Brock University

THIS EXAMINATION WILL NOT BE DEPOSITED IN THE LIBRARY RESERVE

Student Name:
Student Number:
Final Examination: Fall 2010 Number of Pages: 6
Course: PHYS 3P70 Number of Students: 19
Date: December 18, 2010 Number of Hours: 3
Time: 19:00-22:00 Instructor: Thad Harroun

All questions are to be answered on the exam paper. Please hand this paper in at the completion
of the exam. Ask for extra blank paper, if needed.
Exam is 5 questions, some multi-part, for 67 total points. There are two bonus questions, for a
possible of 6 more points.
No examination aids other your calculator and the maths sheet that accompanies this test are
permitted. Use or possession of unauthorized materials will automatically result in the award of a
zero grade for this examination.

1
PHYS 3P70 December 18, 2010 Page 2 of 6

1. (16 pts.) Consider a spin 1 particle not in any kind of orbit.

Find all of the 3 × 3 matrices representing the operators for spin angular momentum Sˆx , Sˆy , Sˆz ,
and Sˆ2
Please show your work, since I don’t want you to have just memorized the answer.

Answer: (I’m not keeping the hats to indicate operators, you should know when they’re operators
and when they’re not.) Recall that:
p
S± |s, ms i = ~ s(s + 1) − ms (ms ± 1)|s, ms ± 1i
Sz |s, ms i = ~ms |s, ms i
S 2 |s, ms i = ~2 s(s + 1)|s, ms i
1
Sx = (S+ + S− )
2
i
Sy = (S+ − S− )
2
Since s = 1 the values of ms can be -1, 0, or +1.
For Sz and S 2 it’s easy:
hs, m0s |Sz |s, ms i = ~ms δm0s ms
 
1 0 0
= ~ 0 0 0 
0 0 −1
hs, m0s |S 2 |s, ms i = ~2 s(s + 1)δm0s ms
 
2 0 0
= ~ 0 2 0 
0 0 2
For Sx and Sy we need to find the non-zero combinations of the raising and lowering operators:
√
S+ |1, −1i = ~ 2|1, 0i
√
S+ |1, 0i = ~ 2|1, +1i
S+ |1, −1i = 0
S− |1, −1i = 0
√
S− |1, 0i = ~ 2|1, −1i
√
S− |1, +1i = ~ 2|1, 0i
Thus
√
h1, 0|S+ |1, −1i = ~ 2
√
h1, +1|S+ |1, 0i = ~ 2
√
h1, −1|S− |1, 0i = ~ 2
√
h1, 0|S− |1, +1i = ~ 2
So we have
√
 
0 1 0
~ 2
Sx = 1 0 1 
2
0 1 0
√
 
0 −1 0
i~ 2 
Sy = 1 0 −1 
2
0 1 0
PHYS 3P70 December 18, 2010 Page 3 of 6

2. The spin 1 particle of the previous problem finds itself in a state

 
2i
χ = A 1 
2

A. (5 pts.) What is the normalization constant A?

B. (8 pts.) Find the expectation values of Sx , Sy , Sz , and S 2 .

Answer: A.
 
2i
1 = χ† χ = |A|2  1  = |A|2 (4 + 1 + 4) = 9|A|2


−2i 1 2
2

Thus A = 1/3.
B.
    
1 0 0 2i 2i
~
~

 0  = ~ (4 − 4)
hSz i = −2i 1 2  0 0 0  1  = −2i 1 2
9 9 9
0 0 −1 2 −2
= 0
√ √
    
0 1 0 2i 1
~ 2
~ 2

hSx i = −2i 1 2  1 0 1   1  = −2i 1 2  2i + 2  =
18 18
0 1 0 2 1
√ √
~ 2 ~4 2
= (−2i + 2i + 2 + 2) =
18 18
√ √
    
0 −i 0 2i −i
~ 2

 1  = ~ 2


hSy i = −2i 1 2  i 0 −i −2i 1 2  −2 − 2i  =
18 18
0 i 0 2 i
√ √
~ 2 −~4 2
= (−2 − 2 − 2i + 2i) =
18  18
   
2 0 0 2i 4i
~ ~2 2
 2  = ~ (8 + 2 + 8)
hS 2 i =



−2i 1 2  0 2 0  1 = −2i 1 2
9 9 9
0 0 2 2 4
= 2~2
PHYS 3P70 December 18, 2010 Page 4 of 6

3. Still considering the spin 1 particle of problem 1, and it is still in the same state as problem 2:
A. (5 pts.) If you measured the component of the spin angular momentum vector in the z direc-
tion, for example by using a Stern-Gerlach experiment, what values might you get, and with what
probability would you get them?
B. (5 pts.) If you measured the total amount of spin angular momentum, which can be done using
nuclear magnetic resonance, what experimental values might you get, and with what probability
would you get them?
Bonus: (2 pts.) Verify your answer to problem 2 of the expectation value of Sz and S 2 with your
answers here.

Answer: A. The eigenvalues of Sz are the possible outcomes of a measurement of Sz , and they are
for a spin 1 particle ms = −1, 0, or +1. Thus you would measure −~ with probability 4/9, 0 with
probability 1/9 , and +~ with probability 4/9.
Look at it this way       
1 0 0
1 
χ= 2i 0  + 1  1  + 2  0 
3
0 0 1
where each eigenvector is for for the three states ms = +1, 0, or −1 respectively.
B. The eigenvalues of S 2 are the possible outcomes of a measurement of S 2 , and they
√ are for a
spin 1 particle always ~2 s(s + 1). Thus for s = 1, the only outcome you would see is 2~ with a
probability of 1.
Bonus:
4 1 4
hSz i = · (−~) + · (0) + · (+~) = 0
9 9 9
hS 2 i = 1 · 2~2 = 2~2
PHYS 3P70 December 18, 2010 Page 5 of 6

4. Now consider an electron (but without spin) in the hydrogen atom. It is in the state 2p1 , that is
to say, ml = 1.
A. (5 pts.) What is the wavefunction for this electron as a function of (r, θ, φ)?
B. (10 pts.) The operator for orbital angular momentum in the z direction is

∂
Lˆz = −i~ .
∂φ

Set up and evaluate the integral represented by the expectation value of hLz i.
C. (4 pts.) What is the eigenequation for Lz ? Use it to repeat part B using only Dirac notation.
D. (5 pts.) Also using Dirac notation, what is the expectation value of L2 ?

Answer:
A. From the Maths sheet of the exam we take:
 1/2
1 r 3
ψ211 (r, θ, φ) = R21 Y11 = √ a−3/2 e−r/2a (−1) sin θeiφ
24 a 8π

B.

hLz i = hψ211 (r, θ, φ) |Lz |ψ211 (r, θ, φ)i

Z ∞ Z π Z 2π
∂
= 2 2
|R21 | r dr sin θdθ dφ(Y11 )∗ (−i~) (Y11 )
0 0 0 ∂φ
 Z π Z 2π
3 ∂
= 1 · (−i~) sin θdθ dφ sin θe−iφ sin θeiφ
8π 0 0 ∂φ
 Z π Z 2π
3
= (−i~)(i) sin3 θdθ dφ
8π 0 0
  Z π
3
= ~ (2π) sin3 θdθ
8π 0
  
3 4
= ~
4 3
= ~ (1)

C.
Lz |nlml i = ml ~|nlml i
which leads to
hLz i = h211|Lz |211i = h211|1~|211i = ~h211|211i = ~ · 1 = ~
D.
L2 |nlml i = l(l + 1)~2 |nlml i
which leads to

hL2 i = h211|L2 |211i = h211|1(1 + 1)~|211i = 2~h211|211i = 2~ · 1 = 2~

PHYS 3P70 December 18, 2010 Page 6 of 6

5. (5 pts.) Still thinking of the particle from problem 4, let’s now say that we don’t know that
ml = 1, but the particle is still in the 2p state.
What is the operator for Lz in its 3 × 3 matrix form? Use Dirac notation to answer the question.
Bonus: (4 pts.) Compare your answer here with that of the matrix for Sz in question 1. Are
they the same? Why or why not? The more explanation, the more points.

Answer:
hnlm0l |Lz |nlml i = hnlm0l |ml ~|nlml i = ml ~hnlm0l |nlml i = ml ~δm0l ml
Now since l = 1, ml can take the values +1, 0, or −1.
 
1 0 0
→ Lz = ~  0 0 0 
0 0 −1

Bonus: They are the same.

The basis set of vectors that we were using in problem 1 are the eigenspinors (eigenvectors) of the
Sz operator. The basis set of this question are the spherical harmonics, which are the eignevectors
of Lz .
When you use the eigenvector of an operator to make it in matrix form, the matrix is diagonal,
with the eigenvalues of the operator on the diagonal.
Since both problems involve the physical phenomenon of angular momentum, both obey the same
rules for the eigenvalues, namely that Jz |j, mj i = mj ~|j, mj i.
Also both problems are dealing with the same amount of angular momentum; s = 1 in the first
problem, and l = 1 in this problem.
So both problems have the same eigenvalues, and thus the same matrix.