
(C) organic matter 16. El Nino effect refers to the periodic
(D) soil particle size extension of warm equatorial current
along which coast ?
(A) Peru Coast
12. The process of invasion is completed (B) African Coast
through the following stages : (C) East Coast of India
(A) Migration and establishment of (D) Somalia Coast
species in bare area
(B) Migration, ecesis and 17. Which of the following options is
aggregation correct for concentration of elements
in sea water ?
(C) Ecesis and aggregation
(A) Na > Mg > Ca
(D) Migration, aggregation and (B) Ca > Na > Mg
settlement of species
(C) Mg > Na > Ca
(D) CO3 > SO4 > Cl
13. Which one is not matched correctly ?
(A) Kaziranga – Assam 18. Land use planning requires which of
the following base maps ?
(B) Periyar – Kerala
(A) Soil type map
(C) Ranthambore – Rajasthan (B) Slope map
(D) Hemis High – Himachal (C) Soil depth map
Altitude Pradesh (D) All of the above
J-89-11 3 Paper-II
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19. Gutenberg discontinuity is found at 24. The maximum efficiency of a
the depth of commercial solar photovoltaic cell
(A) 333 km attainable today is in the range
(B) 700 km (A) 3 % to 10 %
(C) 1500 km (B) 12 % to 20 %
(D) 2900 km (C) 30 % to 40 %
(D) 40 % to 50 %
20. Landslides are generally associated
with heavy rainfall because
(A) Water is universal solvent. 25. Which of the following does not lead
(B) Water enhances chemical to global warming ?
weathering. (A) Stratospheric ozone
(C) Water increases the weight of (B) Tropospheric ozone
overburden.
(C) Black carbon aerosols
(D) Water reduces the shear
strength of rock. (D) N2O
21. The optimal pH for Methane 26. The instrument used for
production ranges between determination of transparency of
(A) 7 to 7.2 water is
(B) 5 to 5.6
(A) Spectrophotometer
(C) 8 to 9.5
(B) Ekman dredge
(D) 2.3 to 4.5
(C) Conductivity bridge
22. Average life time (τ) and half life (D) Sechhi disc
(T½ ) of a radioactive substances are
related as 27. Which of the following is an aerobic
(A) τ = 1.44 T½ waste water treatment method ?
(B) τ = 0.5 T½ (A) Sludge digester
(C) τ = 0.63 T½ (B) Septic tank
(D) τ = 2 T½ (C) Percolating filter
(D) Imhoff tank
23. The maximum contribution to world
electricity generation from non-
28. Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) consist of
hydro renewable energy sources is
from (A) NO + NO2
(A) Wind
(B) NO + NO2 + N2O
(B) Biomass
(C) Solar PV (C) NO + NO2 + N2O5
(D) Geothermal (D) NO + NO2 + N2O + N2O5
Paper-II 4 J-89-11
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29. For controlling emission of 33. Assertion (A) : Environmental and
particulates from thermal power social impact assessment never
plants, the vertical wires placed in overlap with each other.
between the grounded collector Reason (R) : Environmental and
plates in an electrostatic precipitator social impact assessment are
are biased typically to voltages of effectively opposite ends of the
(A) + (100 V to 500 V) same spectrum.
(B) + (20 kV to 100 kV) (R) is the correct explanation
(C) – (20 kV to 100 kV) of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(D) – (100 V to 500 V) (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
30. Noise levels of 60 dB imply
atmospheric pressure perturbations (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
of root-mean-square value
corresponding to 34. One of the best known matrix
methods for environmental impact
(A) 200 µPa assessment is
(B) 2000 µPa (A) Leopold Matrix
(B) Sphere Matrix
(C) 20,000 µPa
(C) Saratoga Matrix
(D) 200,000 µPa (D) Component Interaction Method
35. The method for systematically

31. ISO 14040 is related to evaluating alternative development
(A) Environmental audit schemes and weighing relevant
social cost with social benefits is
(B) Energy audit known as
(C) Cost benefit analysis (A) Cost – benefit analysis
(B) Social cost – benefit analysis
(D) Life cycle analysis
(C) Social benefit – cost analysis
(D) Cost – effectiveness analysis
32. Definition of Impact Assessment
was given by 36. Gases emitted from municipal
landfill sites include
(A) Kozlowski (1989)
(A) SO2 and CH4
(B) Graham Smith (1993)
(B) NH4, CO, SO2, CH4
(C) Heer and Hagerty (1977) (C) NH4, H2S, CO
(D) Bartlett (1989) (D) CH4, H2S, CO2, NH4
J-89-11 5 Paper-II
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37. The Air (Prevention and Control of 41. Which of the following statistical
Pollution) Act, 1981 was first attributes is used to test the null
amended in the year hypothesis in Regression Analysis ?
(A) 1986 (B) 1987 (A) Mean
(C) 1988 (D) 1990
(B) Standard deviation
38. Identify the correct sequence of (C) t-statistic

materials in order of their heating (D) R2
values :
(A) Methane > fuel oil > coal >
wood 42. A chimney of height ‘h’ is emitting
(B) Fuel oil > coal > methane > plume of particles which follow
wood Gaussian distribution. Assuming that
(C) Coal > wood > fuel oil > the ground is a perfect reflector of
garbage particles, the maximum ground level
concentration of particles varies with
(D) Methane > coal > garbage >
‘h’ as
wood
(A) αh
39. Urban air quality is basically decided (B) αh–2
by
(A) CO, SPM, SO2, NO2, Surface (C) α h
ozone (D) αh–3/2
(B) SPM, NO2, SO2
(C) SPM, NO2, CO
43. The geometric mean of 5, 5 and 40 is
(D) SPM, SO2, Surface ozone
(A) 16.66
(B) 25
40. If N is the population size at any
given instant t, r its growth rate in an (C) 31.6
environment having carrying (D) 10
capacity K, the environmental
resistance to population growth is
given by 44. The Eigen values of the matrix
(A) N/K 1 1
are
N 1 1
(B) 1 –
K (A) 1, 1
N –tr (B) 0, 1
(C) e
K
(C) 0, 2
N tr
(D) e
K (D) 1, –1
Paper-II 6 J-89-11
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45. In a simple regression model 48. ‘Slash and Burn’ or milpa farming is
y = α + βx + E (where the symbols often blamed for
have their usual meanings), the (A) habitat destruction
expectation value of <E> is assumed
as (B) forest destruction
(A) 0 (C) hydrological imbalance
(B) y– (D) mine destruction
σ
(C) ; where σ is standard
2
deviation 49. Assertion (A) : Climate change is
2
(D) σ going to increase social
tensions in India.
46. In the Earth Summit at Rio de
Reason (R) : The frequency and
Janeiro, 1992, which of the
following was not an agenda ? intensity of the extreme
weather events will have
(A) Ozone depletion
serious consequences for food
(B) Global warming security.
(C) CO2 reduction targets
Codes :
(D) Biodiversity conservation
47. Assertion (A) : Most of the of (A).
corporate sector in India has
become conscious of the (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
ethical dimensions pertaining (R) is not the correct
to its impact on environment. explanation of (A).
Reason (R) : Indian people are (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
increasingly becoming aware
of the environmental issues. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Codes :
50. Snow blindness is caused due to
of (A). (A) Ultra-violet radiations
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (B) Excessive flux of visible
(R) is not the correct radiations
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (C) Infra-red radiations
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. (D) Microwave radiations
J-89-11 7 Paper-II
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Paper-II 8 J-89-11
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
J 891
1 4 (In words)

this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü …
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê
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Paper – II
1. For a clear night and with windspeeds 4. Protecting nature and the wilderness
< 3 m/s, the atmosphere is for its own sake is referred as
(A) stable (A) Deep ecology
(B) slightly unstable (B) Shallow ecology

(C) Self ecology
(C) neutral
(D) Selfless ecology
(D) slightly stable
2. Assertion (A) : Chemosynthesis 5. For the analysis of oxides of

plays an important role in ‘S’ Nitrogen, which of the following set
cycle. of reagents are used ?
(A) Sulphanilic acid, NEDA, H2O2,
Reason (R) : In chemosynthesis,
HNO3
some sulphur compounds act as
source of energy. (B) Sulphamic acid, NEDA, H2O2,
HNO3
Codes :
(C) Sulphamic acid, Nicotine, H2O,
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) HNO3
is the correct explanation.
(D) Sulphomolybdic acid, NEDA,
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and H2O2, H2SO4
explanation.
6. Number of ions of cadmium present
in 3n moles of cadmium nitrate is
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. (A) 18.069 × 1023
(B) 18.069 × 1020
3. Which of the following is NOT a
correct statement ? (C) 18.069 × 1017
(D) 18.069 × 1014
(A) Tropics are the warmest and
wettest regions.
(B) Subtropical high pressure zones 7. Which one of the following
create dry zones at about 30° N organisms is a free living nitrogen
and S. fixer ?
(C) Temperature and precipitation (A) Rhizobium

are lowest at the poles. (B) Azotobacter
(D) Temperature is lowest and (C) Frankia
precipitation is highest at the (D) Dorylimes
poles.
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8. Which one of the following has 12. A local population genetically,
highest bioconcentration factor structurally and functionally adapted
(BCF) ? to its local environment is called
(A) DDT (A) ecotype
(B) DDE (B) ecophene

(C) ecad
(C) Chlordane
(D) ecocline
(D) Heptachlor
13. Mycorrhizae is an example of

9. Consider an Ocean Thermal Energy
Conversion (OTEC) process (A) Ammensalism
operating between 30 °C and 5 °C. (B) Commensalism
What would be the maximum
(C) Parasitism
possible efficiency for an electricity
generator station operating with these (D) Symbiosis
temperatures ?
(A) 8% (B) 15% 14. The entire series of communities of
biotic succession from pioneer to
(C) 25% (D) 40%
climax community is known as
(A) Troph
10. The process of ‘Nebulisation’ in (B) Sere
Atomic Absorption Spectrop-
(C) Population
hotometry is to
(D) Biome
(A) convert the liquid sample to
gaseous form.
15. In which of the following ecosystems
(B) convert the liquid sample into
the pyramid of biomass is inverted ?
small droplets.
(A) Forest
(C) sublimate the sample.
(B) Grassland
(D) solubilization of the solute.
(C) Pond
(D) Desert
11. Individuals of a plant species
occurring in a particular area
constitute 16. The first National Park established in
India is
(A) fauna
(A) Kaziranga National Park
(B) flora
(B) The Jim Corbett National Park
(C) flora and fauna (C) Hazaribagh National Park
(D) population (D) Gir National Park
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17. The animals that rest or swim on the 22. The presence of ammonia in
surface of the lakes are called groundwater may indicate a nearby
(A) Nektons (A) coal mine
(B) Neustons (B) municipal solid waste dumping
(C) Benthos site
(D) Peritons (C) thermal power plant
(D) granite quarry
of in situ conservation of biodiversity ? 23. Given below are statements in the
(A) Captive breeding context of a truly vertical aerial
photograph :
(B) Seed bank
(C) National park (i) The principal point, nadir point
and isocentre coincide.
(D) Pollen bank
(ii) Isocentre is the centre from
where the radial displacements
19. A biome contains of images take place.
(A) many ecosystems (iii) Tilt is a character of vertical
(B) many communities aerial photograph.
(C) many populations Identify the correct answer from the
(D) a single ecosystem codes given below :
(A) (i) only
20. In Bhopal gas tragedy, the quantity (B) (i) & (ii) only
of Methyl Isocyanate leaked into the (C) (i) & (iii) only
atmosphere was around
(D) (ii) & (iii) only
(A) ~ 180 tonnes
(B) ~ 60 tonnes
24. Kaolinite is a type of clay Mineral
(C) ~ 112 tonnes with layers of silicon and aluminium
(D) ~ 40 tonnes in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1:2
21. What is the sequence of arrival of (C) 2:1 (D) 3 : 1
seismic waves at a recording station ?
(A) P-wave, S-wave, L-wave, 25. In an ideal Magneto Hydro Dynamic
R-wave. Power Generator, the separation
(B) S-wave, P-wave, R-wave, between the plates = 0.5 m, magnetic
L-wave. flux density = 2 Wb/m2 and average
(C) R-wave, L-wave, P-wave, fuel velocity = 500 m/sec. The voltage
S-wave. developed across the plates will be
(D) S-wave, L-wave, R-wave, (A) 500 V (B) 1000 V
P-wave. (C) 2000 V (D) 5000 V
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26. If the wind speed in a certain area 31. Hardness of water is due to the
increases by a factor of 2 from 4 m/s presence of
to 8 m/s, the power output from an
(A) Calcium and Magnesium ions
ideal wind mill will increase by a
factor of (B) Strontium and Nitrate ions
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) Sodium and Chloride ions
(C) 16 (D) 2 (D) Potassium and Nitrite ions
27. Under Jawaharlal Nehru Solar
Mission of Government of India, a 32. Principal constituents of atmospheric
total of 20,000 MW of utility Grid brown clouds are
Power (including roof to solar
power) is sought to be installed by I. Soot
the year II. Soil dust
(A) 2020 (B) 2022 III. Fly ash
(C) 2025 (D) 2030 IV. Sulphates and nitrates
Identify the correct code :
28. In which country dry steam deposits
(A) I & II only
have been used as such for electricity
generation ? (B) I & IV only
(A) Italy (C) II, III and IV only
(B) Iceland (D) I, II, III and IV
(C) Austria
(D) New Zealand 33. The famous ‘London Smog’ was
observed in the year
29. The resources which are unlimited (A) 1750

and where quality is not degraded are (B) 1952
termed as
(C) 1972
(A) renewable
(D) 2000
(B) reusable
(C) immutable
34. The permissible limit of day time
(D) exhaustible industrial noise as recommended by
WHO is
30. The most toxic form of mercury in (A) 80 dB

water is (B) 75 dB
(A) 2 Hg+ (B) Hg2+ (C) 90 dB
+ o
(C) H3C – Hg (D) Hg (D) 76 dB
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35. Surface litter layer on ground soil is 39. Arrange the functions associated with
also known as EIA in a sequential manner
(A) ‘O’ horizon (i) Identification
(ii) Prediction
(B) ‘A’ horizon
(iii) Defining the scope
(C) ‘B’ horizon (iv) Impact evaluation and analysis
(D) ‘C’ horizon Codes :
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
36. Which one of the following
represents the correct Uranium decay (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
series ? (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(A) Uranium → Radium → Radon
→ Polonium 40. The role of State Pollution Control
Board in EIA is
(B) Uranium → Radon → Radium (i) Public hearing / consultation
→ Polonium
(ii) Issue of NOC
(C) Uranium → Radium → (iii) Collecting environmental data
Polonium → Radon (iv) Survey of fauna and flora
(D) Uranium → Radon → Codes :
Polonium → Radium (A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
37. Hydropower projects with large (C) (iii) and (iv) only
reservoirs affect the environment by (D) (ii) and (iii) only
release of
(A) CO 41. Percentage of carbon in a typical
municipal solid waste ranges from
(B) CO2 (A) 50 – 60 %
(C) CH4 (B) 40 – 50 %
(D) NO2 (C) 30 – 40 %
(D) 20 – 30 %
38. Terms of reference is fixed at which 42. Which one of the following has
stage of EIA process ? maximum destruction and removable
(A) Screening stage efficiency ?
(A) Incineration
(B) Scoping stage
(B) Biological Treatment
(C) Detailed EIA stage (C) Chemical Treatment
(D) Project Appraisal stage (D) Landfill
Paper-II 6 J-89-14
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43. Wastes are known to be corrosive if 48. Two sets of data consisting of 10 and
the pH is 20 observations have same mean 8
(A) ≤ 2 with standard deviations of 1 and 2,
respectively. If the two data sets are
(B) ≤3 combined, then the variance is
(C) ≤4
(A) 3
(D) ≤ 5
(B) 2
44. Hazardous Waste Management and (C) 5

Handling Rule was enacted in the (D) 1.5
year
(A) 1989
(B) 1979
49. Match the List – I with List – II and
(C) 1969 choose the correct answer from the
(D) 1999 given codes :
List – I (Event) List – II (Date)
45. For a given set of data 5, 8, 12, 15
and 20, the comparison of geometric a. Earth Day i. 5th June
– – b. World ii. 3rd October
(G), harmonic (H) and arithmetic
Environment Day
–
mean (X) will be
c. Ozone Day iii. 22nd April
– – –
(A) H > G > X d. World Nature iv. 16th September
– – – Day
(B) H > G < X
– – – Codes :
(C) H < G < X
a b c d
– – –
(D) H < G > X (A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii i iv ii
46. Algal bloom follows a population
growth pattern, which is (C) ii i iii iv
(A) J – shaped (D) iv iii ii i
(B) S – shaped
(C) Exponential 50. CBD stands for
(D) Linear (A) Convention on Biological
Diversity
47. t-distribution is approximately
(B) Conservation Biodiversity
normal for sample size η
Development
(A) ≥ 30
(C) Conservation Association for
(B) ≥ 10 Biodiversity and Management
(C) ≥ 15 (D) Cumulative Plan for Biological
(D) ≥ 20 Diversity
J-89-14 7 Paper-II
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Paper-II 8 J-89-14
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PAPER-II

Roll No.________________________________
D 891
1 2 (In words)

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
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will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛê Û ¾Ö¸ ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ•Ö
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : Û ß ÃÖß»Ö Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã ‡Ô μÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë …
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
ÝÖμÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî …
on the correct response against each item. ˆ¤ÖÆ¸ÞÖ :
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put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô
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your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û μÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ‹¾ÖÓ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
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Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2)
marks. Attempt all the questions.
4. When the full potential of physical,
1. Assertion (A) : Biosphere constitutes
an excellent life-support system chemical and biological factors, a
which is sustainable and can species can use if there is no
fulfil all human needs. competition, it is called
(A) Fundamental niche
Reason (R) : The size and (B) Ecological niche
productivity of the Biosphere is
(C) Realized niche
limited by availability of water,
(D) Competitive exclusion
nutrients and environmental
conditions.
5. The uppermost zone of atmosphere
Identify the correct code : of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet
Codes : radiations are absorbed, is
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) Troposphere
(R) is the correct explanation of (B) Stratosphere
(A). (C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
6. Which of the following oxides of
explanation of (A).
nitrogen is the major air pollutant
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. released from automobile exhausts ?
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. (A) NO (B) N2O
(C) NO2 (D) N2O3
2. Geostrophic wind occurs when
pressure gradient force balances 7. Match List – I with List – II which
(A) Coriolis force contains pollutant gases and their
threshold (safe limit) values as per
(B) Frictional force WHO standards :
(C) Centripetal force List – I List – II
(D) Coriolis and frictional force (Pollutant gas) (Thresholds)
together a. CO i. 2 ppm
b. SO2 ii. 50 ppm
c. NO iii. 0.08 ppm
3. Scales of Meteorology are in the d. PAN iv. 25 ppm
following order starting from the Identity the correct code :
least Codes :
(A) Macro –, Micro –, Meso – a b c d
(B) Macro–, Meso–, Micro– (A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) Meso–, Macro–, Micro–
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) Micro–, Meso–, Macro – (D) iii iv ii i
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8. The band labelled as UV-C which is 14. If different categories of threatened
(A) 0.29 – 0.32 m

lethal to micro-organisms is species are written in a sequence,
what is the correct order ?
(B) 0.2 – 0.29 m (A) Extinct  Vulnerable  Rare
(C) 0.17 – 0.2 m  Endangered
(D) 0.07 – 0.21 m (B) Vulnerable  Rare 
Endangered  Extinct
(C) Vulnerable  Rare  Extinct
 Endangered
9. Which of the following species in the
atmosphere is called atmospheric
detergent ? (D) Rare  Vulnerable 
(A) Chlorine radical Endangered  Extinct
(B) Hydroxyl radical
(C) Methyl radical
15. Which of the following is not a type
(D) Ozone radical of ex situ conservation method ?
(A) Botanical garden
10. The POH of a 0.001 M solution of
HCl is (B) Zoological park
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) Wildlife sanctuaries
(C) 11 (D) 13 (D) Gene banks
11. Identify the pair (element-health 16. As a consequence of succession the

effect) which is correctly matched : P/B ratio (Gross production /
(A) Lead – Methaemoglobinemia Standing crop biomass) is changed. It
(B) Arsenic – Kidney damage is
(C) Mercury – Nervous disorder (A) high during developmental
stages and low at mature stage.
(D) PAN – Hypoxemia
(B) low during developmental
stages and high at mature stage.
12. Which of the following organisms
can act as primary consumer, (C) > 1 or < 1 at developmental
secondary consumer, tertiary stages and approximately 1 at
consumer or scavenger in different mature stage.
types of food chains ? (D) remaining unchanged at all
(A) Raven stages.
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake 17. Preparation of hazard-zoning map in
(D) Phytoplanktones case of landslide prone regions
involves comprehensive investigation
13. The tendency of biological systems of
to resist change and to remain in a (A) details of structural and
state of equilibrium is called lithological settings.
(A) Homeostatis (B) geomorphic features relating to
(B) Feedback mechanism instability of slopes.
(C) Ecological efficiency (C) seismicity pattern of the region.
(D) Carrying capacity (D) all of the above.
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18. If ap = specified value of peak 20. According to Goldieh the decreasing
acceleration, N = mean rate of order of stability of following
occurrence of earthquake per year, minerals of igneous rocks towards
tep = time interval of consideration weathering is
(exposure period) and Fap = (A) Muscovite > Quartz > Potash
probability that an observed feldspar > Biotite
acceleration is less than or equal to (B) Biotite > Potash feldspar >
ap, then the cumulative probability Muscovite > Quartz
distribution of peak acceleration for (C) Quartz > Muscovite > Potash
epoch – dependent seismic hazard feldspar > Biotite
map is given by which formula ? (D) Potash feldspar > Quartz >
(A) Fmax tep = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} Muscovite > Biotite
(B) Fmax = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)}  tep
21. In universal polar stereographic
(C) Fmax tep= exp {–t(1 – Fap)N}
coordinate system the eastings and
(D) All of the above northings are computed using which
projection method ?
19. Assertion (A) : In oceans, Na has (A) Polar aspect stereographic
the longest residence time, projection
within an order of magnitude of (B) Non-polar aspect stereographic
the age of the oceans. projection
Reason (R) : The long residence (C) Polar aspect mercator
time of Na reflects a lack of projection
reactivity of sodium in the (D) Non-polar aspect mercator
marine environment by not projection
being readily incorporated in
the common sedimentary
22. Pitchblende is an ore of
minerals, nor being removed by
biological reactions. (A) Nickel
Identify the correct code : (B) Chromium
(C) Molybdenum
Codes :
(D) Uranium
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A). 23. Copper (Cu) is classified according
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but to its geochemical affinity as
(R) is not the correct (A) Siderophile element
explanation of (A). (B) Chalcophile element
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) Lithophile element
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) Atmophile element
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24. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed 28. Human activities add 7-9 gigatons of
decrease at the wind turbine, the CO2 per annum into the atmosphere.
maximum extraction of power from Major contributor to this CO2 is
the wind occurs when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3 (A) Burning of fossil fuels
(C) 1 (D) 3/5 (B) Clearing of forests for
agriculture
25. In the following fusion energy (C) Fermentation industries
reaction (D) Cement industries
D + T = 0n1 + X
identify X 29. According to WHO, maximum
(A) Li (B) H2 permissible level of chlorides in
(C) He3 (D) He4 drinking water is
(A) 100 mg/L (B) 200 mg/L
26. Assertion (A) : Natural gas is a very (C) 600 mg/L (D) 800 mg/L
attractive ecofriendly fuel.
Reason (R) : It produces few
pollutants and less carbon di- 30. Wilting coefficient of a loam
oxide per unit energy than any represents
other fossil fuel on combustion. (A) the minimum water content of
Identify the correct answer : the soil at which plants can no
Codes : longer obtain water
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) water holding capacity
(A). (C) capillary water
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) field capacity
explanation of (A). 31. Which one of the following
techniques can be used for
determining the level of cadmium in
soil ?
27. Assertion (A) : Solar photovoltaic
cells are expensive. (A) UV – Visible spectrophotometer
Reason (R) : Solar photovoltaic (B) Atomic Absorption
cells are fabricated from Spectrophotometer
crystalline silicon and operate (C) XRD
only at 10-12% efficiency.
Identify the correct answer : (D) IR spectrometer
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 32. For noise control in automobiles, the
(R) is the correct explanation of exhaust muffler attenuates sound by
(A). (A) Absorption
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not the correct (B) Destructive interference
explanation of (A). (C) Reducing velocity of hot gases
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) Absorption and destructive
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. interference
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33. Five particles (< 2-3 m) can be 37. Match the Impact Assessment
effectively collected from industrial Methodologies (List – II) with the
stacks by corresponding environments (List – I).
(A) Fabric filters Identify the correct answer from the
(B) Cyclone separators codes given below the lists.
(C) Venturi scrubbers List – I List – II
(D) Settling chambers a. Air i. Ecosystem
models
34. Soil fulvic acids are strong chelators of b. Biological ii. Gaussian
(A) Iron (II) models
(B) Iron (III) c. Water iii. Mass balance
(C) Both Iron (II) and Iron (III) approach
(D) Fe(OH)3 d. Land iv. G.I.S.
Codes :
35. Natural source of polycyclic aromatic a b c d
hydrocarbons (PAHs) is (A) ii i iii iv
(A) Root exudates (B) i ii iv iii
(B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) iii iv ii i
(C) Aerobic bacteria (D) iv iii i ii
(D) Grass fires
38. Public hearing is conducted
36. Match the ‘phase’ with the ‘activity’ (A) Prior to site selection
in Environmental Audit. Identify the
(B) Prior to approval of Terms of
correct answer from the codes given Reference
below the lists :
(C) After preparation of EIA
(D) After environmental clearance
(Phase) (Activity)
a. Pre-Audit i. Human input-
39. IAIA stands for
output analysis
(A) International Association of
in relation to
Impact Assessment
economy
(B) Indian Association of Impact
b. On-site ii. Reviewing Assessment
Audit audit-check (C) International Assembly of
lists Impact Assessment
c. Post- iii. Records/ (D) Indian Assembly of Impact
Audit Documents Assessment
Review
Codes : 40. Municipal Solid Wastes (MSWs) have
a b c the heating value typically in the range
(A) ii iii i (A) 9,300 to 12,800 kJ/kg
(B) i iii ii (B) 1000 to 2500 kJ/kg
(C) i ii iii (C) 1780 to 2830 kJ/kg
(D) iii ii i (D) 530 to 780 kJ/kg
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41. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was 46. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the
amended in which year ? plume rise varies with Buoyancy
(A) 1972 (B) 1980 Flux Parameter F as
(C) 1988 (D) 1986 1
(A) F (B) F2
1 1
42. The following statistical test is used to (C) F3 (D) F4
ascertain whether there is significant
difference between the variances of
two sets of observations : 47. United Nations Conference on
(A) t-test Environment, also termed as Earth
Summit, was held in 1992 in which
(B) F-test
city ?
(C) Chi square test
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(D) Regression
(B) Kyoto
(C) Stockholm
43. The population (N) of an ecosystem
obeys the growth equation (D) Copenhagen
dt = N – N
dN 2
48. In which part of India, the tropical
where  and  are constants. The Western Ghats are situated ?
maximum sustainable yield of this (A) Punjab (B) Rajasthan
ecosystem will be
(A)  – N /
(C) Gujarat (D) Kerala
(B)
(C) /2 (D) 2/ 49. Variety of different species, genetic
variability among individuals within
44. The geometric mean of the following each species and variety of
data : ecosystems constitute the so called
4, 10, 25, 10 (A) Species diversity
is (B) Genetic diversity
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) Biological diversity
100 (D) Ecological diversity
(C) 12.25 (D) 49
50. Baba Amte was the leader of

If the mean and variance of a Poisson
distribution are  and , then the
45.
(A) Appiko Movement
following relation is correct. (B) Chipko Movement
(A)  = 2 (B)  =  (C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(C) 2 =  (D)  = 2 (D) Tehri Dam Movement
D-89-12 7 Paper-II
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UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER II)
SUBJECT : ( 89 )ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Q.No. SC89
Q01 D
Q02 A
Q03 D
Q04 A
Q05 D
Q06 A
Q07 C
Q08 B
Q09 B
Q10 C
Q11 D
Q12 A
Q13 A
Q14 B
Q15 C
Q16 A
Q17 D
Q18 A
Q19 A
Q20 C
Q21 A
Q22 D
Q23 B
Q24 B
Q25 D
Q26 A
Q27 A
Q28 A
Q29 C
Q30 A
Q31 B
Q32 C
Q33 C
Q34 A
Q35 D
Q36 A
Q37 A
Q38 C
Q39 A
Q40 A
Q41 C
Q42 B
Q43 C
Q44 A
Q45 A
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Q46 C
Q47 A
Q48 D
Q49 C
Q50 C
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NTA NET Environmental-Science December-2013 Solved Paper

II
1. Mesoscale Meteorological Phenomena occur over areas of horizontal distance in the range
(km)
(A) 100 - 200 km
(B) 1 - 100 km
(C) 10 - 50 km
(D) 1 - 10 km
Answer: B
(D) March to May
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is not a reactive oxygen species?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Hydroxyl ion
(C) Singlet oxygen
(D) Superoxide anion
Answer: B
4. If air quality standard for carbon monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the percentage as in at 1 atm.
at is
(A)
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(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
5. Azaridine, Ethylene dibromide, Bis (chloromethyl) ether are
(A) Alkylating agents
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Hydrazines
(D) Aromatic amines
Answer: A
6. Normality of 0.25 M phosphoric acid is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 2.50
Answer: C
7. Match List -I with List -II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List –I List -II
(Air Pollutants) (Sources / Activities)
a. Carbon monoxide 1. Coal burning
b. Nitrogen oxide 2. Cigarette Smoking
c. Sulphur dioxide 3. Chemical reaction with VOCs
d. Ozone 4. Power and Industrial Plant
M A P S A
Codes: a b c d
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(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer: A
8. The gaseous material which is used for the synthesis of Methyl isocyanate is
(A) Chloranil
(B) Sevin
(C) Phosgene
(D) Chlorine
Answer: C
9. During the determination of COD, sulphanilic acid is added, because
(A) It maintains the acidic nature
(B) It precipitates the mercury ions
(C) It oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) It reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate
Answer: C
10. Which year was declared as International Year of Biodiversity?
(A) 2002
(B) 2010
(C) 2020
(D) 1972
Answer: B
11. The forest biome characterised by 3-4 tree species/km2 is
(A) Tropical
(B) Temperate
(C) Boreal
(D) Taiga
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Answer: B
12. Which of the following is a type of biodiversity extinction caused primarily due to
anthropogenic activities?
(A) Carboniferous rain forest collapse
(B) Permian -Triassic extinction
(C) Cretaceous Paleogene extinction
(D) Holocene extinction
Answer: D
13. The chemical used in a fermenter with molasses as a substrate is
(A) Diammonium sulphate
(B) Diammonium phosphate
(C) Diammonium nitrate
(D) Diammonium chloride
Answer: B
14. Which of the following is an example of lotic ecosystem?
(B) Pond ecosystem
(C) Bog ecosystem
Answer:A
15. Which pyramid is always straight?
(C) Pyramid of energy
(D) Pyramid of number and biomass
Answer: C
16. Which of the following type of materials present in a landslide suggest that the movement
was rotational?
(A) Rock flow, Debris flow, Earthflow

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(B) Rock slump, Debris slump, Earth slump
(C) Rock fall, Debris fall, Earth fall
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple, Earth topple
Answer: B
17. Which of the following parameters is not a good indicator of contamination in ground water?
(A) BOD
(B) Nitrates
(C) Silica
(D) Chlorides
Answer: C
18. On an aerial photograph, the distance between the principal point and the conjugate
principal point is called
(A) Relief
(B) Tilt
(C) Photo-base
(D) Focal length
Answer: C
19. An equatorial west to east remote sensing satellite orbiting the earth at an altitude of 36,000
km is called
(A) Sun-synchronous satellite
(B) Geostationary satellite
(C) Space shuttle
(D) Stereo imager
Answer: B
20. Which state of Cr (Chromium) is most toxic?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Answer: D
21. Assertion (A): Groundwater may get seriously contaminated in coastal areas.
Reason (R): Groundwater overdrafts near coastal areas can contaminate groundwater supplies
by allowing salt water to intrude into freshwater aquifers.
Codes:
Answer: A
22. Assertion (A): Tropical and subtropical seas are most suitable for OTEC.
Reason (R): There is a certain minimum vertical gradient required for OTEC to
become feasible.
Codes:
Answer: A
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a total of 500 million tonnes of is released to the
atmosphere. If the entire amount of remains in the atmosphere, what will be the rise in the
concentration of in ppm?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
24. A thermal power station has a heat rate of Its thermal efficiency is
(A) 30%
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(B) 36%
(C) 40%
(D) 25%
Answer: A
25. Assume that world coal production is 6.1 billion tons per year and estimated total
recoverable resources of coal are 1.1 trillion tons. How long it would take to use up those
reserves at current rate of production?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the salinity generally varies from top to bottom of the pond as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
27. Which region among the following is not Atmospheric Brown Cloud (ABC) hotspot?
(A) East-Asia
(B) South Africa
(C) Amazon Basin in South America
(D) Australia
Answer: D
28. Prolonged exposure to high levels of noise causes
(i) Hearing loss
(iv) ToxicityIdentify the correct

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(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: C
29. Azolla pinnata is a
(A) Blue green algae
(B) Green algae
(C) Red algae
(D) Fern
Answer: D
30. Assertion (A): Eruption of the volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991 spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the atmosphere. The following three years were cooler.
Reason (R): Sulphate aerosols reflect sunlight away from the Earth.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
Answer: A
31. Photolysis of NO2 occurs due to radiations of wavelength
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: D
32. The efficiency of removing from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as
high as
(A) 30%
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(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Answer: D
33. The depth of the oxidation ponds is typically
(A) 1 -2 m
(B) 2 -5 m
(C) 5 -10 m
(D) 10 -20 m
Answer: A
34. In EIA the baseline data describes
(A) The environmental consequences by mapping
(B) Existing environmental status of the identified study area
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis of proposal
(D) Demographic and socioeconomic data
Answer: B
35. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts
of developmental activities on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Answer: D
36. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the
environmental clearance of the project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
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Answer: D
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not
discernible, then what step should be adopted?
(A) Scoping stage is to be followed.
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be conducted.
(C) Detail EIA study is to be conducted.
(D) The project should be given Environmental Clearance.
Answer: B
38. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental
Management plan reports of a developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is
called
(A) Project Assessment Committee
(C) Project Evaluation Committee
Answer: B
39. In a typical municipal solid waste, least percentage of Ash is found in
(A) Textiles
(B) Plastic
(C) Leather
(D) Rubber
Answer: A
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals have flash point
(A) Lower than
(B) Between 23 and
(C) Between 27 and
(D) Between 32 and
Answer: A
41. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
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(A) NO
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
42. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of
the system is K, the growth realisation factor is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: B
43. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
(A) The mean is much smaller than median
(B) The range is equal to five times the standard deviation.
(C) The range is larger than interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard deviation.
Answer: A
44. For degrees of freedom (df) < 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is an Eigen value of the matrix 3 -1 4 -2?
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
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(D) 3
Answer: A
46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform
concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these
individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Answer: A
47. What is Eco mark?
(A) Label given to recycled products
(B) Label given to an environment friendly products
(C) Land mark indicating the boundaries of bio-parks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable products
Answer: B
48. An important source of Arsenic in Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
(B) Rubber products
(C) Batteries
(D) Household pesticides
Answer: D
49. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness
Programme?
(A) Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE).
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(D) Environmental Education in School System
Answer: D
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50. REDD stands for
(A) Recurring Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(B) Reducing Environmental Degradation and Forest Degradation
(C) Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from Degradable Deposits of Wastes
Answer: C
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UGC NET Paper-I questions Examrace NTA-NET Paper-I Postal Course
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then
the sample size is
a. 25
b. 80
c. 5
d. 100
Answer: a
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d. f. Is 50 and unexplained

variance per d. f. Is 10. The F-ratio is
a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 25
d. 0.2
Answer: b
3. Which one of the following is not a random sampling method?
a. Stratified Sampling
b. Cluster Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Judgement Sampling
Answer: b
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4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of
exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size
Dh depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
a. Dh µ r
b. Dh µ r1/3
c. Dh µ r2/3
d. Dh µ r2
Answer: d
5. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
a. CO2
b. Cl2
c. NO2
d. SO2
Answer: c
6. Percent of water on the world's surface representing fresh water is
a. 97
b. 50
c. 10
d. 3
Answer: a
7. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is
a. ~ 220 ppm
b. ~ 280 ppm
c. ~ 360 ppm
d. ~ 390 ppm
Answer: d
8. Hardness of diamond is due to
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a. Coordinate bonding
b. Covalent bonding
c. Electrovalent bonding
d. van der Waals forces
Answer: b
9. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins and nucleic acids
Answer: b
10. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
Answer: c
11. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctc ecosystem?
a. Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Emperor Penguin
b. Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Squid – Elephant Seal – Leopard

Seal
c. Phytoplankton – Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Adelic

Penguin – Emperor Penguin
d. Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Phytoplankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Elephant Seal

– Leopard Seal
Answer: b
12. Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.

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a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: b
13. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
a. Biomass
b. Energy
c. Number
d. All of the above
Answer: b
14. Which of the following is a correct match?
a. Periyar – Kerala
b. Ranthambore – M. P.
c. Panna – U. P.
d. Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Answer: a
15. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
a. Primary succession
b. Secondary succession
c. Autogenic succession
d. None of the above
Answer: b
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
a. Ecotype
b. Biotype
c. Ecotone
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d. Meeting place
Answer: c
17. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
a. It's name appears in Red Data Book.
b. It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
c. Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
d. It has been chosen as a State animal.
Answer: a
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
a. Organic carbon content of soil
b. Nitrate content of soil
c. Phosphate content of soil
d. Fluoride content of soil
Answer: a
19. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil?
a. Cellulase
b. Invertase
c. Protease
d. Dehydrogenase
Answer: d
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
a. Fulvic acid
b. Humic acid
c. Humin
d. All of the above
Answer: c
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21. The sources of thermal pollution are
a. Power plants
b. Cooling forests
c. Industrial effluents
d. All of the above
Answer: d
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
a. C14
b. Sr90
c. I131
d. Cs137
Answer: d
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year
1976?
a. Insertion of Article 48 − A
b. Insertion of Article 51 − A 7
c. Insertion of Article 48 − A and 51 − A 7
Answer: c
24. Who issues the Ecomark notification?
a. Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. Of India
b. Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. Of India
c. Department of Science and Technology, Govt. Of India
d. Bureau of Indian Standards
Answer: a
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
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b. Composting
c. Incineration
d. Sanitary Landfill
Answer: b
26. A hazardous waste is characterised by
a. Ignitibility
b. Reactivity
c. Toxicity
d. All of the above
Answer: d
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent
respectively?
a. 17, 2
b. 12, 3
c. 35, 2
d. 17, 3
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following chemical speces of mercury is highly toxic to living system?
a. Mercurous ion
b. Mercuric ion
c. Organo mercurials
d. Atomic mercury
Answer: c
29. Natural gas is composed primarily of
a. Methane
b. n-butane
c. n-octane
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d. A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
Answer: a
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in
Environmental Impact Assessment Process?
a. It can be expanded.
b. It can be contracted.
c. It can be contracted and expanded.
d. It cannot be contracted and expanded.
Answer: c
31. Which of the following can be considered in Environmental Risk Assessment?
a. Exposure period
b. Potency of a toxic material
c. Quality of models
d. All of the above
Answer: d
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after
environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 30
d. 2
Answer: b
33. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
a. 4.0 – 4.9
b. 7.0 – 7.9
c. 6.0 – 6.9
d. 5.0 – 5.9
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Answer: b
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino?
a. Half
b. One-third
c. Twice
d. Two-third
Answer: a
35. An element in soil will be considered as a trace element if its concentration is
a. 1 – 2 wt %
b. < 0.1 wt %
c. > 2 wt %
d. < 1 wt %
Answer: b
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System?
a. Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or
polygons mapped in the GIS.
b. Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
c. Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element
data.
d. All of the above
Answer: d
37. At Nadir, the LISS – IV camera in IRS-P6 has a spatial resolution of
a. 5.8 m
b. 5.9 m
c. 5.7 m
d. 5.6 m
Answer: a
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38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer?
a. Sodium and Potassium
b. Cadmium and Cobalt
c. Chlorine and Bromine
d. Mercury and Arsenic
Answer: a
39. The contribution of CO2 towards global warming has been estimated to be about
a. 57 – 60%
b. 60 – 75%
c. 80 – 85%
d. 45 – 55%
Answer: a
40. The principal components of photochemical smog in urban areas are
a. SO2 and NO2
b. SPM and CO
c. SPM and NO2
d. Hydrocarbons and Ozone
Answer: d
41. Match Lists – I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Aerosol Constituents) List-II (Sources)
a. Si a. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
b. V b. Natural sources
c. Benzo1pyrene c. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
d. Sulfuric acid droplets d. Incomplete combustion
A B C D
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a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0
m3/sec. Upstream from the point of junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the
river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be conservative substance and
rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
a. 6 mg/L
b. 8 mg/L
c. 8.5 mg/L
d. 7.5 mg/L
Answer: a
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is
proportional to its diameter (D) as
a. D
b. D2
c. D3/2
d. /D
Answer: b
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the nose of 93 dB is for 1 hour
duration, it represents a dose of
a. 25%
b. 50%
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c. 75%
d. 100%
Answer: a
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the
range
a. 10 – 500 m
b. 1 – 200 km
c. 100 – 1000 km
d. 1000 – 10, 000 km
Answer: b
46. When an atmosphere has an isothermal profile, it is
a. very stable
b. slightly stable
c. unstable
d. very unstable (turbulent)
Answer: b
47. The wavelength range of UV-C radiation is
a. 320 – 400 nm
b. 280 – 320 nm
c. 100 – 1500 nm
d. 240 – 280 nm
Answer: d
48. Lightening in the atmosphere produces
a. NO
b. CO
c. CO2
d. NH3
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Answer: a
49. The maximum tidal energy potential in India is
a. in Gulf of Khambhat
b. in Gangetic delta in Sundarbans
c. along the coast of Odisha
d. along the coast of Chennai
Answer: a
50. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a silicon solar cell can be
a. 45%
b. 30%
c. 12%
d. 50%
Answer: a
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
NTA NET Environmental-Science June-2013 Solved Paper II

1. Assertion (A): Every country should integrate the principles of sustainable

development into its policies and programmes.
Reason (R): Environmental resources are a Nation's wealth.
Answer: b
2. Wind rose represents statistical distribution of
a. Wind velocity in vector form
b. Wind speeds in scalar form
c. Wind speeds in π diagram
d. Wind speeds in the form of histograms
Answer: a
3. In the redox reaction given below, which one of the substrates in forward reaction is
oxidized? 2Fe3 + + H2 → 2Fe2 + + 2H +
a. Fe3 +
b. H2
c. H +
d. Fe2 +
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Answer: b
4. If soil in a given area is wetted and allowed to drain till percolation is stopped, the amount
of water thus retained is called
a. Storage capacity
b. Capillary capacity
c. Hygroscopic capacity
d. Field capacity
Answer: d
5. Quantity of 5M HCl requred for preparing 1000 ml of 0.1 M HCl is:
a. 20 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 200 ml
d. 100 ml
Answer: a
6. The method which can be used for the softening of water having high calcium, high
magnesium-carbonate hardness and some noncarbonated hardness
a. single-stage line process.
b. Excess lime process.
c. Single stage lime-soda ash process.
d. Excess lime-soda ash process.
Answer: d
7. Spotted deer, Asiatic wild ass, Black buck are:
a. Endangered species
b. Vulnerable species
c. Threatened species
d. Key species
Answer: b
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8. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by
a. Life table
b. Survivorship curve
c. Rate of mortality
d. Rate of fecundity
Answer: b
9. Which group of vertebrate comprises maximum number of endangered species?
a. Fish
b. Amphibia
c. Reptiles
d. Birds
Answer: d
10. Under anaerobic condition denitrifying Pseudomonas changes
a. Nitrate to molecular nitrogen
b. Nitrate to ammonia
c. Nitrate to Nitrite
d. Nitrite to Nitrate
Answer: a
11. The Phenomenon of having higher number of species in Eco tone is called
a. Dominance effect
b. Edge effect
c. Abundance
d. Frequency
Answer: b
12. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?
a. Both are animals
b. Both are primary consumers

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c. Both are carnivores
d. Both are herbivores
Answer: c
13. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal
species:
a. Ecological niche
b. Decrease in reproductive potency.
c. Lesser adaptability to fluctuating environment.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
14. Positive mass balance of glaciers has been recently reported from
a. Eastern Himalayas
b. Nepal Himalayas
c. Western Himalayas
d. Karakoram
Answer: d
15. Which of the following will lead to reduction in greenhouse gases in atmosphere?
a. Increased chemical weathering of rocks.
b. Volcanic eruption
c. Lowering of mean sea level
d. An increase in melting of glacial ice
Answer: a
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16. The unconsolidated material with highest permeability is
a. Landslide with clayey component
b. Altered volcanic ash
c. Well sorted alluvial sand
d. Buried mud flows
Answer: c
17. Which of the following component of cryosphere has the longest life?
a. Sea ice
b. Icebergs
c. Valley glaciers
d. Ice sheets
Answer: d
18. Aerobic bacteria is most active in
a. Moist and saturated sol
b. Moist and non-saturated soil
c. Alluvial soil
d. Permafrost
Answer: b
19. Andisols are formed by
a. Biological activity
b. Erosion by wind
c. Erosion by waves
d. Volcanoes
Answer: d
20. In case of photovoltaic cell, the maximum theoretical efficiency of conversion is
a. ~ 45 %
b. ~ 30 %
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c. ~ 25 %
d. ~ 50 %
Answer: a
21. Consider an ideal wind power generator of the wind speed increases 3 times, the power
output would increase by how many times?
a. 3
b. 9
c. 27
d. 81
Answer: c
22. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of total CO2 emissions from various
countries at present.
a. Britain < India < China < USA
b. India < Britain < China < USA
c. Britain < USA < India < China
d. Britain < India < USA < China
Answer: d
23. Arsenic compounds cause
a. Dwarfism
b. Dermatitis
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. Wilson's disease
Answer: b
24. What is the pE value in an acid mine water sample having [Fe2 + ] = 7.03 × 10–3 M and
[Fe3 + ] = 3.71 × 10–4 M
a. 10.5
b. 12.5
c. 14.5
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d. 18.5
Answer: c
25. Assertion (A): Chronic exposure to ozone is a possible contributor to forest decline.
Reason (R): Surface ozone is a greenhouse gas.
Answer: b
26. Identify the most dominant pollutant in terms of its concentration levels in urban
atmosphere.
a. Oxides of nitrogen
b. Oxides of sulphur
c. Particulate matter
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: d
27. The main constituents of photochemical smog are
a. Oxides of sulphur and CO
b. Oxides of sulphur and hydrocarbons
c. Oxides of nitrogen and CO
d. Oxides of nitrogen, hydrocarbons and ozone
Answer: d
28. The air borne fraction of carbon is
a. ~ 0.72
b. ~ 0.62
c. ~ 0.46
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d. ~ 0.38
Answer: c
29. The noise index Leq is used for noise standards in ambient environment of urban areas.
The prescribed duration of the integration associated with Leq is
a. 12 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 1 hour
d. 30 minutes
Answer: b
30. In alkaline soils, which of the following is not present in soluble state?
a. Phosphorous
b. Calcium
c. Nitrates
d. Potassium
Answer: a
31. Which one of the following is not a post audit activity under environmental audit process?
a. Review of draft report by Law department.
b. Issue of final report to functional specialist.
c. Develop action plan to establish responsibility.
d. Report audit findings.
Answer: d
32. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Specification for environmental management system ISO 14001
b. Environmental performance evaluation ISO 14040
c. Guidelines for environmental auditing ISO 14000
d. Environmental labels and declaration ISO 14004
Answer: a
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33. In accordance with the Indian EIA notification 2006, within how many days if
Envronmental Appraisal Committee does not specify the Terms of Reference, the
proponent can go ahead with its own Terms of Reference.
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
Answer: c
34. Which is the correct sequence for impact assessment process in EIA?
a. Description of Environment → Identification of impacts → Prediction of impacts →

Evaluation of impacts → Identification of mitigation needs.
b. Identification of impacts → Prediction of impacts → Evaluation of impacts

→Identification of mitigation needs.
c. Identification of impacts → Description of Environment → Prediction of impacts →

d. Prediction of impacts → Identification of impacts → Description of environment →

Answer: a
35. Quantifying the energy and raw material requirement as a part of life cycle assessment, is
termed as
a. Life Cycle improvement analysis.
b. Life Cycle impact analysis.
c. Life Cycle inventory.
d. Life Cycle pre-requisites.
Answer: c
36. Which of the following pertains to “high-waste approach” in dealing with the solid and
hazardous wastes?
a. Burying and burning
b. Recycling
c. Composting
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d. Reusing
Answer: a
37. Assertion (A): Dumping of sewage to river water may decrease oxygen even below 4
mg/l.
Reason (R): Dumping of sewage pollutes river water heavily.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true with (R) being the correct explanation.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
c. A is true, but R is wrong.
d. Both A and R are wrong.
Answer: a
38. In most of the studies, a large sample size is anticipated to
a. Get a low level of precision.
b. Maximize the sampling error.
c. Get a high level of precision.
d. Maximize the standard deviation.
Answer: c
39. The geometric mean of 4, 8 and 16 is
a. 9.3
b. 8.0
c. 4.8
d. 10.2
Answer: b
40. The mean and standard deviation of a Binomal distribution are 9 and 1, respectively. The
first moment of the distribution is
a. 9
b. 3
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: d
41. Which one of the following is used in manufacturing flexible plastic bags and sheets?
a. Polystyrene (PS)
b. Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
c. Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
d. TEFLON
Answer: c
42. Which one of the following is a non-formal environment education and awareness
programme?
a. Environmental appreciation courses.
b. National Environment Awareness Campaign.
c. Environmental Education in school system.
d. Environmental Management Business Studies.
Answer: b
43. Bio parks are conceived, developed and managed with a goal of conservation of
biodiversity through:
a. Development of educational and scientific activities.
b. Promoting silviculture and monoculture.
c. Promoting local community welfare without harming the natural habitat.
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
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44. In about a 7 metre deep pond the series of vegetation development will be
a. Submerged → Floating → Reed → Herb
b. Floating → Submerged → Reed → Herb
c. Floating → Reed → Submerged → Herb
d. Submerged → Reed → Floating → Herb
Answer: a
45. In terrestrial ecosystems, roughly how much NPP ends up being broken down by
decomposers?
a. 90 %
b. 70 %
c. 50 %
d. 10 %
Answer: a
46. Which of the following BOD level waste water is permitted to be released inlands by
industries under water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
a. 30 mg/l
b. 80 mg/l
c. 100 mg/l
d. 150 mg/l
Answer: a
47. Hydraulic conductivity is a function of
a. medium alone
b. Fluid alone
c. Either fluid or medium
d. Both fluid and medium
Answer: d
48. Dachigan sanctuary is associated with
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a. Hangul
b. Rhinoceros
c. Barking deer
d. Leopard
Answer: a
49. Rio + 20 summit was held in
a. Durban
b. Johannesburg
c. Rio de Janeiro
d. Cancun
Answer: c
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4/11/2019----NTA NET Environmental-Science September 2013 Solved Paper II- Translation in Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Sindhi,
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
NTA NET Environmental-Science September-2013 Solved

Paper II
1. National Land Reform Policy stresses on
a. Restoration of ecological balance
b. Natural regeneration
c. Tenancy reforms
d. Watershed approach
Answer: c
2. Nalgonda technique of fluoride removal involves the use of
a. Aluminium salts
b. Sodium salts
c. Potassium salts
d. Magnesium salts
Answer: a
3. In which years the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was held and came into force?
a. 1951, 1955
b. 1961, 1965
c. 1971, 1975
d. 1981, 1985
Answer: c
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4. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect humans from
a. Toxic gases
b. Hospital acquired infections
c. Persistent organic pollutants
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: c
5. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?
a. Ensuring environmental sustainability
b. Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
c. Developing global partnership for development
d. Achieving universal energy security
Answer: d
6. In turbidity analysis, formazin is used
a. To stabilize the samples
b. To preserve the samples
c. To make turbidity standards
d. To remove colour interferences
Answer: c
7. pE values in water range from approxmately
a. – 1 to 14
b. – 12 to 25
c. 1 to 12
d. 0 to 14
Answer: b
8. Point out the right match concerning the toxic metal and associated adverse impact.
a. Zn – Brain tissue damage
b. Ni – Keratosis
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c. Ar – Renal poisoning
d. Hg – Pulmonary disease
Answer: a
9. Amount of 8-hydroxyquinoline (M. W. 145.16) required for preparing 1000 ml of 5 ppm

solution is
a. 1.45 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 7.25 mg
d. 14.5 mg
Answer: b
10. What is OH– ion concentration of HCl whose pH is 3?
a. –3
b. 3
c. 10–3
d. 10–11
Answer: d
11. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under:
a. Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement)
b. Atomic Energy Act, 1962
c. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d. Biomedical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules 1998
Answer: c
12. Which of the following parameters is not an indicator of water vapour present in a certain
quantity of air?
a. Virtual temperature
b. Potential temperature
c. Wet bulb temperature
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d. Dew point
Answer: b
13. The background noise level in an area is represented by which of the following noise
indices?
a. L10
b. L50
c. L90
d. TNI
Answer: c
14. The chemical formula for CFC-11 is
a. CF2Cl2
b. CFCl3
c. CHFCl2
d. CHCl3
Answer: b
15. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Mollisol a. Tundra
b. Oxisol b. Tropical rain forest
c. Soils of high altitude c. Prairie soil
d. Soils of low altitude d. Rich in iron oxide
A B C D
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a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: a
16. Particles which have maximum ability to attract and hold K +, Ca + + and NH4 + ions on
their surface are
a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Loam
d. Loamy sand
Answer: a
17. Compared to CO2, methane has global warming potential of
a. 5 – 10 times more
b. 20 – 25 times more
c. 40 – 45 times more
d. 60 – 65 times more
Answer: b
18. Laterite soil contains more of
a. Iron and Aluminium
b. Magnesium and Boron
c. Manganese and Silicate
d. Potassium and Lead
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Answer: a
19. Universally accepted method for isolating semivolatile organic compounds from their
matrices is
a. Double infiltration
b. Solvent extraction
c. Sedimentation technique
d. Permeation
Answer: b
20. The relationship between two organisms in which one receives benefit at the cost of other
is known as
a. Predation
b. Parasitism
c. Scavenging
d. Symbiosis
Answer: b
21. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from
a. Higher to lower altitude and higher to lower latitude
b. Lower to higher altitude and higher to lower latitude
c. Lower to higher altitude and lower to higher latitude
d. Higher to lower altitude and lower to higher latitude
Answer: a
22. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?
a. Asiatic Lion
b. Bengal Tiger
c. Indian White rumped vulture
d. Mountain gorilla
Answer: d
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23. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square
metre?
a. A grassland
b. A coral reef
c. An open ocean
d. A tropical rain forest
Answer: c
24. The rate of energy at consumer's level is called
a. Primary productivity
b. Gross primary productivity
c. Net primary productivity
d. Secondary productivity
Answer: c
25. Peaty soil is found more in
a. Kerala
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Gujarat
Answer: a
26. Brown forest sol is also known as
a. Entisols
b. Altisols
c. Spodosols
d. Mollisols
Answer: a
27. Establishment of a species in a new area is referred to as
a. Stabilization
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b. Aggregation
c. Ecesis
d. Migration
Answer: c
28. The Zooplankton of continental shelf is generally the same as in
a. Neritic region
b. Pelagic region
c. Estuary region
d. Benthic region
Answer: b
29. ‘Mesothelioma’ is caused by toxicity of
a. Mercury
b. Lead
c. Arsenic
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: c
30. Algal biofertilizer consists of
a. Blue green algae and earthworm
b. Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza
c. Blue green algae and Azolla
d. Green algae and Rhizobia
Answer: c
31. A volcanic eruption will be violent if there is
a. High silica and low volatiles
b. High silica and high volatiles
c. Low silica and low volatiles
d. Low silica and high volatiles

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Answer: a
32. Which of the following is the satellite for measuring precipitation?
a. GRACE
b. TRMM
c. ASTER
d. SPOT
Answer: b
33. Clay minerals are
a. Tectosilicates
b. Sorosilicates
c. Inosilicates
d. Phyllosilicates
Answer: d
34. Vertical dimensions can be obtained from
a. DEM
b. SRTM
c. Topographic Sheets
d. All the above
Answer: d
35. In biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element or molecule moves through
a. Biosphere and lithosphere
b. Biosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere
c. Biosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
d. Lithosphere and atmosphere
Answer: c
36. Which of the following is not considered as a major type of seashore?
a. Rocky shore
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b. Sandy shore
c. Muddy shore
d. Clayey shore
Answer: d
37. Low-high tides are called
a. Spring tide
b. Neap tide
c. Perigean tide
d. Apogean tide
Answer: b
38. Consider an ideal wind mill. For following parameters: Vane cross-sectional area = 30 m2;
wind speed = 10 m/s; density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and conversion efficiency = 0.4 What is
the power output of the wind mill?
a. ~ 5.24 kW
b. ~ 8.21 kW
c. ~ 10.25 kW
d. ~ 7.74 kW
Answer: d
39. Biogas produced by anaerobic bacterial activity is a mixture of
a. CH3OH, CO2, NH3 and H2O
b. CH4, CO2, NH3, H2S and H2O
c. H2S, CO2, CO, CH4 and LPG
d. CO2, SO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O
Answer: b
40. At present, what is the share of renewable energy in the total energy production of India?
a. ~ 11 – 12%
b. ~ 2 – 3%
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c. ~ 20%
d. ~ 25 – 30%
Answer: a
41. If all of the atmosphere were at standard temperature and pressure, then present day CO2
concentration of 392 ppm would correspond to how much carbon in the atmosphere?
a. ~ 415 Gt
b. ~ 831 Gt
c. ~ 1245 Gt
d. ~ 1620 Gt
Answer: b
42. Risk assessment is different from Environmental Impact Assessment in terms of
a. Hazard identification
b. Disaster management
c. Probability expression
d. Consideration of human environment
Answer: c
43. Reliable, quantitative and verifiable data used in Environmental Impact Assessment study
are called
a. Hard data
b. Soft data
c. Continuous data
d. Discrete data
Answer: a
44. Which category of projects does not require Environmental Impact Assessment in
accordance with the Indian EIA Notification 2006?
a. Category A
b. Category B1
c. Category B2
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Answer: c
45. Environmental Protection Act was enacted in India during
a. 1986
b. 1984
c. 1994
d. 1987
Answer: a
46. Minimum Stock heght of incinerators should be
a. 10 m
b. 15 m
c. 30 m
d. 60 m
Answer: c
47. Basal convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste was implemented in

the year
a. 1969
b. 1979
c. 1989
d. 1999
Answer: c
48. The events A and B are mutually exclusive. If P (A) = 0.5 and P (B) = 0.2, then what is P (A
& B)?
a. 0.5
b. 0.1
c. 0.7
d. 0.3
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Answer: b
49. A population, from where samples are drawn, is called
a. Total population
b. Target population
c. Accessible population
d. Universal population
Answer: c
50. The rate of variation of population (N) with time (t) represented by equation dN/dt = γ N,
follows
a. J-shaped curve
b. S-shaped curve
c. Z-shaped curve
d. Parabolic curve
Answer: a
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om
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PAPER-III
m
NOTE: This paper is of hvo hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
xa
Candidates are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections

according to the detailed instructions given therein.
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D-8906 2
SECTION- I
Note: Th1s sechon con tams hve (5) queshons based on the follo'W!ng
paragraph Ea:h queshon should be ans"Wered m about t!-urty (30)
'WOrds and ea:h carnes hve (5) marks
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the pa5sage belmv, and answer the questions that follmv ba5ed on your
om
underrrtanding af the passage :
In rur quahty1mpact assessment meteorological chara:tenshcs hke churnat
seasonal and annual '\OJ!th parhcular reference to '\OJ!nd speeds and chrechons,
temperature mverswns, mctdence type and depth, both honzontal and verhcal
.c
turbulence, rruxmg he1ghls and mean layer '\OJ!nds are uhhzed Ma:ro-, meso-,
and rrucro-meteorolo&cal charactenshcs are also to be noted
The ahnosphere has al'\OJaj!B been polluted to some extent through natural
ce
phenomenon and/or human achv1hes In recent hmes, technolog1cal
advancement mdustnal expans10n and urban1zahon have been the m31or
contnbutors to global atr polluhon .A!r polluhon adversely affects human health
ra
and property The !YlaJOr sources of atr pollutants are from transportahon, fuel
combushon, mdustr1al processes, non-transportal! on fuel combushon and some
natural sources such as '\OJ!ld hres
m
The polluhon of atr we breathe, 1rorucally enough, 1s an mchrect result of

our pursu1t of an even h1gher standards of hvmg Alr polluhon 1s caused by the
xa
burnmg of fuel for heat and power, the processmg of matenal, and the chsposal
of '\'JaStes Alr polluhon, m short comes from those evety day achv1hes, V<.tuch
are so mtegral part of th1s modern advance soc1ety
.e
Most of the rur polluhon comes from econorrucally advanced counlr1es,

combushon of fuels h'h1ch leads to produce heat and 'WOrk Thus energy use 1s
clearly related to standard of hvmg and a compar1son of the Gross Nahonal
w
Produchon (GNP) per cap1ta to the energy use per cap1ta, shm.vs a pos1hve
correlahon
w
An 1mportant rur pollutant such as sulfur choX!de needs to be cons1dered

spec1ally The toX!c a:hon of sulfur choX!de anses partly from the chrect effects of
w
1ls solub1hlyproducts e g S03 - 2 and HS03 - on photosynthehc process of

photophosphorylahon and ATP synthes1s But further tox1c effects of S0 2 ar1ses
from the free rachcals, wl-uch generate the cham rea:hons Exposure of relahvely
h1gher concentrahons of ｓｾ＠ and N0 2 together 1s more delr1mental than ea:h of
them alone, because S0 2 mh1b1ls the normal N0 2 detox1hcahon pathway,
ao:umulahng N0 2 - and N0 3 - m the chloroplasts, affechng the photosynthehc
ab1hty of the plant
D-8906 P.T.O.
1. VVJ-uch meteorologtcal chara:tenshcs adversely affect the atr quahty 7
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2. VI/hat are the ma1or fa:tors that contnbute to atr polluhon 7

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D-8906
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3. Hmv the greed of manhndis responsible for the mcrerue m a1r polluhon 7
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4. Hmv econorrucally advanced countnes are responsible for rur polluhon 7

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5. Wnte the toXIc effects of sulfur choXJde 7
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SECTION- II
Note: 11-us sechon conlatns hfteen (15) queshons ea:h to be ans-wered m
about thirty (3J) worffi Ea:h queshon carnes hve (5) marks
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(5x15=75 marks)
Write short notes on the following:
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6. Compos1hon of Ahnosphere
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D-8906
9. Cost b eneht analys1s "'"'th respect to EIA
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10. Deserhhcahon
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11. Esluaty
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12. Probab1h ty
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D-8906 P.T.O.
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13. Alr- borne chserues
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14. EIA gLudehnes (19'14)

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15. Prmctples of coagulahon m "\'Vater treahnent
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16. El Nmo
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D-8906 n P.T.O.
17. Box Model
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18. Quadrat Method

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19. Wetlands
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20. ·cru ·square

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D-8906 P.T.O.
SECTION- III
Note: 11-us sechon contams hve (5) queshons Ea:h queshon carnes twelve
(12) marks and iS to be ans"Wered m about two hundred (200) 'WOrds
(12x5=60 marks)
21. VVhystudents T test iS necessaty to analyse vanous p=rrameters of envuonment 7 Wnte

bnefly about the test of hypothesis and i Is sigmhcance
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22. "Global Warrrungis due to burrung of fossil fuel""- Comment on the statement VVhat
iS the current trend m Global Warrrung 7
23. Describe the phenomenon of bwmagmhcahon Eluctdate your answer"'"' th suitable
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example frompeshctde group of Cherrucals
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24. VVhy iS Envuonmental Management Plan (EMP) necessaty 7 O!scuss various aspects
of EMP to rrumrruse enVironmental costs
25. Describe vanous methods of enumerahon of ba:tena m sod

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D-8906
SECTION- IV
Note: 11-us s echon consis Is of one essay type q ues h on of forty (40) marks to
be answered m about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
followmg topes
(40x1=40 marks)
26. Wnte on any one of the followmg

(a) Descnbe vanous causes of Deplehng B10chversily Discuss strateg1es for
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conservahon of bi ochversi ty
OR
(b) Discuss vanous natural hazards commonly encountered m the Indian
sub-conhnent
OR
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(c) VVhy iS Environmental Educahon necesscuy m the present day curnculum 7
O!scuss chfferent methods that may be adopted for suo:essfulimplementahon of
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EnVironmental Educahon m Incha
OR
(d) VVhat iS Hazardous Waste 7 Discuss various methods of safe chsposal of these
"\'JaStes Enumerate the chfhculhes m a:lualimplementahon of the same
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OR
(e) "Overexpl01tahon of natural resources leads to enVironmental polluhon""
Comment on the above statement and JUshfyyour "'"""
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OR
(f) Dehne EIA O!scuss m detrul E!Afor arrurungmdushy
OR
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(g) VI/hat are the sources of N01se Polluhon 7 Descnbe different methods of
measurement of n01se levels Enumerate the impact of n01se on human health
OR
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(h) VI/hat iS the prmciple of generahon of Hydroelectric Power VI/hat are the
enV!ronmentalimpa:ts of mega hydroelectric power proJects 7 How they can be
rruhgated 7
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D--8906 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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(m hgures)
S1gnature & Name of the Coordinator
(Evaluahon) Date
D-8906
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ENVIRONMENTAL
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SCIENCE
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PAPER-III
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NOTE: This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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D-8907
SECTION- I
Note: This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks_
(5x5=25 marks)
Tropical forests alongwith rangelands and wildemess are key biological
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resources subjected to iru:reasing stress due to population growth and economic
development_ Potentially forests cover about 34% of the earth's land surface, but
in the last four decades about half of the world's forests have been destroyed to
provide for croplands, rangelands, dam reservoirs and urban lands_ World-wide
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tropical forests are disappearing faster than any other terrestrial ecosystem_
Forests supply us wood for housing. biomass for fuel wood, pulp for paper,
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medicines and many other products_ The society receives many benefits, called
ecosystem services, from natural and managed forest ecosystems which perform
several vital ecological functions_ Forested watersheds act as giant sponges,
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absorbing. holding and gradually releasing water that recharges springs, streams
and aquifers_ Forests help control soil erosion and build soil fertility and reduce
severity of flooding and silting_
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Forests also play an important role in the global carbon cycle, acting as
defense against global wanning_ Through photosynthesis trees help remove
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carbon dioxide from and add oxygen to the air_ That is why the bush tropical
forests have been called "the lungs of the earth"_
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Forests provide habitats for a large number of wild life species, making
themselves the planet's reservoir of biological diversity_ Forests also help buffer
noise, absorb some pollutants and nourish human spirit by providing solitude
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and beauty_
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The ecological benefits of forests have rarely been quantified in economic

tenns_ For instance, it is estimated that a typical tree may provide Rs_ 80 lakhs
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worth of ecosystem services_ Sold as timber the same tree may not be worth more
than Rs_ 25000_
The tropical forests should be considered as non-renewable resource in

human time scale_ Conservation of these vital resources from degradation, using
them sustainably and restoring those we have degraded are our most important
challenges today_
D-8907 P.T.O.
'
1. The author is primarily concerned with :
(A) Describing reduction in forest cover
(B) Listing uses of forests
(C) Emphasizing economic value of forests
(D) Emphasizing the ecological significaru:e of forests
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2. Tropical forest area is getting reduced mainly due to :
(A) Global climate change
(B) Increasing population pressure and economic development
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(C) Requirement of wood

(D) J\.faking water reservoirs
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D-8907
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3. Which of the followllig benefits pertain to unseen ecosystem services derived from
forests ?
(A) Supply of timber
(B) Supply of raw materials for medicines
(Q Supply of fuel wood
(D) Supply of potsble water
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4. The material in passage could be best used as an argument :
(A) To promote forest studies
(B) To emphasize conservation of tropical forests
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(Q To evaluate the economic value of forests

(D) To promote ecotourism
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D-8907 P.T.O.
5. What is the most critical environmental issue associated with tropical forests within
the present day human time scale ?
(A) Rapid destruction
(B) Non-renewable nature
(C) Excessive extraction of timber
(D) Lack of conservation measures
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SECTION- II
Note: This section contains fifteen (15) questions each to be answered in
about thirty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
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(5x15=75 marks)
6. Bioinoculants.
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7. Solid state fermentation.
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8. Soil carbon sequestration.

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9. E:xtremophile.
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10. Inversion layer.

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11. Environmental audit.
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12. PlvGs
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D-8907 9 P.T.O.
15. Opitcal density.
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16. COD.
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17. Add rain.
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18. Keystone species.

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19. Food chains.
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20. &ological niche.

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D-8907 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note: This section contains five (5) questions_ Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words_
(Ux5=60 marks)
21. Use of GIS in EnviromnentalJ\.fanagement_
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22. J\.fa:rine Pollution in India_
23. Signilicance of Nutrient Cycling in &osystems_
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24. Bioenergy Potential in India_
25. Microbial Degradstion of Cellulose_
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D-8907
SECTION- IV
Note: This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
Write on any one of the following :
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26.
(a) What is Bioremediation? Comment on bioremediation of soils contaminated
with oil spills.
OR
(b) Enumerate advantages and disadvantages of Genetically Modified Organism
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(GMOS) and their environmental coru:em.s_
OR
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(c) Signilicaru:e and approaches of biodiversity conservation_
OR
(d) Outlinf< the general priru:iples of analytical methods of water quality assessment_
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OR
(e) Environmental impacts of open cast coal minirtg.
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OR
(f) Environmental problems associated with mega-thennal power plants and remedial
measures_
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OR
(g) Approaches to restoration and rehabilitation of degraded ecosystems_
OR
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(h) Current environmental issues in lndia_

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D-8907 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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Total l\1arks Obtamed (in words) _

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(in figures) _
Signature & Name of the Coordinator _
(Evaluation) Date_
D-8907
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
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Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜU° çÙÎðüàæ
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minutes. Afterwards, neither the question ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ ßæÂâ Üè ÁæØð»è ¥õÚU Ù ãè ¥æÂ·¤ô ¥çÌçÚUQ¤
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1 2 ! # ÜUõÅUæÙæ ¥æßàØ·¤ ãñ ¥õÚU §âð ÂÚUèÿææ â×æç# ·ð¤ ÕæÎ ¥ÂÙð âæÍ
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.% 3 4 ·ð¤ßÜ ÙèÜð / ·¤æÜð ÕæÜU ßæ§ZÅU ÂñÙ ·¤æ ãè §SÌð×æÜ ·¤Úð¢UÐ
4 Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 5 ç·¤âè Öè Âý·¤æÚU ·¤æ â¢»æ·¤ (·ñ¤Ü·é¤ÜðÅUÚU) UØæ Üæ» ÅðUÕÜ
5 Use of any calculator or log table etc. is prohibited. ¥æçÎ ·¤æ ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
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PAPERIII
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NOTE : This paper is of two hund ed (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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D8908 2
SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 marks)
The eutrophication is the nutrient enrichment in a water body. A freshly
formed body of water has a very low concentration of plant nutrients. Little plant
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life develops in such waters. Low primary production limits animal communities
as well. Surface runoffs, wind borne dust and organic debris, excreta and exudates
of animals which use water, slowly raise the nutrient content. Bacteria and
cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen. Phosphates in rocks and detritus at the
bottom are solubilized by the microbial activity. In gradual stages the nutrient
status of the water improves. A moderate population of plants, animals, aquatic
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fungi and other microorganisms develop. With the passage of time further nutrient
enrichment occurs. Dense population of plants, phytoplanktons and animals now
appears. At this stage, the aquatic system becomes highly productive in terms of
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fish yield and other produce. Based on nutrient status and productivity an aquatic
system can be classified into the following three types : The oligotrophic or water
with poor nutrient status and productivity; the mesotrophic or water with
intermediate or moderate nutrient status and productivity; and eutrophic or water
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with rich nutrient status with high productivity. In some eutrophic waters dense
population of planktonic algae develops, water turns green followed by unpleasant
odour referred to as water bloom.
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Answer the following questions :
1. Define the term eutrophication.

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D8908 3 P.T.O.
2. What results eutrophication ?
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3. Which are the organisms that fix up nitrogen ?

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D8908 4
4. Name the types of eutrophication.
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5. What is water bloom ?

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D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Note : This section contains fifteen (15) questions, each to be answered in

bout thirty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
(5x15=75 marks)
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6. Repetitive DNA ra
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D8908 6
7. Transgenic plants
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8. Hot spots of biodiversity

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D8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Acid rain
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10. Air quality monitoring (A A Q)

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11. Marine spillage
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12. Role of algae in biodiesel production

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D8908 9 P.T.O.
13. Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)
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14. Applications of Diatoms

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D8908 10
15. Internal structure of Earth
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16. Carrying capacity of a river

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D8908 11 P.T.O.
17. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation
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18. Environmental audit

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D8908 12
19. Carbonate compensation depth
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20. Water quality index

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D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 marks)
21. Ecological succession
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22. Kyoto Protocol
23. Plastic waste management
24. Utility of biofertilizers in agriculture
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25. Use of EIA in environment management
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D8908 14
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P.T.O.
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P.T.O.
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P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any one of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
26. Write an essay on any one of the following :

(a) Groundwater provinces and resources of India.
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OR
(b) Environmental aspects related to large dams such as Tehri Dam or Narmada
Dam.
OR
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(c) Mineral resources of India.
OR
(d) Recycling of agricultural waste and bioremidiation.
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OR
(e) Causes of air pollution and the role played by greenhouse gases and aerosols.
OR
ra
(f) What are natural hazards ? Discuss causes effects, mitigation of floods and
droughts in India.
OR
m
(g) Nuclear energy is important for energy needs of India - Critically evaluate the
statement.
OR
xa
(h) Give a descriptive account of evolution of organisms for their adaptability in

present day environment
.e
w
w
w
D8908 24
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
25
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
26
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
27
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
28
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
29
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
30
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
31
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
om
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
.c
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
ce
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
ra
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
m
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
xa
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
.e
21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
w
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
w
Total Marks Obtained (in words) .....................................

w
(in figures) ....................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...............................
(Evaluation) Date .............................
D8908 32
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
om
.c


ce
# ' &
ra
#
% (

m
# #
#

xa
.e
be given.
w
+ ,

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w
&
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
PAPERIII
m
xa

.e
w
w
w
D8908 2
SECTION - I
(5x5=25 marks)
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 3 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 4
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II

(5x15=75 marks)
om
.c
ce
m
xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 6
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Acid rain
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 8
11. Marine spillage
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 9 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 10
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 11 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 12
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
(12x5=60 marks)
om
22. Kyoto Protocol
.c
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 14
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
15
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
16
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
17
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
18
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
19
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
20
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
21
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
22
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
23
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)

om
OR
Dam.
OR
.c
OR
ce
OR
OR
ra
droughts in India.
OR
m
statement.
OR
xa

.e
w
w
w
D8908 24
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
25
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
26
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
27
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
28
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
29
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
30
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
31
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
om
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
.c
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
ce
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
ra
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
m
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
xa
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
.e
21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
w
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
w

w
(in figures) ....................................
(Evaluation) Date .............................
D8908 32
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
om
.c


ce
# ' &
ra
#
% (

m
# #
#

xa
.e
be given.
w
+ ,

·¤ÚUÙð ·ð¤
w
&
w
&


D8908 1 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
PAPERIII
m
xa

.e
w
w
w
D8908 2
SECTION - I
(5x5=25 marks)
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 3 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 4
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II

(5x15=75 marks)
om
.c
ce
m
xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 6
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Acid rain
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 8
11. Marine spillage
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 9 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 10
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 11 P.T.O.
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 12
om
.c
ce
ra
m

xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
(12x5=60 marks)
om
22. Kyoto Protocol
.c
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 14
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
15
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
16
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
17
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
18
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
19
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
20
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
21
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
22
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
23
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)

om
OR
Dam.
OR
.c
OR
ce
OR
OR
ra
droughts in India.
OR
m
statement.
OR
xa

.e
w
w
w
D8908 24
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
25
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
26
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
27
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
28
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
29
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
30
ra
ce
.c
om
w
D8908
w
w
.e
xa
m
31
ra
ce
.c
om
P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
om
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
.c
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
ce
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
ra
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
m
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
xa
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
.e
21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
w
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
w

w
(in figures) ....................................
(Evaluation) Date .............................
D8908 32
PAPER-III
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________ Roll No.
2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
D 89 1 0 (In words)

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë ê ×»Ö ×Ö¤ì ¿Ö
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂ ê ¯Ö¸ ×ÖµÖÖ Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×Ö
of this page.
2. Answer to short answer/essay type questions are to be
2. »ÖÖã ¯ÖÏ¿Ö Ö£ÖÖ ×Ö²ÖÓ¬Ö ¯ÖÏ Ö¸ ê ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë ê ¢Ö¸, ¯ÖÏµÖê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö ê ÖßÖê µÖÖ
given in the space provided below each question or ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë ê ²ÖÖ¤ ´Öë ×¤µÖê Æã ×¸Ö Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ Æß ×»Ö×ÖµÖê
after the questions in the Test Booklet itself. ÃÖê ×»Ö ÖêÔ ×Ö×¸Ö ÖÖÖ Ö ¯ÖµÖÖêÖ ÖÆà ¸ÖÖ Æî
3. ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖêÖê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö Ö¯Ö Öê ¤ê ¤ß ÖÖµÖêÖß ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖÖÑÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question ×´ÖÖ Ö¯Ö Öê ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ÖÖê»ÖÖê Ö£ÖÖ ÃÖ ß ×Ö´Ö×»Ö×ÖÖ ÖÖÑÖ ê
booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you ×»Ö ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê, ×ÖÃÖ ß ÖÖÑÖ Ö¯Ö Öê ¾Ö¿µÖ ¸Öß Æî :
are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily
examine it as below : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ÖÖê»ÖÖê ê ×»Ö ÃÖê ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖêÖ ¯Ö¸ »ÖÖß ÖÖÖ ß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the ÃÖß»Ö Öê ± ÖÍ »Öë Öã»Öß Æã Ô µÖÖ ×²ÖÖÖ Ãß ¸-ÃÖß»Ö ß ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not Ã¾Öß Ö¸ Ö ¸ë
accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not
accept an open booklet. (ii) ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖéÂ ¯Ö¸ ¯Öê ×Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ê ¯ÖéÂ Ö£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿ÖÖë
ß ÃÖÓµÖÖ Öê ß Ö¸Æ Öî ¸ »Öë × µÖê ¯Öæ¸ê Æï ¤ÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÖÔ
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ×ÖÖ´Öë ¯ÖéÂ/¯ÖÏ¿Ö ´Ö ÆÖë µÖÖ ¤ã ²ÖÖ¸Ö Ö ÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸µÖ»Ö
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ´Öë Ö ÆÖë £ÖÖÔÖ × ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏ Ö¸ ß ¡Öã×¯ÖæÖÔ ¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö Ã¾Öß Ö¸ Ö
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any ¸ë Ö£ÖÖ ÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ÃÖê »ÖÖî Ö ¸ ÃÖê Ã£ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¤æ ÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß
other discrepancy should be got replaced ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö »Öê »Öë ÃÖê ×»Ö Ö¯Ö Öê ¯ÖÖÑÖ ×´ÖÖ ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê
immediately by a correct booklet from the ÃÖê ²ÖÖ¤ Ö ÖÖê Ö¯Ö ß ¯ÖÏ¿Ö-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß ÖÖµÖêÖß Öî¸ Ö
invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
Æß Ö¯Ö Öê ×Ö×¸Ö ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤µÖÖ ÖÖµÖêÖÖ
replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. ¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÖµÖê ×Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Öê ¬µÖÖÖ¯Öæ¾ÖÔ ¯ÖÍë
4. Read instructions given inside carefully. 5. ¢Ö¸-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ê Ö ´Öë ÖÖ Ö´Ö (Rough Work) ¸Öê ê ×»Ö
5. One page is attached for Rough Work at the end of the ´Öæ»µÖÖÓ Ö ¿Öß ÃÖê ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂ ×¤µÖÖ Æã Ö Æî
booklet before the Evaluation Sheet.
6. µÖ×¤ Ö¯Ö ¢Ö¸-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÖÖ ÖÖ´Ö µÖÖ êÃÖÖ ÖêÔ ³Öß ×Ö¿ÖÖÖ ×ÖÃÖÃÖê
6. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of Ö¯Ö ß ¯ÖÆÖÖÖ ÆÖê ÃÖê , × ÃÖß ³Öß ³ÖÖÖ ¯Ö¸ ¤¿ÖÖÔÖê µÖÖ Ó× Ö ¸Öê Æï ÖÖê
the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the
relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ê ×»ÖµÖê µÖÖêµÖ ÖÖê×ÂÖÖ ¸ ×¤µÖê ÖÖµÖëÖê
will render yourself liable to disqualification. 7. Ö¯Ö Öê ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯Ö ÆÖêÖê ¯Ö¸ ¢Ö¸-¯ÖãÛÃÖ Ö ×Ö¸ßÖ ´ÖÆÖê¤ µÖ Öê »ÖÖî ÖÖÖ
7. You have to return the test booklet to the invigilators at Ö¾Ö¿µÖ Æî Öî¸ ÃÖê ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖÛ¯Ö ê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÖê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßÖÖ ³Ö¾ÖÖ ÃÖê
the end of the examination compulsorily and must not ²ÖÖÆ¸ Ö »Öê ¸ ÖÖµÖë
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
8. ê ¾Ö»Ö Öß»Öê/ Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖÕ ¯ÖêÖ Ö Æß ÃÖê´ÖÖ»Ö ¸ë
8. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
9. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 9. × ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏ Ö¸ Ö ÃÖÓÖÖ (î »Öã »Öê ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÖ ê ²Ö»Ö Ö×¤ Ö
¯ÖÏµÖÖêÖ ¾ÖÙÖÖ Æî
D-89-10 P.T.O.
www.examrace.com
PAPER – III
Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Candidates
are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the
detailed instructions given therein.
D-89-10 2
www.examrace.com
SECTION – I
Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each, to be
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 marks)
1. Municipal solid waste management.

OR
Environmental problems associated with megathermal power plants.
OR
Ground water provinces of India.
OR
Agro-climatic regions of India.
OR
Biodiversity and climate change.
OR
Biodegradation of plant biomass.
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D-89-10 3 P.T.O.
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D-89-10 4
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D-89-10 5 P.T.O.
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D-89-10 6
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2. Wetland Conservation.
OR
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Environmental protection.
OR
The types, sources and consequences of water pollution.
OR
Soil bioremediation – An emerging technology.
OR
An ecosystem, its structure and functions.
OR
Environmental Impacts of thermochemical and photochemical reactions in
atmosphere.
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D-89-10 7 P.T.O.
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D-89-10 8
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D-89-10 9 P.T.O.
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen marks each to be answered in
about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 marks)
3. Describe the effects of Cd, Hg and As contamination on soil health.
4. How does an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) remove particles from flue gases ? On
what factors the efficiency of ESP depends ?
5. Write about the constitutional provisions pertaining to environment.
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks, each to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 marks)
6. What is redox potential ? Discuss its significance.
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7. Write about chemical reactions leading to ozone depletion.
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8. Differentiate between autochthonous and an allochthonous bacteria.
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9. What are the essential components of a rain water harvesting system ?
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10. Define mixing height. Explain its significance in dispersal of air pollutants.
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11. What are five-R policies for waste minimization ?
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12. What is meant by a ‘genetically engineered’ bacterium ? How is this accomplished ?
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13. How does a solar photovoltaic (PV) cell work ? On what factors its efficiency
depends ?
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14. Write down the equation governing the concentration of pollutants in a Gaussian
plume dispersion model.
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SECTION – IV
Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each based on the following
passage. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30) words.
(5 × 5 = 25 marks)
Around 1960, Lake Erie was declared dead, its DO decreased in deeper layer of
water, its surface almost covered by overgrowth of algae, and some of its predators became
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endangered. Investigations were carried out by many scientists, who concluded that the major
cause of the destruction of the Lake Erie ecosystem was too much phosphorous from
municipal waste. In order to overcome the problems of Lake Erie, it was thought that there
should be a strong cooperation between USA and Canada. The International Joint
Commission was established and the governments of the two countries worked together for
improving waste treatment in communities surrounding Lake Erie. By 1985, the annual
release of phosphorous from these sources reduced by 84% and the phosphorus levels in the
Detroit River, which feeds Lake Erie, was reduced by 65%. As the water quality improved
with phosphorous abatement, algal growth declined and oxygen levels improved. The small
planktonic crustaceans that feed on the algae became less abundant and fishes, such as
undesirable alewife and shiner, that feed on them, also decreased. By 1991, the total
phosphorous level in Lake Erie was reduced to a level very close to the permissible level. The
decline in algal population resulted in the improvement of water clarity in the Lake.
Moreover, the decline in algal population has also been achieved by invading zebra mussels
in Lake Erie.
15. How does phosphorous enrichment of water body cause algal growth ?
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16. How did the process of eutrophication in Lake Erie lead to oxygen depletion ?
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17. How the invasion of zebra mussels will affect the ecology of Lake Erie ?
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18. What was the institutional mechanism set up to address the problems of Lake Erie ?
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19. What were the positive results due to the institutional intervention ?
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Question Marks
Number Obtained
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................

(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
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SECTION – I
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 Marks)
1. Write an essay on :
Principle and Applications of chromatography in environmental science.
OR
Conservation of wetlands.
OR
Bio-Energy.
OR
Methodologies of Environmental Impact Assessment.
OR
Multiple regression technique and its application in environmental data analysis.
OR
Applications of GIS and Remote Sensing in water resource management.
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2. Write an essay on :
Sources and effects of unsaturated and saturated hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.

OR
Environmental Ethics and Global imperatives.
OR
Recent trends in Biodiversity conservation.
OR
Pros and cons of Genetically modified plants.
OR
Jurisdiction and powers of National Environmental Appellate Authority.
OR
Role of soil microorganisms.
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen (15) marks each, to be answered
in about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 Marks)
3. Discuss the criteria employed for dispersal of pollutants in marine ecosystems.
4. Discuss ‘Nitrogen Cycle’ and its significance.
5. Describe the operation of an effluent treatment plant.
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks each, to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 Marks)
6. Define aerodynamic diameter of an aerosol particle. How do the aerosol particles

influence climate ?
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7. Define phytoremediation. With suitable examples distinguish between

phytoextraction and phytostabilization.
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8. The molar extinction coefficient of X-iodine complex at 450 nm is 0.2. Determine the
concentration of X in a solution of the iodine complex which has an absorbance of
0.38 in a 1 cm cuvette.
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9. Describe the principle of Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC).

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10. Distinguish between El Nino and La Nina effects.
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11. What is Red Data Book ? Explain its significance.
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12. Explain the terms “precipitation” and “water table”.
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13. Differentiate between adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
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14. Compare “Pyramid of numbers” for pond and tree ecosystems.
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SECTION – IV
(5 × 5 = 25 Marks)
Some years ago, the Arogya Health Service sent supplier of DDT to Karkala to
control mosquitoes that were spreading malaria among the people. As the DDT was
sprayed, the mosquitoes were quickly wiped out. But there were thousands of lizards
in the village that ate these mosquitoes (which had absorbed the sprayed DDT) and
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they, in turn, kept accumulating the DDT in their bodies. When these lizards ate
mosquitoes, they retained a lot of the DDT in their body. Due to the excessive
accumulation of DDT in their bodies, the lizards became inactive and slow. This
made if easier for cats to catch the lizards, one of their favourite food. At about the
same time, people also found hordes of caterpillars on the roofing materials of their
homes. They realised that the lizards, which had previously kept the caterpillar
population under control, were now being eaten by the cats. And now, all over
Karkala, the cats that ate the lizards died from DDT poisoning. Then rats moved in
because there were no cats to control their population. With the rats came a new
danger, plague. Officials sent out emergency calls for cats, which were sent in by
Aeroplane and dropped by Parachute.
15. How did one small act of humans (spraying of DDT) disturb the balance of the
ecosystem ?
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16. How did absence of mosquitoes affected outburst of plague ?
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17. How did roofing material get spoiled in Karkala ?
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18. How did cats that ate the lizards die ?
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19. What inference you draw from the above passage ?
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
D 89 1 3 (In words)

Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ÛÎ ´Ö ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
given. ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
•ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî …
ˆ¤ÖÆ¸ÞÖ :
Example :
•Ö²Ö×Û (C) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî …
where (C) is the correct response.
5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ûê †®¤¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Æß †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸®Öê Æï … μÖ×¤ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any ×Û ÃÖß †®μÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛ Ö ´Öæ»μÖÖÓÛ ®Ö
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ …
evaluated. 6. †®¤¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬μÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë …
D-89-13 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – III
1. For an overcast day or night, the 4. The environmental lapse rate during
atmosphere is day time is governed by
(A) stable (B) neutral (i) Wind speed
(C) slightly stable (D) unstable (ii) Sunlight
(iii) Topographical features
2. Assertion (A) : The energy flow in an (iv) Cloud cover
ecosystem follows the law of The correct answer is
thermodynamics. (A) (i) and (ii) only
Reason (R) : The energy flow in an (B) (ii) and (iii) only
ecosystem is unidirectional and (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
during the transformation of (D) (i) and (iv) only
energy from one trophic level to
the other, 80 – 90% of energy is 5. The wavelength range of UV–C
lost. radiations is
Codes : (A) 200 – 280 nm
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) (B) 180 – 240 nm
is the correct explanation of (A). (C) 320 – 400 nm
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) (D) 240 – 300 nm
is not the correct explanation of
(A). 6. In a gas chromatography experiment,
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. the retention factor (Rf) values for
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ in a
mixture of pollutants were 0.5 and
3. Match the List – I with List – II and 0.125, respectively. If the distance
identify the correct answer from the travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the
given codes : distance (in cms) travelled by pollutant
(Thermodynamic (Expression) ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ will be
Variables) (A) 6 and 1.5
(Symbols have (B) 3 and 1.5
their usual (C) 0.5 and 0.125
(a) ΔG ΔE + PΔV
meanings.) (D) 1.5 and 3
(b) ΔG°
i.
(c) ΔS
ii. – n FE° 7. Using the following equations, which
V1 can be determined correctly ?
iii. RT ln V Δ
(d) ΔH
2 Ca(HCO3)2 –––→ CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 (by
V2 heating)
iv. nR ln V or Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 –––→
1
Codes : 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O (by addition of lime)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Carbon dioxide
(A) ii iv i iii (B) Carbonates
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii (C) Bicarbonates
(D) ii iii iv i (D) Carbonates and Bicarbonates
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8. Assume that a river having dissolved 12. “Double digging” is a method of
oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 (A) Bio-intensive agriculture
flowing at 80 m3/sec. converge with (B) Deforestation
another river having Dissolved (C) Aforestation
Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3
(D) Water conservation
flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after
the confluence the Dissolved Oxygen
is 0.59 g/m3, then the BOD is 13. The rate of replacement of species
along a gradient of habitats pertains
(A) 0.83 g/m3 (B) 0.43 g/m3 to
(C) 0.73 g/m3 (D) 0.92 g/m3 (A) Alpha diversity
(B) Beta diversity
9. Cells grown in a medium containing (C) Gamma diversity
phosphorous –32 will show radio
labelling in (D) Species diversity
(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen 14. Match the List – I and List – II. Choose
(C) Proteins the correct answer from the given
codes :
(D) Nucleic acids
(Vegetation (Nomenclature of
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The development) succession)
fraction of the C14 atoms that decays
per year is (a) On a rock i. Psammosere
(A) 1.216 × 10 –4
(B) 0.52 × 10–3 (b) On sand ii. Lithosere
(C) 0.78 × 10 –4
(D) 2.81 × 10–4 (c) In aquatic iii. Xerosere
habitat
(d) In dry iv. Hydrosere
11. Assertion (A) : Marine biodiversity habitat
tends to be highest in mid- Codes :
latitudes in all oceans and (a) (b) (c) (d)
along coasts in the Western
(A) ii i iv iii
Pacific.
(B) i ii iii iv
Reason (R) : Sea surface
(C) iii iv ii i
temperature along coasts in the
Western Pacific is highest. (D) iv iii i ii
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 15. If individuals of a species remain
(R) is the correct explanation of alive only in captivity or other human
(A). controlled conditions, the species is
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, said to be
but (R) is not the correct (A) Ecologically extinct
explanation of (A). (B) Mass extinct
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) Wild extinct
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) Anthropogenic extinct
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16. Which of the following symbolises 20. Match the List – I with List – II,
correct sequence in hydrosere ? choose the correct answer from the
(A) Diatoms → Wolffia → given codes :
Hydrilla → Cyperus → List – I List – II
Populus
(B) Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus
(Plants) (Family)
→ Populus → Diatoms
(a) Camellia i. Orchidaceae
caduca
(C) Cyperus → Diatoms →
Hydrilla → Wolffia → Populus
(b) Picea ii. Theaceae
brachytyla
(D) Diatoms → Hydrilla → (c) Colchicum iii. Pinaceae
Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus
luteum
(d) Arachnantha iv. Liliaceae
clarkei
17. Which of the following is not a class Codes :
of aquatic ecosystems based on
salinity levels ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Stagnant water ecosystem (A) iv ii iii i
(B) Freshwater ecosystem (B) i ii iii iv
(C) Brackish ecosystem (C) ii i iv iii
(D) Marine ecosystem (D) ii iii iv i
18. The K-strategists are 21. Vegetation cover shows maximum

(a) large organisms which have reflectance in which of the following
relatively longer life regions of the electromagnetic
(b) provide care for their radiation spectrum ?
offsprings
(A) Ultraviolet
(c) organisms that stabilise their
population at carrying capacity (B) Near infrared
for the area
(C) Middle infrared
Choose the correct answer ;
(A) (a) and (b) only (D) Visible
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only 22. During remote sensing of the
(D) (a), (b) and (c) vegetation cover, the spectral
reflection of vegetation over
19. Limnetic zone in freshwater electromagnetic radiation spectrum
ecosystem is characterised by depends upon
(A) Presence of rooted vegetation (A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Absence of rooted vegetation
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Presence of large proportion of
lime (C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) Absence of phytoplankton (D) All the above characters
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23. Given below are statements in the 27. Permafrost represents
context of biogeochemical cycles : (A) permanently frozen subsurface
(i) Ecosystems are black boxes for soil
many of the processes that take (B) frozen leaves of Oak trees
place within them.
(ii) Ecosystem boundaries are (C) frozen needles of pine trees
permeable to some degree or (D) temporarily frozen subsurface
other. soil
(iii) The energy and nutrients can
be transferred to and from one 28. Assertion (A) : Estuaries are
ecosystem to another via productive ecosystems.
imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the Reason (R) : Large amounts of
codes given below : nutrients are introduced into
(A) (i) & (ii) only the basin from the rivers that
(B) (ii) & (iii) only run into them.
(C) (i) & (iii) only Choose the correct answer :
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
24. The volume of ejecta and the column (R) is the correct explanation of
height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and (A).
24 km, respectively. What is its (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
volcanic explosivity index value ? (R) is not the correct
(A) 2 (B) 8 explanation of (A).
(C) 7 (D) 4 (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
25. In the context of material balance in (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
hydrological cycle, which of the
following equations is correct for 29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m
oceans ? has two wells 200 m apart along the
(A) Input + change in storage = direction of flow of water. The
output difference in their hydraulic heads is
(B) Precipitation + inflow = 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is
evaporation 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water
(C) Input – change in storage = per day per metre of distance
output perpendicular to the flow of water is
(D) Precipitation – inflow = (A) 25 m3/day per metre
evaporation
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
26. In disaster management which steps
are followed in post-disaster recovery (C) 5 m3/day per metre
phase ? (D) 1 m3/day per metre
(A) Relief, rehabilitation,
reconstruction, learning – review 30. Which of the following material has
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, the highest hydraulic conductivity ?
preparedness, emergency plans.
(A) Clay
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency
plans. (B) Sandstone
(D) Learning – review, emergency (C) Limestone
plans, preparedness. (D) Quartzite
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31. Which of the following energy 35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of
sources is not renewable on human the following is not used as
time scale ? moderator ?
(A) Solar (B) Hydrothermal (A) Normal water
(C) Geothermal (D) Biomass (B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
32. For a solar flat plate collector the
following data is given : Useful heat
36. The minimum temperature gradient
gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 (A) 20 (B) 10
per hour and the factor to convert (C) 40 (D) 60
beam radiation to that on the plane of
the collector = 1.2. The collector 37. A solar pond has electricity
efficiency is generating capacity of 600 MWe. If
(A) ~ 6.6 % (B) ~ 4.8 % the efficiency of solar energy to
(C) ~ 12.2 % (D) ~ 15.2 % electric generation process was 2%
and solar energy supply rate was
33. For the reaction in a hydrogen- 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar
oxygen fuel cell, pond ?
1 (A) 100 km2 (B) 90 km2
H2 + 2 O2 = H2O (l)
(C) 60 km2 (D) 180 km2
Given ΔG° = 240 kJ/gm – mole of H2
38. Which of the following causes
and Faraday’s constant = 96,500
warming of atmosphere but cooling
Coulomb/gm mole.
of the earth’s surface ?
The developed voltage in the fuel cell (A) Ozone
will be (B) Black carbon aerosols
(A) ~ 1.13 Volts (C) All Greenhouse gases
(B) ~ 2.13 Volts (D) Sulphates and nitrates
(C) ~ 1.51 Volts
(D) ~ 1.24 Volts 39. Assertion (A) : For noise level
surveys in urban areas,
weighting A is used for
34. Identify the correct sequence of the measurements.
fuels in order of their increasing Reason (R) : Weighting A filters out
carbon intensity : unwanted signals.
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous Codes :
coal < Nuclear (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas < (R) is the correct explanation of
Nuclear (A).
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas < (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
Oil (R) is not the correct
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil < explanation of (A).
Bituminous coal (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Paper-III 6 D-89-13
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40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a 44. Match the List – I with List – II and
sound pressure level of identify the correct answer from
(A) 0.2 Pa given codes :
(B) 0.02 Pa (Aerosols) (Constituents)
(C) 20 Pa
(D) 200 Pa (a) Dust i. Small gas
borne particles
resulting from
41. Asphyxiation is caused by combustion
(A) HCN, COCl2 (b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended
(B) NOx small liquid
(C) CHCl3 droplets
(d) Atmospheric iv. Solid
(D) AsH3 Brown suspended
Cloud particles
42. Sequence of a typical sewage Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
treatment plant operation process will
(A) iv iii ii i
be
(A) Aeration → Flocculation →
(B) iii iv i ii
→
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Recarbonation → Filtration →
Sedimentation
Disinfection 45. Assertion (A) : Chloroflurocarbons

Aeration → Sedimentation →
deplete ozone.
Flocculation → Filtration →
(B)
Reason (R) : These compounds
Recarbonation → Disinfection
contain chlorine, bromine and
Flocculation → Aeration →
fluorine.
→
(C) Codes :
Sedimentation → Filtration →
Recarbonation (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Disinfection (A).
(D) Sedimentation → Flocculation (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
→ Aeration → Filtration →
Recarbonation → Disinfection
explanation of (A).
43. Which one of the following isotopes
has maximum half-life period ? 46. Which of the following organic
(A) Rn 222 compounds is not of biogenic origin ?
(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210 (C) Myrcene
(D) Bi210 (D) Acrolein
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47. Which of the following is used as 52. Match List – I with List – II and
plant indicator for detection of choose the correct answer from the
presence of SO2 and HF in air ? codes given below :
(A) Lichen (B) Orchid List – I List – II
(C) Apricot (D) Tobacco
(Analytical (Activity under the
functions) function)
48. Integrated Gasification Combined
Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at
removing (a) Defining i. Critical
(A) NO2 and CO scope of EIA Assessment of
(B) CO and SO2 impacts
(C) Particulates and sulphur (b) Identification ii. Estimation of the
(D) NO2 and SO2 of impacts probability that a
particular impact
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a will occur
city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater (c) Prediction of iii. Description of the
generated per day. For an average Impacts existing
flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. environment
metre, what should be the diameter system
of the circular primary settling tank ?
(d) Impact iv. Deciding
(A) 50.4 m (B) 30.6 m Evaluation
(C) 20 m (D) 25.8 m important issues
and Analysis and concerns
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Codes :
with collector plate area = 5000 m2
treats a flue gas with drift (a) (b) (c) (d)
velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% (A) iii iv i ii
efficiency. The volumetric flow rate
(B) iv iii ii i
(m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2 (B) ~ 213.5 (C) ii i iii iv
(C) ~ 153.4 (D) ~ 198.9 (D) i ii iv iii
51. Assertion (A) : Urban heat islands
contribute to build up of
pollutants in cities. 53. A drawback of checklists is
Reason (R) : Urban heat islands (A) Preliminary analysis is
produce a somewhat stable air available in scaling checklist
mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes : (B) Checklists are too general or
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct incomplete
and (R) is the correct (C) Checklists summarises
explanation of (A). information to make it
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, available to experts
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). (D) Ecosystem functions can be
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. clearly understood from
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. weighting methods
Paper-III 8 D-89-13
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54. If EIUj = environmental impact units 57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical
(A) > 120 °C (B) < 100 °C

for jth alternative, EQij = waste is subjected to a temperature
(C) > 300 °C (D) > 800 °C

environmental – quality – scale value
for ith factor and jth alternative,
PIUi = parameter importance units 58. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous
→
th
for i factor, then what is the correct waste management is
Reduce generation → Recycle /

formulation for the index expressed (A) Eliminate generation
Reuse → Treatment →
in environmental impact units
(EIUi) ?
n ⎛E⎞
(A) EIUi = ∑ ⎜Q ⎟ PIUi →
Disposal
i = 1 ⎝ ij⎠
→
(B) Reduce generation
n ⎛Qij⎞ Recycle/Reuse → Treatment

Eliminate generation
(B) EIUi = ∑ ⎜ E ⎟ PIUi
i=1 ⎝ ⎠ → Disposal
→
EIUi = ∑ EQij PIUi
→
n (C) Eliminate generation
(C)
Treatment → Recycle/Reuse
i=1 Reduce generation
(D) EIUi = ∑ EQ → Disposal

n PIUi
→
i=1 ij
→
(D) Reduce generation
Treatment → Recycle/Reuse
Eliminate generation
→ Disposal
codes given below :
List – I List – II 59. Public Liability Insurance Act was
(Scales used in (Example)
EIA methods) enacted in the year
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (A) 1991 (B) 1993
(degrees) (C) 1995 (D) 1997
(b) Ordinal ii. Species
classification 60. Match List – I with List – II and
(c) Interval iii. Map scale choose the correct answer from the
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best codes given below :
Codes : List – I List – II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (Convention) (Year)
(A) i ii iii iv (a) Convention for the i. 1979
(B) iv iii ii i protection of the
ozone layer
(C) iii i iv ii (b) Conservation of ii. 1985
(D) ii iv i iii migratory species
of wild animals
56. Risk assessment in EIA does not (c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
involve (d) UN Convention on iv. 1997
(A) Maximum credible analysis the law of the sea
(B) Hazard and operability studies Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Preparation of disaster (A) ii i iv iii
management plan (B) ii iv iii i
(D) Assessment of economic (C) iii i ii iv
benefit arising out of a project (D) i ii iii iv
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variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two
61. Match List – I with List – II and 64. Two normal populations have
codes given below : random samples of sizes 25 and 20,
List – I List – II independently selected from these
(Acts) (Year when populations have variances of S21 = 8
enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection i. 1980 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the
Act F(24, 19) statistic ?
(b) Forest ii. 1972
Conservation Act (A) 1 (B) 2
(c) Air (Prevention iii. 1974 (C) 2.81 (D) 3.6
and Control of
Pollution ) Act
65. Assertion (A) : A matrix is non-
(d) Water (Prevention iv. 1981 singular if and only if none of
and Control of
Pollution) Act its eigen values is zero.
Codes : Reason (R) : The product of the
(a) (b) (c) (d) eigen values equals the
(A) ii i iv iii determinant of a matrix.
(B) i ii iii iv Codes :
(C) iii ii i iv (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(D) iv iii ii i and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
Assertion (A) : χ2 distribution is a
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
62.
but (R) is not the correct
non-parametric distribution.
Reason (R) : χ2 is a sample statistic
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
having no corresponding
population parameter.
Codes :
σz = cx where c is a constant and
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, is the effective height of the stack,
but (R) is not the correct the maximum concentration at a
explanation of (A). distance (x) from the stack is
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. proportional to
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (A) H–1 (B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2) (D) H–3/2
63. In a simple regression analysis of y
on x, the standard error of estimate of 67. The Pearson Linear correlation
y on x, Syx = 5, number of coefficient (r) for the following
observations N is 30, and ∑ y2 = paired data (x, y) : (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8),
2000. The unexplained variance is (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6) is
(A) 1500 (B) 750 (A) 0.623 (B) – 0.572
(C) 500 (D) 250 (C) 0.957 (D) 0.823
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68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a 72. Which of the following mixture of
height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind gases is called biogas ?
speed at an elevation of 300 m will (A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O
be (vapour)
(A) 4.9 m/s (B) 1.2 m/s (B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O
(C) 3.6 m/s (D) 7.9 m/s (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives (vapour)
the land clearing in forest areas is (D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area 73. Environmental ethics deal with moral
relationship of human beings to
(B) Ecology of the area
(A) the value and moral status of
(C) Carbon budget of the area the environment and its non-
(D) Water resources of the area human contents
(B) the values that are important to
70. What was the objective of Basel development and economic
Convention (1989) under UNEP ? growth
(C) the conservation values of
I. Minimize generation of selected species
hazardous wastes in terms of (D) the development of genetically
quantity and hazardousness modified organisms
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes
as close to the source of 74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-a-
generation as possible. pyrene) in atmospheric environment is
III. Reduce the movement of (A) residential wood burning
hazardous wastes. (B) gasoline
Choose the correct code : (C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only. 75. Match the List – I with List – II and
(C) I, II and III. choose the correct answer from the
(D) I only. codes given below :
(Materials) (Applications)
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of (a) Trichloro- 1. Gasoline
a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a ethylene
comparison of global warming (b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
impact between (c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of (d) Phenol 4. Mining
methane Codes :
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O (B) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11 (C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
D 89 1 4 (In words)

this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆü¢Ö¸ü ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü …
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period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question †×ŸÖ×¸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) ×¤üµÖê
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) ÝÖµÖê Æïü … †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú ¾Öé¢Ö ÛúÖê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸üÛú¸ü ÛúÖ»ÖÖ Ûú¸ü®ÖÖ Æîü
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Æüß †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Æïü … µÖ×¤ü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any ×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ ´Öæ»µÖÖÓÛú®Ö
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
evaluated. 6. †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖê ×´Ö™üÖ®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±êú¤ü ÃµÖÖÆüß ÃÖê ²Ö¤ü»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. †µÖÖêÝµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. µÖ×¤ü †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß µÖÖ ØÆü¤üß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ ´Öë ÛúÖê‡Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×ŸÖ ÆüÖê, ŸÖÖê †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸üÞÖ
D-89-14 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – III
1. Which of the following ranges of scale lengths represents meso-scale motions in

atmosphere ?
(A) 30 km – 400 km (B) 500 m – 10 km
(C) 1 km – 2 km (D) 100 m – 1 km
2. Rayleigh scattering in the atmosphere is caused by

(A) molecules larger than the wavelength
(B) molecules equal to the size of wavelength
(C) molecules whose size is much smaller than the wavelength
(D) molecules and particles of all sizes
3. Wind rose is a
(A) graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar
diagram.
(B) graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system
over a period of time.
(C) graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time
in polar diagram.
(D) graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time.
4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are
I. – COOH II. – SH
III. – CH3 IV. – CHO
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) I only (B) I and II only
(C) II, III and IV only (D) I, II and IV only
Paper-III 2 D-89-14
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5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between
(A) coriolis force and pressure gradient force
(B) coriolis force and centrifugal force
(C) pressure gradient force and frictional force
(D) pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
6. A possible mechanism for photochemical smog inhibition is to add compounds like

diethylhydroxylamine (DEHA) as it reacts with
(A) hydrocarbon (B) nitrogen dioxide
(C) PAN (D) hydroxyl radicals
7. In the determination of sulphur dioxide by p-rosaniline method, the end product is

(A) p-rosaniline sulfonic acid (B) methyl p-rosaniline
(C) p-rosaniline methyl sulfonic acid (D) sulfo methyl p-rosaniline
8. Number of molecuels present in 10 ml of proline is

(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 6.023 × 1020
(C) 6.023 × 1018 (D) 6.023 × 1017
9. Nitrogenous biochemical oxygen demand refers to the quantity of O2 needed to convert

– +
(A) N2 to NO3 (B) N2 to NH4
+ –
(C) NH4 to NO3 (D) Protein to CO2 + H2O + NO2
10. Beer-Lambert’s law defines

(A) The degree of absorption of monochromatic light by a homogeneous medium
(B) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
(C) Atomic emission spectrophotometry
(D) Gas chromatography
11. Chemically phytochelatins are

(A) Proteins (B) Polysaccharides
(C) Lipids (D) Polypeptides
D-89-14 3 Paper-III
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12. Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and
the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship
holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase ?
(A) X > Y (B) X < Y
(C) X = Y (D) X + Y = 1
13. Overall reaction of Winkler’s method is

2– 2–
4S2O3 + 4H+ + O2 → 2S4O6 + 2H2O
This equation indicates :
(A) One mole of O2 is equivalent to one mole of thiosulphate.
(B) One mole of O2 is equivalent to two moles of thiosulphate.
(C) One mole of O2 is equivalent to three moles of thiosulphate.
(D) One mole of O2 is equivalent to four moles of thiosulphate.
14. Return of an ecosystem to a condition prior to disturbance refers to as

(A) Rehabilitation (B) Restoration
(C) Rejuvenation (D) Reclaimation
15. Assertion (A) : Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly
disturbed condition.
Reason (R) : Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural
regeneration.
16. Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix
atmospheric nitrogen ?
(A) Nitrate reductase (B) Nitrite reductase
(C) Transaminase (D) Nitrogenase
17. Predatory strategy followed by an alligator for hunting is

(A) Chase (B) Stalk
(C) Ambush (D) Camouflage
Paper-III 4 D-89-14
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18. In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range
(A) 3000 – 6000 (B) 13000 – 16000
(C) 300 – 600 (D) 300 – 1600
– –
19. Which one of the following bacterial species convert NO2 to NO3 ?
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter
(C) Rhizobium (D) Azospirillum
20. Assertion (A) : Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher
unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.
Reason (R) : Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated
fatty acids in membrane lipids.
21. Which of the following(s) are produced during fermentation ?

I. Ethanol II. Citrate
III. Lactate IV. Succinate
(A) I only (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only (D) II and IV only
22. Salinity of the ocean varies from 2.0 % to 4.2 % in

(A) Red Sea and Gulf of Kachchh
(B) Black Sea and Omura Bay
(C) Baltic Sea and Persian Gulf
(D) Mediterranean Sea and Bay of Fundy
23. Uranium in Indian agricultural soils is mainly contributed by

(A) Weathering of Uranium rich minerals
(B) Excess addition of NPK fertilizers
(C) Excess addition of pesticides
(D) Excess addition of fungicides
D-89-14 5 Paper-III
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24. Loamy sand contains
(A) > 80 % silt and > 80 % clay
(B) 10 % silt and 5 % clay
(C) 15 to 30 % silt and 10 to 15 % clay
(D) > 80 % silt and < 20% clay
25. Spectral reflectance of leaf is highest for which band ?

(A) Blue (B) Green
(C) Near infrared (D) Middle infrared
26. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :
(Elements) (Concentration in Earth’s
Crust by weight %)
a. Oxygen i. 8.13
b. Aluminium ii. 46.60
c. Iron iii. 27.72
d. Silicon iv. 5.00
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv iii ii i
27. Indian Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite is

(A) RISAT (B) Resourcesat
(C) IRS (D) Bhaskara
28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy
examples of
(A) shield volcanoes (B) plug dome
(C) strato volcanoes (D) pyroclastic cones
Paper-III 6 D-89-14
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29. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :
(Mineral Deposit) (Top producer)
a. Bauxite i. Peru
b. Copper ii. India
c. Mica iii. USA
d. Guano iv. Australia
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity ?
(A) Natural gas (B) Oil
(C) Bituminous coal (D) Nuclear fuel
31. If fission of 1 atom of U235 produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be
produced by 1 metric ton of U235 ?
(A) 4.1 × 107 MJ (B) 8.2 × 107 MJ
(C) 1.23 × 108 MJ (D) 2 × 105 MJ
32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts
envisages financial support to the extent of (in $ per year)
(A) 100 bn (B) 30 bn
(C) 10 bn (D) 3 bn
33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues ?
(A) Anaerobic digestion (B) Fermentation
(C) Pyrolysis (D) Aerobic digestion
34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation ?
(A) Trees (B) Shrubs
(C) Blue-green algae (D) Crops
D-89-14 7 Paper-III
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35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Planck’s law
(D) Kirchoff’s law
36. Average number of carbon in diesel ranges between

(A) C18 – C24 (B) C10 – C16
(C) C4 – C6 (D) C25 – C30
37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives :
(A) (C2H5)4Pb (B) BTX
(C) Kerosene (D) n-Butane
38. Radioactive mineral available in the Indian coastal region is

(A) Rutile (B) Monazite
(C) Apatite (D) Magnetite
39. Thermal pollution in the coastal region is caused by

i. Atomic power plants
ii. Thermal power plants
iii. Industrial plants
iv. Tourism industry
Codes :
(A) i, ii, iii only (B) i & ii only
(C) iii & iv only (D) ii & iii only
40. Assertion (A) : Metallic contaminants are toxic to the microorganism.

Reason (R) : Heavy metal tends to precipitate in the form of phosphatic compounds and
decrease soil fertility.
Paper-III 8 D-89-14
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41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will
be the noise level at 80 m from it ?
(A) 35 dB (B) 64 dB
(C) 58 dB (D) 52 dB
42. Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV radiations principally in the wavelength range

(A) 320 – 400 nm (B) 230 – 320 nm
(C) < 290 nm (D) 180 – 240 nm
43. If Γd, Γs and Γrepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental
lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is
(A) Γ > Γd (B) Γ < Γd
(C) Γ < Γs (D) Γ < Γs < Γd
44. At initial time (t0) number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what
would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours ?
(A) 256 (B) 2560
(C) 240 (D) 300
45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on
i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants
ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources
iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier
Choose the correct answer from codes given below :
Codes :
(A) i & ii only (B) ii & iii only
(C) i & iii only (D) i, ii & iii
46. Assertion (A) : Leopold matrix can be expanded or contracted.

Reason (R) : Leopold matrix is a checklist designed to show possible interactions
between developmental activities and set of environmental characteristics.
D-89-14 9 Paper-III
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47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest
for
(A) Ecology (B) Environmental Pollution
(C) Aesthetics (D) Human interest
48. ISO 14040 is

(A) Environmental Management : Life cycle assessment principle and framework.
(B) Environmental Management – environmental assessment of sites and organization.
(C) Guidelines for environmental audit – general principle.
(D) Environmental Management – vocabulary.
49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment :
i. identification of consequences
ii. hazard identification
iii. probability assessment
iv. assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk
v. magnitude assessment for consequences
Which one of the following code represent correct sequences ?
(A) ii, i, v, iii, iv (B) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(C) iii, ii, iv, v, i (D) iv, ii, i, iii, v
50. Ecolabels are indicators of

i. Acceptable level of environmental impact of a product.
ii. Environmental performance of a product.
iii. Claims of environmental friendliness of a product.
(A) i, ii, iii (B) i, ii only
(C) i only (D) ii only
51. Ecosystem diversity can be best studied using the

(A) Topographical maps (B) Geoinformatics
(C) Geodesy (D) Geology
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52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by
(A) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun
(B) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun
(C) Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal
(D) Forest Survey of India, Dehradun
53. Soil moisture using remote sensing techniques is determined best in

(A) Optical region (B) Thermal region
(C) Microwave region (D) Infrared region
54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of
Environmental Management ?
(A) Promotes eco-labelling of the product
(B) It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee
(C) Make the environmental audit mandatory
(D) Promotes human rights and women empowerment
55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List – I with
List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(Colour Code) (Option for disposal)
a. Yellow plastic bags i. Disposal in secured land fills
b. Black plastic bags ii. Incineration and deep burials
c. Blue/White plastic bags iii. Autoclaving and chemical treatment
d. Red plastic bags iv. Microwave treatments and destruction
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii ii i iv
56. Given below is a list of natural disasters :

i. Hudhud cyclone
ii. Chernobyl nuclear plant disaster
iii. Tsunami in Indian Ocean
iv. Bhopal gas tragedy
Which is the correct chronological sequence for the above events in the codes given below ?
Codes :
(A) iii, i, ii, iv (B) ii, iii, i, iv
(C) iv, ii, iii, i (D) i, ii, iii, iv
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57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to
(A) Potential risk assessment.
(B) Reporting of environmental performance.
(C) Assessment of organization’s business processes against the best-in-class operations
to improve the performance.
(D) Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.
58. Basel convention is related to

(A) Control of ozone depletion.
(B) Control of water pollution.
(C) Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.
(D) Environmental auditing.
59. Concept of intergenerational equity on natural resources refers to

(A) Legal obligations of present generation to future generations.
(B) Moral obligation of the present generation to future generation.
(C) Equitable responsibility of pollution generating industries.
(D) Prudent use of resources inherited from previous generation.
60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils ?
i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.
ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+4 from
ammonium fertilizers or urea.
iii. Addition from the atmosphere.
iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes :
Codes :
(A) i (B) ii
(C) iii (D) iv
61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease ?
(A) Spumella sp. (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Paramoecium (D) Plasmodium vivax
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62. Match the List – I with List – II, choose the correct answer from the given codes :
(Group of Analysis) (Test)
a. Unidimensional analysis i. Testing of hypothesis
b. Multivariate analysis ii. Measure of central tendency
c. Interferential analysis iii. Two-way ANOVA
d. Bivariate analysis iv. Canonical analysis
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called
(A) Population momentum
(B) Demographic transition rate
(C) Net migration rate
(D) Rate of natural increase
64. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation ?

a. H2O2 + b. KMnO4 + c. H2SO4 → d. K2SO4 + e. MnSO4 + f. H2O + g. O2
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d e f g
(A) 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(B) 1 2 3 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 5 3 2 1 8 5
(D) 5 2 3 1 2 8 5
65. Assertion (A) : The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis.
Reason (R) : If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can
be assigned to it.
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66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are
I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.
II. Can derive finite rate of population change.
III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.
Codes :
(A) I and III only (B) I only
(C) I and II only (D) II and III only
67. Important characteristics of χ2 test are

I. As a non-parametric test, it is based on frequencies.
II. It is not useful for estimation and to test hypothesis.
III. Can be applied to a complex contingency table.
Codes :
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III
68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is
(A) 5 mL (B) 10 mL
(C) 20 mL (D) 200 mL
69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change ?
(A) UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.
(B) Montreal Protocol, 1987
(C) Stockholm conference on “Human and Environment”, 1972
(D) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential ?
(A) HCFC – 22 (B) HCFC – 123
(C) Halon – 1211 (D) CFC – 12
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71. Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground
water to uplift the ground water table.
Reason (R) : Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate
into the underground aquifer.
72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year
(A) 1988 (B) 2003
(C) 1992 (D) 1998
73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year
(A) 2003 (B) 2005
(C) 1998 (D) 2006
74. Which one of the following is most reactive oxygen species ?
(B) O· 2
1 –
(A) O2
(C) H2O2 (D) OH·
75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium,
Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence ?
(A) Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium
(B) Rubidium, Caesium, Francium
(C) Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium
(D) Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium
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PAPER-III
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SECTION- I
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the passage below, and answer the questions that follow based on your
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understanding of the passage :
Coral reefs are highly complex and diverse ecosystems that develop in thew ann,
shallow and nutrient- poor waters typical of many tropical and subtropical oceans_
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They are highly productive systems and are often likened to rainforests in tenns of both
diversity and productivity_ 1lds very high biodiversity reflects the large variety of available
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microhabitats and niches within the complex physical structure of a reef_ It has been
estimated that at least a third of all marine fish are associated with coral reefs_ J\.fany
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reef dwellers are primary producers, either marine plants or symbiotic algae
(zooxanthellae) living within or between the cells of the corals themselves_
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Coral reefs grow slowly and are easily disrupted, thriving only in clear, wann
(always above 18°Q, nutrient -poor water with a constant high salinity_ They comprise
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a calcareous framework made up mainly of the interlocked and encrusted exoskeletons

of reef- building corals, calcareous red algae and other associated organisms_ They
occur in a variety of broadly distinct fonns, namely fringing reefs, barrier reefs and
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atolls_ Fringing reefs are continuous with the shorelinf< of the associated landmass
although a shallow and narrow channel may develop behind the reef_ A barrier reef
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lies some distaru:e offshore from its associated landmass, separated from it by a lagoon
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genf<rally more than 10 m in depth. An atoll is an offshore reef fonnation, roughly

circular in shape and surrounding a central lagoon, but no exposed landmass is associated
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with it_ The sustained existence of flourishing and productive coral reefs in
nutrient- poor oceanic waters appears at first to be paradoxical. However, the symbiotic
corals have developed highly effective internal mechanisms for the recycling of nutrients
within the system and so require little external nutrient supply_ However, despite their
high diversity and apparent stability, they are very susceptible to disturbance and they
J -8906 P.T.O.
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are being destroyed or damaged in many parts of the world_ Tldsislargely a consequeru:e
of human activity although these are also natural problems such as hurricaTif<s, predation
by crown- of- thorns starfish (Acanthaster spp.) and ocean wanning (which can produce
bleaching). l\1any of the greatest threats come from the fact that socio -economic
forces often encourage the immediate exploitstion of reef resources, particularly in
developing countries_ Another major problem is the increase in sediments and nutrients
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in the water as a result of urbanisation, deforeststion, agriculture and poor land
management_ Sediment smothers the reef and blocks out the vital sunlight, while the
increase in nutrients leads to colonisation of the reef by macroalgae and again it becomes
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smothered by this new growth_
Some 300 coral reefs in 65 countries are protected as reserves or marine parks but
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protecting. managing and restoring reefs is very difficult and expensive_ Ten percent
of the world's reef area is estimated to have been degraded beyond recovery already
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and about another 30 per cent is under severe threat_ These are very imperfectly
understood ecosystems so prediction and management are particularly difficult_
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1. Why management of coral reefs is difficult ?
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2. Why coral reefs are considered complex ecosystems ?
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3. How do corals obtain their nutrients for their survival ?

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4. What are the major types of coral reefs ?
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5. Why coral reefs are considered as endangered species?

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SECTION- II

about tldrty (30) words_ Each question carries five (5) marks_
(5x15=75 marks)
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Defirlf< the following :
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6. Diagerlf<sis
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7. Brai&d river
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8. &ological niche
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9. Turbidity
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10. Secondary succession

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11. Sp...,iation
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12. Photochemical smog

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13. Sanctuary
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14. Wetland
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15. Incineration
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16. Respirable Suspended Particulate ]\.fatter (RSPM)

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17. Relative humidity in tenns of mixing ratios
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18. Infrared radiation

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SECTION- III
(Ux5=60 marks)
21. Give geochemical classification of elements_
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22. Explain the radiation budget of the earth - abnospheric system_
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23. Discuss the application of recombinant DNA in environmental biology_
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24. Describe microbial method to screen a mutagen present in effluents_
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25. Enumerate the salient features of Gaussian Plume model for prediction of pollutant
concentration_
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SECTION- IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
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Sumatra earthquake of 26th December 2004 and the resultant Tsunami in the Indian
Ocean_
OR
Solid waste management in metropolitan cities_
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OR
Soil types of India_
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OR
Role of biotechnology in environmental management_
OR
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Merits and demerits of proposed river linldng project in India_
OR
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Conservation of biodiversity_
OR
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Climate change- reality or myth.

OR
Population growth and sustainable development in India_
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
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SCIENCE
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J -8907
SECTION- I
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your
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understanding of the passage :
Water pollution refers to any change in natural waters that may impair
further use of water, caused by the introduction of organic or inorganic substances
or by a change in the temperature of water_ Waste water emanate from the
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following sources Municipal waste water, Industrial waste water,
Agricultural nmoff, Stann water and Urban run off_
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During recent years such chemical pollution of water bodies has increased
many fold and people, who are responsible for human health have become
increasingly coru:eiT!f<d about water pollution_ Eutrophication is the enrichment
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of water by nutrients from natural or man-made sources_ Of all the nutrients,
nitrogen and phosphorus are most often considered as key nutrients responsible
for promotion of growth of algae and other plants resulting in anoxic condition
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Pesticides used in agriculture reach natural or man-mad£ water bodies and

cause disruption to one or more physiological furu:tions of aquatic organisms by
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interfering with the production of necessary biochemicals e.g. D.D.T_ which

consists of aromatic ring. mimic the effects of estrogen in aquatic animals such as
fish, where the reproduction is disturbed_ As such non biodegradable pesticides
accumulate in the body of aquatic organisms through the process of
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biomagnification_ Along with agricultural runoff many toxic chemicals reach

water bodies through industrial effluents_
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The structure of a molecule is the key to its biodegradability_ In genf<ral

polymers with mixed backbonf< linkage (carbon-oxygen or carbon-nitrogen) show
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greater susceptibility to hydrolysis, than carbon-carbon backbone polymers_

Polymers with aromatic components or braru:hed region tend to be more resistant
to attack by microorganisms than straight chain aliphatic compounds_
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Most common system practised for control of water pollution is the use of
waste water treabnent plants, based on the physical, chemical and biological
treabnent steps genf<rally known as preliminary, primary, secondary and tertiary
treatments_ It must be remembered that the steps of treabnent and type of
treabnent will depend upon the constituents and their concentrations in the
effluent and final usage of water_
J -8907 P.T.O.
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1. E:xplam how is the quality of water deteriorated due to human activities.
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2. Why the protection of human health has become a problem ?

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3. justify the statement "Pesticides are useful and at the same time harmful to the
ecosystem".
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4. What deterrrrines biodegradability of a chemical?

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J-8907 P.T.O.
5. How polluted water is treated for safe disposal?
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SECTION- II
about thrrty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
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(5x15=75 marks)
Write short notes on:
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6. Principle of HPLC.
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7. Carbon monoxide.
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8. Phytoplankton.
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J-8907 P.T.O.
9. &ological succession.
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10. Stu&nt's 't' test

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11. &ological Pyramids.
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12. Food web

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J-8907 9 P.T.O.
13. Fluorosis.
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14. Application of GIS in EnvironmentalJ\.fanagement.

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J -8907
15. Principle of coagulation.
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16. Environmental Audit.

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J-8907 n P.T.O.
17. Scale of J\.1i?teorology.
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18. &omark
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J-8907
19. Biofertilizers.
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20. Laws of thermodynamics.

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J -8907 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
(Ux5=60 marks)
21. Write an account on radiation hazards and its impact on human health_
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22. Describe 'hotspots' of biodiversity in India_
23. Examinf< the Arsenic problem in Bengal basin area_ What are the possible remedial
measures?
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24. Explain different components of soil and discuss the role of N, P and Kin soil fertility_
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25. Discuss harnessing potential of solar enf<rgy in India_ Explain the principles used for
heating and lighting_
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J -8907
SECTION- IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
26. Write on any one of the following :

(a) What are the endangered and threatenf<d species ? Explain various methods of
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protecting them_
OR
(b) Define air quality index_ Discuss various factors that affect urban air quality and
measures of pollution control.
OR
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(c) Discuss various methods of disposal and recycling of municipal and biomedical
solid waste_
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OR
(d) What is toxicity? Ust out ten (10) important toxic substances present in the
environment_ Describe various methods of toxicity testing for pesticides_
OR
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(e) Discuss hydrological cycle_ Explain the concept of reservoirs, residence time and
fluxes_ Comment also on possible impact of climate change on water cycle_
OR
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(f) What are the sources of marine pollution? Discuss the 'impact of pollitants on
marine ecosystem_' Describe control measures for marine pollution_
OR
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(g) Explain the nf<ed for E.lA_ Discuss various methods of environmental impact
assessment and their relative merits and demerits_
OR
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(h) "&ological modelling can forecast the population growth and interactions in an
ecosysbn"_ justify with the help of suitsble models.
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J -8907 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
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1. (Signature)
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2. (Signature)
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J8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
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J8908 1 P.T.O.
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J8908 2
SECTION - I
(5x5=25 Marks)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your
understanding of the passage.
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Biodiversity refers to the number variety and population sizes of living species
in their various physical habitats. It is mainly of three types viz., genetic
biodiversity, species biodiversity and ecosystem biodiversity.
Biodiversity is partly a function of the process of evolution by natural
selections. These ensure that the ecological niches are colonised by population of
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organisms that are best adapted to survive in the face of climatic extremes,
predators and competition from other species. The constant process of mutation
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and selection guarantee the production of new species However, the evolution
of species is tempered by fluctuations in numbers of organisms including
population explosion, where conditions are exceptionally favourable to
reproduction, survival and population overshoot and die-back when numbers
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start exceeding the carrying capacity of a species habitat. Environmental stress
and many forms of exploitation and predation can also regulate the numbers or
cause them to fluctuate over time.
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In natural world and in pre history large scale reduction in biodiversity
have resulted from climatic and geological extremes that have ended in loss,
fragmentation as sterilization of habitats and the collapse of food chain and webs.
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In the modern era, the principle cause of biodiversity loss is human activity. Land
is being transformed at an ever increasing rate and usually towards the
simplification and uniformitization of ecosystems. As population size and living
standards rise, pollution, industrialisation of agriculture and forestry tend to affect
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the species negatively, while overharvesting has had devastating effects on

fisheries, marine products, wild animals and plants. The accidental and deliberate
introduction of exotic species has often led to a reduction in the diversity of
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indegenous organisms which are outcompeted by the newcomers. The tendency

of humans to treat exotic species as commodities has caused the demise of the
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more prominent reptiles, amphibians, pachyderms, birds and flowering plants.

Poaching, smuggling and trade of ivory and furs has depleted stocks of rare
animals at an accelerated rate.
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Many ways have been suggested to conserve the biodiversity. It can be

maintained by identifying species in danger of loss and protecting their population
and habitats. One alternative is the biosphere reserve concept in which protected
core area is separated from unprotected area with buffer zone where limited
activity is allowed. To address the problem of loss of biodiversity, scientific, political
and administrative actions are necessary alongwith local participation of
communities.
J8908 3 P.T.O.
1. The author is primarily concerned with :
(A) How biodiversity came into existence on earth ?
(B) Loss and conservation of biodiversity
(C) Distribution of species
(D) Number of threatened species
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2. According to the passage, which of the most important points are being discussed :
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(i) Origin of biodiversity

(ii) Effect of loss of biodiversity on humans
(iii) Rapid rate of extinction of species due to anthropogenic activities
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(iv) Biodiversity and its inter-relation with economic aspects

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
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J8908 4
3. The material in the passage could best be used in an argument for :
(A) Boosting the economic growth of the country
(B) Sustainable existence of humans on the earth
(C) Proving the supremacy of humans
(D) Fullfilling the needs of humans on the earth
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4. The author strongly advocates which of the following ways to conserve the
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biodiversity ?
(A) Biotechnology
(B) Ex-situ protection methods
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(C) Formulation of laws to protect certain species

(D) Identification of endangered species and protecting their habitats and creation of
biosphere reserve
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J8908 5 P.T.O.
5. Which is the basic reason that is responsible for loss of biodiversity :
(A) Ecotourism
(B) Construction of dams
(C) Agricultural activity
(D) Rise in living standards of humans and population growth
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SECTION - II
Note : This section contains fifteen (15) questions each to be answered in
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(5x15=75 Marks)
6. Deltic Environment.
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J8908 6
7. Aerosols.
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8. Biopesticides.
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J8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Air quality index.
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10. Endangered species.

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J8908 8
11. Primary productivity.
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12. Trophic level.

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J8908 9 P.T.O.
13. BOD.
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14. Ecological succession.

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15. Wet and dry deposition.
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16. Biofuels.
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J8908 11 P.T.O.
17. Saturation mixing ratio.
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18. Radionuclides.
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J8908 12
19. Coefficient of determination (R2).
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20. Carbon credits.

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J8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
(12x5=60 Marks)
21. Noise indices.
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22. Energy flow in ecosystems.
23. Bio fertilizers.
24. Hazardous waste management.
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25. Rainwater harvesting.
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P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 Marks)
26. Write on any one of the following :

(a) Discuss various methods of solid waste management.
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OR
(b) Use of plant biomass for biofuel production.
OR
(c) Hotspots of biodiversity with special reference to India.
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OR
(d) Environmental priorities in India and sustainable development
OR
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(e) Salient features of Kyoto protocol and various mechanisms for its implementation.
OR
(f) Toxic chemicals in air and water. Methodologies of Environmental Impact
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Assessment.
OR
(g) Remote sensing and its application to Environmental Sciences.
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J8908 24
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J8908
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P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
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1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
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6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
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13 38 63 88
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15 40 65 90
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23 48 73 98
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(in figures) ....................................
(Evaluation) Date .............................
J8908 32
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
J8 9 0 9 PAPERIII
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J8909 1 P.T.O.
www.examrace.com
PAPERIII
NOTE : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
J8909 2
www.examrace.com
SECTION - I
(5x5=25 marks)
Global Environmental Monitoring System (GEMS)
GEMS is a worldwide collective effect to monitor the global environment
and make periodic assessments of the health of its constituents. Data are collected
through monitoring and assessment activities covering most of the environmental
parameters. One hundred and fortytwo countries participate in atleast one of
these activities. The system involves the collaborations, of which the most
important are the FAO, WHO, WMO, UNESCO and IUCN.
GEMS network monitor changes in atmospheric composition and the climatic
system, freshwater and coastal pollution, air pollution, food contamination,
deforestation, ozone depletion, the build up of greenhouse gases, acid rain, the
extend of global ice cover and many issues related to biological diversity.
GEMS was first proposed in 1971 by the Scientific Committee on Problems
of Environment (SCOPE) later it was formally created in 1975, as a small
secretariat of UNEP.
During 1990s, GEMS took over a newer area of investigation i.e. early
warning system for Environmental threats and disasters.
1. What is GEMS ?
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2. Expand and give the role of FAO.
3. Industrial disaster during 1980 in India.
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4. Enumerate problems related to freshwater contamination.
5. Relate greenhouse gas emission to global warming.
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SECTION - II

(5x15=75 marks)
6. Specific ion electrode.
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7. ISO certification.
8. Solar energy.
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9. South Asian Monsoon.
10. Dosiemetry and Toxicity.
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11. Environmental Protection.
12. Leachate.
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13. Oxbow Lake.
14. Lysochine
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15. Antecedent drainage.
16. Global warming potential.
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17. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.
18. Yeasts and moulds.
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19. Velamen.
20. Lysozyme.
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SECTION - III
(12x5=60 marks)
21. Significance of rain water harvesting in augmenting ground water resource.
22. Concept of check dam.
23. Role of mycorrhizae in nature.
24. Effect of nitrate fertilizers in contaminating ground water.
25. Process of composting and vermicomposting.
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SECTION - IV
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)

(a) Environmental impact appraisal in relation to coal mining in India.
OR
(b) National Mineral Policy of India
OR
(c) Ecosystem structure, its function and material recycling.
OR
(d) Role of GIS and Remote Sensing in Environmental Management.
OR
(e) Solid Waste Management in urban area.
OR
(f) Relationship between soil types and agricultural pattern in India.
OR
(g) Role of National Parks in preserving biodiversity in India.
OR
(h) Global warming and climate change in the light of recent global events.
OR
(i) Critically discuss pollution of water bodies enumerating the source, method of
control and water quality standard.
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 44 69 94
20 45 70 95
21 46 71 96
22 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
(in figures) ....................................
(Evaluation) Date .............................
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PAPER-III
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________ Roll No.
2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 1 (In words)

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
of this page.
2. »Ö‘Öã ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ ×®Ö²ÖÓ¬Ö ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Ûê ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸, ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ®Öß“Öê
2. Answer to short answer/essay type questions are to be µÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ´Öë ×¤µÖê Æã ‹ ×¸ŒŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ Æß ×»Ö×ÜÖµÖê …
given in the space provided below each question or
after the questions in the Test Booklet itself.
‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ Û Öê‡Ô †×ŸÖ×¸ŒŸÖ Û ÖÝÖ•Ö Û Ö ˆ¯ÖµÖÖêÝÖ ®ÖÆà Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî …
3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆ»Öê
¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿µÖ Û ¸®Öß
booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you
are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily Æî :
examine it as below : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛê Û ¾Ö¸ ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the Û ÖÝÖ•Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã ‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë …
accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not (ii) Û ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖéÂš ¯Ö¸ ”¯Öê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ûê ¯ÖéÂš ŸÖ£ÖÖ
accept an open booklet. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û µÖê ¯Öæ¸ê Æï …
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions ¤ÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯ÖéÂš/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Û ´Ö ÆÖë µÖÖ ¤ã ²ÖÖ¸Ö †Ö ÝÖµÖê
in the booklet with the information printed on the ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß×¸µÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖË ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™ ÖÛ ¸ ˆÃÖÛê
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æ ÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê
immediately by a correct booklet from the ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ ×¤µÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-
invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †×ŸÖ×¸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be ×¤µÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. †®¤¸ ×¤µÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë …
4. Read instructions given inside carefully. 5. ˆ¢Ö¸-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ûê †®ŸÖ ´Öë Û ““ÖÖ Û Ö´Ö (Rough Work) Û ¸®Öê Ûê
5. One page is attached for Rough Work at the end of the ×»Ö‹ ´Öæ»µÖÖÓÛ ®Ö ¿Öß™ ÃÖê ¯ÖÆ»Öê ‹Û ¯ÖéÂš ×¤µÖÖ Æã †Ö Æî …
booklet before the Evaluation Sheet. 6. µÖ×¤ †Ö¯Ö ˆ¢Ö¸-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö,
6. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ µÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß
put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except ¯ÖÆ“ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖê ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê
for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may
disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ Æï , µÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê
any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêÝµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û µÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
disqualification. 7. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤ µÖ Û Öê
7. You have to return the test booklet to the invigilators at »ÖÖî™ Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛ Æî †Öî¸ ‡ÃÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö
the end of the examination compulsorily and must not ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆ¸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ •ÖÖµÖë …
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 8. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë …
8. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 9. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûê »ÖÛã »Öê™ ¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖòÝÖ ™ê ²Ö»Ö †Ö×¤ Û Ö
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PAPER – III
Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Candidates
are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the
detailed instructions given therein.
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SECTION – I
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 marks)
1. Hazardous waste management.

OR
Problems and prospects of nuclear energy in India.
OR
Soil types in India
OR
Role of National Parks and Sanctuaries in conservation of biodiversity.
OR
Environmental Impact Assessment of open cast coal mining projects.
OR
Environmental dimensions of pesticides and biopesticides.
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2. Marine pollution as an emerging problem in India.

OR
Seismic zonation and earthquake risks in India.
OR
Bioethanol production from plant biomass.
OR
Principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy and its application in the study of
Environmental samples.
OR
Wildlife Conservation and Management.
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen (15) marks each to be answered
in about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 marks)
3. The excessive application of nitrogen fertilizers contaminates the groundwater.

Comment.
4. Describe various types of radioactive waste.
5. Discuss the role of ions and radicals in the atmospheric chemistry.
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks, each to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 marks)
6. What is the significance of carbonate compensation depth and lysocline in marine

environment ?
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7. How do the benthic fauna contribute to the productivity of a water body ?
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8. Write about the methods to test the microbial quality of drinking water.
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9. Define aquifer and zone saturation in relation to ground water.
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10. Enlist methods for control of NOx pollution in environment.
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11. Distinguish between actinomycetes from fungi.
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12. Define day-night noise index LDN , if day is of 15 hours (6 AM – 9 PM) and night is
of 9 hours (9 PM – 6 AM).
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13. What are the guidelines of environmental audit ?
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14. Give in brief the theoretical framework of a multiple regression model.
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SECTION – IV
(5 × 5 = 25 marks)
Since long it has been realised that the exploitation of fossil fuels, metals and other
non – renewables cannot continue unchecked. Expression of worldwide concern
about sustainable industrialisation and development led to the first UN Earth Summit
in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. The Summit defined the objectives of the sustainable
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development which included avoiding depletion of non–renewable resources,
protection of environment, social equity and justice.
The International Energy Agency in the year 2003 predicted that with
increasing energy demand, the world’s supply of crude oil will peak around 2014 and
that coal will last until the year 2200. The decline in available coal and crude oil
should cause their prices to go up which would limit their use. Moreover the use of
fossil fuels has been identified as a major factor contributing to global warming. To
address the problems due to global warming, the international community agreed to
have Kyoto Protocol in 1997, which envisaged a reduction of CO2 emissions by 5.2%
below 1990 levels by 2012. The use of renewable energy was to be increased to 5%
by 2003 and 10% by 2010.
The Governments in United Kingdom and India have also stressed the need to
create a low carbon economy and to have a low carbon footprint for the individuals.
In response, countries like India have started searching for alternative energy sources.
In this quest for developing new sources of energy, Biotechnology can play a
significant role by identifying biological agents, tools and techniques for producing
biofuels. This would help in achieving the goal of energy security for the country to a
great extent.
15. What are the main objectives of sustainable development ?
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16. What is the major cause of global warming and how does it occur ?
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17. What was the main resolution of Kyoto Protocol ?
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18. What do you understand by low carbon economy and carbon foot print ?
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19. How can biotechnology help in achieving energy security ?
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Question Marks
Number Obtained
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................

(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................
(Evaluation) Date .........................
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 4 (In words)

Instructions for the Candidates    
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of      
this page.     
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of            
questions.        
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet    
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested           
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :            
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
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a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open          
booklet.            
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions            
in the booklet with the information printed on the            
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions         
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any          
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately           
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the          
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question     
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be   OMR
given.    
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
    (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)        
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on   
the correct response against each item.  
Example :     
where (C) is the correct response.  OMR 
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any 
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be 
evaluated.        
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.   (Rough Work)   
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.    OMR 
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put    
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space     
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your            
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair            
means such as change of response by scratching or using
   
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original          OMR 
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination    
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the       
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original   OMR
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on     
conclusion of examination.           
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.    
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.    
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.  
J-89-14 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – III
1. Chemosynthesis involves CO2 5. The molar extinction coefficient of
fixation using energy derived from proline ninhydrin complex at 520 nm
(A) Sunlight is 0.34 µM–1Cm–1. A solution of the
proline ninhydrin complex has an
(B) Infrared radiation
absorbance of 0.68 in a one
(C) UV-radiation centimeter cuvette. The concentration
(D) Inorganic and Organic (µM) of proline is
compounds (A) 0.5
2. Wind in the mountain-valley regions (B) 0.2312
are of (C) 2.312
(A) Microscale (D) 2
(B) Mesoscale
6. The principal components of
(C) Macroscale photochemical smog in urban areas
(D) Synoptic scale are
(A) SO2 and NO2
3. In tropical region an aircraft is flying
at an altitude of 10 km. At that (B) SPM and CO
altitude the temperature is – 40 °C. (C) SPM and NO2
What is the ambient temperature on (D) Oxides of Nitrogen,
the ground ? Hydrocarbons and Ozone.
(A) 24 °C
7. The amount of a particular gas
(B) 40 °C dissolved in water depends on
(C) 30 °C (i) its solubility in water.
(D) 20 °C (ii) its partial pressure at the
air/water interface or sediment/
4. Assertion (A) : Upper atmosphere water interface.
shields life on earth. (iii) the water temperature.
Reason (R) : Ultraviolet (iv) the levels of salts in the water.
radiations are absorbed in the
Identify the correct answer :
upper atmosphere.
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A). (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but 8. A 50 ml solution of pH = 1 is mixed
(R) is not the correct with a 50 ml solution of pH = 2. The
explanation of (A). pH of the mixture will be nearly
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (A) 0.76 (B) 1.26
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. (C) 1.76 (D) 2.26
Paper-III 2 J-89-14
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9. The solubility product of the 13. Nudation is generally caused by
following type of reaction : (A) migration of species
(B) climate change
Al (OH)3 → Al3+ + 3OH is (C) invasion of foreign species
(A) Ksp = (Al) (OH) (D) modification of habitat
(B) Ksp = (Al3+) (3OH)
14. Which one of the following is the best
(C) Ksp = (Al3+) (OH)3 tool to study the interacting residues in
protein-ligand interaction ?
(D) Ksp = (Al3+) (OH) (A) X-ray crystallography
(B) Circular dichroism spectroscopy
10. Cells grown in medium containing (C) UV – Vis spectroscopy
isotope sulphur 35 will show radio (D) Fluorescence spectroscopy
labelling in
(A) membrane lipids 15. During centrifugation, if the
centrifugal force is FC, buoyant force
(B) membrane proteins
is Fb, and frictional force is Ff, which
(C) glycogen of the following equations expresses
(D) nucleic acid the sedimentation of the molecule ?
(A) FC = Fb – Ff
11. A stream flowing at 10.0 m3/s has a (B) FC = Fb + Ff
tributary feeding it with a flow of Fb – Ff
(C) FC = 2
5.0 m3/s. The stream concentration of
chloride upstream at the junction is Fb + Ff
20.0 mg/L and the tributary chloride (D) FC = 2
concentration is 40 mg/L. Treating
chloride as a conservative substance 16. Match the List – I with List – II and
and assuming complete mixing of the choose the correct answer from the
two streams, find the down stream given codes :
concentration. List – I List – II
(A) 26.7 mg/L (Lakes) (Characteristics)
(B) 30.2 mg/L a. Oligotrophic i. More nutrient
(C) 22.6 mg/L lakes concentration
(D) 35.2 mg/L b. Dystrophic ii. Magmatic water
lakes
c. Eutrophic iii. Low nutrient
12. Assume that dilution factor p for an lakes concentration
unseeded mixture of waste and water d. Volcanic iv. Low pH and
is 0.03. The DO of the mixture is lakes high humic acid
initially 9.0 mg/L and after 5 days, it conditions
has dropped to 3.0 mg/L. The Codes :
reaction rate constant ‘K’ has been a b c d
found to be 0.22 / day. Five day BOD
(A) i ii iii iv
of the water will be
(B) ii i iv iii
(A) 200 mg/L (B) 150 mg/L
(C) iii iv i ii
(C) 100 mg/L (D) 75 mg/L (D) iv iii ii i
J-89-14 3 Paper-III
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17. The earthworm used for composting is 21. Under the Rhino relocation project,
(a) Crassiclitellata excavata during 1987, Rhinoes were
(b) Octochaetona serrata introduced in
(c) Lumbricus terrestris (A) Assam
(d) Eisenia foetida
Choose the correct answer : (B) Meghalaya
(A) (a) and (b) only (C) West Bengal
(B) (b) and (d) only (D) Madhya Pradesh
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) and (d) only
22. Which of the following is an
18. The amount of the living material endangered bird species ?
present in different trophic levels at a (A) Kashmir stag
given time is called
(a) standing crop (B) Great Indian Bustard
(b) standing state (C) Hangul
(c) biomass (D) Black buck
(d) biosphe
(A) (a) and (c) are correct. 23. In India, Crocodile breeding project
(B) (d) is correct. started for the first time in
(C) (b) is correct. (A) Tamil Nadu
(D) (c) and (b) are correct. (B) West Bengal
19. Many orchids use trees as a surface (C) Odisha
to grow. This is an example of (D) Goa
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism 24. Identify the correct sequence of
(D) Predation materials in terms of their porosity.
(A) Sand > clay > gravel
20. The r– strategist is a (B) Clay > sand > gravel
(A) small organism that has a short
life, produces many offsprings (C) Gravel > sand > clay
and does not reach carrying (D) Gravel > clay > sand
capacity.
(B) small organism that has a
25. For an aquifer of gravel having cross
longer life, produces offsprings
sectional area of 4 m2 and a depth of
and does not reach carrying
2.5 m, how much water could
capacity.
potentially be extracted ? (The
(C) small organism that has a short
porosity and specific yield of gravel
life, produces numerous
are 25% and 20% respectively.)
offsprings and reach carrying
capacity. (A) 0.5 m3
(D) medium organism that has a (B) 0.25 m3
short life, produces numerous (C) 0.125 m3
offsprings and reach carrying
capacity. (D) 1 m3
Paper-III 4 J-89-14
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26. The layers formed by thermal 30. Tundra is a biome characterized by
stratification in lakes are
(A) Epilimnion, Midlimnion, (A) stunted trees and permanently
Hypolimnion frozen sub-surface soil.
(B) Epilimnion, Oligolimnion, (B) coniferous trees and
Hypolimnion permanently frozen sub-surface
(C) Epilimnion, Dystrolimnion, soil.
Hypolimnion
(D) Epilimnion, Thermocline, (C) lack of trees and permanently
Hypolimnion frozen sub-surface soil.
27. On an aerial photograph, the focal (D) evergreen trees and

length (f) of the camera lens is 6 permanently frozen sub-surface
inches and flying height (H) over the soil.
datum line is 15,000 ft. What is scale
of the aerial photograph ?
(A) 1 : 30,000 31. Acid mine drainage occurs when
(B) 1 : 10,000
(C) 1 : 5,000 (A) the combined action of O2, H2O
and certain bacteria cause
(D) 1 : 25,000
sulphur in coal to form H2SO4.
28. Which of the following substrate will (B) the combined action of H2O
have highest reflectance value ? and certain bacteria cause
(A) Silt loam with 20% moisture. sulphur in coal to form H2SO4.
(B) Clay with 36% moisture.
(C) Silt loam with 0.8% moisture. (C) the combined action of O2 and
(D) Clay with 2% moisture. certain bacteria cause sulphur
in coal to form H2SO4.
29. Assertion (A) : For sustainable (D) the combined action of SO2 and
development of a region, certain bacteria with coal to
proper land use planning is form H2SO4.
required.
Reason (R) : Land use planning
involves inputs of soil types,
rock types, seismicity, weather 32. In accordance with the Saffir –
pattern and socio-economic Simpson hurricane scale, a cyclonic
conditions of a region. storm of category 5 should have wind
Codes : speeds
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (A) > 69 ms–1
the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (B) 50 – 58 ms–1
explanation of (A). (C) 59 – 69 ms–1
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (D) 33 – 42 ms–1
J-89-14 5 Paper-III
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33. Assertion (A) : Large scale OTEC 37. In a nuclear fusion reactor it is
development may not be good envisaged to use a liquid blanket of
for environment. Li to absorb fast neutrons from D+T
Reason (R) : Release of CO2 reaction. How many neutrons are
from ocean depths into the produced as a result of 73Li + 01n ?
atmosphere could exacerbate
GHG effect. (A) 1
(B) 2
Codes :
(C) 3
the correct explanation of (A). (D) 4
(R) is not the correct 38. In an ideal MHD power plant, the
explanation of (A). electrical efficiency corresponding to
maximum power production is
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
34. In a methane fuel cell, what will be (C) 25%
the voltage of the cell and its (D) 100%
efficiency ?
(Given : G° = 8 × 105 Joules/gm – 39. Energy intensity is a measure of
mole H° = 8.8 × 105 Joules / (A) effectiveness of energy
gm – mole and Faraday’s utilisation
constant = 96500 coulomb/
(B) energy produced per unit area
gm-mole)
(C) energy produced per unit
(A) ~ 1.23 Volts, ~ 90.9% volume
(B) ~ 1.04 Volts, ~ 90.9% (D) energy produced per unit area
(C) ~ 1.15 Volts, ~ 11% per unit time
(D) ~ 2.13 Volts, ~ 92%
40. One of the criteria for characterizing
35. The coefficient of performance for an a region as ABC hotspot is that the
ideal wind mill is annual mean anthropogenic Aerosol
(A) 3/8 Optical Depth (AOD) is greater than
(B) 5/16 (A) 0.3
(C) 2/5 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.8
(D) 16/27
(D) 0.1
36. Assume that the energy released
during the combustion of methane is 41. The resultant of two noise levels of
900 kJ/mol. Its carbon intensity is 50 dB and 55 dB is
(A) 13.3 gc/MJ (A) 58 dB
(B) 15.3 gc/MJ (B) 55.41 dB
(C) 19.7 gc/MJ (C) 52.5 dB
(D) 24.2 gc/MJ (D) 56.19 dB
Paper-III 6 J-89-14
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42. Which of the following is used as a 46. Which one of the following is used
coagulant for removal of phosphates as microbial indicator of water
in water ? contamination ?
(A) Aluminium sulphate (A) Coliform bacteria
(B) Iron sulphate (B) Giardia
(C) Copper sulphate (C) Cryptosporidium
(D) Potassium chromate (D) Tobacco mosaic virus
43. Which of the following radionuclides 47. Elevated salt and Na+ concentrations
has the longest half-life ? in soils are highly toxic to many
plants, but relatively high tolerance
(A) C14
level (to this toxicity) is seen in
(B) Sr90
(A) Sugarbeet
131
(C) I
(B) Sugarcane
137
(D) Cs
(C) Onion
(D) Lettuce
44. Under anaerobic conditions
nitrogenase catalises
(A) breakdown of atmospheric 48. Which of the following hydrocarbons
nitrogen is emitted by vegetation ?
(B) oxidation of atmospheric (A) Ocimene

nitrogen
(B) Xylene
(C) reduction of atmospheric
(C) Acrolein
nitrogen
(D) hydrolysis of nitrogenous (D) 1, 3 - Pentadions
compounds
49. For particles of size > 5µm, the

45. Size range of atmospheric aerosols is efficiency of cyclones can be as high as
(A) 5nm – 100µm (A) 50%
(B) 100µm – 150µm (B) 60%
(C) 150µm – 200µm (C) 80%
(D) 0.01nm – 5nm (D) 90%
J-89-14 7 Paper-III
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50. Given the following parameters of a 53. Battelle-Columbus weighting –
primary settling chamber : scaling checklist methodology for
Diameter = 50m, Depth = 2.5m, water-resources projects obtains base
average detention time = 2 hours. line data on how many
How much quantity of waste water is environmental parameters ?
being treated ? (A) 40
(A) ~ 58928 m3/day (B) 78
(B) ~ 48321 m3/day (C) 68
(C) ~ 45321 m3/day (D) 50
(D) ~ 25321 m3/day
51. A flat surface type electrostatic codes given below :
precipitator (ESP) has the following
parameters : collector plate area
A = 4600 m2, volumetric flow rate a. Checklists i. Involve preparation
Q = 200 m3/s and effective drift methods of a set of
velocity of flue gas = 0.15 m/s. What transparent maps,
is the efficiency of the ESP ? which represent the
spatial distribution
(A) ~ 0.968 (B) ~ 0.981 of an environmental
(C) ~ 0.975 (D) ~ 0.922 characteristics
52. Assertion (A) : Cost-benefit b. Overlays ii. Highly structured
analysis for assessment of methods approaches involving
natural systems is not merely importance
concerned with the effects on weightings for factors
environmental quality but seeks and appli-cation of
the conditions for sustainable scaling techniques
use of the natural resources of a c. Adhoc iii. Identification and
region. methods evaluation of
Reason (R) : Cost-benefit analysis interactions between
is not useful for small scale various activities and
development projects, but is environmental
better suited for the analysis parameters
and evaluation of a regional d. Matrices iv. Indicate broad areas
development plan. methods of possible impacts
Identify the correct answer : by listing composite
Codes : environmental
parameters
the correct explanation. Codes :
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but a b c d
(R) is not the correct (A) i ii iii iv
explanation. (B) iv ii i iii
(C) (A) is true and (R) is wrong. (C) ii i iv iii
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (D) iii iv ii i
Paper-III 8 J-89-14
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55. Match List – I with List – II and 58. According to Environment
choose the correct answer from the (Protection) Act, 1986 permissible
codes given below : limits of oil and grease in the
List – I (Criteria of List – II effluents to be discharged into public
EIA Methodology) (Component) sewers is
a. Impact i. Magnitude (A) 10 mg/l
identification (B) 20 mg/l
b. Impact ii. Specificity (C) 25 mg/l
measurement (D) 30 mg/l
c. Impact iii. Depth of
communication analysis
d. Impact iv. Compre- 59. ‘Reed swamp stage’ is also referred
interpretation hensive to as
overall (A) submerged stage
perspective (B) woodland stage
Codes : (C) rooted floated stage
a b c d (D) amphibious stage
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) ii i iv iii 60. Match List – I with List – II and
(C) iii iv i iv choose the correct answer from the
(D) iv iii ii i given codes :
56. Significant hazard/accident factor to (Ecosystem types) (Characteristics)
be considered under risk assessment a. Coral reefs i. Still water
of distillaries are b. Deltas ii. Saline water
(A) toxic gas release and human
c. Wetlands iii. Brackish
accident
water
(B) pressure wave and heat
d. Rivers iv. Fresh water
radiation
(C) toxic gas release and radiation Codes :
(D) pressure wave and toxic gas a b c d
release (A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
57. If ‘I’ is the impact of the population (C) ii i iv iii
on the environment, ‘P’ is the size of (D) iii iv i ii
the population, ‘A’ is the per capita
affluence or consumption and ‘T’ is
the damage caused by technologies, 61. Maximum energy content (KJ/kg) in
then which of the following equation a typical municipal solid waste is
is correct ? found in
(A) I = (P × A)/T (A) Plastic
(B) I = P × A × T (B) Leather
(C) I = T/(P × A) (C) Wood
(D) I = P/(A × T) (D) Textile
J-89-14 9 Paper-III
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62. Public Liability Insurance Act was 66. A Ψ2 distribution with 10 degrees of
enacted in the year freedom has variance
(A) 1991 (A) 10
(B) 1993 (B) 20
(C) 1995 (C) 5
(D) 1997 (D) 40
67. The rank of the matrix

63. A sample size of 17 observations is
1 1 1
selected from a normal population
with mean = 50. The sample mean 1 –1 – 1 is
and variance are 48 and 8 3 1 1
respectively. The value of t – statistic (A) 2
is (B) 3
(A) 0.25 (C) 1
(B) – 2.82 (D) Not possible to determine.
(C) – 2.2
68. Which of the following is not an
(D) 0.71 2 0
eigenvector of the matrix 0 5 ?
64. A class has equal number of boys and 1
girls. The mean and standard deviation (A) 0
– 0
of their weights are X g = 40 kg, (B) 1
–
Sg = 2 kg for girls and Xb = 50 kg, 0
Sb = 2 kg for boys. What is the (C) 2
combined variance of the weights of 1
the whole class ? (D) 1
(A) 29 (B) 16
(C) 8 (D) 19 69. Assertion (A) : Ground level
concentration of pollutants
65. For a simple regression analysis decreases when taller stacks are
involving the dependent variable Y used.
and explanatory variable X, the Reason (R) : The ground level
following data is given : concentration varies inversely
No. of observations N = 40, proportional to the height of the
– stacks.
ΣX2 = 2000, ΣY2 = 2000, X = 20, Codes :
– (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
Y = 5, standard error of estimate of Y
on X, SYX = 4. The explained (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
variance is (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
(A) 360 but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) 860
(C) 500
(D) 580
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70. Assume that 5.3 billion people live in 73. REDD+ initiatives include
less developed countries, where I. Forest carbon partnership
average birth rate is 23 and infant facility
mortality rate is 53. Then the total II. Forest investment programme
death due to infant mortality are III. Sanitation for all
(A) 6.5 × 106/year IV. Food security for all
(B) 5.3 × 106/year (A) I and IV only
(C) 7.3 × 106/year (B) I and II only
(D) 8.5 × 106/year (C) I, II and III only
(D) III and IV only
71. Which of the following act as 74. Match List – I with List – II and
‘natural sink for carbon’ ? choose the correct answer from the
I. Trees codes given below:
II. Oceans List – I List – II
(Environment (Year)
III. Soils Related Treaties)
Choose the correct code : a. CITES i. 1989
b. Basel ii. 1973
(A) I only
c. UNFCCC iii. 1997
(B) I and II only d. Kyoto Protocol iv. 1992
(C) I, II and III Codes :
a b c d
(D) II and III only
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii ii i
72. Match List – I with List – II and (C) i iv iii ii
choose the correct answer from the (D) ii i iv iii
codes given below:
List – I List – II 75. Identify the correct sequence with
(GHGs) (Atmospheric reference to sensitization about
Lifetime) (Yrs) environmental problems.
a. CFC-12 i. 12 (A) Knowledge → Awareness →
Attitude → Skill → Evaluation
b. Methane ii. 50-200
ability → Participation
c. CO2 iii. 114 (B) Knowledge → Awareness →
d. N2O iv. 100 Skill → Attitude →
Participation → Evaluation
Codes :
ability
a b c d (C) Awareness → Knowledge →
(A) iii iv i ii Attitude → Skill → Evaluation
ability → Participation
(B) ii iii iv i
(D) Awareness → Knowledge →
(C) iv i ii iii Participation → Attitude →
(D) i ii iii iv Skill → Evaluation ability
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
D 891
1 2 (In words)

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖéÂš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
open booklet. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û μÖê ¯Öæ¸ê
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the †×ŸÖ×¸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ×¤μÖÖ •ÖÖμÖêÝÖÖ …
Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ÛÎ ´Ö ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö
time will be given. ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë …
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê ×¤ÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî …
on the correct response against each item. ˆ¤ÖÆ¸ÞÖ :
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö Ûê †®¤¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Æß †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸®Öê Æï … μÖ×¤ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any ×Û ÃÖß †®μÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛ Ö ´Öæ»μÖÖÓÛ ®Ö
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ …
evaluated. 6. †®¤¸ ×¤μÖê ÝÖμÖê ×®Ö¤ì ¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬μÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë …
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or ®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ“ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖê
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose †®μÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏμÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï , ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖμÖê †μÖÖêÝμÖ
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û μÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
disqualification.
9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛ Ö ‹¾ÖÓ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï …
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë …
D-89-12 1 P.T.O.
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PAPER – III
1. In a multiple regression model, the f- 5. Which one of the following states of

ratio is used to test the mercury is volatile ?
(A) Variance of the data
(A) Organic
(B) Standard error of mean
(C) R2 value (B) Ionic
(D) Overall goodness of fit of the (C) Atomic
model. (D) All of the above
2. If the mean of a sample is 20, the
standard error of mean is 1 and the t- 6. Molar extinction coefficient of H2O2 at
statistic for 95% level of confidence is 240 nm is 0.04 M–1 cm–1. The
2.5, the population mean will be in the concentration of H2O2 in a solution
range
(A) 17.5 to 22.5 which has absorbance of 0.6 in a 3 cm
(B) 15 to 25 curette will be
(C) 20 to 25 (A) 5 M
(D) 15 to 20 (B) 10 M
3. The third moment about the mean of a (C) 15 M

distribution of a set of observations is a (D) 20 M
measure of
(A) Mode
7. A reference solution is to be prepared
(B) Skewness
(C) Kurtosis with 5 PPM parabenzopyrene
(D) Variance (molecular weight = 252). The quantity
of parabenzopyrene required for
4. Consider an air shed over a city in the preparing one litre 5 PPM solution is
form of a rectangular box. The wind (A) 252 mg
velocity is 5 m/sec normal to left face
(B) 25.2 mg
of the box. The length of the box along
(C) 5 mg
(D) 252 g
the direction of wind is 10 km and
mixing height is 1 km. Assuming rapid
mixing of the pollutants which are
conservative in nature, the
concentration of the pollutants in the 8. Which one of the following is a
city would reach 63% of its final value peroxyl radical ?
in (A) OH
(A) 2,000 sec
(B) 5,000 sec (B) R
(C) 10,000 sec (C) RO
(D) 1,000 sec (D) ROO
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9. Depending upon the amount of net 12. Raunkiaer’s normal biological
primary productivity the various spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the
ecosystems can be arranged in a world exhibits one of the following
decreasing sequence of yield. sequence of occurrence (%) of
(A) Tropical seasonal forest – different life forms.
Tropical rain forest – Temperate
(A) Phanerophytes,
Grassland – Woodland and
Shrubland. Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes,
(B) Tropical seasonal forest – Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
Tropical rain forest – Woodland (B) Phanerophytes,
and Shrubland – Temperate Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes,
Grassland Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Tropical rain forest – Temperate (C) Phanerophytes,
Grassland – Woodland and Hemicryptophytes,
Shrubland – Tropical seasonal Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes,
forest. Therophytes.
(D) Tropical rain forest – Tropical (D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes,
seasonal forest – Woodland and
Hemicryptophytes,
Shrubland – Temperate
Grassland. Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
10. Which of the following is a correct 13. One of the following categories of
sequence of secondary seral vegetation earthworms is most suitable for
development on any habitat ? wasteland reclamation.
(A) Ecesis – Invasion – Aggregation (A) Epigeic
– Stabilization (B) Anecic
(B) Ecesis – Aggregation – Invasion (C) Endogeic
– Stabilization (D) None of the above
(C) Aggregation – Invasion – Ecesis
– Stabilization
(D) Invasion – Ecesis – Aggregation 14. How many mega-bio-diverse countries
– Stabilization have been identified in the world ?
(A) 2
(B) 12
11. What is common feature among the
following ? (C) 17
Abies delavayi (D) 35
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandra griffthii 15. Which one of the following is an Ex-
Aglaia perviridis situ method of biodiversity
(A) All have been extinct. conservation ?
(B) All are gymnosperms. (A) Seed storage
(C) All are identified as endangered (B) DNA Bank
species. (C) Tissue culture
(D) All are angiosperms. (D) All the above
D-89-12 3 Paper-III
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16. Which one of the following is a methyl 21. The sequence of ease of decomposition
isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide ? of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl) (A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch
(B) Temix (Aldicarb) – Crude protein – Fat
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran) (B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat –
(D) All the above Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein –
Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
17. The sequence of fossil fuels in the
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin –
order of higher to lower heating value
Hemicellulose – Crude protein
is as follows :
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas,
22. Which one of the following radio-
Hydrogen.
nuclides has the lowest half life
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, period ?
Petroleum, Coal. (A) C14
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, (B) Sr90
Petroleum. (C) I131
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, (D) Cs137
Hydrogen.
23. Match the rules mentioned in Column
18. Natural ore of radioactive materials – I with year of enforcement
does not contain which one of the mentioned in Column – II.
following isotope ? Column – I Column – II
(A) U235 a. Hazardous Wastes 1. 2000
(B) Pu239 (Management and
(C) U238 Handling) Rules
(D) Th232 b. Biomedical Solid 2. 1978
Wastes (Management
and Handling) Rules.
19. The process of splitting bigger hydro-
c. Municipal Solid 3. 1989
carbon into smaller hydrocarbon
Wastes (Management
molecules is called
and Handling) Rules
(A) Pyrolysis
d. The Water 4. 1998
(B) Thermal decomposition (Prevention and
(C) Cracking Control of Pollution)
(D) Combustion Cess Rules
20. Which one of the following is a Codes :
complex in organic fertilizer ? a b c d
(A) Urea (A) 3 4 1 2
(B) Super phosphate (B) 4 1 2 3
(C) Potash (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) NPK (D) 1 3 4 2
Paper-III 4 D-89-12
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24. Average composition of biodegradable 27. Which of the following is true when
waste in Municipal Solid Waste frequency of occurrence of risk is
(MSW) of India is remote but possible ?
(A) 30 – 35% (A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) 40 – 45% (B) Risk reduction measures should
(C) 55 – 65% be implemented.
(D) 60 – 70% (C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
25. The treatment method recommended
for the human anatomical waste
generated from hospitals is 28. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(A) Chemical disinfection
labelled as Reason (R).
(B) Autoclaving
Assertion (A) : Indirect impacts are
(C) Incineration more difficult to measure, but can
(D) All the above ultimately be more important.
Reason (R) : In areas where wildlife is
26. Match the waste class mentioned in plentiful, such as Africa, new roads
Column – I with Color Code of the often lead to the rapid depletion of
Collection Container mentioned in animals.
Column – II. Choose the correct answer.
Column – I Column – II Codes :
a. Human 1. Blue (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Anatomical Waste (R) is the correct explanation.
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass 3. Red (R) is not the correct explanation.
ware
d. Disposable 4. White
plastics (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Codes : 29. An earthquake measuring over 8 on
Richter Scale is rated as
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4 (A) Destructive
(B) 4 2 3 1 (B) Major

(C) 1 2 3 4 (C) Great
(D) 3 1 4 2 (D) Damaging
D-89-12 5 Paper-III
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30. Given below are two statements, one 34. The efficiency of a MHD power
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other 
generator for applied electric field E ,

Assertion (A) : It is difficult to judge magnetic field B and velocity of hot
how changes in localized gas 
ionized gas U is

samples represent more general
conditions in the Volcano. |E|
Reason (R) : The composition of the (A)  
| U| | B|
 
juvenile gases emitted from
volcanic vents offen show | U| | B|
considerable variation over short (B) 
|E|
2
periods and distances.
|E|
 
Codes : (C)
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) | U| | B|
is the correct explanation of (A). 2
|E|

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (D)
(R) is not the correct explanation –2
| U| |B|
of (A).
35. Match the List – I with List – II and
31. In a false – color set, human visual codes given below :
perception is limited to how many List – I List – II
independent coordinates ? (Constituents (Sources)
(A) Three of
(B) Four Particulate
(C) One matter)
(D) Five a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete
32. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal combustion of
Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground fossil fuels.
(A) (D/F)  H
Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to 2– 3. Elements largely
c. SO4
introduced by
(B) D/F Human Activities.
(C) H/F d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas
(D) D/H in atmosphere.
33. Darkest level of the associated color Choose the correct code :
(RGB) would have brightness value Codes :
equal to a b c d
(A) 0 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 256 (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 255 (C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2047 (D) 3 4 2 1
Paper-III 6 D-89-12
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36. For aerosol particles having sizes > 1 m, 40. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 dB
the terminal settling velocity (VT) of an superimpose at a location. What is the
aerosol particle varies with its diameter resultant sound at that location ?
(D) as (A) ~ 82 dB
(A) VT  D (B) ~ 87 dB
VT  D2
(C) ~ 91 dB
(B)
VT  D3
(D) ~ 165 dB
(C)
(D) VT  D3/2 41. The coefficient of performance of a
wind turbine for maximum power
output is
37. Scale lengths associated with synoptic (A) 13/18
scale phenomenon in atmosphere are (B) 5/8
typically in the range
(C) 16/27
(A) 10 – 100 km (D) 11/17
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km 42. Which of the following does not have a
(D) 1 – 10 km direct role in climate change ?
(A) Sulphate and nitrate aerosols
isothermal at 25 C and the estimated

38. Assume that the atmosphere is
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Nitric oxide
35 C, the mixing height is (take
maximum daily surface temperature is
adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 C per 43. Which method is used to separate

100 m) molecules on the basis of their sizes ?
(A) 3.5 km (A) Ion exchange chromatography
(B) 2.5 km (B) Molecular exclusion
chromatography
(C) 1.5 km
(C) Adsorption chromatography
(D) 1 km (D) Thin layer chromatography
39. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations 44. Which type of support media is used in
are in the range different types of electrophoresis ?
(A) Agarose gel
(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) Polyacrylamide gel
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) Sodium dedecyl sulphate
(C) 280 – 320 nm polyacrylamide gel
(D) 320 – 400 nm (D) All the above
D-89-12 7 Paper-III
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45. Which of the following categories of 49. Maximum CaO is found in
plants get benefitted more due to
elevation of CO2 level ? (A) Bauxite
(A) C3 plants (B) Limonite

(B) C4 plants (C) Lime Stone
(C) CAM plants (D) Siderite
50. The sequence of chemical constituents

46. Aquifers that extend continuously from in order of their abundance in a
the land surface through material of majority of sedimentary rocks is
high permeability are
(A) SiO2 > TiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3
(A) Aquitards
(B) Auicludes (B) SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3 > TiO2
(C) Confined aquifers (C) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > Al2O3> TiO2
(D) Unconfined aquifers
(D) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > TiO2> Al2O3
47. Which one of the following is used to

determine ambient concentration of 51. The primary producers in the marine
suspended particulate matter ? ecosystem are
(A) Cascade impactor
(A) Eubacteria and Algae
(B) Kjeldahl’s Flask
(B) Cyanobacteria and Algae
(C) Sacchi Disk
(D) Folin-Wu method (C) Algae and Protozoans

48. Which of the following laws states that
the solubility of a gas in a liquid is
proportional to the partial pressure of 52. Mycorrhizae can be used as
that gas in contact with liquid ? biofertilizers because they
(A) Hick’s law (A) fix nitrogen
(B) Henry’s law (B) fix CO2
(C) Hardy-Weinburg law of
equilibrium (C) solubilise phosphate
(D) 2nd Law of Newton (D) kill pathogens

Paper-III 8 D-89-12
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53. Given below are two statements, one 56. The country which uses maximum
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other nuclear power is
labelled as Reason (R). (A) U.S.A.
Assertion (A) : Some plants with (B) Japan
mycorrhizal fungi are able to
(C) France
occupy habitats that otherwise
could not inhabit. (D) Germany
Reason (R) : The importance of
mycorrhizal plant interaction is 57. Which bacteria removes copper from
attested by the fact that 95% of all low grade copper ore ?
plants have mycorrhizae. (A) Thiobacillus sp
Choose the correct answer : (B) Bacillus thuringiensis
Codes : (C) Rhizobium sp
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) All of the above
of (A).
58. Which of the following is not a part of
(R) is not the correct explanation Geographic Information System
of (A). (GIS) ?
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (A) Projection
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
54. An interactive association between two (D) Measuring distance and

populations in which one population connectivity
benefits from the association, while the
other is not affected, is 59. Ultrafiltration can remove
(A) Mutualism (A) Suspended solids
(B) Neutralism (B) Bacteria
(C) Commensalism (C) Protozoa
(D) Symbiosis (D) All the above
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to

55. The method for downstreaming of
having high calorific value, should
ethanol from fermentation broth is
have
(A) Filtration
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) Flow cytometry
(B) High viscosity
(C) Distillation (C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Flame Photometry (D) Moderate ignition temperature
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61. Reserve food material in algae is 66. Which of the following disinfection
(A) Starch method does not result in synthesis of
organochlorine ?
(B) Cellulose
(A) Chlorination
(C) Protein
(B) Chloroamination
(D) None of the above (C) Ozonation
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics
can be characterized by 67. An organism’s niche is
(A) Rate of CO2 formation (A) the way the organism uses the
range of physical and biological
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
conditions in which it lives.
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD (B) all the biological and physical
(D) All of the above factors in the organism’s
environment.
(C) the function role played by the
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could
organism where it lives.
be controlled by
(D) the range of temperature that the
(A) Lowering pH organism needs to live.
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime 68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in
(D) All of the above (A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus
belongs to
(A) Soft – rot
69. Which of the following chemicals of
(B) Brown – rot anthropogenic origin mimics the effect
(C) White – rot of estrogen in animals ?
(D) Red – rot (A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p - DDT
65. The drastic reduction in the number of
(D) All the above
intestinal pathogens during activated
sludge process is the overall result of
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings
(A) Competition
caused due to use of water
(B) Competition and adsorption contaminated with
(C) Predation, competition and (A) Mercury
adsorption (B) Cadmium
(D) Competition, adsorption, (C) Silver
predation and settling (D) Arsenic
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71. Largest amount of fresh water is 74. Given below are two statements, one
present in labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(A) Lakes
Assertion (A) : Increasing temperature
(B) Rivers in the environment influences
(C) Glaciers gonadal growth in fish.
(D) Polar Ice Reason (R) : Increase in day length

causes increase in environmental
temperature in summer.
72. A threatened species is Choose the correct code :
(A) only endangered species Codes :
(B) only vulnerable species (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(C) only rare species (A).
(D) all of the above (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
73. Given below are two statements, one
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
labelled as Reason (R). (D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Assertion (A) : Animals adopt various
strategies to survive in hostile 75. Match Column – I with Column – II :
environment.
Reason (R) : Praying mantis is green
a. The Rio Summit 1. 1997
in color which emerges with plant
foliage. b. Johannesburg Earth 2. 1972
Summit
c. Kyoto Protocol 3. 1992
Codes :
d. The Stockholm 4. 2002
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with Conference
(R) being the correct explanation
Codes :
of (A).
a b c d
(R) is not correct explanation of (A) 3 4 1 2
(A). (B) 1 2 3 4
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) 4 3 2 1
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (D) 2 1 4 3
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UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER III)
SUBJECT : ( 89 ) ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Q.No. SC89
Q01 D
Q02 A
Q03 B
Q04 A
Q05 C
Q06 A
Q07 C
Q08 D
Q09 D
Q10 B
Q11 C
Q12 B
Q13 C
Q14 C
Q15 D
Q16 D
Q17 B
Q18 B
Q19 C
Q20 D
Q21 C
Q22 C
Q23 A
Q24 B
Q25 C
Q26 D
Q27 A
Q28 B
Q29 C
Q30 A
Q31 A
Q32 A
Q33 A
Q34 A
Q35 A
Q36 B
Q37 B
Q38 D
Q39 D
Q40 A
Q41 C
Q42 D
Q43 B
Q44 D
Q45 A
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Q46 D
Q47 A
Q48 B
Q49 C
Q50 B
Q51 B
Q52 C
Q53 A
Q54 C
Q55 C
Q56 C
Q57 A
Q58 A
Q59 D
Q60 D
Q61 A
Q62 D
Q63 A
Q64 C
Q65 D
Q66 C
Q67 C
Q68 C
Q69 D
Q70 D
Q71 D
Q72 D
Q73 C
Q74 A
Q75 A
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4/11/2019----NTA NET Environmental-Science December 2013 Solved Paper III- Translation in Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Sindhi,
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NTA NET Environmental-Science December-2013 Solved Paper

III
1. For an overcast day or night, the atmosphere is
a. Stable
b. Neutral
c. Slightly stable
d. Unstable
Answer: b
2. Assertion (A): The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R): The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the
transformation of energy from one trophic level to the other, 80 – 90% of energy is lost.
Answer: a
3. Match the List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the given codes:
List-I (Thermodynamic Variables) List-II (Symbols have their usual

(Expression) meanings.)
a. ΔG a. ΔE + PΔV
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b. ΔG° b. – n FE°
c. ΔS c. RT ln (V1/V2)
d. ΔH d. nR ln (V2/V1)
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: b
4. The environmental lapse rate durng day time is governed by
a. Wind speed
b. Sunlight
c. Topographical features
d. Cloud cover
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 4 only
Answer: c
5. The wavelength range of UV–C radiations is
a. 200 – 280 nm
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b. 180 – 240 nm
c. 320 – 400 nm
d. 240 – 300 nm
Answer: a
6. In a gas chromatography experiment, the retention factor (Rf) values for pollutant ‘A’ and
pollutant ‘B’ in a mixture of pollutants were 0.5 and 0.125, respectively. If the distance
travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the distance (in cms) travelled by pollutant ‘A’ and
pollutant ‘B’ will be
a. 6 and 1.5
b. 3 and 1.5
c. 0.5 and 0.125
d. 1.5 and 3
Answer: a
7. Using the following equations, which can be determined correctly? Ca (HCO3) 2 –––→ Δ
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 (by heating) or Ca (HCO3) 2 + Ca (OH) 2 –––→ 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O
(by addition of lime)
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbonates
c. Bicarbonates
d. Carbonates and Bicarbonates
Answer: d
8. Assume that a river having dissolved oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 flowing at 80
m3/sec. Converge with another river having Dissolved Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3
flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after the confluence the Dissolved Oxygen is 0.59 g/m3,
then the BOD is
a. 0.83 g/m3
b. 0.43 g/m3
c. 0.73 g/m3
d. 0.92 g/m3
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Answer: a
9. Cells grown in a medium containing phosphorous –32 will show radio labelling in
a. Starch
b. Glycogen
c. Proteins
d. Nucleic acids
Answer: a
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The fraction of the C14 atoms that decays per year is
a. 1.216 × 10–4
b. 0.52 × 10–3
c. 0.78 × 10–4
d. 2.81 × 10–4
Answer: a
11. Assertion (A): Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans
and along coasts in the Western Pacific.
Reason (R): Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.
Answer: b
12. “Double digging” is a method of
a. Bio-intensive agriculture
b. Deforestation
c. Aforestation
d. Water conservation
Answer: a
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13. The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats pertains to
a. Alpha diversity
b. Beta diversity
c. Gamma diversity
d. Species diversity
Answer: b
14. Match the List-I and List-II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List-I (Vegetation development) List-II (Nomenclature of succession)
a. On a rock a. Psammosere
b. On sand b. Lithosere
c. In aquatic habitat c. Xerosere
d. In dry habitat d. Hydrosere
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
Answer: a
15. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled
conditions, the species is said to be
a. Ecologically extinct
b. Mass extinct
c. Wild extinct
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d. Anthropogenic extinct
Answer: c
16. Which of the following symbolises correct sequence in hydrosere?
a. Diatoms → Wolffia → Hydrilla → Cyperus → Populus
b. Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus → Diatoms
c. Cyperus → Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Populus
d. Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus
Answer: d
17. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels?
a. Stagnant water ecosystem
b. Freshwater ecosystem
c. Brackish ecosystem
d. Marine ecosystem
Answer: a
18. The K-strategists are
a. Large organisms which have relatively longer life
b. Provide care for their offsprings
c. Organisms that stabilise their population at carrying capacity for the area
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
19. Limnetic zone in freshwater ecosystem is characterised by
a. Presence of rooted vegetation
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b. Absence of rooted vegetation
c. Presence of large proportion of lime
d. Absence of phytoplankton
Answer: b
20. Match the List-I with List-II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List-I (Plants) List-II (Family)
a. Camellia caduca a. Orchdaceae
b. Picea brachytyla b. Theaceae
c. Colchicumluteum c. Pinaceae
d. Arachnantha clarkei d. Liliaceae
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: d
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the
electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
a. Ultraviolet
b. Near infrared
c. Middle infrared
d. Visible
Answer: b
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22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over
electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon
a. Pigmentation in the leaf
b. Structure of the leaf
c. Moisture content of the leaf
d. All the above characters
Answer: d
23. Given below are statements in the context of biogeochemical cycles:
a. Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.
b. Ecosystem boundaries are permeable to some degree or other.
c. The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another
via imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km,
respectively. What is its volcanic explosivity index value?
a. 2
b. 8
c. 7
d. 4
Answer: d
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is
correct for oceans?
a. Input + change in storage = output
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b. Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
c. Input – change in storage = output
d. Precipitation – inflow = evaporation
Answer: b
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
a. Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning – review
b. Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.
c. Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.
d. Learning – review, emergency plans, preparedness.
Answer: a
27. Permafrost represents
a. Permanently frozen subsurface soil
b. Frozen leaves of Oak trees
c. Frozen needles of pine trees
d. Temporarily frozen subsurface soil
Answer: a
28. Assertion (A): Estuaries are productive ecosystems.
Reason (R): Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers
that run into them.
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c. A is true and R is false.
d. A is false and R is true.
Answer: a
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow
of water. The difference in their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50
m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance perpendicular to the flow of
water is
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a. 25 m3/day per metre
b. 50 m3/day per metre
c. 5 m3/day per metre
d. 1 m3/day per metre
Answer: c
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
a. Clay
b. Sandstone
c. Limestone
d. Quartzite
Answer: b
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
a. Solar
b. Hydrothermal
c. Geothermal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2
per hour, solar radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert
beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The collector efficiency is
a. ~ 6.6 %
b. ~ 4.8 %
c. ~ 12.2 %
d. ~ 15.2 %
Answer: a
33. For the reacton in a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell, H2 + ½ O2 = H2O (l) Given ΔG° = 240
kJ/gm – mole of H2 and Faraday's constant = 96, 500 Coulomb/gm mole. The developed
voltage in the fuel cell will be
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a. ~ 1.13 Volts
b. ~ 2.13 Volts
c. ~ 1.51 Volts
d. ~ 1.24 Volts
Answer: d
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
a. Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal < Nuclear
b. Oil < Coal < Natural gas < Nuclear
c. Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas < Oil
d. Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal
Answer: d
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
a. Normal water
b. Heavy water
c. Graphite
d. Liquid Helium
Answer: d
36. The minimum temperature gradient (° C/km) required for OTEC is about
a. 20
b. 10
c. 40
d. 60
Answer: a
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar
energy to electric generation process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2,
what is the area of solar pond?
a. 100 km2
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b. 90 km2
c. 60 km2
d. 180 km2
Answer: a
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth's surface?
a. Ozone
b. Black carbon aerosols
c. All Greenhouse gases
d. Sulphates and nitrates
Answer: b
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for
measurements.
Reason (R): Weighting a filters out unwanted signals.
d. Both A and R are false.
Answer: c
40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a sound pressure level of
a. 0.2 Pa
b. 0.02 Pa
c. 20 Pa
d. 200 Pa
Answer: a
41. Asphyxiation is caused by
a. HCN, COCl2
b. NOx
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c. CHCl3
d. AsH3
Answer: a
42. Sequence of a typical sewage treatment plant operation process will be
a. Aeration → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Recarbonation → Filtration →

Disinfection
b. Aeration → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Filtration → Recarbonation →

Disinfection
c. Flocculation → Aeration →Recarbonation → Sedimentation → Filtration →

Disinfection
d. Sedimentation → Flocculation → Aeration → Filtration → Recarbonation →

Disinfection
Answer: a
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
a. Rn222
b. Pb210
c. Ti210
d. Bi210
Answer: b
44. Match the List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from given codes:
List-I (Aerosols) List-II (Constituents)
a. Dust a. Small gas borne particles resulting from

combustion
b. Mist
b. Black carbon
c. Smoke
c. Suspended small liquid droplets
d. Atmospheric Brown
Cloud d. Solid suspended particles
A B C D
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a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
Answer: a
45. Assertion (A): Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds contain chlorine, bromine and fluorine.
Answer: c
46. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin?
a. Isoprene
b. α-pinene
c. Myrcene
d. Acrolein
Answer: d
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF
in air?
a. Lichen
b. Orchid
c. Apricot
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d. Tobacco
Answer: a
48. Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at removing
a. NO2 and CO
b. CO and SO2
c. Particulates and sulphur
d. NO2 and SO2
Answer: c
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50, 000 m3 wastewater generated per day.
For an average flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. Metre, what should be the diameter of
the circular primary settling tank?
a. 50.4 m
b. 30.6 m
c. 20 m
d. 25.8 m
Answer: a
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas
with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the
flue gas is
a. ~ 175.2
b. ~ 213.5
c. ~ 153.4
d. ~ 198.9
Answer: c
51. Assertion (A): Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city's
atmosphere.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct\ explanation of (A).
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b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
52. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Analytical functions) List-II (Activity under the function)
a. Defining scope of EIA a. Critical Assessment of impacts
b. Identification of b. Estimation of the probability that a particular

impacts impact will occur
c. Prediction of Impacts c. Description of the existing environment system
d. Impact Evaluation and d. Deciding important issues and concerns

Analysis
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: b
53. A drawback of checklists is
a. Preliminary analysis is available in scaling checklist
b. Checklists are too general or incomplete
c. Checklists summarises information to make it available to experts
d. Ecosystem functions can be clearly understood from weighting methods
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Answer: b
List-I (Scales used in EIA methods) List-II (Example)
a. Nominal a. Temperature (degrees)
b. Ordinal b. Species classification
c. Interval c. Map scale
d. Ratio d. Worst to best
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: d
55. Risk assessment in EIA does not involve
a. Maximum credible analysis
b. Hazard and operability studies
c. Preparation of disaster management plan
d. Assessment of economic benefit arising out of a project
Answer: d
56. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical waste is subjected to a temperature
a. > 120° C
b. < 100° C
c. > 300° C
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d. > 800° C
Answer: a
57. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous waste management is
a. Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Recycle/Reuse → Treatment →

Disposal
b. Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Recycle/Reuse → Treatment →

Disposal
c. Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse →

Disposal
d. Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse →

Disposal
Answer: a
58. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in the year
a. 1991
b. 1993
c. 1995
d. 1997
Answer: a
List-I (Convention) List-II (Year)
a. Convention for the protection of the ozone layer 1. a. 79
b. Conservation of migratory species of wild animals b. 1985
c. Kyoto protocol c. 1982
d. UN Convention on the law of the sea d. 1997
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 1 2 3 4
Answer: a
List-I (Acts) List-II (Year when enacted)
a. Wildlife Protection Act 1. a. 80
b. Forest Conservation Act b. 1972
c. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act c. 1974
d. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act d. 1981
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
61. Assertion (A): χ2 distribution is a non-parametric distribution.
Reason (R): χ2 is a sample statistic having no corresponding population parameter.

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a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
62. In a simple regression analysis of y on x, the standard error of estimate of y on x, Syx = 5,

number of observations N is 30, and ∑ y2 = 2000. The unexplained variance is
a. 1500
b. 750
c. 500
d. 250
Answer: b
63. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of
sizes 25 and 20, independently selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8
and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F (24, 19) statistic?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 2.81
d. 3.6
Answer: a
64. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
c. A is correct, but R is false.
Answer: a
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65. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a
constant. If H is the effective height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance
(x) from the stack is proportional to
a. H–1
b. H–2
c. exp (–H2)
d. H–3/2
Answer: b
66. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4)
(4, 1.8) (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6), is
a. 0.623
b. – 0.572
c. 0.957
d. 0.823
Answer: c
67. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an
elevation of 300 m will be
a. 4.9 m/s
b. 1.2 m/s
c. 3.6 m/s
d. 7.9 m/s
Answer: a
68. In the context of REDD + initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily
concerned with
a. Physical resources of the area
b. Ecology of the area
c. Carbon budget of the area
d. Water resources of the area
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Answer: c
69. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
a. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness
b. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.
c. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.
a. 1 and 2 only.
b. 2 and 3 only.
c. 1, 2 and III.
d. 1 only.
Answer: c
70. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global
warming impact between
a. 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane
b. 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2
c. 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O
d. 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11
Answer: b
71. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas?
a. CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
b. CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
c. CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)
d. CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
Answer: a
72. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to
a. the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
b. the values that is important to development and economic growth
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c. the conservation values of selected species
d. the development of genetically modified organisms
Answer: a
73. The major source of BaP (Benzo-apyrene) in atmospheric environment is
a. residential wood burning
b. gasoline
c. coal tar
d. cooked meat
Answer: a
List-I (Materials) List-II (Applications)
a. Trichloroethylene a. Gasoline
b. Toluene b. Wood treatment
c. Zinc c. Dry cleaning
d. Phenol d. Mining
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: a
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4/11/2019----NTA NET Environmental-Science June 2012 Solved Paper III- Translation in Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Sindhi, Sindhi,
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NTA NET Environmental-Science June-2012 Solved Paper III

1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35
and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is
2. 5, the sample size is
a. 100
b. 125
c. 250
d. 625
Answer: d
3. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of c2 distribution is
a. 10
b. 5
c. 16
d. 4
Answer: a
4. Identify the random sampling method among the following:
a. Judgement sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Stratified sampling
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Answer: a
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
a. Fe2 +
b. Fe3 +
c. Fe2 + and Fe3 +
d. Fe (OH) 2 and Fe (OH) 3
Answer: d
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely assocated with
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
Answer: c
7. Molar extinction coefficient of malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155 M–1cm–1. The

concentration of malondialdehyde in a solution which has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm
curette will be
a. 0.5 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 1.5 M
d. 2.0 M
Answer: d
8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 11
Answer: d
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9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre
of 10 ppm DDT solution is
a. 10 mg
b. 35.45 mg
c. 354.5 mg
d. 354.5 μg
Answer: a
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical?
a. O
b. O2
c. O° –2
d. O3
Answer: c
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
a. the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
b. the primary productivity at herbivore level
c. the primary productivity at consumer level
d. the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
Answer: a
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
a. The Eastern Ghats
b. The Western Ghats
c. North-Eastern Hills
d. South-Eastern Hills
Answer: d
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and
research and no biotic interference, is known as
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a. Undisturbed zone
b. Buffer zone
c. Core zone
d. Principal zone
Answer: c
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere,
fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
a. All the three
b. Azospirillum and Vibrio
c. Azotobacter and Vibrio
d. Azotobacter and Azospirillum
Answer: d
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of
Himalayas and Nilgiri?
a. Dry deciduous forest
b. Moist tropical forest
c. Temperate forest
d. Tropical moist deciduous forest
Answer: c
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
a. Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis – Aggregation
b. Aggregation – Colonization – Ecesis – Nudation
c. Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation – Colonization
d. Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization – Aggregation
Answer: d
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a
natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
a. A C > = < D < E

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b. A > B > C > = < D < E
c. A C > = < D > E
d. A = < D > E
Answer: b
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
a. Epigeic
b. Anecic
c. Endogeic
d. All the above
Answer: a
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation?
a. Reserve forest
b. National parks
c. Sanctuaries
d. All the above
Answer: d
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
List-I List-II
a. Mercury a. Methamoglobinemia
b. Nitrate Nitrogen b. Itai Itai
c. Cadmium c. Silicosis
d. Coal d. Minamata
A B C D
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a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 1 2 3
Answer: d
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
a. Peat
b. Lignite
c. Bituminous
d. Anthracite
Answer: a
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
a. Microbial respiration
b. Root respiration
c. Soil animals respiration
d. All the above
Answer: a
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
a. Lindane
b. Monocrotophos
c. Carbaryl
d. Parathion
Answer: a
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24. Organic matter (OM) content of sol can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using
the formula
a. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
b. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
c. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
d. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Answer: a
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
a. Cooling ponds
b. Cooling towers
c. More efficient electricity generating plants
d. All the above
Answer: d
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum
thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
a. 10 microns
b. 20 microns
c. 30 microns
d. 50 microns
Answer: b
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column
– II:
List-I List-II
a. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act a. 2002
b. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act b. 1986
c. The Environmental (Protection) Act c. 1974
d. The Biological Diversity Act d. 1981
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A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
b. Biomethanation
c. Pyrolysis
d. Composting
Answer: d
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Green
Answer: b
30. Assertion (A): When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on

hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of
isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: a
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 30 years
d. 2 years
Answer: c
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 2
Answer: a
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose
comes from the Nuclear reactors?
a. Promethium
b. Lanthanum
c. Cerium
d. Samarium
Answer: a
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
a. 255: 0: 0
b. 255: 255: 255
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c. 0: 0: 0
d. 0: 255: 0
Answer: d
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power
generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This
is generally known as
a. Rankine cycle
b. Production well cycle
c. Flash stem cycle
d. Hard Dry Rock cycle
Answer: a
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse
gases?
a. CH4
b. CO2
c. N2O
d. SF6
Answer: b
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the
velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
a. pµ u
b. p µ u2
c. p µ u3/2
d. p µ u3
Answer: b
38. Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated
properly.
Reason (R): Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone.
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a. A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
39. Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
Answer: d
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the
ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct
expression of relative humidity (RH).
a. RH = (w at Td)/(w at T)
b. RH = (w at T)/(w at Td)
c. RH = (ws at Td)/(ws at T)
d. RH = (ws at T)/(ws at Td)
Answer: c
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
a. Tornado
b. Sea breeze
c. Cyclone
d. Eddies
Answer: b
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42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations
z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/u2 = (z1/z2) p. The value of the
exponent p is
a. < 0.6
b. = 1
c. > 0.6
d. negative
Answer: a
43. Assertion (A): Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere.
Reason (R): Moist air is less denser than dry air.
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
44. OH • = radicals in atmosphere play a role of
a. scavenger
b. acidifier
c. reducing agent
d. greenhouse gas
Answer: a
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fisson with U235 have energies of the order of
a. 0.25 MeV
b. 0.15 MeV
c. 0.25 eV
d. 0.025 eV
Answer: d
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46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
a. 1 – 5 m/s
b. 4 – 12 m/s
c. 10 – 20 m/s
d. 20 – 50 m/s
Answer: b
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the
mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
a. 1 KeV
b. 10 KeV (C) 500 eV
(D) 1 MeV
Answer: b
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the
following methods:
a. Colorimeter
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Atomic absorption spectrometer
d. All the above
Answer: d
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and
exclusion, are present?
a. HPLC
b. Liquid-liquid chromatography
c. Ion-exchange chromatography
d. Adsorption chromatography
Answer: a
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch”
disease in human beings is
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a. Pb
b. Cd
c. Hg
d. Cr
Answer: b
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second?
a. K40 and C14
b. C14 and N6
c. N16 and K40
Answer: a
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline
structure of environmental samples?
a. Infrared spectroscopy
b. X-ray diffraction
c. Microspectrophotometry
d. Raman spectroscopy
Answer: b
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous
rocks?
a. Al
b. Fe
c. O
d. Si
Answer: c
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II:
List-I List-II
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a. Clark electrode a. Dissolved Oxygen
b. Redox Probe b. pH
c. Load cell c. Liquid level
d. Diaphragmn gauge d. Vessel pressure
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black
method?
a. KOH and H2SO4
b. Na2S2O3 and H2SO4
c. K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4
d. HNO3 and H2SO4
Answer: c
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml
of drinking water is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 150
d. 1000
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Answer: a
57. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through

the food chain is called
a. Biomagnification
b. Hyper accumulation
c. Bioaccumulation
Answer: a
58. Highest level of biotic interaction is
a. Mutualism
b. Predation
c. Parasitism
d. Amensalism
Answer: b
59. Which one of the following is considered as indicator of aquatic pollution?
a. Rotifers
b. Copepods
c. Mysids
d. Calanoids
Answer: a
60. Poorly nourished lakes are known as
a. Oligotrophic
b. Eutrophic
c. Mesotrophic
d. Xerotrophic
Answer: a
61. Identify a sampling method which is not non-destructive.
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a. Sub-surface coring
b. Using of neutron probes to measure soil water
c. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
d. Time domain refractometry to measure soil water
Answer: a
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing
mandatory for environmental clearance on
a. 27th January 1996
b. 10th April 1997
c. 27th January 1997
Answer: b
63. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are
a. Indigenous microorganisms
b. Migrant
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic
Answer: b
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
a. The elemental concentration of sea water
b. The composition of sea water microflora
c. Composition of the crude oil
d. The temperature of the sea
Answer: c
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
a. Clostridium cellulolyticum
b. Bacillus subtilis
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c. E. Coli
d. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: d
66. Oxygen concentrations in compost developed in static piles usually
a. Ten times lower than in ambient air
b. Five times lower than in ambient air
c. Two times more than in ambient air
d. Five times more than in ambient air
Answer: b
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37°
C), one cell would multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will
take to multiply to 106 cells?
a. 5.3 hrs.
b. 6.6 hrs.
c. 9.9 hrs.
d. 6.3 hrs.
Answer: b
68. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of
a. Cellulose
b. Xylene
c. Extensin/protein
d. Lignin
Answer: d
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
a. Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC)
b. Percolating filter
c. Activated sludge process
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d. Septic tank
Answer: c
70. The treatment designed to remove nonbiodegradable organic pollutants and mineral
nutrients from waste water is
a. Lagoons
b. Imhoff tank
c. Secondary treatment
d. Tertiary treatment
Answer: d
71. An ecotype is
a. Genetically different forms of the same organisms
b. Genetically similar forms of the same organisms
c. Morphologically different forms of the same organisms
d. Both A and (B)
Answer: a
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to inactivation of
a. Proteins, nucleic acids and pigments
b. Minerals, water and air
c. Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
d. O2, CO2 and water
Answer: a
73. The following are the characters of species diversity:
a. More richness
b. More evenness
c. More dominance
d. Less dominance
e. Less rchness
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f. Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be
more.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 5, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 6 and 4
Answer: c
74. Assertion (A): If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason (R): The scientific study of various species of human population is called
demography.
Answer: b
List-I List-II
a. Chipko Movement a. Medha Patkar
b. Narmada Bacchao Andolan b. Al Gore
c. Climate Change c. Rachel Carson
d. Silent Spring d. Sundarlal Bahuguna
A B C D
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a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 4 1 2
Answer: c
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K

1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35
and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is
2. 5, the sample size is
a. 100
b. 125
c. 250
d. 625
Answer: d
3. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of c2 distribution is
a. 10
b. 5
c. 16
d. 4
Answer: a
4. Identify the random sampling method among the following:
a. Judgement sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Stratified sampling
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Answer: a
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
a. Fe2 +
b. Fe3 +
c. Fe2 + and Fe3 +
d. Fe (OH) 2 and Fe (OH) 3
Answer: d
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely assocated with
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
Answer: c
7. Molar extinction coefficient of malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155 M–1cm–1. The

concentration of malondialdehyde in a solution which has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm
curette will be
a. 0.5 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 1.5 M
d. 2.0 M
Answer: d
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 11
Answer: d
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9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre
of 10 ppm DDT solution is
a. 10 mg
b. 35.45 mg
c. 354.5 mg
d. 354.5 μg
Answer: a
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical?
a. O
b. O2
c. O° –2
d. O3
Answer: c
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
a. the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
b. the primary productivity at herbivore level
c. the primary productivity at consumer level
d. the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
Answer: a
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
a. The Eastern Ghats
c. North-Eastern Hills
d. South-Eastern Hills
Answer: d
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and
research and no biotic interference, is known as
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a. Undisturbed zone
b. Buffer zone
c. Core zone
d. Principal zone
Answer: c
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere,
fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
a. All the three
b. Azospirillum and Vibrio
c. Azotobacter and Vibrio
d. Azotobacter and Azospirillum
Answer: d
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of
Himalayas and Nilgiri?
a. Dry deciduous forest
b. Moist tropical forest
c. Temperate forest
d. Tropical moist deciduous forest
Answer: c
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
a. Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis – Aggregation
b. Aggregation – Colonization – Ecesis – Nudation
c. Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation – Colonization
d. Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization – Aggregation
Answer: d
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a
natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
a. A C > = < D < E

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b. A > B > C > = < D < E
c. A C > = < D > E
d. A = < D > E
Answer: b
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
a. Epigeic
b. Anecic
c. Endogeic
d. All the above
Answer: a
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation?
a. Reserve forest
b. National parks
c. Sanctuaries
d. All the above
Answer: d
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
List-I List-II
a. Mercury a. Methamoglobinemia
b. Nitrate Nitrogen b. Itai Itai
c. Cadmium c. Silicosis
d. Coal d. Minamata
A B C D
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a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 1 2 3
Answer: d
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
a. Peat
b. Lignite
c. Bituminous
d. Anthracite
Answer: a
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
a. Microbial respiration
b. Root respiration
c. Soil animals respiration
d. All the above
Answer: a
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
a. Lindane
b. Monocrotophos
c. Carbaryl
d. Parathion
Answer: a
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24. Organic matter (OM) content of sol can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using
the formula
a. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
b. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
c. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
d. OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Answer: a
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
a. Cooling ponds
b. Cooling towers
c. More efficient electricity generating plants
d. All the above
Answer: d
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum
thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
a. 10 microns
b. 20 microns
c. 30 microns
d. 50 microns
Answer: b
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column
– II:
List-I List-II
a. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act a. 2002
b. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act b. 1986
c. The Environmental (Protection) Act c. 1974
d. The Biological Diversity Act d. 1981
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A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
b. Biomethanation
c. Pyrolysis
d. Composting
Answer: d
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Green
Answer: b
30. Assertion (A): When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on

hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of
isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
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Answer: a
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 30 years
d. 2 years
Answer: c
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 2
Answer: a
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose
comes from the Nuclear reactors?
a. Promethium
b. Lanthanum
c. Cerium
d. Samarium
Answer: a
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
a. 255: 0: 0
b. 255: 255: 255
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c. 0: 0: 0
d. 0: 255: 0
Answer: d
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power
generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This
is generally known as
a. Rankine cycle
b. Production well cycle
c. Flash stem cycle
d. Hard Dry Rock cycle
Answer: a
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse
gases?
a. CH4
b. CO2
c. N2O
d. SF6
Answer: b
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the
velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
a. pµ u
b. p µ u2
c. p µ u3/2
d. p µ u3
Answer: b
38. Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated
properly.
Reason (R): Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone.
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a. A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
39. Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
Answer: d
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the
ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct
a. RH = (w at Td)/(w at T)
b. RH = (w at T)/(w at Td)
c. RH = (ws at Td)/(ws at T)
d. RH = (ws at T)/(ws at Td)
Answer: c
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
a. Tornado
b. Sea breeze
c. Cyclone
d. Eddies
Answer: b
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42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations
z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/u2 = (z1/z2) p. The value of the
exponent p is
a. < 0.6
b. = 1
c. > 0.6
d. negative
Answer: a
43. Assertion (A): Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere.
Reason (R): Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Answer: b
44. OH • = radicals in atmosphere play a role of
a. scavenger
b. acidifier
c. reducing agent
d. greenhouse gas
Answer: a
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fisson with U235 have energies of the order of
a. 0.25 MeV
b. 0.15 MeV
c. 0.25 eV
d. 0.025 eV
Answer: d
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46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
a. 1 – 5 m/s
b. 4 – 12 m/s
c. 10 – 20 m/s
d. 20 – 50 m/s
Answer: b
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the
mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
a. 1 KeV
b. 10 KeV (C) 500 eV
(D) 1 MeV
Answer: b
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the
following methods:
a. Colorimeter
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Atomic absorption spectrometer
d. All the above
Answer: d
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and
exclusion, are present?
a. HPLC
b. Liquid-liquid chromatography
c. Ion-exchange chromatography
d. Adsorption chromatography
Answer: a
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch”
disease in human beings is
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a. Pb
b. Cd
c. Hg
d. Cr
Answer: b
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second?
a. K40 and C14
b. C14 and N6
c. N16 and K40
Answer: a
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline
structure of environmental samples?
a. Infrared spectroscopy
b. X-ray diffraction
c. Microspectrophotometry
d. Raman spectroscopy
Answer: b
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous
rocks?
a. Al
b. Fe
c. O
d. Si
Answer: c
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II:
List-I List-II
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a. Clark electrode a. Dissolved Oxygen
b. Redox Probe b. pH
c. Load cell c. Liquid level
d. Diaphragmn gauge d. Vessel pressure
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black
method?
a. KOH and H2SO4
b. Na2S2O3 and H2SO4
c. K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4
d. HNO3 and H2SO4
Answer: c
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml
of drinking water is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 150
d. 1000
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Answer: a
57. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through

the food chain is called
a. Biomagnification
b. Hyper accumulation
c. Bioaccumulation
Answer: a
58. Highest level of biotic interaction is
a. Mutualism
b. Predation
c. Parasitism
d. Amensalism
Answer: b
59. Which one of the following is considered as indicator of aquatic pollution?
a. Rotifers
b. Copepods
c. Mysids
d. Calanoids
Answer: a
a. Oligotrophic
b. Eutrophic
c. Mesotrophic
d. Xerotrophic
Answer: a
61. Identify a sampling method which is not non-destructive.
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a. Sub-surface coring
b. Using of neutron probes to measure soil water
c. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
d. Time domain refractometry to measure soil water
Answer: a
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing
mandatory for environmental clearance on
a. 27th January 1996
b. 10th April 1997
c. 27th January 1997
Answer: b
63. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are
a. Indigenous microorganisms
b. Migrant
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic
Answer: b
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
a. The elemental concentration of sea water
b. The composition of sea water microflora
c. Composition of the crude oil
d. The temperature of the sea
Answer: c
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
a. Clostridium cellulolyticum
b. Bacillus subtilis
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c. E. Coli
d. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: d
66. Oxygen concentrations in compost developed in static piles usually
a. Ten times lower than in ambient air
b. Five times lower than in ambient air
c. Two times more than in ambient air
d. Five times more than in ambient air
Answer: b
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37°
C), one cell would multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will
take to multiply to 106 cells?
a. 5.3 hrs.
b. 6.6 hrs.
c. 9.9 hrs.
d. 6.3 hrs.
Answer: b
68. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of
a. Cellulose
b. Xylene
c. Extensin/protein
d. Lignin
Answer: d
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
a. Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC)
b. Percolating filter
c. Activated sludge process
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d. Septic tank
Answer: c
70. The treatment designed to remove nonbiodegradable organic pollutants and mineral
nutrients from waste water is
a. Lagoons
b. Imhoff tank
c. Secondary treatment
d. Tertiary treatment
Answer: d
71. An ecotype is
a. Genetically different forms of the same organisms
b. Genetically similar forms of the same organisms
c. Morphologically different forms of the same organisms
d. Both A and (B)
Answer: a
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to inactivation of
a. Proteins, nucleic acids and pigments
b. Minerals, water and air
c. Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
d. O2, CO2 and water
Answer: a
73. The following are the characters of species diversity:
a. More richness
b. More evenness
c. More dominance
d. Less dominance
e. Less rchness
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f. Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be
more.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 5, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 6 and 4
Answer: c
74. Assertion (A): If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason (R): The scientific study of various species of human population is called
demography.
Answer: b
List-I List-II
a. Chipko Movement a. Medha Patkar
b. Narmada Bacchao Andolan b. Al Gore
c. Climate Change c. Rachel Carson
d. Silent Spring d. Sundarlal Bahuguna
A B C D
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a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 4 1 2
Answer: c
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K

1. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
a. Micro scale
b. Meso scale
c. Synoptic scale
d. Planetary scale
Answer: c
List-I (Date) List-II (Event)
a. 5th June a. National Pollution Prevention Day
b. 2nd December b. World Environment Day
c. 22nd May c. World Forest Day
d. 21st March d. Bio-diversity Day
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
3. ‘Fanning’ smokestack plumes are observed when
a. There is an inversion above the ground surface.
b. There is unstable atmosphere.
c. There is neutrally stable atmosphere.
d. The stack height is below an inversion layer.
Answer: a
4. The cyclonic winds are generated by the approximate balance between
a. Pressure gradient force and coriolis force
b. Centrifugal force and coriolis force
c. Centrifugal force, coriolis force and frictional drag force.
d. Centrifugal force and pressure gradient force.
Answer: d
5. Mixing height is determined by
a. Adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
b. Vertical profile of wind speeds and adiabatic lapse rate.
c. Vertical profiles of wind speedsand ambient temperature.
d. Wind speeds and solar insolation.
Answer: a
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6. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and
the decade identified for this education is
a. 2006 – 2015
b. 2005 – 2014
c. 2011 – 2020
d. 2012 – 2021
Answer: b
7. Halon – 1301 is a
a. Fire extinguisher
b. Solvent
c. Refrigerant
d. Aerosol propellant
Answer: a
8. Which of the followng is a primary pollutant in atmospheric air?
a. Cl2
b. SO3
c. Nitrates
d. Sulphates
Answer: a
9. Hardness is expressed on the Mohs scale, which ranges from
a. 1 to 10
b. 1 to 14
c. –14 to 14
d. 1 to 100
Answer: a
10. The halon H − 1211 has the following chemical composition:
a. CF2 Cl Br
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b. CCl2 FBr
c. CCl2 F2
d. CBr2 Cl F
Answer: a
11. The most toxic among the chlorinated hydrocarbons is
a. Aldrin
b. DDT
c. Endrin
d. Heptachlor
Answer: c
12. Agent orange is a
a. Weedicide
b. Fungicide
c. Nematicide
d. Rodenticide
Answer: a
13. Major source of SO2 is
a. Cement Industry
b. Forest fires
c. Thermal Power Stations
d. Volcanic activity
Answer: d
14. Match each water contaminant in Column-I with its preferred method of removal in
Column-II. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II
a. Mn2 + a. Activated Carbon
b. Ca2 + and HCO3 – b. Raise Ph. By addition of Na2CO3
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c. Trihalomethane c. Addition of lime
d. Mg2 + d. Oxidation
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: a
15. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
a. 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
b. 0.01 to 10 μm
c. 0.1 to 1.0 μm
d. 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Answer: a
16. Coagulation is a chemical process, in which charged particles or colloids undergo
a. Stabilization
b. Destabilization
c. Attraction
d. Precipitation
Answer: b
17. Water has the following chemical composition: [Ca2 + ] = 15 mg/L; [Mg2 + ] = 10 mg/L;
[SO4 2–] = 30 mg/L; The total hardness of water will be
a. 80 mg/L as CaCO3
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b. 55 mg/L as CaCO3
c. 160 mg/L as CaCO3
d. 40 mg/L as CaCO3
Answer: a
18. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other
dissolved proton donors or acceptors. Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved
NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l Which of the following is true based on the
above observations.
a. Sample # 1 will have more alkalinity.
b. Sample # 2 will have more alkalinity.
c. Sample # 1 and sample # 2 will have exactly same alkalinity.
d. Alkalinity cannot be estimated.
Answer: b
19. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each
other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed
in kPa, is:
a. A = –5; B = + 5
b. A = –5; B = –5
c. A = –20; B = –10
d. A = –30; B = – 40
Answer: d
20. Blue baby syndrome is caused by
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrate
c. Fluoride
d. Mercury
Answer: b
21. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have
band-gap energies in the range 1 − 1.8 eV are most suitable.
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Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to
1.5 eV.
Identify the correct Code:
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanaton of (A).
Answer: a
22. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an
ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
a. A is correct R is incorrect.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).
c. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of (A).
d. Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer: b
23. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level
in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the
release of heat.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation.
Answer: b
24. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction
of a dam.
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Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
Answer: b
25. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Reason (R): Clay soils tend to have low decomposition rates.
a. Both statements are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
b. Both statements are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).
c. Statement A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d. Statement A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: a
26. Assertion (A): Nitrogen cycle is an endogenic biogeochemical cycle.
Reason (R): Atmospheric N2 can be fixed by certain prokaryotes in the soil.
Answer: d
27. Match the following:
List-I List-II
a. Nekton a. Associated with surface film water
b. Neuston b. Found at the bottom of an aquatic ecosystem.
c. Benthos c. Active swimmer, against water current.
d. Plankton d. Incapable of independent movement.
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A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which of the following is not a major biome of India?
a. Tropical rain forest biomes
b. Tropical deciduous forest biomes
c. Temperate needle leaf forestbiomes
d. Mountains and glaciers
Answer: d
29. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only
part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
a. Geographic isolation
b. Mutualism
c. Realized Niche
d. Broad Niche
Answer: c
30. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of community?
a. Populations of different species occupying a particular place.
b. Complex interacting network of plants, animals and microbes.
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c. Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter
and energy.
d. Groups of interacting individuals of different species.
Answer: c
31. Which of the following food chain is correct?
a. Krill → Adelie Penguins → Emperor Penguins → Leopard Seal
b. Krill → Crab eater Seal → Leopard Seal → Killer Whale
c. Krill → Leopard Seal → Emperor Penguins → Killer Whale
d. Krill → Crab eater Seal → Killer Whale → Leopard Seal
Answer: b
32. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
a. Density of population is low.
b. Resources are distributed unevenly.
c. The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
d. The members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
Answer: d
33. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
a. Tropical forests – nearly constant day length and temperature
b. Tundra – long summers, mild winters
c. Savannah – cool temperature year-round, uniform precipitation during the year
d. Temperate grasslands – relatively short growing season, mild winters.
Answer: a
34. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly.
They are considered
a. Labile
b. Moderately labile
c. Recalcitrant
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d. Nonlabile
Answer: b
35. The parasitic gall formation is related to
a. Host-specific antibodies
b. Parasite specific cysts
c. Parasite specific enzymes
d. Host specific hormones
Answer: c
36. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width
and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and
specific yield to be 25%?
a. 2.8 m3
b. 28 m3
c. 0.28 m3
d. 280 m3
Answer: a
37. Arrange the following climate proxes in ascending order of time scales:
a. Lithological records
b. Pollens
c. Tree rings
d. Historical records
i. 4, 3, 1, 2
ii. 4, 3, 2, 1
iii. 4, 2, 1, 3
iv. 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer: b
38. Acid drainage is more in mining of
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a. Granite
b. Bauxite
c. Lime stone
d. Base metal sulphide
Answer: c
39. Geothermal gradient in Earth is
a. Uniform throughout:
b. Higher in continental lithosphere.
c. Higher in subduction zones.
d. Lower at mid oceanic ridges.
Answer: b
40. Coal mining areas are affected by
a. Land subsidence
b. Fire hazard
c. Radioactive waste
d. Air pollution
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1, 2 and 3
iii. 1, 2 and 4
iv. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
41. Radioactive elements are concentrated in
a. Earth's core
b. Earth's mantle
c. Mid-Oceanic ridges
d. Earth's crust
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Answer: d
42. What led to maximum number of fatalities during Indonesian 2004 Earthquake?
a. Death on account of openings on surface
b. Fires generated due to earthquake
c. Epidemic diseases
d. Tsunami
Answer: d
43. Maximum carbon in the world is found in
a. Oceans
b. Coal mines
c. Antarctica
d. Forests
Answer: a
44. The highest seismic domain in India is
a. The Himalayas
c. The Indogenetic plains
d. The Dhār war craton
Answer: a
45. Earth's core is mainly composed of
a. Iron
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Magnesium
Answer: a
46. Gasification is
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a. The high temperature (~ 750 – c850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixtures.
b. The high temperature (~ 750 – 850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
c. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixture.
d. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
Answer: a
47. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the
efficiency is
a. 0.25
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 0.4
Answer: b
48. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
a. Visible and infrared
b. Visible and UV
c. Visible, UV and infrared
d. UV, microwaves and infrared
Answer: a
49. The climate sensitivity parameter is defined as the rate of change of
a. Surface temperature with albedo of earth
b. Surface temperature with CO2 concentration in atmosphere
c. Precipitation with earth's temperature
d. Surface temperature with radioactive forcing.
Answer: d
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50. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
a. Natural gas
b. Oil
c. Bituminous coal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
51. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis involves
a. Autoclaving
b. Heating in presence of air
c. Heating in presence of acetic acid
d. Heating in absence of air
Answer: d
52. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was enacted?
a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1982
d. 1992
Answer: b
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of
Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
a. 20 μg/m3
b. 40 μg/m3
c. 60 μg/m3
d. 80 μg/m3
Answer: c
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact
Assessment?
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a. The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
b. It provides early warning of cumulative effects.
c. Focuses on sustainability agenda.
d. Focuses on standard agenda.
Answer: d
List-I (Components) List-II (Dimensions)
a. Equitable utilization of natural resources a. Social dimensions
b. Benefit to disadvantaged group b. Economic dimensions
c. Creation of additional value c. Environmental dimensions
d. Elimination of toxic substances d. Political dimensions
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: a
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
a. Establishment of base line environmental condition.
b. Identification, Prediction and assessment of impact.
c. Suggesting the mitigation measures.
d. Developing EMS auditing procedures.
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Answer: d
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant
varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
a. C ∝1/H
b. C ∝ e– H2/σ2
c. C ∝ e– H/σ
d. C ∝ H–2
Answer: b
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum
of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were
250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
a. 6.25
b. 5.25
c. 0.4
d. 2.5
Answer: d
Answer: d
59. A sample of 17 measurements of the diameter of a spherical particle gave a mean = 5 μm

and a standard deviation = 0.5 μm. Assuming t-statistic for 16 degrees of freedom t0.05 ≈
2, the 95% confidence limits of actual diameter are
a. 4.75 and 5.25 μm.
b. 4.00 and 6.00 μm.
c. 4.9 and 5.1 μm.
d. 4.5 and 5.5 μm.
Answer: a
60. “Hot spots” are areas
a. Extremely rich in species
b. With high endemism
c. Extremely scarce in speces

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d. Under constant threat
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: d
61. A paddy field is an example of
a. Fresh water ecosystem
b. Terrestrial ecosystem
c. Auto ecosystem
d. Engineered ecosystem
Answer: d
62. Which pyramid cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem?
a. Pyramid of energy
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of number
d. Pyramid of dry weight
Answer: a
63. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in
animals?
a. Moisture
b. Temperature
c. Photoperiod
d. Wind
Answer: b
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64. Sr90 can enter and accumulate in the body through
a. Drinking water
b. Inhaling contaminated air
c. Food chain
d. Skin
Answer: c
65. Which one of the following is a neurotoxic?
a. Organophosphate
b. Nitric oxide
c. 2, 4 − D
d. Cuprous oxide
Answer: a
66. If 0.05 M proline-ninhydine complex has an absorbance of 0.15 at 520 nm in a 1 cm

curvette, its molar extinction coefficient will be
a. 50 m M–1 cm–1
b. 0.1 M–1 cm–1
c. 1 M–1 cm–1
d. 3 M–1 cm–1
Answer: d
67. Which bacterium found in soil is anaerobic?
a. Clostridium Sp
b. Azatobacter Sp
c. Bacillus Sp
d. Thiobacillus Sp
Answer: a
68. Particles of sizes < 1 μm are most efficiently removed by
a. Cyclones
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b. Scrubbers
c. Bag filter
d. Electrostatic Precipitator
Answer: d
69. The attenuation of sound by reactive type silencers is based on
a. Absorption of sound waves
b. Scattering of sound waves
c. Impedance discontinuity
d. Interference of sound waves
Answer: c
70. “Farmer's lung” is a classic example for
a. Psittacosis
b. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
c. Legionnaire's disease
d. Aspergillosis
Answer: b
71. The lichen and moss stages occur in
a. Lithosere
b. Psamosere
c. Hydrosere
d. Hydrarch
Answer: a
72. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4. The second moment of the
distribution is:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: a
73. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Brahmaputra
d. Narmada
Answer: a
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K

1. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
a. Micro scale
b. Meso scale
c. Synoptic scale
d. Planetary scale
Answer: c
List-I (Date) List-II (Event)
a. 5th June a. National Pollution Prevention Day
b. 2nd December b. World Environment Day
c. 22nd May c. World Forest Day
d. 21st March d. Bio-diversity Day
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
3. ‘Fanning’ smokestack plumes are observed when
a. There is an inversion above the ground surface.
b. There is unstable atmosphere.
c. There is neutrally stable atmosphere.
d. The stack height is below an inversion layer.
Answer: a
4. The cyclonic winds are generated by the approximate balance between
a. Pressure gradient force and coriolis force
b. Centrifugal force and coriolis force
c. Centrifugal force, coriolis force and frictional drag force.
d. Centrifugal force and pressure gradient force.
Answer: d
5. Mixing height is determined by
a. Adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
b. Vertical profile of wind speeds and adiabatic lapse rate.
c. Vertical profiles of wind speedsand ambient temperature.
d. Wind speeds and solar insolation.
Answer: a
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6. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and
the decade identified for this education is
a. 2006 – 2015
b. 2005 – 2014
c. 2011 – 2020
d. 2012 – 2021
Answer: b
7. Halon – 1301 is a
a. Fire extinguisher
b. Solvent
c. Refrigerant
d. Aerosol propellant
Answer: a
8. Which of the followng is a primary pollutant in atmospheric air?
a. Cl2
b. SO3
c. Nitrates
d. Sulphates
Answer: a
9. Hardness is expressed on the Mohs scale, which ranges from
a. 1 to 10
b. 1 to 14
c. –14 to 14
d. 1 to 100
Answer: a
10. The halon H − 1211 has the following chemical composition:
a. CF2 Cl Br
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b. CCl2 FBr
c. CCl2 F2
d. CBr2 Cl F
Answer: a
11. The most toxic among the chlorinated hydrocarbons is
a. Aldrin
b. DDT
c. Endrin
d. Heptachlor
Answer: c
12. Agent orange is a
a. Weedicide
b. Fungicide
c. Nematicide
d. Rodenticide
Answer: a
13. Major source of SO2 is
a. Cement Industry
b. Forest fires
c. Thermal Power Stations
d. Volcanic activity
Answer: d
14. Match each water contaminant in Column-I with its preferred method of removal in
Column-II. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II
a. Mn2 + a. Activated Carbon
b. Ca2 + and HCO3 – b. Raise Ph. By addition of Na2CO3
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c. Trihalomethane c. Addition of lime
d. Mg2 + d. Oxidation
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: a
15. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
a. 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
b. 0.01 to 10 μm
c. 0.1 to 1.0 μm
d. 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Answer: a
16. Coagulation is a chemical process, in which charged particles or colloids undergo
a. Stabilization
b. Destabilization
c. Attraction
d. Precipitation
Answer: b
17. Water has the following chemical composition: [Ca2 + ] = 15 mg/L; [Mg2 + ] = 10 mg/L;
[SO4 2–] = 30 mg/L; The total hardness of water will be
a. 80 mg/L as CaCO3
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b. 55 mg/L as CaCO3
c. 160 mg/L as CaCO3
d. 40 mg/L as CaCO3
Answer: a
18. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other
dissolved proton donors or acceptors. Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved
NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l Which of the following is true based on the
above observations.
a. Sample # 1 will have more alkalinity.
b. Sample # 2 will have more alkalinity.
c. Sample # 1 and sample # 2 will have exactly same alkalinity.
d. Alkalinity cannot be estimated.
Answer: b
19. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each
other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed
in kPa, is:
a. A = –5; B = + 5
b. A = –5; B = –5
c. A = –20; B = –10
d. A = –30; B = – 40
Answer: d
20. Blue baby syndrome is caused by
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrate
c. Fluoride
d. Mercury
Answer: b
21. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have
band-gap energies in the range 1 − 1.8 eV are most suitable.
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Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to
1.5 eV.
Identify the correct Code:
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanaton of (A).
Answer: a
22. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an
ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
a. A is correct R is incorrect.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).
c. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of (A).
d. Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer: b
23. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level
in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the
release of heat.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation.
Answer: b
24. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction
of a dam.
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Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
Answer: b
25. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Reason (R): Clay soils tend to have low decomposition rates.
a. Both statements are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
b. Both statements are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).
c. Statement A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d. Statement A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer: a
26. Assertion (A): Nitrogen cycle is an endogenic biogeochemical cycle.
Reason (R): Atmospheric N2 can be fixed by certain prokaryotes in the soil.
Answer: d
27. Match the following:
List-I List-II
a. Nekton a. Associated with surface film water
b. Neuston b. Found at the bottom of an aquatic ecosystem.
c. Benthos c. Active swimmer, against water current.
d. Plankton d. Incapable of independent movement.
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A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which of the following is not a major biome of India?
a. Tropical rain forest biomes
b. Tropical deciduous forest biomes
c. Temperate needle leaf forestbiomes
d. Mountains and glaciers
Answer: d
29. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only
part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
a. Geographic isolation
b. Mutualism
c. Realized Niche
d. Broad Niche
Answer: c
30. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of community?
a. Populations of different species occupying a particular place.
b. Complex interacting network of plants, animals and microbes.
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c. Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter
and energy.
d. Groups of interacting individuals of different species.
Answer: c
a. Krill → Adelie Penguins → Emperor Penguins → Leopard Seal
b. Krill → Crab eater Seal → Leopard Seal → Killer Whale
c. Krill → Leopard Seal → Emperor Penguins → Killer Whale
d. Krill → Crab eater Seal → Killer Whale → Leopard Seal
Answer: b
32. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
a. Density of population is low.
b. Resources are distributed unevenly.
c. The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
d. The members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
Answer: d
33. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
a. Tropical forests – nearly constant day length and temperature
b. Tundra – long summers, mild winters
c. Savannah – cool temperature year-round, uniform precipitation during the year
d. Temperate grasslands – relatively short growing season, mild winters.
Answer: a
34. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly.
They are considered
a. Labile
b. Moderately labile
c. Recalcitrant
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d. Nonlabile
Answer: b
35. The parasitic gall formation is related to
a. Host-specific antibodies
b. Parasite specific cysts
c. Parasite specific enzymes
d. Host specific hormones
Answer: c
36. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width
and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and
specific yield to be 25%?
a. 2.8 m3
b. 28 m3
c. 0.28 m3
d. 280 m3
Answer: a
37. Arrange the following climate proxes in ascending order of time scales:
a. Lithological records
b. Pollens
c. Tree rings
d. Historical records
i. 4, 3, 1, 2
ii. 4, 3, 2, 1
iii. 4, 2, 1, 3
iv. 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer: b
38. Acid drainage is more in mining of
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a. Granite
b. Bauxite
c. Lime stone
d. Base metal sulphide
Answer: c
39. Geothermal gradient in Earth is
a. Uniform throughout:
b. Higher in continental lithosphere.
c. Higher in subduction zones.
d. Lower at mid oceanic ridges.
Answer: b
40. Coal mining areas are affected by
a. Land subsidence
b. Fire hazard
c. Radioactive waste
d. Air pollution
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1, 2 and 3
iii. 1, 2 and 4
iv. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
41. Radioactive elements are concentrated in
a. Earth's core
b. Earth's mantle
c. Mid-Oceanic ridges
d. Earth's crust
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Answer: d
42. What led to maximum number of fatalities during Indonesian 2004 Earthquake?
a. Death on account of openings on surface
b. Fires generated due to earthquake
c. Epidemic diseases
d. Tsunami
Answer: d
43. Maximum carbon in the world is found in
a. Oceans
b. Coal mines
c. Antarctica
d. Forests
Answer: a
44. The highest seismic domain in India is
a. The Himalayas
c. The Indogenetic plains
d. The Dhār war craton
Answer: a
45. Earth's core is mainly composed of
a. Iron
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Magnesium
Answer: a
46. Gasification is
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a. The high temperature (~ 750 – c850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixtures.
b. The high temperature (~ 750 – 850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
c. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixture.
d. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
Answer: a
47. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the
efficiency is
a. 0.25
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 0.4
Answer: b
48. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
a. Visible and infrared
b. Visible and UV
c. Visible, UV and infrared
d. UV, microwaves and infrared
Answer: a
49. The climate sensitivity parameter is defined as the rate of change of
a. Surface temperature with albedo of earth
b. Surface temperature with CO2 concentration in atmosphere
c. Precipitation with earth's temperature
d. Surface temperature with radioactive forcing.
Answer: d
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50. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
a. Natural gas
b. Oil
c. Bituminous coal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
51. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis involves
a. Autoclaving
b. Heating in presence of air
c. Heating in presence of acetic acid
d. Heating in absence of air
Answer: d
52. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was enacted?
a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1982
d. 1992
Answer: b
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of
Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
a. 20 μg/m3
b. 40 μg/m3
c. 60 μg/m3
d. 80 μg/m3
Answer: c
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact
Assessment?
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a. The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
b. It provides early warning of cumulative effects.
c. Focuses on sustainability agenda.
d. Focuses on standard agenda.
Answer: d
List-I (Components) List-II (Dimensions)
a. Equitable utilization of natural resources a. Social dimensions
b. Benefit to disadvantaged group b. Economic dimensions
c. Creation of additional value c. Environmental dimensions
d. Elimination of toxic substances d. Political dimensions
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: a
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
a. Establishment of base line environmental condition.
b. Identification, Prediction and assessment of impact.
c. Suggesting the mitigation measures.
d. Developing EMS auditing procedures.
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Answer: d
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant
varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
a. C ∝1/H
b. C ∝ e– H2/σ2
c. C ∝ e– H/σ
d. C ∝ H–2
Answer: b
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum
of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were
250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
a. 6.25
b. 5.25
c. 0.4
d. 2.5
Answer: d
Answer: d
59. A sample of 17 measurements of the diameter of a spherical particle gave a mean = 5 μm

and a standard deviation = 0.5 μm. Assuming t-statistic for 16 degrees of freedom t0.05 ≈
2, the 95% confidence limits of actual diameter are
a. 4.75 and 5.25 μm.
b. 4.00 and 6.00 μm.
c. 4.9 and 5.1 μm.
d. 4.5 and 5.5 μm.
Answer: a
60. “Hot spots” are areas
a. Extremely rich in species
b. With high endemism
c. Extremely scarce in speces

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d. Under constant threat
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: d
61. A paddy field is an example of
a. Fresh water ecosystem
b. Terrestrial ecosystem
c. Auto ecosystem
d. Engineered ecosystem
Answer: d
62. Which pyramid cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem?
a. Pyramid of energy
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of number
d. Pyramid of dry weight
Answer: a
63. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in
animals?
a. Moisture
b. Temperature
c. Photoperiod
d. Wind
Answer: b
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64. Sr90 can enter and accumulate in the body through
a. Drinking water
b. Inhaling contaminated air
c. Food chain
d. Skin
Answer: c
65. Which one of the following is a neurotoxic?
a. Organophosphate
b. Nitric oxide
c. 2, 4 − D
d. Cuprous oxide
Answer: a
66. If 0.05 M proline-ninhydine complex has an absorbance of 0.15 at 520 nm in a 1 cm

curvette, its molar extinction coefficient will be
a. 50 m M–1 cm–1
b. 0.1 M–1 cm–1
c. 1 M–1 cm–1
d. 3 M–1 cm–1
Answer: d
67. Which bacterium found in soil is anaerobic?
a. Clostridium Sp
b. Azatobacter Sp
c. Bacillus Sp
d. Thiobacillus Sp
Answer: a
68. Particles of sizes < 1 μm are most efficiently removed by
a. Cyclones
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b. Scrubbers
c. Bag filter
d. Electrostatic Precipitator
Answer: d
69. The attenuation of sound by reactive type silencers is based on
a. Absorption of sound waves
b. Scattering of sound waves
c. Impedance discontinuity
d. Interference of sound waves
Answer: c
70. “Farmer's lung” is a classic example for
a. Psittacosis
b. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
c. Legionnaire's disease
d. Aspergillosis
Answer: b
71. The lichen and moss stages occur in
a. Lithosere
b. Psamosere
c. Hydrosere
d. Hydrarch
Answer: a
72. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4. The second moment of the
distribution is:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: a
73. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Brahmaputra
d. Narmada
Answer: a
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4/11/2019----NTA NET Environmental-Science September 2013 Solved Paper III- Translation in Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Sindhi,
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
NTA NET Environmental-Science September-2013 Solved

Paper III
1. In which part of the atmosphere the momentum, heat flux and moisture content are
conserved?
a. Surface Boundary Layer
b. Mesosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Stratosphere
Answer: a
2. The soil type which is good for agriculture is
a. Podozols
b. Latosols
c. Serpent soil
d. Solonachak
Answer: b
3. A local laboratory analyzed a water sample and determined that it contained a total solid
(TS) content of 132 mg/L and a conductivity of 112 μS/cm. The total suspended solid (TSS)
content (mg/L) of water will be
a. ~ 57
b. ~ 75
c. ~ 32
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d. ~ 120
Answer: a
4. The settling of discreet, non-flocculating particle in a dilute suspension is known as
a. Class-I sedimentation
b. Class-II sedimentation
c. Class-III sedimentation
d. Compression
Answer: a
5. The theoretical oxygen demand for a solution containing 500 mg/L of phenol will be
a. 298 mg/L
b. 596 mg/L
c. 1191 mg/L
d. 2382 mg/L
Answer: c
6. The compound p-dchlorobenze has been found to have KOM = 625. For a soil containing
1.6% organic matter, the distribution coefficient (Kd) will be
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
Answer: c
7. Which one of the following is the single most important reactive intermediate species in
atmospheric chemical processes?
a. OH.
b. O2–
c. ROO.
d. OH–
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Answer: a
8. As per Indian Standards (BIS) for drinking water desirable limit for total hardness as
CaCO3 is
a. 100 mg/l
b. 200 mg/l
c. 300 mg/l
d. 400 mg/l
Answer: c
9. Flue gas laden with fine particles from a thermal power plant with a volume flow rate of
100 m3/second passes through an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) having 5000 m2 of
collector plate area. If the particle collection efficiency of the ESP is 98%, the drift velocity
of the flue gas must be
a. ~ 0.052 m/s
b. ~ 0.078 m/s
c. ~ 0.15 m/s
d. ~ 1.5 m/s
Answer: b
10. Molar extinction coefficient of malondialdehyde is 0.155 mM–1 Cm–1. The concentration
of malondialdehyde in a solution having an absorbance of 0.31 is
a. 2 mM
b. 0.31 mM
c. 0.155 mM
d. 1.55 mM
Answer: a
11. Removal of top fertile soil by water is called
a. Leaching
b. Siltation
c. Weathering of soil
d. Soil erosion
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Answer: d
12. The rate of settling of air-borne particles in the atmosphere varies with their aerodynamic
diameter 4as
a. α d
b. α d2
c. α d3
d. α d½
Answer: b
13. The smokestack plumes exhibit ‘coning’ behaviour when
a. Stable atmospheric conditions exist
b. Atmosphere is unstable
c. The height of the stack is below the inversion layer
d. Inversion exists right from the ground surface above
Answer: a
14. Among total dissolved matter in marine water, chlorine accounts for
a. 30%
b. 55%
c. 12%
d. 6%
Answer: b
15. Photodissociation of NO2 occurs in the presence of photons of wavelength
a. < 0.39 μm
b. 0.5 – 0.6 μm
c. 0.6 – 0.65 μm
d. 0.65 – 0.7 μm
Answer: a
16. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) is formed by oxidation of
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a. Hydrocarbons
b. Isoprene
c. Terpene
d. Arsenic
Codes:
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
17. The evolution of genetic resistance to antibiotics among disease-carrying bacteria is an

example of
a. Directional natural selection
b. Stabilizing natural selection
c. Diversifying natural selection
d. Convergent natural selection
Answer: a
18. Pulmonary oedema is caused by
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Methane
Answer: c
19. What is the half-life of 131I?
a. 60 days
b. 8 days
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c. 12 years
d. 30 days
Answer: b
20. Which one of the following makes blood toxic, after combining with haemoglobin?
a. CO2
b. CO
c. SO2
d. CH4
Answer: b
21. Respiratory electron transport chain can be inhibited by
a. ADP
b. Phosphate
c. H2S
d. CO2
Answer: c
22. Assertion (A): Oil slick in the ocean causes mass scale death of fish.
Reason (R): The gills of fish get clogged.
Point out the correct one of the following:
a. Both A and R are true with R being the correct explanation.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation.
Answer: a
23. Chaparral, Maquis, Encinous, Melleseab are important areas of
a. Tropical evergreen woodland
b. Temperate evergreen woodland
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c. Tropical deciduous woodland
d. Temperate deciduous woodland
Answer: a
24. The Keystone predator species maintain diversity in a community by
a. Preying on community's dominant species
b. Allowing immigration of other predators
c. Competitively excluding other predators
d. Coevolving with their prey
Answer: a
25. Which of the following is not an external factor controlling an ecosystem?
a. Climate
b. Topography
c. Parent material forming soil
d. Microbes
Answer: d
a. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Turtle → Crabs
b. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Crab → Turtle
c. Turtle → Crab → Zooplankton → Phytoplankton
d. Zooplankton → Turtle → Crab → Phytoplankton
Answer: b
27. Which of the following is not categorized as an internal factor of an ecosystem?
a. Decomposition
b. Succession
c. Root competition
d. Bedrock
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Answer: d
28. Two species cannot remain in same place according to
a. Allen's law
b. Gause hypothesis
c. Doll's rule
d. Weismann's theory
Answer: b
29. Identify the correct pair:
a. Ecotope – Transition between two ecosystems.
b. Edaphic – Saline soil
c. Heliophytes – Photophilic plants
d. Ecotone – Particular type of soil
Answer: a
30. Based on the number arrange the following group of endemic vertebrate species of India
in descending order:
a. Mammals
b. Birds
c. Reptiles
d. Amphibians
Choose the correct answer from the following:
a. Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
b. Reptiles, Amphibians, Birds and Mammals.
c. Mammals, Birds, Amphibians and Reptiles.
d. Birds, Mammals, Reptiles and Amphibians
Answer: b
31. Freshwater ecosystems are nutritionally limited by
a. Phosphorous and Iron
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b. Phosphorous and Carbon
c. Iron and Nitrogen
d. Nitrogen and Calcium
Answer: a
32. ‘Threshold of Security’ refers to the population level at which
a. Parasites damage the host body but do not cause immediate mortality.
b. Predators no longer find it proftable to hunt for the prey species.
c. Functional response of the predator is very high.
d. The balance between parasite and host is disturbed as the host produces antibodies.
Answer: b
33. “Bermuda grass allergy” is a type of
a. Airborne allergy
b. Contact allergy
c. Hydroborne allergy
d. Soilborne allergy
Answer: a
34. Parasites which initiate production of antibodies within hosts are termed as
a. Endoparasites
b. Pathogenic parasites
c. Zooparasites
d. Homoparasites
Answer: b
35. Which of the following material is not easily broken down?
a. Cellulose
b. Hemicellulose
c. Chitin
d. Amino acids
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Answer: c
36. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
a. 10 metre
b. 20 metre
c. 60 metre
d. 100 metre
Answer: c
37. Pleistocene represents period of
a. Cold climate
b. Warm climate
c. Alteration of cold and warm climate with high proportion of cold period
d. Alteration of cold and warm climate with very high proportion of warm period
Answer: c
38. GIS is applied to study
a. View shed analysis
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Wildlife habitat analysis and migration routes planning
d. All of the above
Answer: d
39. Tectonic control in landscape evolution is manifested by
a. Tilted river terraces
b. Alluvial forms
c. Increased boulder proportions in the river belt
d. River meandering
Answer: a
40. Difference between mineral resource and reserve is
a. Reserve implies high degree of economic viability

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b. Resource implies high degree of geological knowledge
c. Reserve implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological
knowledge
d. Resource implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological
knowledge
Answer: c
41. Characteristic difference between two polar Ice Caps is
a. Arctic Ice Cap is on land
b. Antarctic Ice Cap is on land
c. Both are on land but Antarctic Ice Cap is thicker
d. Both are on sea but Arctic Ice Cap is thicker
Answer: b
42. Laterite represents
a. Regolith soil
b. Glacial soil
c. Black cotton soil
d. Red soil
Answer: a
43. In a whole-rock chemical analysis the dividing criterion between major and trace element
on weight percent basis is
a. 1 %
b. 0.1 %
c. 0.01 %
d. 0.001 %
Answer: b
44. The mineral, most resistant to chemical weathering is
a. Olivine
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b. Quartz
c. K-feldspar
d. Biotite
Answer: b
45. Assertion (A): Phosphorus cycle is not an exogenic elemental cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorus cycle does not have a gaseous component.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
46. The El Nino disappears in March and re-appears in
a. May
b. August
c. October
d. December
Answer: d
47. The elemental composition of earth's crust in the descending order of weight percent is
a. Silicon >Aluminium> Iron >Calcium
b. Aluminium> Iron > Calcium >Silicon
c. Iron > Calcium > Silicon >Aluminium
d. Calcium > Silicon >Aluminium> Iron
Answer: a
48. Bio-oil can be obtained from lignocellulose by
a. Combustion
b. Fast pyrolysis
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c. Gasification
d. Transesterification
Answer: b
49. For an ideal Magneto-hydrodynamic power generator, the power output (P) varies with
the hot fuel velocity u as
a. P ∝ u
b. P ∝ u2
c. p ∝ u3/2
d. p ∝ u3
Answer: b
50. Assuming that due to large scale change in land use pattern of the world, the earth's
albedo changes from 0.32 to 0.3. If the climate sensitivity factor is 0.5° C w–1 m2, the
change in surface temperature of earth will be (take solar constant S = 1400 w/m2)
a. 3.5° C
b. 0.25° C
c. 7.0° C
d. 1.5° C
Answer: a
51. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a factor comparing the
global warming impacts of
a. 1 m3 of GHG with 1 m3 of CO2
b. 1 kg of GHG with 1 kg of CO2
c. 1 gram mole of GHG with 1 gram mole of CO2
d. 1 kg of GHG with 1 mole of CO2
Answer: b
52. The energy released during combustion of methane is ~ 900 kJ/mol. The carbon intensity
of methane is
a. ~ 0.05 gram C/kJ
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b. ~ 0.013 gram C/kJ
c. ~ 0.018 gram C/kJ
d. ~ 1.08 gram C/kJ
Answer: b
53. The term B10 implies
a. Blending of 10 percent biodiesel with 90 percent conventional diesel.
b. Blending of 90 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
c. Blending of 50 percent biodiesel with 50 percent conventional diesel.
d. Blending of 1 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
Answer: a
54. The validity period of Environmental Clerance after Environmental Impact Assessment is
least for
a. Mining projects
b. River valley projects
c. Harbour projects
d. Area development projects
Answer: d
55. In Environmental assessment study, interpretation and evaluation should consider
a. Uncertainty of possible impacts
b. Significance of measured impacts
c. Comparison of alternatives
d. All of the above
Answer: d
56. Who are responsible for the public consultation process of EIA?
a. State Pollution Control Board
b. State Pollution Control Board and District Collector
c. State Pollution Control Board and CPCB Chairman
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d. State Pollution Control Board and Civil Society
Answer: b
57. Arrange the following components of an environmental management system in a

sequential order. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Planning
b. Environmental policy
c. Implementation
d. Monitoring
V. Review
Codes:
a. 1, 2, 3, V, 4
b. 2, 1, 3, 4, V
c. 1, 3, 2, 4, V
d. 1, V, 3, 2, 4
Answer: b
List-I List-II
a. Life Cycle Assessment 1. a. 010 series
b. Environmental Auditing b. 14030 series
c. Environmental Performance Evaluation c. 14040 series
d. Environmental Labelling d. 14020 series
A B C D
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a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 2 1 3
Answer: b
59. Which statement is not correct for hazardous wastes?
a. They contain one or more of 39 toxic compounds
b. They catch fire easily
c. They are nonreactive and stable
d. They are capable of corroding metal containers
Answer: c
60. Right to clean environment is guaranteed in Indian Constitution by
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 25
Answer: c
61. National Ambient Air Quality Standards for major pollutants were notified by CPCB in
a. 1994
b. 1984
c. 2004
d. 1974
Answer: a
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62. Public Liability Insurance Act came into existence in the year
a. 1986
b. 1989
c. 1991
d. 1995
Answer: c
63. The standard deviation of weghts of certain 1 kg packets of milk is 10 grams. A random
sample of 20 packets showed a standard deviation of 15 grams. The value of χ2 statistic for
the sample is
a. 30
b. 45
c. 1.5
d. 0.66
Answer: c
64. Assertion (A): According to Gaussian Plume Model, the downward concentration of
pollutant appears to beinversely proportional toaverage wind speed at effectivestack
height.
Reason (R): Plume rise does not depend on wind speed. It only depends on buoyancy
flux parameter.
Answer: c
65. The population of an urban area increased from 5 million to 15 million over a period of 50
years. If the growth of population has been exponential at a constant rate over this period,
the growth rate is
a. ~ 0.693 %
b. ~ 1.2 %
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c. ~ 1.38 %
d. ~ 2.2 %
Answer: d
66. A random sample of size 26 has a mean of 20. The sum of squares of the deviations taken
from the mean is 200. If the population mean is 18, what is the value of t-statistic?
a. ~ 0.9
b. ~ 2.1
c. ~ 3.6
d. ~ 5.2
Answer: c
67. In Y-shaped energy flow model, one arm represents herbivore and the other
a. Carnivore
b. Decomposer
c. Omnivore
d. Secondary consumer
Answer: b
68. The population of a certain fish species in a pond follows logistic equation dN/dt = αN –
βN2. When α = 0.5 and β = 0.01, the maximum sustainable yield is
a. 25
b. 50
c. 20
d. 5
Answer: a
69. A change in a population's gene pool over time is called
a. Microevolution
b. Macroevolution
c. Chemical evolution
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d. Inorganic evolution
Answer: a
70. The scale length of variation of pressure in vertical direction in atmosphere is
a. ~ 2.5 km
b. ~ 5 km
c. ~ 7 km
d. ~ 8.5 km
Answer: c
71. Assertion (A): Planetary, synoptic and mesoscale motions in earth's atmosphere are
essentially quasi-horizontal.
Reason (R): The vertical component of wind velocity is more than an order of
magnitude smaller than its horizontal component for all motions in atmosphere.
Answer: a
72. GLOBE stands for
a. Global Leading Occupations to Benefit the Environment
b. General Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment
c. Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment
d. Global Leaders and their Observations to Benefit the Environment
Answer: c
73. Which one of the following is not the goal of sustainable agriculture in India?
a. Maintaining productive topsoil
b. Reduce the use of chemical fertilizer and pesticides
c. Mechanised farming
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d. Keep farms economically viable
Answer: c
74. The term of Kyoto Protocol has been extended beyond December 2012 by
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 8 years
d. 3 years
Answer: a
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PAPER-III

Roll No.________________________________
J 891
1 2 (In words)

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1. ¯ÖÆü»Öê ¯ÖéÂšü Ûêú ‰ú¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸üÖê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ …
this page. 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆü¢Ö¸ü ²ÖÆãü×¾ÖÛú»¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æïü …
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of 3. ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸ü´³Ö ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¤êü ¤üß •ÖÖµÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆü»Öê
questions. ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛúß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×¤üµÖê •ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×•ÖÃÖÛúß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê †¾Ö¿µÖ Ûú¸ü®Öß Æîü :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛêú Ûú¾Ö¸ü ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ü »ÖÝÖß ÛúÖÝÖ•Ö
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : Ûúß ÃÖß»Ö ÛúÖê ±úÖ›Ìü »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æãü‡Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™üßÛú¸ü-ÃÖß»Ö Ûúß
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö Ûú¸ëü …
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open booklet. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûúß ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ ÛúÖê †“”ûß ŸÖ¸üÆü “ÖîÛú Ûú¸ü »Öë ×Ûú µÖê ¯Öæ¸êü
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the †×ŸÖ×¸üŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤üµÖÖ •ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ …
Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ÛÎú´Ö ÃÖÓÜµÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ
time will be given. ¯Ö¸ü †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü ¤ëü …
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number 4. ¯ÖÏŸµÖêÛú ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûêú ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×¾ÖÛú»¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) ×¤üµÖê
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(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß“Öê ×¤üÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
on the correct response against each item. ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ :
where (C) is the correct response. 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Æüß †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸ü®Öê Æïü … µÖ×¤ü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any ×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×“ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ ´Öæ»µÖÖÓÛú®Ö
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be ®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
evaluated. 6. †®¤ü¸ü ×¤üµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or ®Ö´²Ö¸ü, ±úÖê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ü µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö ÆüÖê
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose †®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖÏµÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê †µÖÖêÝµÖ
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
disqualification.
9. †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ÃŸÖÛúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original ×®Ö¸üßõÖÛú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ ÛúÖê »ÖÖî™üÖ®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë … ÆüÖ»ÖÖÓ×Ûú †Ö¯Ö
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ×¯ŸÖ ¯Ö¸ü OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô †ÓÛú ÛúÖ™êü ®ÖÆüà •ÖÖ‹ÑÝÖê …
J-89-12 1 P.T.O.
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Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. If the standard deviation of a 5. At higher pH, majority of iron is

population is 20, the population and present as
sample means are 35 and 33, (A) Fe2+
respectively and the t-statistic at 95%
confidence level is 2.5, the sample size (B) Fe3+
is
(C) Fe2+ and Fe3+
(A) 100 (B) 125 (D) Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3
(C) 250 (D) 625
6. In living organisms phosphorous is

2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance largely associated with
of χ2 distribution is (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipids
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) Nucleic acids (D) Proteins
(C) 16 (D) 4
7. Molar extinction coefficient of
malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155
3. Identify the random sampling method M–1cm–1. The concentration of
among the following :
malondialdehyde in a solution which
(A) Judgement sampling has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm
curette will be
(B) Quota sampling
(A) 0.5 M (B) 1.0 M
(C) Convenience sampling
(C) 1.5 M (D) 2.0 M
(D) Stratified sampling

4. Consider a Box model for an urban (A) 0.1 (B) 1
area. Assuming that the pollutants are
conservative and that the mixing is (C) 10 (D) 11
rapid inside the Box, the concentration
(C) of pollutants varies with the mixing
9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5.
height as
The quantity of DDT required to
1 1 prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT
(A) C ∝ (B) C∝
H H2 solution is
1 (A) 10 mg (B) 35.45 mg
(C) C∝ (D) C ∝ H–3/2
H (C) 354.5 mg (D) 354.5 µg
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10. Which one of the following is referred 14. When a mixture of Azospirillum,
to as superoxide radical ? Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to
(A) O (B) O2 rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric
nitrogen was increased. It was due to
–
(C) O°2 (D) O3 activity of
(A) All the three

11. The net primary productivity of an
ecosystem is (B) Azospirillum and Vibrio
(A) the gross primary productivity (C) Azotobacter and Vibrio

minus plant respiration
(D) Azotobacter and Azospirillum
(B) the primary productivity at
herbivore level
(C) the primary productivity at
15. Which type of forests are found at an
consumer level
altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on
(D) the productivity at top consumer mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri ?
level minus respiration at all
levels (A) Dry deciduous forest
12. Which of the following habitats has not
(B) Moist tropical forest
been included as Indian biodiversity
hot spots ?
(C) Temperate forest
(A) The Eastern Ghats
(D) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) North-Eastern Hills
16. The sequence of events that occur
(D) South-Eastern Hills
during primary succession is as follows :
(A) Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis

13. The area of the biosphere which is – Aggregation
protected entirely, without any
experimentation and research and no (B) Aggregation – Colonization –
biotic interference, is known as
Ecesis – Nudation
(A) Undisturbed zone
(C) Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation
(B) Buffer zone – Colonization
(C) Core zone
(D) Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization
(D) Principal zone – Aggregation
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17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, 21. Which of the following types of coal
five different frequency classes (A, B, contains higher percentage of volatile
C, D and E) in a natural undisturbed matter ?
community exhibit one of the (A) Peat
following relationship :
(B) Lignite
(A) A C > =
<D<E (C) Bituminous
(B) A > B > C > =
<D<E (D) Anthracite
(C) A C > =
<D>E
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil
(D) A =
<D>E mainly comes from
(A) Microbial respiration
18. Which one of the following category of
(B) Root respiration
earthworms is most suitable for
Vermicomposting ? (C) Soil animals respiration
(A) Epigeic (D) All the above
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic 23. Which one of the following pesticides
(D) All the above persists for a long period in soil ?
(A) Lindane
19. Which one of the following is an in (B) Monocrotophos
situ method of biodiversity
conservation ? (C) Carbaryl
(A) Reserve forest (D) Parathion
(B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries
24. Organic matter (OM) content of soil
(D) All the above
can be calculated from organic carbon
(OC) by using the formula
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I
(A) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
with the disease in Column – II :
Column – I Column – II (B) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
(i) Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia (C) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
(ii) Nitrate 2. Itai Itai (D) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Nitrogen
(iii) Cadmium 3. Silicosis
(iv) Coal 4. Minamata 25. The problem of thermal pollution can
Choose the correct code : be alleviated by using
Codes : (A) Cooling ponds
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) Cooling towers
(A) 2 3 4 1
(C) More efficient electricity
(B) 3 4 2 1
generating plants
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3 (D) All the above
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26. According to Recycled Plastics 29. The colour code of the container for
(Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, collection of waste scrap generated
the minimum thickness of carry bags from Hospitals is
shall not be less than
(A) Red (B) Blue
(A) 10 microns (B) 20 microns
(C) 30 microns (D) 50 microns (C) White (D) Green
27. Match the Act mentioned in 30. Given below are two statements, one
Column – I with the year of enactment labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
mentioned in Column – II : labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : When quantitative
(i) The Water 1. 2002 probabilistic risk assessment is
(Prevention and performed on hazardous waste
Control of Pollution) sites they usually turn out to be
Act of relatively low threats.
(ii) The Air (Prevention 2. 1986
Reason (R) : In hazardous waste sites
and Control of
the chance of exposure is low
Pollution) Act
because of isolation of drinking
(iii) The Environmental 3. 1974 water supplies and prevention of
(Protection) Act access.
(iv) The Biological 4. 1981 Choose the correct answer :
Diversity Act
Choose the correct code : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
(A) 1 4 3 2 of (A).
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
28. Which one of the following is not an 31. In India, an Environment Impact
energy recovery method of solid waste Assessment report of a proposed
management ? mining project after environmental
(A) Pelletisation clearance is applicable for a maximal
period of how many years ?
(B) Biomethanation
(A) 5 years (B) 10 years
(C) Pyrolysis
(D) Composting (C) 30 years (D) 2 years
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32. An increase of one unit of Richter 37. The maximum specific power output
Scale represents an increase in (p) from a MHD power generator
amplitude by a factor of varies with the velocity (u) of hot
ionized gas as
(A) 10 (B) 100
(A) p ∝ u (B) p ∝ u2
(C) 1000 (D) 2
(C) p ∝ u3/2 (D) p ∝ u3
33. Which rare earth element is not present 38. Given below are two statements. One
in the earth’s crust but for commercial labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
purpose comes from the Nuclear labelled as Reason (R).
reactors ? Assertion (A) : Electrostatic
(A) Promethium (B) Lanthanum precipitators (ESPs) can be
harmful if not operated properly.
(C) Cerium (D) Samarium
Reason (R) : Corona discharge in
ESPs produces ozone.
34. To display green colour in the monitor Choose the correct answer :
the amount of RGB should be
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(A) 255 : 0 : 0 (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(B) 255 : 255 : 255
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(C) 0:0:0 (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(D) 0 : 255 : 0
35. When the temperature range in (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
geothermal resource is generally low,
electrical power generation from such 39. Given below are two statements. One
resources require the use of secondary labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
low boiling point fluid. This is labelled as Reason (R) :
generally known as
Assertion (A) : Vegetation hedges are
(A) Rankine cycle the best way to control noise.
(B) Production well cycle Reason (R) : Vegetation hedges
scatter noise.
(C) Flash stem cycle Choose the correct answer.
(D) Hard Dry Rock cycle (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) (A).
is the least for which of the following (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
greenhouse gases ? (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(A) CH4 (B) CO2
(C) N2O (D) SF6 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Paper-III 6 J-89-12
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40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and 43. Given below are two statements. One
saturation mixing ratio respectively; T labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
and Td are the ambient temperature labelled as Reason (R).
and dew point temperature Assertion (A) : Noise gets attenuated
respectively, then identify the correct more in dry atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Moist air is less denser
w at Td than dry air.
(A) RH =
w at T
w at T (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(B) RH =
w at Td is the correct explanation of (A).
ws at Td (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)

(C) RH = is not the correct explanation of
ws at T
(A).
ws at T (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) RH =
ws at Td
•
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon. 44. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of
(A) scavenger
(A) Tornado
(B) acidifier
(B) Sea breeze (C) reducing agent
(C) Cyclone (D) greenhouse gas
(D) Eddies
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear
fission with U235 have energies of the
order of
42. For elevations less than few hundred
(A) 0.25 MeV
metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2
at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the (B) 0.15 MeV
u1 z1 p (C) 0.25 eV
following equation holds u = z . (D) 0.025 eV
2 2
The value of the exponent p is
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds
(A) < 0.6 for wind power generation is
(B) =1 (A) 1 – 5 m/s
(B) 4 – 12 m/s
(C) > 0.6
(C) 10 – 20 m/s
(D) negative (D) 20 – 50 m/s
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47. For energy to be produced from 51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the
nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and elements in human body decay every
Tritium (T), the mixture of D + T has second ?
to be heated up to energies of at least (A) K40 and C14
(A) 1 KeV (B) C14 and N6
(B) 10 KeV (C) N16 and K40
(C) 500 eV (D) None of the above
(D) 1 MeV
52. Which of the following techniques is
most appropriate for determining
crystalline structure of environmental
48. Element contaminating the water body samples ?
is determined and quantified by using
(A) Infrared spectroscopy
one of the following methods :
(B) X-ray diffraction
(A) Colorimeter
(C) Microspectrophotometry
(B) Spectrophotometer (D) Raman spectroscopy
(C) Atomic absorption spectrometer
53. Which one of the following is the most
(D) All the above predominant element in a majority of
igneous rocks ?
(A) Al (B) Fe
49. In which type of chromatography four
modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion (C) O (D) Si
exchange and exclusion, are present ?
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the
(A) HPLC process parameters in Group-II :
(B) Liquid-liquid chromatography Group-I Group-II
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography (i) Clark electrode 1. Dissolved
Oxygen
(D) Adsorption chromatography (ii) Redox Probe 2. pH
(iii) Load cell 3. Liquid level
50. The metal which is generally absorbed (iv) Diaphragm 4. Vessel
by plants along with Zn and causes gauge pressure
“Ouch Ouch” disease in human beings Choose the correct code :
is Codes :
(A) Pb (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) Cd
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) Hg (C) 1 4 3 2
(D) Cr (D) 4 3 2 1
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55. Which one of the following is used to 59. Which one of the following is
determine total organic matter by considered as indicator of aquatic
Walkley and Black method ? pollution ?
(A) KOH and H2SO4 (A) Rotifers

(B) Copepods
(B) Na2S2O3 and H2SO4
(C) Mysids
(C) K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 (D) Calanoids
(D) HNO3 and H2SO4

(A) Oligotrophic
56. As per WHO standards the maximum
permissible level of coliform (B) Eutrophic
organisms per 100 ml of drinking
(C) Mesotrophic
water is
(D) Xerotrophic
(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 1000

61. Identify a sampling method which is
not non-destructive.
57. Progressive increase in concentration (A) Sub-surface coring
of a xenobiotic compound when it
passes through the food chain is called (B) Using of neutron probes to
measure soil water
(A) Biomagnification
(C) Fourier transform infrared
spectroscopy
(B) Hyper accumulation
(D) Time domain refractometry to
(C) Bioaccumulation measure soil water

62. Ministry of Environment and Forests
amended the EIA notification making
58. Highest level of biotic interaction is public hearing mandatory for
environmental clearance on
(A) Mutualism
(A) 27th January 1996
(B) Predation
(B) 10th April 1997
(C) Parasitism (C) 27th January 1997
(D) Amensalism (D) None of the above
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63. The allochthonous microorganisms of 67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute
an ecosystem are generation time is grown under optimal
conditions (37 °C), one cell would
(A) Indigenous microorganisms
multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3
(B) Migrant hours, then how much time it will take
(C) Parasitic to multiply to 106 cells ?
(D) Pathogenic (A) 5.3 hrs. (B) 6.6 hrs.
(C) 9.9 hrs. (D) 6.3 hrs.
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled
into the sea depends on
68. The biodegradation of plant material is
(A) The elemental concentration of slow because of presence of
sea water
(A) Cellulose
(B) The composition of sea water
microflora (B) Xylene
(C) Composition of the crude oil (C) Extensin/protein
(D) The temperature of the sea (D) Lignin
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant

spoilage organism in canning industry 69. The widely used aerobic suspension
is type of liquid waste treatment system
is
(A) Clostridium cellulolyticum
(A) Rotating Biological Contactor
(B) Bacillus subtilis (RBC)
(C) E.coli (B) Percolating filter
(D) Clostridium botulinum
(C) Activated sludge process
(D) Septic tank
66. Oxygen concentrations in compost
developed in static piles usually
(A) Ten times lower than in ambient 70. The treatment designed to remove non-
air biodegradable organic pollutants and
mineral nutrients from waste water is
(B) Five times lower than in ambient
air (A) Lagoons
(C) Two times more than in ambient (B) Imhoff tank
air
(C) Secondary treatment
(D) Five times more than in ambient
air (D) Tertiary treatment
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71. An ecotype is 74. Given below are two statements, one
(A) Genetically different forms of the labelled as Reason (R).
same organisms
Assertion (A) : If natality is greater
(B) Genetically similar forms of the than mortality, it leads to
same organisms population explosion.
(C) Morphologically different forms Reason (R) : The scientific study of
of the same organisms various species of human
population is called demography.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to is the correct explanation of (A).
inactivation of
(A) Proteins, nucleic acids and (R) is not the correct explanation
pigments of (A).
(B) Minerals, water and air (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) O2, CO2 and water
75. Match Column – I with Column – II :
73. The following are the characters of
species diversity : (i) Chipko 1. Medha
Movement Patkar
(i) More richness
(ii) Narmada 2. Al Gore
(ii) More evenness Bacchao
Andolan
(iii) More dominance
(iii) Climate Change 3. Rachel
(iv) Less dominance Carson
(v) Less richness (iv) Silent Spring 4. Sundarlal
(vi) Less evenness Bahuguna
Point out the combination of Choose the correct code :

conditions in which species diversity Codes :
of an ecosystem will be more.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) (v), (ii) and (iii) (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) 4 1 2 3
(D) (i), (vi) and (iv) (D) 3 4 1 2
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Reasoning Previous Year Question & Answers
Question 1.Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
Cell : Cytology:: Birds: ?
a. Odontology
b. Mycology
c. Ornithology
d. Etymology
Ans. Ornithology
Explanation: Cytology is the branch of biology concerned with the structure and function of
plant and animal cells. Similarly, Ornithology is the scientific study of birds. Hence, option(c.)
is the correct answer.
DHLP:WSOK::FJNR: ?
a. UQMI
b. TPLH
c. SOKG
d. VRNJ
Ans. UQMI
Explanation: Refer the following table to solve the stated problem and match the
corresponding letter to find the answers-
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
Hence, FJNR -------------> UQMI.
2:10::26:?
a. 50
b. 36
c. 42
d. 20
Ans. 50
Explanation: 2: 10 ----> [(1)2+1]: [(3)2+1];
Similarly, 26: ? ----------> [(5)2+1]: [(7)2+1];
Hence, the correct answer will be (7)2+1 = 50;
Question 4. Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
a. EHJ
b. JML
c. PSR
d. VYX
Ans. EHJ
Explanation: All except EHJ follows the same trends-
J --- (+3)-----> M -----(-1)-------> L;
P--- (+3)-----> S-----(-1)-------> R;
V--- (+3)-----> Y-----(-1)-------> X;
While, E--- (+3)-----> H--- (+2)-----> J;
Hence, option (a.) is the correct answer.
a. Tomcat
b. Baby
c. Fawn
d. Cub
Ans. Baby
Explanation: All except baby are related to the young animals. Hence, option(b.) is the correct
answer.
a. 11
b. 17
c. 19
d. 21
Ans. 21
Explanation: All except 21 are prime numbers. Hence, option (d.) is the correct answer.
Question 7.Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
1.Patriot 2.Pastor 3 Patron 4. Pattern 5. Pastern
a. 5,2,3,1,4
b. 5,2,1,3,4
c. 5,2,4,1,3
d. 5,2,4,3,1
Ans. 5,2,1,3,4
Explanation: The ascending order of the given English words as per the dictionary is as
follows-
Pastern (5) > Pastor (2) > Patriot (1)> Patron (3)> Pattern(4).
Question 8.A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
SCD, TEF, UGH, ?, WKL
a. CMN
b. VJI
c. VIJ
d. IJT
Ans. VIJ
Explanation: SCD -------(+1)(+2)(+2) -----------TEF -------(+1)(+2)(+2) -----------UGH-------(+1)(+2)(+2)

-----------VIJ-------(+1)(+2)(+2) -----------WKL.
Question 9.A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
124, 235, 346, 457, ?
a. 455
b. 465
c. 565
d. 568
Ans. 568
Explanation: 124
-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------235-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------346-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------457-------(+1)(+1)(+1)-
-------568;
Question 10.F is the brother of A. C is the daughter of A. K is the sister of F, G is the brother
of C. Who is the uncle of G?
a. A
b. C
c. K
d. F
Ans. F
Explanation: From the given figure, it is clear that the F is the uncle of G.
Question 11.If Jhansi is 12 ahead in rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, then how many
students are there in the class if Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit ?
a. 23
b. 27
c. 30
d. 31
Ans. 30
Explanation: Jhansi will be at = 12 + 15 = 27 position from the last;
Hence, the total number of students in the class = 27 + 4 -1 = 30.
Question 12.From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters
of the given word.
ENVIRONMENT
a. ENTER
b. METRE
c. IRON
d. MOMENTUM
Ans. MOMENTUM
Explanation: In the given word “ENVIRONMENT”, there is no ‘U’ and 2 ‘M’ in that.Hence, it is
clear that option (d.) will be the correct answer.
Question 13.If 'BASKET' is written as 'TEKSAB' how can 'PILLOW' be written in that code?
a. LOWPIL
b. WOLLIP
c. LOWLIP
d. WOLPIL
Ans. WOLLIP
Explanation: ‘TEKSAB’ is the reverse of ‘BASKET’. Similarly, the reverse of ‘PILLOW’ will be
‘WOLLIP’.
Question 14.If '+' means '-' and '-' means 'x', 'x' means '÷' and '÷' means '+' then 2 ÷ 6 x 6 ÷ 2 =
?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 10
d. 5
Ans. 5
Explanation:
=2 ÷ 6 x 6 ÷ 2;
After replacing these signs with the given direction-
= 2 + 6 /6 +2 = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5;
Question 15.If 6 x 9 x 3 = 963 and 4 x 8 x 5 = 845, then 9 x 4 x 7 = ?
a. 974
b. 479
c. 497
d. 749
Ans. 497
Explanation: In the given sequence, middle digit is kept in first place in the RHS, first digit is
kept in middle and last digit is kept in the last. Hence, option (c.) is the correct answer for the
given problem.
Question 16.Select the missing number from the given responses:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Ans. 2
Explanation: in first column, 3 * 4 * 3 == 36;
In second column, 5 * 6 * 7 == 210;
In third column, 9 * x * 2 = 36; => x = 2;
Question 17.Ashok went 8 kms south and turned west and walked 3 kms. Again he turned
north and walked 5 kms. He took a final turn to east and walked 3 kms. In which direction was
Ashok from the starting point?
a. East
b. North
c. West
d. South
Ans. South
Explanation: from the figure given below, it is clear that Ashok will be in South direction from
the starting point.
Question 18.Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given
conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.
Statement: Ahimsa should be basic principle of human beings. All of us should practice
Ahimsa.
Conclusions: I. We all know the real meaning of Ahimsa.
Conclusions: II. Ahimsa promotes global harmony.
a. only conclusion I follows
b. only conclusion II follows
c. Neither I conclusion nor II follows
d. Both conclusion I & II follow
Ans. Neither I conclusion nor II follows
Explanation: The given statement is the suggestion. While, Both conclusions are
assumptions. Hence, option (c.) is the correct answer.
Question 19.Of a cubical container, all the six faces have different markings indicating the
position of the equipment packed inside. Which symbol is opposite the face having C?
a. Z
b. B
c. X
d. Y
Ans. Z
Explanation: From first two figures, we can conclude that marking ‘X’ and ‘B’ are just
opposite to each other. From last two figures, it can be concluded that ‘A’ & ‘Y’ and ‘C’ & ‘z’
are opposite to each other. Hence, option (a.) is the correct answer.
Question 20.Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given
below
Minutes, Days, Months
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a.
Explanation: In a month, there are 30/31 days and in 1 day, there are 720 minutes. Hence,
option (a.) is the correct answer.
Question 21.Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans. b.
Explanation: divide the whole image in quadrants, the image in second quadrant will be the
mirror image of fourth quadrant. Hence, option (b.) is the correct answer.
Question 22.From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is
hidden/embedded.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a.
Explanation: Superimpose the given problem figure on every optional figures, you can easily
find that option (a.) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 23.A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From
the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans. b.
Explanation: If you reverse the punching process, then you will find that the right answer will
be option (b.).
Question 24.If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right
image of the given figure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans. c.
Explanation: in mirror image, object is inverted by 180 degrees. Hence, option (c.) is the
correct answer.
Question 25.In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in
any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by
two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I
are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these
matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., G can be
represented by 03, 12, etc., and 'L' can be represented by 57, 65, etc. Similarly you have to
identify the set for the word 'DATE'
a. 23, 68, 24, 97
b. 14, 96, 11, 85
c. 23, 96, 40, 85
d. 32, 89, 10, 68
Ans. 23, 68, 24, 97
Explanation: Let us find all coding of the word DATE.
D= 00, 14, 23, 32, 41;
A= 55, 68, 77, 89, 96;
T= 01, 10, 24, 33, 42;
E= 56, 69, 78, 85, 97;
Hence, the correct answer among the given options will be option (a.).

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8/5/2014 Multiple Choice Questions on Air pollution ~ MCQ Biology - Learning Biology through MCQs

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► Air Pollution ► MCQ with Answers ► Water Pollution ► Multiple Choice

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