Aptitude Test - 1

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus.
(B) To develop thinking power of students.
(C) To dictate notes to students.
(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation
(B) Seminar and Project
(C) Seminar and Dictation
(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting
(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students
(C) Making students attentive.
(D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher
(B) Personality of teacher
(C) Handwriting of teacher
(D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity
(B) Subjectivity
(C) No use of vague words
(D) Reliable.

6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field
(B) Generate new principles and theories
(C) Synthesize the idea given by others
(D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability
(B) Generalizability
(C) Usability
(D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this
process is:
(A) Case Study
(B) Developmental
(C) Survey
(D) Experimental
9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans.
Such an assembly is known as a
(A) Conference
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such
a write-up is called
(A) Research paper
(B) Article
(C) Thesis
(D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of
independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the
employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost
predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were
only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's
representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.
Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has
been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a
reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything
with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.
But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to
include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A
survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of
doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of
Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats
of power.

11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our

(A) Political system
(B) Social behaviour
(C) Individual behaviour
(D) Behaviour of a group of people

12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind

(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Vote bank
(C) People' welfare
(D) Patriotism

13. "Trump Card" means

(A) Trying to move a dead horse
(B) Playing the card cautiously
(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others
(D) Making the final jolt for success
14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies
(A) Lust for power
(B) Desire to serve the nation
(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities
(D) Political corruption

15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10
(B) 7. 91
(C) 43
(D) 9. 1

16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as

(A) Interpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal Communication
(C) Mass Communication
(D) Grapevine Communication

17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as
(A) Gyan Darshan
(B) Vyas
(C) Eklavya
(D) Kisan

18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab

19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is

(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education
(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction
(C) Educate, Interact & entertain
(D) Entertainment only

20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:
(A) Personality of communicator
(B) Experience in the field
(C) Interactivity with target audience
(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.

21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:
(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony
(B) Trees in a garden
(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway
(D) Student population in a class

22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?
(A) Antecedent - consequent
(B) Acceptability
(C) Verifiability
(D) Demonstratability
23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is
(A) A fact
(B) An value
(C) An opinion
(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?

(A) Beam
(B) Plank
(C) Shaft
(D) Timber

25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of
question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?
(A) 300
(B) 200
(C) 100
(D) 150

26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals
living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil
and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be
false. Which are these two statements?
(i) All machines make noise
(ii) Some machines are noisy
(iii) No machine makes noise
(iv) Some machines are not noisy
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.
(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is
implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.
Assumptions:
(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.
(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.
(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit
(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit
(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit
(D) Both the assumptions are implicit

29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the
arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the
press exercise some self-restraint?
(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.
(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.
(A) Only the argument (i) is strong
(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong
(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong
(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.
Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter
will definitely fall down.
What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?
(A) Valid
(B) Invalid
(C) Doubtful
(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are
given below.
Papers
Students
I II III IV
W 60 81 45 55
X 59 43 51 A
Y 74 A 71 65
Z 72 76 A 68
Where 'A' stands for absent
Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35

31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z

33. Who has obtained the highest average

(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z

34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z

36. ICT stands for

(A) Information common technology
(B) Information & communication technology
(C) Information and computer technology
(D) Inter connected technology

37. Computer Can

(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(B) Store huge information
(C) Process information and fast accurately
(D) All the above.

38. Satellite Communication works through

(A) Rader
(B) Transponder
(C) Receptor
(D) Transmitter

39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above.

40. Information and communication technology includes

(A) E-mail
(B) Internet
(C) Education television
(D) All the above.
41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.
(A) Increase in availability of usable land.
(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.
(C) Fall in the sea level
(D) melting of polar ice.

42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?
(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) West Bengal

43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for

(A) Grasslands
(B) Conifers
(C) Mangroves
(D) Arid forests

44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river

(A) Ganga
(B) Godavari
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Narmada

45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

(A) Pine
(B) Teak
(C) Neem
(D) Oak

46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:
(A) Medical
(B) Management
(C) Pharmaceutical
(D) Aeronautical

47. Which of the following is a Central university

(A) Mumbai University
(B) Calcutta University
(C) Delhi University
(D) Madras University

48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates
(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
(B) Supremacy of Parliament
(C) Supremacy of Judiciary
(D) Theory of Separation of Power

49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:
(A) 30 % of the total seats
(B) 33 % of the total seate
(C) 33% of the total population
(D) In Proportion to their population

50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
LIST ( Institutions)
LIST II( Locations)
1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute
(i) Pune
2. Institute of Armament Technology
(ii) Izat Nagar
3. Indian Institute of Science
(iii) Delhi
4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi
(iv) Bangalore and Administrators
(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)
(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)
(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)
(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)
Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper.
Answer Key:
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A
GK

1. Which novel has a nameless narrator?

(a) Moby Dick
(b) Anna Karenina
(c) Invisible Man
(d) The Grapes of Wrath
2. Samuel Beckett wrote -
(a) Volpone
(b) Mother Courage and Her Children
(c) A Doll's House
(d) Endgame
3. Which one of the following author-book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Elfride Jelinek - The Pianist
(b) J.M. Coetzee- Shame
(c) Saul Bellow - Herzog
(d) Salman Rushdie - Disgrace
4. The Plough and the ‘Stars' was written by -
(a) G.B. Shaw
(b) Sean O'Casey
(c) Lady Gregory
(d) J.M. Synge
5. Willy Loman is a character in-
(a) Waiting for Godot
(b) A Doll's House
(c) The Cherry Orchard
(d) The Death of a Salesman
6. John Evellyn and Samuel Pepys were the famous writers of -
(a) Editorials
(b) Letters
(c) Essays
(d) Diaries
7. The subtitle of Dryden's Absalom and Achitophel is -
(a) There was no subtitle
(b) A Poem
(c) A Satire
(d) A satire on the True Blue Protestant Poets
8. Who of the following is not a periodical essayist?
(a) Richard Steele
(b) Lancelot Andrews
(c) Joseph Addison
(d) Jonathan Swift
9. "Did he who made the Lamb made thee" appears in-
(a) ‘Introduction'
(b) ‘ The Tyger'
(c) ‘Chimney Sweeper'
(d) ‘London'
10. Which of the following thinker- concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) I.A. Richards - Archetypal criticism
(b) Northrop Frye-Practical criticism
(c) Jacqes Devide - New Historicism
(d) Stanley Fish - Reader Response
11. "Essays of Eila" are-
(a) Economic disparity
(b) Literary criticism
(c) Political ideology
(d) Personal impressions
12. Which of the following thinker - concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) Mamata - Vakrokti
(b) Abhinava Gupta- Kavya Alankar
(c) Bharata - Natya Shastra
(d) Vaman - Dhwanyaloka
13. Choose the correct sequence of the following schools of criticism -
(a) Deconstruction, New Criticism, Structuralism, Reader Response
(b) Reader Response, Deconstruction, Structuralism, New Criticism
(c) New Criticism, Structuralism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
(d) Structuralism, New Criticism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
14. ‘Peripeteia' means -
(a) Tragic flaw
(b) Recognition of error
(c) Purgation of emotion
(d) Reversal of fortune
15. ‘Gynocriticism' focuses on -
(a) Criticism of male writers by women writers
(b) Criticism on women
(c) Criticism by women
(d) Women as writers
16. Samuel Butler's Hudibras is modeled upon -
(a) Don Quixote
(b) Endymion
(c) Annus Mirabilis
(d) Pilgrim's Progress
17. Who was the last of the Christian Humanists?
(a) John Bunyan
(b) Oliver Cromwell
(c) John Milton
(d) Richard Crashaw
18. The narrative of Raja Rao's Kanthapura is based on-
(a) The Ramayana
(b) The Mahabharata
(c) Puranas
(d) Shastras
19. Which of the following author- book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Arundhati Roy - Algebra of Infinite Justice
(b) Shashi Tharoor - Trotter's Name
(c) C.L.R. James - The English Patient
(d) David Madouf - The Cityof Djins
20. Who wrote ‘A tiger does not proclaim its tigretude' ?
(a) Derek Walcott
(b) Soyinka
(c) Achebe
(d) Ngugi
21. ‘Jindiworobak' movement relates to -
(a) Caribbean literature
(b) Canadian literature
(c) Australian literature
(d) New Zealand literature
22. The Montreal group of poets championed the cause of-
(a) Modernist poetry
(b) Imagist poetry
(c) Symbolist poetry
(d) Nature poetry
23. The figure of the ‘Abyssinian Maid' appears in-
(a) ‘Kubla Khan'
(b) ‘Frost at Midnight'
(c) ‘Dejection : an Ode'
(d) ‘Christabel'
24. Coleridge's statement that imagination "dissolves, diffuse, dissipates in order to recreate"relates
to -
(a) secondary imagination
(b) esemplastic imagination
(c) fancy
(d) primary imagination
25. Who among the following is a writer of historical romances?
(a) Walter Savage
(b) Walter Scott
(c) Jane Austen
(d) Emily Bronte
26. Which of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(b) Henry Esmond, Vanity Fair, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(c) Middlemarch, The Return of the Native, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
(d) The Return of the Native, Middlemarch, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
27. Queen Victoria's reign, after whom the Victorian period is named, spans-
(a) 1833 - 1901
(b) 1837 - 1901
(c) 1840 - 1905
(d) 1843 - 1905
28. Pre- Raphaelite poetry is mainly concerned with -
(a) narrative and style
(b) narrative and nature
(c) form and design
(d) form and value
29. The concept of "mad woman in the attic" can be traced to-
(a) The Tenant of Wildfell- Hall
(b) Villette
(c) Wuthering Heights
(d) Jane Eyre
30. Who among the Victorians is called "the prophet of modern society" ?
(a) Ruskin
(b) Carlyle
(c) Macaulay
(d) Arnold
31. Who among the following is not a pilgrim in The Canterbury Tales?
(a) The Haberdasher
(b) The Tapyser
(c) The Blacksmith
(d) The Summoner
32. Bosola is the executioner in -
(a) The Spanish Tragedy
(b) The Duchess of Malfi
(c) The White Devil
(d) The Jew of Malta
33. The mystery plays deal with -
(a) The life of Christ
(b) The New Testament
(c) Psalms
(d) Apocrypha
34. The Faerie Queene is based on -
(a) Utopia
(b) Tottel's Miscellany
(c) Morte d' Arthur
(d) Orlando Furioso
35. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following plays-
(a) King Lear, Othello, Macbeth, Hamlet
(b) Othello, Macbeth, King Lear, Hamlet
(c) Hamlet, Othello, King Lear, Macbeth
(d) Hamlet, King Lear, Othello, Macbeth
36. Pope's ‘Essay on Criticism' sums up the art of poetry as taught first by-
(a) Aristotle
(b) Horace
(c) Longinus
(d) Plato
37. Swift's Tale of a Tub is a satire on -
(a) Science and philosophy
(b) Art and morality
(c) Dogma and superstition
(d) Fake morals and manners
38. Dr. Johnson started -
(a) The Postman
(b) The Spectator
(c) The Rambler
(d) The Tatler
39. Who among the following cautioned against the dangers of popular liberty?
(a) Mary Wollstonecraft
(b) Edmund Burke
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) John Locke
40. Which famous American classic opens with "Call me Ishmael"?
(a) Rip Van Winkle
(b) The Scarlet Letter
(c) The Grapes of Wrath
(d) Moby Dick
41. Allen Ginsberg's Vision of America is inspired by -
(a) Walt Whitman
(b) Robert Frost
(c) Ralph Waldo Emerson
(d) Edgar A. Poe
42. Who among the following represents the Sri Lankan diaspora ?
(a) M.G. Vassanji
(b) Cyril Debydeen
(c) Michael Ondaatje
(d) Arnold H. Itwaru
43. Out of Africa is a film adaptation of a work by -
(a) Alice Walker
(b) Margaret Lawrence
(c) Margaret Atwood
(d) Alice Munro
44. The Empire Writes Back was written by -
(a) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Ngugi Wa Thinngo
(b) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Stephen Slemon
(c) Bill Ashcroft, Gareth Griffiths, Chinua Achebe
(d) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Gareth Griffiths
45. The Theatre of Cruelty is associated with -
(a) Stanislavosky
(b) Grotovsky
(c) Antonin Artand
(d) Eugino Barba
46. A particle is -
(a) A patchwork of words, sentences, passages
(b) A satirical poem
(c) A love song
(d) A collection of lines from different poems
47. "Careless she is with artful Care/ Affecting to seem unaffected" is an example of -
(a) Irony
(b) Paradox
(c) Simile
(d) Metaphor
48. A metrical foot containing a stressed, followed by an unstressed, syllable is - (a) Anapaest
(b) Iamb
(c) Trochee
(d) Dacty 1
49. The rhyme scheme of a Spenserian sonnet is -
(a) abba, cbcb, cdcd, ee
(b) abab, bccb, ccdd, ee
(c) aabb, bcbc, ccdd, ee
(d) abab, bcbc, cdcd, ee
50. Using the expression ‘Crown' for the monarchy is an example of -
(a) Metonymy
(b) Synecdoche
(c) Irony
(d) Metaphor
Answers
1. (c), 2. (d), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (d), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (d), 15.
(d), 16. (a), 17. (a), 18. (c), 19. (a), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (a), 23. (a), 24. (d), 25. (b), 26. (a), 27. (b), 28. (c),
29. (c), 30. (d), 31. (b), 32. (b), 33. (b), 34. (c), 35. (c), 36. (c), 37. (c), 38. (c), 39. (b), 40. (a), 41. (a), 42.
(c), 43. (b), 44. (c), 45. (b), 46. (a), 47. (b), 48. (c), 49. (d), 50. (a)
1. South africa currency is:
Ans: Rand

2. World boxing championship won by :

Ans: Vijendra Singh

3. Somdev barman related with:

Ans: lawn tennis

4.RIM is from which country:

Ans: RIm is a Candaian company which develops Blackberry phones

5. Award in the field of cinema is:

Ans: Dadasaheb Phalke.

7. Asian games 2010 were held in:

Ans: China.

8. Which of the following has not received LG ICC Awards:

Ans: Ishant sharma

9. what is MFI
Ans: Micro Finance Institutions:

10. Which of the following is not related to Hockey:

Ans: pull

11. EMI stands for:

Ans: Equated Monthly Installment

12. RBI Changes reverse repo rate by:

Ans: 25%.

13. India had military exercise with:

Ans: France

14. Name of Chetan Bhagat book:

Ans: 3 mistakes of my life.

15. Antaheen National Award winning film is in:

Ans: Bengali language

16. Miss universe 2010 is:

Ans: Ximena Navarrete

17. Current Indian Railway minister is:

Ans: Mamta Banerjee.

19. Which Counry is trying its currency Yuan to maintain its market value:
Ans: China

20. PDS is:

Ans: Public distribution system:

21. which was not in CWG no medal won:

Ans: Mahindra Singh Dhoni.

22. Mike Russell related with:

Ans: billiards

24. Stainless steel contains:

Ans: chromium

25. In October 2010 elections held:

Ans:Kyrgyzstan

26. Black berry services is from:

Ans: Canada

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the
word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be
made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only
once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’,
‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between
the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and
each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new
arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in
the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its
two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and
‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second
highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the
lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the
second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference
between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest
number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of
number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter
of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of
these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be
interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than
three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations
and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and
Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing
specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a
specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No
two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his
friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a
marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
1. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the:
(a) Inventory subsystem
(b) Cost subsystem
(c) Production subsystem
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

2. Average inventory level is educed by:

(a) Decreasing the vender lead time
(b) Increasing the usage rate
(c) Decreasing the order quantity
(d) Lowering the reorder point
Ans. (c)

3. Below are given four different theories:

(1) Trait approach
(ii) Attitude criterion
(iii) Behaviour approach
(iv) Situational approach
These are identified with:
(a) Administrative behaviour
(b) Organizational behaviour
(c) Leadership index
(d) Administrative approaches
Ans. (c)

4. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:

(a) Finance function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (c)

5. Focus on Social Environment is related to:

(a) Unity of Command
(b) Human Relations
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Delegation
Ans. (b)

6. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person:

(a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent.
(b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position.
(c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company.
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

7. The funds management subsystem attempts to:

(a) Increase cash input
(b) Decrease cash output
(c) Balance cash inflow with outflow
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)

8. The democratic leadership style goes with:

(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

9. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because
they know the ropes.
(a) The decision overlay
(b) The power overlay
(c) The communication overlay
(d) The functional overlay
Ans. (b)

10. Delegation of authority results in:

(a) Avoiding responsibility
(b) Centralization of powers at top level
(c) Costliness of decision
(d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load
Ans. (d)

11. Taylorism:
1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man.
2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation.
3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables.
4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects.
Select the correct code from the following:
(a) (l)+(2)
(b) (1)+(2)+(3)
(c) (l)+(3)+(4)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

12. Which of the following markets is associated with short term funds?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Stock market
(d) Chamber of commerce
Ans. (c)

13. In India, the system of decimal coinage introduced on:

(a) 15th August 1947
(b) 26th January 1950
(c) 1st April 1957
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

14. The most structured marketing problems are likely to be those dealing with:
(a) Product
(b) Promotion
(c) Place
(d) Price
Ans. (b)

15. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:

(a) Finance, function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (d)

16. One who does too much work is called

(a) A squealer
(b) A rate buster
(b) A chiseller
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

17. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is the meeting called?
(a) Extra ordinary meeting
(b) Statutory meeting
(c) Committee meeting .
(d) Annual general meeting
Ans. (a)

18. The management of a company is vested in the hands of:

(a) Shareholders
(b) Directors
(c) Board of directors elected by shareholders
(d) Creditors
Ans. (c)

19. A popular technique for forecasting is:

(a) Correlation analysis
(b) Regression analysis
(c) Linear programming
(d) Month Carlo
Ans. (b)

20. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market?
(a) Stock exchange
(b) Unit Trust of India
(c) Financial Institution like IFC, IDBI
(d) LIC
Ans. (d)

21. Bank deposits are money when they are:

(a) Lying with Bank
(b) In circulation
(c) Kept with government
(d) Kept with R.B.I.
Ans. (b)
22. Money is:
(a) Consumer goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Producer goods
(d) Neither of them
Ans. (d)

23. “Papers on the Science of Administration” is written by:

(a) L. Urwick
(b) Gullick
(c) Both combined
(d) M. P. Follett
Ans. (c)

24. Find the correct answer regarding classical theory of organizations?

(i) It throws focus on human beings as such
(ii) It throws focus not on human beings as such but on the role
(iii) It is normally the dominant set of work relationship.
(iv) All of the above
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Ans. (b)

25. Full delegation is called:

(a) Alter-ego
(b) Shelter-ego
(c) Ego
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)

26. The Modern Theory is also called the:

(a) System Analysis of Organizations
(b) Human Relations Theory
(b) Mechanistic Theory
(d) Structural Theory
Ans. (a)

27. Sales invoicing is a:

(a) Pre-sales activity
(b) Job of finance department
(c) Post-sales activity
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)

28. Managerial decision-making refers to:

(a) Programmed decisions
(b) Unprogrammed decisions
(c) Information system
(d) Operation system
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Authority can not be delegated, but responsibility can be delegated
(b) Both authority and responsibility can be delegated
(c) Authority ca only be delegated
(d) Responsibility can only be delegated
Ans. (a)

30. Dynamic factors in trade theory refer to change in:

(a) Factor endowments
(b) Technology
(c) Tastes
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

31. The classical theory of organizations manifest following certain features which are:
(i) Impersonality
(ii) Division of work
(iii) Hierarchy
(iv) Efficiency
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), iii and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d)

32. The line agency should not have:

(a) Operating unit
(b) Major substantial purpose
(c) Advisory and co-coordinating functions
(d) Independent staff
Ans. (b)

33. The difference between the line and staff units is:
(a) Marginal
(b) Qualitative
(c) Quantitative
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

34. Oral communication in Organisations are:

(a) Formal communication
(b) Information communication
(c) Discretionary communication
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)

35. Structure variable is synonymous with:

(a) Task
(b) Relation
(c) Style
(d) Attitude
Ans. (a)
36. Effective supervision is an activity of:
(a) Organization function
(b) Staffing function
(c) Direction function
(d) Control function
Ans. (c)

37. Accent of human relation theory is:

(a) Action-Oriented
(b) Hierarchy-Oriented
(c) Organization-Oriented
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

38. Marketing research does not normally:

(a) Gather environmental information
(b) Provide a continuous source of information
(c) Relate to all aspects of. marketing operations
(d) Describe the current situation
Ans. (b)

39. A periodic report can be used to:

(a) Identify the problem
(b) Evaluate solution
(c) Identify solution
(d) Select solution
Ans. (a)

40. Corporate modeling software can be used for:

(a) Cash planning
(b) Operational budding
(c) Capital budgeting
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

41. The overall goal of Scientific Management is:

(a) Maximization of productivity
(b) Maximization of employment
(c) Higher industrial efficiency
(d) Greater profit to producers
Ans. (c)

42. Statutory meeting is needed for:

(a) All companies
(b) For a private company
(c) For a public company only
(d) For a statutory company only
Ans. (c)

43. Central Monetary Authority of the country is:

(a) Union Finance Ministry
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Central Bank of Direct Taxes
Ans. (b)

44. How many nationalized banks are there in our country?

(a) Nineteen
(b) Twenty two
(c) Fourteen
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

45. It is only implies the transfer of function and not of authority. The reference is to:
(a) Decentralization
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Delegation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

46. The transfer of functions as well as authority is known as:

(a) Delegation
(b) Devolution
(c) Decentralization
(d) Promotion
Ans. (c)

47. Two-factor theory is related to:

(a) Leadership
(b) Motivation
(c) Communication
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

48. The ERG Theory is related to:

(a) Hertzberg
(b) Maslow
(c) Adam
(d) Alderfer
Ans. (d)

49. For McGregor, leadership condition that provides for security is/are:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Consistent discipline
(c) Atmosphere of approval
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

50. Economic analysis in the content of equity stock valuation is concerned with:
(a) Study of fiscal policies
(b) Study of monsoons
(c) Study of economic policies of the government
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
1. OPEC is an example of the type of producer’s

organization known as a:

(a) Marketing Board

(b) Producer’s Cooperative

(c) Trust

(d) Cartel

Ans. (d)

2. TQM’s major emphasis is on

(a) Product quality

(b) Company profitability

(c) Customer delight

(d) Employee training

Ans. (a)

3. Assertion (A): Effective motivation is moderated by organizational complexity and conflicts.

Reason (R): An Individual’s motives may be complex and conflicting.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (d)

4. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A Classical 1. Fact-orientation

B Human Relations 2. Environment

C Behavioural 3. Structure

D Systems 4. Informal organization

5. Incentives to work

Codes:

ABCD
(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 1 4 3 2

(c) 3 2 4 5

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (d)

5. External environment of business is:

(a) Physical

(b) Demographic

(c) Economic

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

6. ‘Co-ordination’ in an organization means:

1. Complete control of the activities of the employees.

2. To structure harmony among different units of the organization.

3. Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) l and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

7. Regression coefficient is independent change of:

(a) Origin but not to scale

(b) Both origin and scale

(c) Scale but not of origin

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

8. Assertion (A): E-commerce is an emerging field, which cannot be ignored.

Reason (R): The legal framework relating to E-commerce is yet to be crystallized.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (b)

9. Which of these is marketing research method?

(a) Observation

(b) Questionnaire

(c) Interview

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

10. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always posses the minimum gold stock of worth:

(a) Rs. 85 crores

(b) Rs. 115 crores

(c) Rs. 200 crores

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

11. ISO-quants are also known as:

(a) Equal revenue curves.

(b) Equal cost curves

(c) Equal product curves

(d) Indifference curves

Ans. (c)

12. Match the following:

List-I List-II

(a) Cardinal approach 1. Margin Utility

(b) Ordinal approach 2. Alfred Marshall

(c) Hicks-Allen approach 3. J. R Hicks

(d) Consumer’s surplus 4. Indifference curve

5. Revealed preference theory

Codes:

ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 5 4 2

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (b)

13. The scientific management stressed upon:

1. Rationality

2. Specialization

3. Technical competence

4. Predictability

Select the Correct Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

14. One who does too mu1i work is called:

(a) A rate buster

(b) A chiseller

(c) A squealer

(d) None pf the above

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment?

(a) Competitiveness

(b) Respect for the individual

(c) Better quality of life

(d) Bailment

Ans. (d)

16. Marketing information system help to

(a) Sales Manager

(b) Purchase Manager

(c) Operational Manager

(d) Marketing Manager

Ans. (d)

17. Consider the following:

I Measurement

II. Projection

III. Selection

IV. Observation

V. Comparison

VI. Decision making

The correct sequence of the above ingredients of management by exception is:

(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(b) I, II, III, V, IV, VI

(c) I, H, III, VI, IV, V

(d) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

Ans. (a)

18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Value of any security 1. The real value of any security is determined by the

prior rights to the return of income.

B. Debenture 2. It possesses maximum safety and normally offers

regular and fixed income.

C. Preference Share 3. It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and

fixed income by way of dividend.

D. Equity Shares 4. It invites speculative tendency and the investors.

There is risk of loss in such a share.

Select the correct answer using the codes using the codes given below:

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (a)

19. Normal profits are considered as:

(a) Explicit Costs

(b) Implicit Costs

(c) Social Costs

(d) Private Costs

Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements:

1. Quartile deviation is more instructive range as it discards the dispersion of extreme items.

2. Coefficient of quartile deviation cannot be used to compare the degree.

3. There are 10 deciles for a series.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 alone

(c) 3 alone

(d) 1 alone

Ans. (c)

21. Three necessary and sufficient conditions that must be satisfied if traits should be unique determinants of the
Leadership Index are —

1. The trait quality should follow a descending order as one traverses from the highest to the lowest levels.

2. There must be a high correlation between the Level of traits and the level of success

3. The achievement trait curve should be convex to the trait axis as one travels from the low to the high trait
terminals.

The above conditions have been suggested by:

(a) F. W. Taylor

(b) Elton Mayo

(c) Edin E. Ghiselli

(d) Dorwin Cartwright

Ans. (c)

22. Michigan Leadership studies are based on the following approach to the study of leadership:

(a) Trait approach

(b) Attitude criterion

(c) Behaviour approach

(d) Situational approach

Ans. (b)

23. Choose the correct facts of the following?

A. Unity of command in no case seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and
auxiliary agencies.

B. What we are having today in practice, there is no unity of command, not even duality of command, but
multiplicity of command.

C. The unity of command has been seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and
auxiliary agencies.

(a) A only

(b) A and B only

(c) B and C only

(d) A, B and C

Ans. (c)

24. Find out correct answer:

(a) Heart of co-ordination is unity of actions.

(b) Co-ordination is the basic responsibility of management.

(c) Co-ordination is not a distinct function but the very essence of management.

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

25 The definition that Economics is concerned with an enquiry into the nature and causes of wealth of nations is
given by

(a) Karl Marx

(b) Adam Smith

(c) A. E. Cairns

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

26. A long run analysis of production is called:

(a) Economies of scale

(b) Law of variable proportion

(c) Law of increasing returns

(d) Law of returns to scale

Ans. (d)

27. Which of the following persons is engaged in “secondary production”?

1. A brick layer

2. An automobile assembly-line worker

3. An accountant

4. A cinema projectionist

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

28. Rectangular hyperbola is the shape of:

(a) TFC

(b) AFC

(c) FC

(d) MC

Ans. (b)

29. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and
managers.

Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (c)

30. Which of the following are the Mechanisms of the Scientific Management?

1. Functional Foremanship

2. One best way of doing a task

3. Differential Piece Rate Plan

4. Scientific Selection of workman

5. Time and Motion study

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 4, 3 and 5

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

31. Who described the classical approach as the engineering approach?

(a) Gullick

(b) Fayol

(c) Urwick

(d) Mooney

Ans. (c)

32. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

A. A store clerk tells the top executive when to buy 1. Leadership by personality

a commodity.

B. A youth rushing to save life and property of a house 2. Leadership by position

on fire commands neighbours to collect water.

C. A newly elected secretary advises members about 3. Leadership by function

their duties.

D. A leader attempts to bend his followers to his will 4. Leadership by situation

in most kind of work.

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

Ans. (c)
33. Arrange the Maslow’s Need descending order:

1. Social

2. Self-Actualization

3. Physiological

4. Ego

5. Security

(a) 3, 5 1, 4, 2

(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Ans. (d)

34. Which of the following, according to Hertzberg, are not the motivators?

1. Responsibility

2. Recognition

3. Interpersonal relations

4. Work itself

5. Working condition

(a) l, 2 and 4

(b) l, 2, and 3

(c) 3 and 5

(d) 2, 4 and 5

Ans. (c)

35. The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of:

(a) Path-goal

(b) Participation

(c) Motivation-hygiene

(d) Fear and punishment

Ans. (d)

36 The sources of recruitment are:

(a) Internal

(b) External
(c) Internal as well as external

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

37. The Human Relations Theory rejects:

(a) Formal institutionalization

(b) Informal functioning

(c) Human motivation

(d) People

Ans. (d)

38. The terms speed boss, rout clerks etc., are used in relation to:

(a) Line organization

(b) Line and staff organization

(c) Functional organization

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

39. Paid-up value is payable on a life insurance policy:

(a) on the maturity of the policy

(b) when the policy lapses

(c) when the policy is surrendered

(d) on maturity or death which ever is earlier

Ans. (d)

40. FICCI was formed in the year:

(a) 1920

(b) 1925

(c) 1926

(d) 1951

Ans. (c)

41. Which among the following is the most popular approach for accomplishing the

results?

(a) Management by exception

(b) Reward system

(c) Management by objectives

(d) Mentor system

Ans. (c)

42. Techniques of managerial control are useful in:

(a) Selection of plant location

(b) Identifying appropriate technology

(c) Profit planning

(d) Conducting shareholders’ meetings

Ans. (c)

43. Facility location decisions:

(a) Do not affect other capacity decisions

(b) Are intermediate range capacity decisions

(c) Are not affected by other existing capacities

(d) All of the above statements are untrue

Ans. (d)

44. Ship building and construction of dams and bridges are typical examples of:

(a) Fixed position layout

(b) Functional layout

(c) Product layout

(d) Project type layout

Ans. (a)

45. If unit item cost = Rs. 10, monthly carrying charge = 3%, monthly demand = 100 units and ordering cost =
Rs.20 per order, the EOQ is:

(a) 11.45

(b) 400

(c) 115.4

(d) 33.3

Ans. (c)

46. PERT/CPM network analysis can be used for:

(a) Projection appraisal

(b) Project Implementation

(c) Project monitoring and control

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

47 Where ‘r’ is equal to zero the regression lines cut each other making an angle of:

(a) 450?

(b) 60?

(c) 90?

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

48. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution

(a) A. M > G.M > H.M

(b) A.M < G.M < H.M.

(c) A.M < G.M > H.M.

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

49. National Housing is a controlled enterprise of:

(a) NABARD

(b) UTI

(c) RBI

(d) LIC of India

Ans. (c)

50. Corporate tax is imposed by:

(a) State Government

(b) Local Government

(c) Central Government

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. (c)