Usmle Step 1 Flashcards

What gland is found in the muscular
Thyroid gland triangle of the neck?
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an

Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described as
efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrict when
B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the
light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual
unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when
pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the
light is shined in the affected eye?
affected eye.
What is the name of the spinal cord passing within

Cauda equina the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal
nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
Thyroarytenoid Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

following: • Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to
the thyroid, relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby
muscles decreasing the pitch
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

following: • Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing
Cricothyroid muscles the distance between the cartilages, thereby
increasing the pitch
1
following: • Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles air passageway during swallowing, and allows
phonation

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles following: • Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords
Opposite the second upper molar Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the
tooth oral cavity?
Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic for the From what aortic arch are the following structures
aortic arch derivatives derived? • Common and internal carotid arteries
Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch From what aortic arch are the following structures
derivatives derived? • Degenerates
2
Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic From what aortic arch are the following structures
arch derivatives derived? • Stapes artery
First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch From what aortic arch are the following structures
derivatives derived? • Maxillary artery
From what aortic arch are the following structures

Fourth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic
derived? • Arch of the aorta and right subclavian
arch derivatives
artery
From what aortic arch are the following structures

Sixth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch
derived? • Right and left pulmonary arteries and the
derivatives
ductus arteriosus
What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior

layer of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal
External abdominal oblique ligament, and in men gives rise to the external
spermatic fascia of the spermatic cord?
3
Medial compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Adduct the thigh
obturator nerve and flex the hip
Posterior compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the
tibial nerve foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot
Anterior compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Dorsiflex the
deep peroneal nerve foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot
Anterior compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Flex the hip and
femoral nerve extend the knee
Posterior compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Extend the hip
tibial nerve and flex the knee
4
Lateral compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the
superficial peroneal nerve foot and evert the foot
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. What are the five branches of the posterior cord of
Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis the brachial plexus?
Name the correct artery. • The right recurrent

Right brachiocephalic artery laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Name the correct artery. • The left recurrent

Arch of the aorta laryngeal nerve passes around it.
The inferior mesenteric artery drains

The splenic vein into it.
5
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver
because they receive their blood supply from the left Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver
hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part functionally part of the left or right lobe?
of the right lobe of the liver.
What bones make up the

Pubis, ilium, and ischium
acetabulum?
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left
(because of the rotation of the gut; remember your gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass
embryology!) through the diaphragm?
Middle meningeal What vessel is lacerated in an

epidural hematoma?
artery
True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the

TRUE aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus
abdominis.
6
What ocular muscle • Adducts the eyeball and is
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
What ocular muscle • Elevates and

Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
adducts the eyeball?
Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 What ocular muscle • Depresses and
SO4)3 abducts the eyeball?
Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 What ocular muscle • Elevates and
SO4)3 abducts the eyeball?
What ocular muscle • Abducts the eyeball and is

Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3 involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
7
What ocular muscle • Depresses and
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
adducts the eyeball?
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary Which muscles of the eye are under
muscles parasympathetic control?
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus
the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.) nerve lesion?
Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins Is a subdural hematoma an arterial

where they enter the superior sagittal sinus. or venous bleed?
CN I, II, III, VI, and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 Which CNs are found in the midline
+ 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12 of the brainstem?
8
"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular
pectoralis major, and teres major groove of the humerus?
Chorda tympani of CN What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior

two-thirds of the tongue?
VII
What part of the heart forms • The

Right atrium right border?
Left ventricle and auricle of left What part of the heart forms • Left
atrium border?
Tip of the left ventricle What part of the heart forms • Apex?
9
Left atrium and tip of the right
What part of the heart forms • Base?
atrium
Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and What part of the heart forms •
left auricles Superior border?
What part of the heart forms •

Right ventricle Anterior wall?
What part of the heart forms •

Left atrium Posterior wall?
Left ventricle and tip of right What part of the heart forms •
ventricle Diaphragmatic wall?
10
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the What nerves carry the sensory and motor
motor component of the blink reflex. components of the blink reflex?
What muscle keeps the stapes taut

Stapedius muscle against the oval window?
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Name the components of the femoral canal, working
and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament laterally to medially.
What muscle is most superior in the

Levator palpebrae superioris
orbit?
What portion of the pericardium adheres to the

Fibrous pericardium tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
11
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein What two veins form the portal
(after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to
form the portal vein. vein?
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor
component through parasympathetic stimulation. components of the light reflex?
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through

the interlaminar space in the midline of L3–L4, with
Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence
the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the
through which a needle must pass in a lumbar
landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial
puncture. • Skin • Subarachnoid space • Interspinous
fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspinous ligament 5.
ligament • Dura mater • Deep fascia • Epidural space
Interspinous ligament 6. Interlaminar space 7.
• Superficial fascia • Interlaminar space •
Epidural space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid mater 10.
Supraspinous ligament • Arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space. (They ask this in some variation
every year, so know it.)
Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the
affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal
pupil accommodation?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, What is the name for the most
T1 in 10%) prominent spinous process?
12
SITS—Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, What muscles make up the rotator
Supraspinatus cuff?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are What is the function of white rami
white because they are myelinated. communicantes?
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus following nerves? • Suprascapular nerve
Subscapularis What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

following nerves? • Upper subscapularis nerve

Latissimus dorsi following nerves? • Thoracodorsal nerve
13
Serratus anterior following nerves? • Long thoracic nerve
What nerve is associated with the following

functions? • Flex the wrist and digits, pronate the
Median nerve wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis,
Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis)
muscles of the hand
Musculocutaneous What nerve is associated with the following

functions? • Flex the shoulder, flex the elbow, and
nerve supinate the elbow
Ulnar nerve functions? • Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris,

flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers), and
the intrinsic muscles of the hand

Radial nerve functions? • Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and
digits, extend the shoulder and elbow
14
What abdominal muscle runs horizontally,
Transverse abdominis contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and
contributes to form the conjoint tendon?
The sensory limb is via CN IX, and the motor limb is Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components
from CN X. of the gag reflex?
The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity

because of the amount of space the liver occupies. Which kidney is lower? Why?
What two regions of the vertebral column are

Thoracic and sacral considered primary curvatures?
What vein drains the lower third of

Hemiazygous vein the thoracic wall?
15
At what point does the axillary artery become the
When it crosses the teres major brachial artery?
Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue What direction would the tongue protrude in a left
pointing to the left (points at the affected side). CN XII lesion?
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid At what vertebral level does the common carotid
cartilage) artery bifurcate?
False. Females are more likely to develop femoral True or false? Males are more likely to develop
hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral). femoral hernias than females.
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus
posterior compartment) femoris artery found?
16
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian
Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the
artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious
subclavian artery and vein?
when performing subclavian venipuncture.
True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the

True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no
vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the
vertebral body.
head.
What is the largest muscle in the

Gluteus maximus body?
It both begins and ends at T4 At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin
(sternal angle [of Louis]). and end?
What artery travels with the following veins? • Great

Left anterior descending artery cardiac vein
17
What artery travels with the following veins? •
Posterior interventricular artery Middle cardiac vein
What artery travels with the following veins? • Small

Right coronary artery cardiac vein
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of

Internal carotid artery what vessel?
IVC Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
and 3 at T12 • T8 level?
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 • T10 level?
18
Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 • T12 level?
The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low)

receptor, while the carotid body is an Is the carotid sinus sensitive to
oxygen-sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus pressure or oxygen?
Pressure").
CN XI and X What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and

taste to the posterior third of the tongue?
Which muscle of the eye is under

Dilator pupillae muscle sympathetic control?
True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the

middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal
True or false? both the left and right lungs have an
fissure further divides the middle from the upper
oblique fissure?
lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior
from the inferior lobe.
19
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the
Musculocutaneus brachial plexus?
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the What is the major difference between the veins in the
walls of the veins in the face. face and the veins in the rest of the body?
Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be
and the humerus specific. • Shoulder
Humerus with ulna (major) and Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be
radius (minor) specific. • Elbow
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with

triquetrum and pisiform (Remember, for major Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be
articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = specific. • Wrist
elbow)
20
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the
innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve. external laryngeal nerve?
Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic What seven structures are found in more than one
duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve mediastinum?
There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the
right and 8 on the left. right lung? Left lung?
The duodenal–jejunal flexure is suspended from the

Ligament of Treitz posterior abdominal wall by what?
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other What is the only tongue muscle
tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII. innervated by CN X?
21
What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior
direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath,
Internal abdominal oblique contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon,
and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia
and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord?
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right What are the five branches of the superior
colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries mesenteric artery?
S2, S3, S4—keeps the pee-pee off the What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic
splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate
floor! the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
What connects the third and the

Cerebral aqueduct fourth ventricles?
Axillary nerve and posterior What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral
humeral artery neck fracture?
22
Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct What type of hernia is described as passing through
hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle. the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the What two vessels come together to form the external
retromandibular vein jugular vein?
The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood What is the only vein in the body
from the lung to the left atrium. with a high O2 content?
The left gastric, splenic, and What are the three branches of the
common hepatic arteries celiac trunk?
What region of the pharynx does the

Nasopharynx eustachian tube enter?
23
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the
What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all
innervated by CN V3?
others are innervated by CN X.
How many pairs of spinal nerves exit

31 pairs from the spinal cord?
What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it

Anterior tibial artery crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Argyll Robertson What is the term for pupils that react normally to
accommodation but have bilateral loss of
pupils constriction in response to light?
What connects the lateral ventricles to the third

Foramen of Monro ventricle?
24
What nerve supplies general sensation to the
Lingual nerve of CN V3 anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the

Visceral pleura organ?
What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium,

Left coronary artery and interventricular septum?
Waldeyer's ring Where are the tonsillar tissues?
Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous
(Remember campers are fat.) fascia of the abdomen containing fat?
25
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic What are the three anatomic characteristics that
differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel
appendages and the rectum?
What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no

The optic disk is the blind spot. photoreceptors?
Musculophrenic and superior At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery
epigastric arteries divides into what two arteries?
What is the name of inflammation of

Housemaid's knee the prepatellar bursa?
What nerve roots constitute the

C1 through C4 cervical plexus?
26
Name the compartment of the mediastinum
Middle associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Heart and pericardium

Posterior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Descending aorta

Superior and anterior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Thymus

Superior and middle associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Phrenic nerve

Superior and posterior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Esophagus
27
Superior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Trachea

Ascending aorta

Thoracic duct

Azygos vein

Superior and middle associated with the following thoracic structures: •
SVC
28
Splanchnic nerves

Aortic arch

IVC

Vagus nerve

Brachiocephalic vein
29
Pulmonary artery and veins

Left common carotid artery

Left subclavian artery
What is the only organ in the body supplied by

Adrenal medulla preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while the right The left subclavian artery is a branch
is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk. of what artery?
30
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. What are the four muscles of
Lateral pterygoid mastication?
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates

With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7
with the corresponding numerical vertebral body
articulate?
and the vertebral body below it.
Left colic, superior rectal, and What are the three branches of the inferior
sigmoidal arteries mesenteric artery?
What is the only valve in the heart

Mitral (bicuspid) valve with two cusps?
Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal What are five clinical signs of portal
varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly HTN?
31
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love What three muscles constitute the
Science" muscles) erector spinae?
What nerve is compromised in

Median nerve carpal tunnel syndrome?
The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the

What vascular injury may result from a
popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar
supracondylar fracture of the femur?
fracture of the femur.
Radial nerve and the profunda What nerve and artery could be affected in a
brachii artery midshaft humeral fracture?
. Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending

Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands
(adrenals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.
Rectum 10. IVC D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic,
everything else is covered with peritoneum
32
C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the
alive! phrenic nerve?
Ampulla What is the region of the fallopian tube where

fertilization most commonly occurs?
What foramen must be traversed for entry into the

Foramen of Winslow lesser peritoneal sac?
Name the structure that enters or exits the following

CN XI, vertebral arteries foramina: • Foramen magnum
Middle meningeal Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Foramen spinosum
artery
33
CN V2 Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Foramen rotundum

CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve foramina: • Foramen ovale

CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus foramina: • Jugular foramen
Internal carotid artery and Name the structure that enters or exits the following
sympathetic plexus foramina: • Carotid canal
CN VII Name the structure that enters or exits the following

foramina: • Stylomastoid foramen
34
CN XII Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Hypoglossal canal

CN VII and VIII foramina: • Internal auditory meatus

CN II and ophthalmic artery foramina: • Optic canal
CN I Name the structure that enters or exits the following

foramina: • Cribriform plate
What vessel can be found atop the

Subclavian vein scalene anterior?
35
Motor aspect What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN
VII deficit?
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation
mastication, and the jaw deviates to the right. of the jaw to which side?
Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is What two arteries join to form the superficial and
the main supplier) deep palmar arches of the hand?
What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the

Round and ovarian ligaments gubernaculum?
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Tibial nerve
36
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Common peroneal nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Femoral nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Obturator nerve
Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; right: liver, What three structures are in contact with the left
duodenum, and right kidney colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. What three muscles constitute the

Semitendinous pes anserinus?
37
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all What is the only pharyngeal muscle
other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X. not innervated by CN X?
The right and left pulmonary arteries, the only What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the
arteries that carry deoxygenated blood lungs from the right ventricle?
Common peroneal Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is

an injury of what nerve?
nerve
What vein is formed by the union of the right and left

Superior vena cava brachiocephalic veins?
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is

your landmark for a pleural tap because along the If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or
inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular insertion of a chest tube, do you use the inferior or
bundle, and you would risk injury if you went below the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
the rib.
38
What muscle laterally rotates the
Popliteus femur to unlock the knee?
What chamber of the eye lies

Posterior chamber between the iris and the lens?
What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle,

Right coronary artery sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior
4. Nerve to subclavius to the first rib?
What vertebral level is marked by

T9 the xiphoid process?
39
Common peroneal What lower extremity nerve is described by the
following motor loss? • Loss of eversion; inversion,
nerve dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot
What lower extremity nerve is described by the

Tibial nerve following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knees
and toes, plantarflexion, and weakened inversion

Femoral nerve following motor loss? • Loss of knee extension,
weakened hip flexion

Superior gluteal nerve following motor loss? • Loss of abduction of the hip
resulting in Trendelenburg gait
Sciatic nerve following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knee

and all function below the knee, weakened extension
of the thigh
40
Obturator nerve following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh
What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand

Median nerve lesion as its sign?
What muscle acts in all ranges of

Deltoid motion of the arm?
What is the first branch of the

Inferior phrenic artery abdominal artery?
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena What vessel does the right gonadal
cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into
the left renal vein. vein drain into?
41
What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid is intact?
CN IX and X What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body
and sinus reflexes?
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the At what vertebral level does the
sternal angle (angle of Louis). trachea bifurcate?
What is the function of the

Resorb CSF into the blood
arachnoid granulations?
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long Damage to what nerve will give you
thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has
an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery. winged scapula?
42
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant
Nucleus pulposus of the notochord?
Puborectalis What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the

rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. What are the five branches of the median cord of the
Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar brachial plexus?
Humerus (between the medial

What bone houses the ulnar groove?
epicondyle and the trochlea)
Maxillary division of CN V and What CN is associated with the sensory innervation

glossopharyngeal nerves of • Nasopharynx?
43
Glossopharyngeal What CN is associated with the sensory innervation
of • Oropharynx?
nerve
Vagus nerve What CN is associated with the sensory innervation

of • Laryngopharynx?
Pia mater What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord

and CNS tissue?
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the

Urinary trigone ureters enter and the urethra exits?
What is the term when the brachial artery is

Volkmann's contracture compressed, resulting in ischemic contracture of the
hand?
44
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary
Chordae tendineae muscles in the heart?
What is the lymphatic drainage of

Internal iliac nodes the pelvic organs?
What bursa is inflamed in

Infrapatellar bursa clergyman's knee?
What muscle is the chief flexor of the

Psoas major hip?
Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve,

What component of the ANS, when stimulated,
results in bronchoconstriction, whereas sympathetic
results in bronchoconstriction?
stimulation results in bronchodilation.
45
The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal What muscles in the hand adduct
interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB) the fingers?
Subarachnoid What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a

berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?
hematoma
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. What are the five terminal branches
Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.) of the facial nerve?
What structure of the knee is described thus? •

Medial meniscus C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the
tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament

Posterior cruciate ligament Prevents posterior displacement and has
medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia
46
Lateral collateral ligament Prevents adduction

ACL Prevents anterior displacement and has
lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia

Medial collateral ligament Prevents abduction
The sensory component is through the superior

What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor
laryngeal nerve, and the motor limb is via the
components of the cough reflex? Be specific.
recurrent laryngeal nerve.
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory

information from above the vocal cords while the What nerves provide sensory innervation above the
recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?
information below.
47
First pharyngeal groove; all others From what pharyngeal groove is the external
degenerate. auditory meatus derived?
What embryonic structure forms the adult male

Phallus structure? • Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum,
and glans and body of the penis

Labioscrotal swelling structure? • Scrotum

Urogenital sinus structure? • Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland,
bulbourethral gland

Gonads structure? • Testes, seminiferous tubules, and rete
testes
48
Urogenital folds structure? • Ventral part of the penis
Gubernaculum What embryonic structure forms the adult male

structure? • Gubernaculum testes

Mesonephric duct structure? • Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal
vesicle, and ejaculatory duct
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain

patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, Which PG is associated with
ACh, and catecholamines promote closure of the maintaining a PDA?
ductus arteriosus.
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the

6 weeks 10 weeks embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
49
Cleft palate What results when the palatine prominences fail to
fuse with the other side?
What is the term for a direct connection between the

Vitelline fistula intestine and the external environment through the
umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
Where do the primordial germ cells

From the wall of the yolk sac
arise?
What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency,

Male pseudo-intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these
resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male
individuals are 46XY.
external genitalia?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide Does the zygote divide mitotically or
meiotically. meiotically?
50
Third week During what embryonic week does the
intraembryonic coelom form?
Name the primary vesicle the following structures

Proencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Cerebral hemispheres

Mesencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Midbrain

Rhombencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Cerebellum

rhombencephalon). • Medulla
51
rhombencephalon). • Diencephalon

rhombencephalon). • Metencephalon

rhombencephalon). • Telencephalon

rhombencephalon). • Thalamus
Proencephalon* *diencephalon Name the primary vesicle the following structures

are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
derivative rhombencephalon). • Eye
52
rhombencephalon). • Pons

rhombencephalon). • Myelencephalon

derivative rhombencephalon). • Pineal gland

Mesencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Cerebral aqueduct

derivative rhombencephalon). • Neurohypophysis
53
rhombencephalon). • Third ventricle

derivative rhombencephalon). • Hypothalamus

rhombencephalon). • Lateral ventricles
What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or
high levels of hCG and may occur after a
choriocarcinoma)
hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy?
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with What syndrome is due to a

cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of
surfactant. deficiency of surfactant?
54
None; they are not formed until a How many oogonia are present at
girl reaches puberty. birth?
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens
failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
spiral. opens into the left ventricle?
Ligament teres What are the adult remnants of the following

structures? • Left umbilical vein
Fossa ovale What are the adult remnants of the following

structures? • Foramen ovale
What are the adult remnants of the following

Medial umbilical ligaments structures? • Right and left umbilical arteries
55
Ligamentum What are the adult remnants of the following
structures? • Ductus arteriosus
arteriosum
What are the adult remnants of the following

Ligamentum venosum structures? • Ductus venosus
Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral

fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic
Treacher Collins syndrome hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal
arch 1 abnormality?
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right What is the tetrad of tetralogy of
ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary
stenosis Fallot?
Hypospadia What is the term for the external urethra opening

onto the ventral surface of the penis?
56
What CN is associated with the •
CN V First pharyngeal arch?

CN VII Second pharyngeal arch?

CN IX Third pharyngeal arch?

CN X Fourth pharyngeal arch?

None; it degenerates. Fifth pharyngeal arch?
57
CN X Sixth pharyngeal arch?
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells
to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid
gangliosus) colon and rectum?
What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal

DiGeorge's syndrome pouch 3 and 4 failure?
The notochord What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the
ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the What is the term for failure of the testes to descend
scrotum within 3 months of birth. into the scrotum?
58
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a
Is a membranous septal defect more commonly
persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal
interventricular or interatrial?
defect.
The second pharyngeal pouch and What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a
groove pharyngeal fistula is formed?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG
urine by day 10. assays in the blood? In urine?
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
derivatives structure derived? • Middle ear
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
structure derived? • Superior parathyroid gland and
pouch derivatives ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
59
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and
derivatives thymus
Second M PITS for pharyngeal From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
pouch derivatives structure derived? • Palatine tonsil
Epispadia What is the term for the external urethra opening

onto the dorsal surface of the penis?
True. The elimination of the True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete

unfertilized egg is menses. unless fertilization takes place.
What adult structures are derived

Muscles of the internal eye
from preotic somites?
60
What disorder is associated with jaundice, white
Extrahepatic biliary atresia stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion
secondary to incomplete recanalization?
What hormone, produced by the

hCG syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates the production of
progesterone by the corpus luteum?
Four How many mature sperm are produced by one type B

spermatogonium?
They are all formed by the fifth All primary oocytes in females are
month of fetal life. formed by what age?
From what embryonic structure are the following

Truncus arteriosus structures derived? • The ascending aorta and the
pulmonary trunk
61
Sinus venosus structures derived? • The sinus venarum, coronary
sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium

Primitive ventricle structures derived? • The right and left ventricles

Bulbus cordis structures derived? • The aortic vestibule and the
conus arteriosus

Primitive atrium structures derived? • The right and left atria
After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses,

Eisenmenger's syndrome causing cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt,
what is it termed?
62
True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the
True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic
pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are
foregut derivative.
not a component of the gastrointestinal system.
What embryonic structure forms the following adult

Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud) structures? • Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis,
and ureter
What embryonic structure forms the following adult

Urogenital sinus structures? • Urinary bladder and urethra
Phallus, urogenital folds, and What embryonic structure forms the following adult
labioscrotal swellings structures? • External genitalia
Metanephros What embryonic structure forms the following adult

structures? • Nephrons, kidney
63
Urachus What embryonic structure forms the following adult
structures? • Median umbilical ligament
True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary

TRUE bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut
derivatives.
1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the

hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments) 2.
Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver
Name the four ventral mesentery
4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all derivatives.
other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at
the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of
pyloric outlet what embryonic disorder?
The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes

Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting
without splitting of the centromeres occurs during
occurs during meiosis II.
what phase of meiosis?
64
Third week; they are derived from Blood and its vessels form during
the wall of the yolk sac. what embryonic week?
What embryonic structure forms the adult female

Phallus structures? • Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and
spongiosum

Mesonephric duct structures? • Gartner's duct
Gonads What embryonic structure forms the adult female

structures? • Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii

Paramesonephric ducts structures? • Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper
third of the vagina
65
Labioscrotal swelling structures? • Labia majora

Urogenital folds structures? • Labia minora
Gubernaculum What embryonic structure forms the adult female

structures? • Ovarian and round ligaments

Urogenital sinus structures? • Urinary bladder, urethra, greater
vestibular glands, vagina
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is
mesenteric artery. its axis of rotation?
66
Testicular feminization syndrome What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops
(Dude looks like a lady!) testes and female external genitalia?
Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above

Hydatidiform mole 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus
are clinical signs of what?
False. It closes just after birth because the change in

True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to
pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial
birth.
pressure.
Metaphase II At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the

secondary oocyte arrested?
What is the name for failed recanalization of the

Duodenal atresia duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios,
bile-containing vomitus, and a distended stomach?
67
What remains patent in a hydrocele of
A patent processus vaginalis the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to
form into a cyst?
True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided True or false? The respiratory system is
from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum. derived from the ventral wall of the
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- foregut.
What is the name for failure of the

Patent urachus allantois to close, resulting in a urachal
fistula or sinus?
What structure is derived

The mouth from the prochordal plate?
What is the only organ supplied by the

Spleen foregut artery that is of mesodermal
origin?
68
Sacrococcygeal What tumor is derived from primitive streak
remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other
teratoma tissue types?
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut

Omphalocele and gastroschisis does not return to the embryo?
True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post

True or false? For implantation to occur the zona
fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post
pellucida must degenerate.
fertilization!
Cleft lip What results when the maxillary prominence fails to

fuse with the medial nasal prominence?
The primitive streak grows caudal to What is the direction of growth for the primitive
rostral. streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
69
During what embryonic week do
Third week somites begin to form?
Week four, and they remain In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial
dormant there until puberty. germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
Third week What embryonic week sees the formation of the

notochord and the neural tube?
What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel

Persistent truncus arteriosus receives blood from both the right and left
ventricles?
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. What three embryonic cell layers

Extraembryonic mesoderm form the chorion?
70
They are in the grey matter of the Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the
CNS. CNS or the PNS?
CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for Which three CNs send sensory information to the
the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus. solitary nucleus?
What syndrome is associated with the following

brainstem lesions? • Vertebral artery or anterior
Medial medullary syndrome spinal artery occlusion, resulting in contralateral
corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract
deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion
Medial pontine What syndrome is associated with the following

brainstem lesions? • Contralateral corticospinal and
medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera
syndrome medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI

Pontocerebellar angle syndrome brainstem lesions? • Slow-growing acoustic neuroma
producing CN VII deficiencies
71
brainstem lesions? • Occlusion of the PICA, resulting
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and
temperature loss, contralateral pain and body
syndrome temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and
ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop,
dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo

brainstem lesions? • AICA or superior cerebellar
Lateral pontine artery occlusion, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia,
ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss,
syndrome contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the
body, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral facial
paralysis, and hearing loss

brainstem lesions? • Posterior cerebral artery
Medial midbrain (Weber's) occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal
syndrome tract signs, contralateral corticobulbar signs to the
lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy
CN III and IV What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The

midbrain?
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The

CN IX, X, and XII upper medulla?
72
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in •
CN VI, VII, and VIII Pontomedullary junction?
CN V What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The

upper pons?
What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical

Accessory nucleus spinal cord?
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Supplies

Motor nucleus of CN V the muscles of mastication?
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Receives

Spinal trigeminal nucleus sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from
the face, scalp, dura, and the oral and nasal cavities?
73
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Forms
Mesencephalic nucleus the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell

The lateral vestibular nucleus projections in • The flocculonodular lobe?

The fastigial nucleus projections in • The vermis?

The interposed nucleus projections in • The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?

The dentate nucleus projections in • The intermediate hemispheres?
74
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the
cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its
What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar
neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the
cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?
cerebellum are inhibitory neurons, and they use
GABA as their neurotransmitter.
What three CNs are associated with

CN III, IV, and VI conjugate eye movements?
What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and

Hypotonia (rag doll appearance) diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute
cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?
The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or

What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal
loses balance when standing with eyes open. In a
column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the
dorsal column lesion, patients sway with eyes closed.
cerebral cortex?
(Don't forget this one.)
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the

Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly
middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts
responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
and fibers.
75
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels
What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive
in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk
information from the Golgi tendon organs and
and extremity information travels in the
muscle spindles to the cerebellum, helping monitor
cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and
and modulate muscle movements?
fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions.

What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract,
Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic
is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of
paralysis, increased muscle tone, and weakness are
remaining toes?
commonly seen in UMN lesions.
Ptosis (eyelid drooping), miosis (pupillary

constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) What is the triad of Horner's
occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers syndrome?
from T1-to T4 are obstructed.
What component of the inner ear • Contains

Semicircular canal perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and
deceleration of the head?

Semicircular duct endolymph and responds to head turning and
movement?
76
endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear
Utricle and saccule acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting
changes in head position?
What is the name of demyelination of the

Subacute combined degeneration, which is bilateral corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the
below the level of the lesion. spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12
deficiency?
What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies,

confusion, and gait abnormalities related to a lesion
Wernicke's encephalopathy in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial
nuclei of the thalamus?
MGB Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from

the inferior colliculus?
Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies, the

They are in ganglia in the PNS. CNS or the PNS?
77
What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord
Syringomyelia causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the
level of the lesion?
Suprachiasmatic What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual

input from the retina and helps set the circadian
nucleus rhythm?
White rami are preganglionic fibers, whereas grey Are white rami preganglionic or
rami are postganglionic fibers. postganglionic fibers?
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for
poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body recognizing a decrease in body temperature and
temperature). mediates the response to conserve heat?
CN V1, the occulomotor division of the trigeminal What CN transmits sensory

nerve, is the sensory component of the corneal reflex. information from the cornea?
78
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are
Lumbar splanchnics responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and
glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia.

It carries ascending sensory information in the
dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually synapsing
with second sensory neuron. In the brainstem
Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and
(DCML) and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the
spinothalamic sensory systems?
second neuron cell body sends its axons to synapse
in the thalamus. The third sensory neuron cell body
is a thalamic nuclei that sends its fibers to the
primary somatosensory cortex.
Accommodation What term describes the reflex that increases the

curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?
CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic
parasympathetic information from the tip of the fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax,
pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.) foregut, and midgut?
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for

Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in
recognizing an increase in body temperature and
hyperthermia.
mediates the response to dissipate heat?
79
Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on
Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary
axons of all other sources and synapse on granule nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
cells.
What four CN carry preganglionic

CN III, VII, IX, and X parasympathetic fibers?
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges and spinal
elevated-fetoprotein levels. cord project through a vertebral defect
Meningocele All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges project
elevated-fetoprotein levels. through a vertebral defect
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • An open neural tube
elevated-fetoprotein levels. lying on the surface of the back
80
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the
levels. vertebral arch
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and

LGB (think EYES) output. • Input from the optic tract; output projects
to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe

Ventral posteromedial nucleus output. • Input from the trigeminal pathways; output
to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe

Ventral lateral nucleus output. • Input from globus pallidus and the
cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex

output. • Input from medial lemniscus and the
Ventral posterolateral nucleus spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary
somatosensory cortex
81
Ventral anterior Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and
output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia
nucleus nigra; output to primary motor cortex

Medial nuclear group (limbic output. • Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex,
system) and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and
the cingulated gyrus

MGB (think EARS) output. • Input from inferior colliculus; output to
primary auditory cortex

output. • Input from the mammillary bodies via the
Anterior nuclear group (Papez mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus;
circuit of the limbic system) output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb
of the internal capsule
What is the name of a thin brown ring around the

Kayser-Fleischer ring outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?
82
What do UMNs
They innervate LMNs.
innervate?
What area of the brain serves as the

The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive major sensory relay center for visual,
secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the auditory, gustatory, and tactile
cortex has to go through the thalamus.) information destined for the cerebral
cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The Which of the colliculi help direct the
inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears. movement of both eyes in a gaze?
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral

(the LMN receives information from both the left and right
cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN
receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only VII differ from the rest of the CNs?
contralateral input.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
What syndrome is described by a lesion

in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger
agnosia, and right-left disorientation?
83
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Cervical vertebrae?
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Thoracic vertebrae?
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
pairs of spinal nerves. • Lumbar vertebrae?
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
pairs of spinal nerves. • Sacral vertebrae?
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Coccygeal vertebrae?
84
What are the three sites where CSF can leave the
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial
ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name
foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
the lateral and the medial foramina.)
What CNs arise from • The

CN III and IV midbrain?
CN V, VI, VII, and VIII What CNs arise from • The pons?
CN IX, X, and XII CN XI arises from the cervical

spinal cord. What CNs arise from • The medulla?
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in
hemisphere cannot communicate with the right the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the
primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can
corpus callosum. comprehend the command but not execute it?
85
False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain
True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the
barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated
blood-brain barrier.
transport.
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at
neurons in response to an increase in force or the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase
tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle in tension generated in that muscle? (This is
from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle. dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration
movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect
problems. pathway of the basal ganglia?
What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of

the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in
Klüver-Bucy syndrome placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory
behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?
When a patient closes the eyes while standing with

feet together, the visual and cerebellar components
of proprioception are removed, so you are testing the
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing
dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a
with feet together, what two pathways are you
positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion in the
eliminating from proprioception?
dorsal columns. The cold water caloric test mimics a
brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex
response. (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)
86
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis,
hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection
lesion. of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The

Anterior spinal artery ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord
and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
PICA What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The

cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy
distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile
prefrontal cortex) suckling or grasping reflex?
True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4

True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is
lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is
always abnormal.
always considered abnormal.
87
What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their
Ependymal cells luminal surface to move CSF?
The junction where the anterior communicating and

anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm
What is the most common site for an aneurysm in
expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper
cerebral circulation?
temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing
bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia
What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs

Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando) perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the
frontal and the parietal lobes?
What is the name of violent projectile movements of

Hemiballismus a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic
nuclei of the basal ganglia?
Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both

direct and consensual light reflexes, but the
What is the term for the type of pupil seen in
accommodation-convergence reaction remains
neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are lost?
intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal
tumors or multiple sclerosis.
88
True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle True or false? Intrafusal fibers form
fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch
reflexes. muscle spindles.
What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca's

Areas 44 and 45 area?
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary

Areas 41 and 42 auditory cortex?
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary

Areas 1, 2, and 3 somatosensory cortex?
Areas 5 and 7 What Brodmann area is associated with •

Somatosensory association cortex?
89
Area 4 What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary
motor cortex?
What Brodmann area is associated

Area 6 with • Premotor cortex?
What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual

Areas 18 and 19 association cortex?
Area 8 What Brodmann area is associated with • Frontal eye

fields?
Area 17 What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary

visual cortex?
90
What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke's
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40 area?
What is the fluid of the posterior

Vitreous humor compartment of the eye?
What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech

with the abilty to understand written and spoken
Expressive aphasia language seen in lesions in the dominant
hemisphere?
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar

The vermis homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls the
axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?

Lateral part of the hemispheres homunculus map, what area or lobe • Is involved in
motor planning?
91
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all
homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls
of medicine!)
balance and eye movements?
Intermediate part of the In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar

homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls distal
hemispheres musculature?
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as
both begin with M) a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is

described by masklike facies, stooped posture,
Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the
cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a
buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center
of gravity?
What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of

Middle cerebral artery the cerebral hemispheres?
92
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the
insipidus. production of ADH?
True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair

cells at the base of the cochlea, whereas True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate
low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
apex of the cochlea.
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety
result in obesity. center, regulating food intake?
What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright

Cones (C for color and cones) light to be activated?
What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the
The Purkinje cell cerebellar cortex?
93
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin What splanchnic carries preganglionic
parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut
with P.) and the pelvic viscera?
Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is Is nystagmus defined by the fast or
the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in
response to the initial slow phase. slow component?
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve
temporal hemianopsia) lesion
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Right calcarine

Left homonymous hemianopsia cortex lesion
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right LGB

Left homonymous hemianopsia lesion (in the thalamus)
94
Bitemporal heteronymous Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm
hemianopsia lesion
Right nasal Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right lateral

compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in
hemianopsia the internal carotid artery)
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left Meyer's

Left homonymous hemianopsia loop lesion of the optic radiations.
Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal

muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) What is the function of the
Remember, the function of the basal ganglia is to cerebellum?
initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.
Dysmetria; this is seen in a What is the name for inability to stop a movement at
finger-to-nose test. the intended target?
95
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and
occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will arrests sexual development, what area of the
be seen. hypothalamus is affected?
What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally

Calcarine sulcus into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle

Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate
fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor
extrafusal muscle fibers?
neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
Contracting both medial rectus muscles
Convergence simultaneously makes the images of near objects

remain on the same part of the retina. What term
describes this process?
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the

spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract
horn, crosses over, and ascends contralateral in the result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and
spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral temperature?
gyrus.
96
What ganglion supplies the postganglionic
Ciliary ganglion parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the
eye?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude
touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral
system) gyrus of the parietal lobe?
Superior olivary What CN nucleus receives auditory information from

both ears via the cochlear nuclei?
nucleus
What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor

of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the
thorax, foregut, and midgut?
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the

spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes
What sensory system is affected in the late spinal
dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with
cord manifestation of syphilis?
tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the
ground beneath their feet.
97
They innervate skeletal muscle.
What do LMNs
innervate?
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column
to the midline of the spinal cord. fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with
concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the
concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+. serum.
Sensory What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root?
Both What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal rami?
98
motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?
Motor What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral root?
Sensory What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root ganglion?

motor, sensory, or both) • Spinal nerve?
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level Describe the loss for each of the following in a
hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard
of the lesion syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?
99
Ipsilateral loss below the level of the Describe the loss for each of the following in a
lesion syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?
Describe the loss for each of the following in a

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard
syndrome) • LMN?
Describe the loss for each of the following in a

Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level
of the lesion
syndrome) • Spinothalamic tract?
PPRF What area of the brain acts as the center for

ipsilateral horizontal gaze?
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann

What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend
areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is unaware
spoken language and speaking in a word salad?
of the deficit.
100
Initiate and manage gross skeletal What is the function of the basal
muscle movement control ganglia?
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary What artery is formed by the union of the two
junction. vertebral arteries?
What disease is described by bilateral flaccid

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral
is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN)
lesion below the level of the lesion. beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and
progressing up or down the cord?
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway
through the D2 receptors. of the basal ganglia?
Although both pathways are associated with

disinhibition, the indirect basal ganglia pathway is Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway
associated with a decreased level of cortical result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?
excitation.
101
What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius) frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially
separates the parietal and temporal lobes?
What area of the brain acts as the center for

Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8) contralateral horizontal gaze?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate
second lumbar vertebra. and what is it called?
If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus,

The fast component is directed toward the affected
which way is the fast component directed, toward or
side of a cerebellar lesion.
away from the lesion?
Amygdala; it helps imprint an What area of the limbic system is responsible for
emotional response in memory. attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
102
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A
What is the name of the tremor that occurs during
tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal
movements and is absent while the person is at rest?
ganglia lesions.
What is the term for making up stories regarding

Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's
past experiences because of an inability to retrieve
syndrome.
them?
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the What frontal lobe cortex is associated with
organizing and planning the intellectual and
premotor area. emotional aspect of behavior?
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the What is the largest nucleus in the
midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and
dopamine as its neurotransmitters. midbrain?
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms

Left abducens nerve when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Left eye
can't look to the left
103
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms
when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus can't look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is
intact
Left abducens nucleus or right Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms
when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither
cerebral cortex eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in

aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding What area of the hypothalamus is
center and the satiety center; they are in different the feeding center?
zones.)
Indirect pathway (Tourette In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions

result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic,
syndrome for example) chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or

decreased reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased
What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes
muscle tone, and muscle atrophy What two areas of
when there is a LMN lesion?
the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget, LMN
lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!
104
Direct pathway; a good example is In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result
in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or
Parkinson's disease. absent spontaneous movement?
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the

What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN
decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the
corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal
pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle
decussation?
weakness.
Fovea What area of the retina consists of only cones and

has the greatest visual acuity?
The fasciculus What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column

fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?
cuneatus
What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by

Multiple sclerosis diplopia, ataxia, paresthesias, monocular blindness
and weakness, or spastic paresis?
105
What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the
Parasympathetic constriction of the pupil in response to light?
With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic

CN III axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus
associated?
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of

Internal carotid artery what artery?
What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary

The anterior nucleus of the thalamus bodies project to?
Astrocytes What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and

proliferate in response to CNS injury?
106
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the What causes slow writhing
thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy) movements (athetosis)?
What area of the brain is responsible for emotion,

The limbic system feeding, mating, attention, and memory?
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. What is the name of the postganglionic
Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
like the III of CN III.) papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. What is the name of the postganglionic
Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
ganglion and parotid gland.) parotid gland?
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular What is the name of the postganglionic

ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
enough.) submandibular and sublingual glands?
107
What is the name of the postganglionic
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the
parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
only ganglion left.)
lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1–L2)
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by
the anterior cerebral artery. the middle cerebral artery?
What tract is responsible for voluntary refined

Corticospinal tract movements of distal extremities?
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of Craniopharyngiomas are remnants

the optic chiasm. of what?
108
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate
Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory
nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar
neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
tract.
Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric

ganglias. (Remember all " Splanchnics" are Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia
Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.
are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)
CN IV What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface

of the midbrain?
What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by

The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension
contracting muscles in response to stretch of that
present in all resting muscle.
muscle?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell Where are the LMN cell bodies of
bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. the corticospinal tract?
109
What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the
Clarke's nucleus spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the
cerebellum?
The vertebral artery is a branch of

The subclavian artery what artery?
Tensor tympani What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the

mandibular division of CN V?
The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus

VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the
cross at the medullary decussation and ascend
postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?
What muscle of the middle ear is

The stapedius muscle innervated by CN VII?
110
What part of the inner ear contains the gravity
Saccule and utricle receptors for changes in the position of the head?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN What nucleus supplies the preganglionic

III) parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from

The raphe nuclei L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression,
and inducing sleep?
Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the

Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward
cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected
the side of the lesion.
side?
Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce
away from the side of the lesion. ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
111
True. They are the sensory True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate
component of a spinal reflex. in reflexes.
What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic

fibers from T1 to L1–2 and innervates smooth
Sympathetic chain ganglion muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic
viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and
limbs?
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are

Thoracic splanchnic fibers responsible for innervating the foregut and the
midgut?
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the Does light or darkness regulate the
retinal–suprachiasmatic– pineal pathway. pineal gland?
Name the three hormones produced

Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK
by pinealocytes.
112
Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic,
The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.
or neutral?
What ascending sensory system carries joint

The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain
position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and
and temperature.)
discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?
What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a

The vestibulo-ocular reflex target while the head is turning?
Rods What cells of the retina see in black and white and
are used for night vision?
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: •

Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear
Skeletal muscles striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin
overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules,
troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.
113
Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear
Cardiac muscle striated branched fibers, actin and myosin

overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules,
intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc
intermediate filament.

Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated
Smooth muscle fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding
pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and
calmodulin.
Duodenum What segment of the small intestine is associated

with Brunner's glands?
Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial
from the mother. DNA genetic disorders?
Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send What part of a neuron receives
information. information?
114
What type of collagen is associated with the
Type IV collagen basement membrane?
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion
penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium. of the urethra?
What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell production and secretion?
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells

Cilia and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular
configuration and movement as its function?
True. (They are quite a busy bunch True or false? The following are functions of
hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion,
of cells!) detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.
115
What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to
Major basic protein parasitic worms?
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum •
fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular
Secrete progesterone?
cells.
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum •
theca cells form from the theca interna. Secrete estrogen?
Integument (skin and its What is the largest organ in the

derivatives) body?
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and On what layer of the epidermis does
stratum spinosum) all mitosis occur?
116
What ribosomal subunit binds first
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
to the mRNA strand?
PALS What is the T-cell area of the spleen?
Copper (Cu+) What element is needed for the proper alignment of

tropocollagen molecules?
What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral

Zonula occludens (tight junctions) surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off
the outside environment from the rest of the body?
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in What organelle is responsible for
the nucleolus. ribosomal RNA synthesis?
117
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla,
Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy
What sweat gland type is associated with odor
(associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor
production and hair follicles and is found in the
production), and if confronted by an APE, your
axilla?
Adrenergic nervous system would be firing
(innervation).
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani

Fungiform papillae of CN VII?
True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts

True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is
to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive
the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.
blood and therefore oxygen.)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with

Spermatogonia (type the stage of sperm development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or secondary),
A) spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide
meiotically)

the stage of sperm development, spermatid,
Primary spermatocyte spermatocyte (primary or secondary),
spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/4n
118
Spermatid the stage of sperm development, spermatid,

spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/1n

Spermatogonia (type the stage of sperm development, spermatid,
B) spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide
mitotically)
Secondary Match the chromosome and haploid number with

the stage of sperm development, spermatid,
spermatocyte spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/2n
Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride

resynthesis, and Ca2+handling What are the four functions of SER?
IgA Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma

cells in the gastrointestinal tract?
119
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so What area of the lymph node is considered the
it is considered the thymic-dependent area. thymic-dependent area?
Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an What type of chromatin is

electron microscope image. transcriptionally inactive?
Both submandibular and sublingual glands are

Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and
innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous
the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous
and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces
secretions.
serous secretions?
Microglia. All others are What is the only neuroglial cell of

neuroectodermal derivatives. mesodermal origin?
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen

Outside the cell fibril?
120
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2.
Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of What are the four posttranslational modifications
glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate done by the Golgi apparatus?
amino acids
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, What is the epithelial cell lining the
which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx. nasopharynx?
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and What are the three epidermal
sebaceous) derivatives?
Stereocilia What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and
male reproductive tract called?
True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to

True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is
the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area
the first area affected during hypoxia.
affected during hypoxia.
121
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates What cell of the male reproductive system produces
Leydig cells. (Both start with L.) testosterone?
In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in Myelin is produced by which cells in
the CNS by oligodendrocytes. the PNS? In the CNS?
Langerhans cells (found in the What cell type of the epidermis functions as
stratum spinosum) antigen-presenting cells?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp
and germinal centers in the spleen. of the spleen?
The vagina What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by

stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?
122
What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell
by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of
maturation.)
germinal centers and B cells?
What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells,

M-cells and is in Peyer's patches to the gastrointestinal
lumen?
Chief cells What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that
produce PTH?
What skin type on the palms and soles is

Thick skin characterized by the absence of hair follicles and
presence of stratum lucidum?
What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the

Gap junctions direct passage of ions and particles between two
adjacent cells?
123
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome
and secondary as active) fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
What cell membrane structure increases the surface

Microvillus area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within
its structure?
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. What are the four components of the
Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen basement membrane?
Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes

What organelle synthesizes proteins that are
are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the
intended to stay within the cell?
cell.
Parietal cells (Remember, they What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach
secrete HCl, too.) secretes IF?
124
Chief cells What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach
secretes pepsinogen?
What hormone, produced by the granulose cell,

Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive
stimulates the endometrium to enter the
cycle mark the proliferative phase.
proliferative phase?
Macula densa What cells of the nephron function as sodium

concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?
Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the nucleus on an What type of chromatin is

electron microscope image. transcriptionally active?
What cells of the thyroid gland

Parafollicular C cells secrete calcitonin?
125
True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as True or false? The nucleus is the site
well as replication, occurs in the nucleus. of transcription.
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the How many days after the LH surge is
estrogen peak. ovulation?
In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred

Stratum spinosum from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural

Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells) crest, act as mechanoreceptors?
Renin What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete

in response to low blood pressure?
126
Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both
What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type
skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third smooth
of the esophagus?
muscle
What papillae are responsible for

Circumvallate papillae sweet taste?
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal What area of the lymph node
centers and therefore also most B cells. contains germinal centers?
False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it True or false? The gallbladder
concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water
follows the sodium. functions to produce bile.
True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic

postsynaptic membrane. membrane excites the neuron.
127
In the alveoli, what cell type is • for
Type I pneumocytes gas exchange?
In the alveoli, what cell type is • responsible for

Type II pneumocytes producing surfactant?
In the alveoli, what cell type is • part of the

Alveolar macrophages (dust cells) mononuclear phagocytic system?
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains
incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.) until the end of pregnancy?
What is the first epidermal layer without organelles

Stratum lucidum and nuclei
128
Ileum What area of the small intestine is characterized by
Peyer's patches?
What lymphoid organ has the following
Lymph nodes characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas,

encapsulation, germinal centers, and high
endothelial venules?
Collecting ducts, which make them readily What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of
permeable to water reabsorption. ADH?
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in What is the name of RER in
neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis. neurons?
What hormone causes milk

Oxytocin letdown?
129
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of
3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries the blood-brain barrier?
Melanocytes What cell type of the epidermis originates from the

neural crest?
If no fertilization occurs, how many days after

12 days after ovulation ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to
degenerate?
Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of
RBCs begin with R.) Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?
Vimentin What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds

the nuclear envelope?
130
What papillae are touch receptors on
Filiform papillae the tongue and send their sensations
via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
What is the most

Stratum corneum (keratinized) superficial layer of the
epidermis?
What syndrome is characterized by

Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) dynein arm abnormality resulting in
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary
infections, and infertility?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a What are the functions of the zonula
semipermeable barrier occludens and the zonula adherens
What is the name of the

Sarcoplasmic reticulum SER of striated muscle?
131
Ductus epididymis, which is lined by
pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia. Where do sperm go for maturation?
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th When is the first arrested stage of development in
and 22nd week in utero) the female reproductive cycle?
PCT What is the longest and most convoluted segment of

the nephron?
Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the What cells of the epidermis carry the
epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin. pigment melanin?
Large intestine. Water is passively What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi,
has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its
removed from the lumen. lumen?
132
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are What two areas of the skin do not
associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on
the palms and soles of the feet. contain sebaceous glands?
Alveoli; they are part of the Which of the following is not part of the conducting
portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi,
respiratory portion. alveoli, or larynx?
The inner membrane of the Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative
mitochondria (cristae) phosphorylation found?
What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal

Peyer's patch centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and no
encapsulation?
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde What generate anterograde transport of information

transportation of information. in a neuron?
133
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that
the core protein) binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Osteoclasts What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear

phagocytic system?
Inhibin, müllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for
binding protein normal male development?
What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to

Stratum granulosum act as a sealant?
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that

An internal elastic lamina veins do not?
134
Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water.
The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete
carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and HCO3-?
emulsification of fats.
What cell of the duodenum contains high

Paneth cells concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic
activity?
The venae recta maintain the gradient via What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical
countercurrent flow. to the concentrating ability of the kidney?
Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent

Afferent arteriole or efferent arteriole?
Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they What cell of the duodenum secretes

also secrete secretin. CCK?
135
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan What are the proteoglycans of
sulfate cartilage and bone?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female
beginning of menses.) reproductive cycle?
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian What is the second arrested stage of development in
follicle) the female reproductive cycle?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in What ribosomal subunit sizes do
the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made
in the nucleus. eukaryotic cells have?
What term describes how an action potential is

Saltatory conduction propagated along an axon?
136
The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and
What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14
14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative
days long?
phase varies
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is
of the mRNA. termed what?
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone;
Sertoli cell secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding

protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of
the spermatid?
What histone binds two

H1 histones nucleosomes together?
What is the major inorganic

Hydroxyapatite component of bone?
137
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla) derivatives?
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty
is completed in the mitochondria. acids begin?
Mitochondria What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA,

and can synthesize protein?
Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a

stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real How do delusions, illusions, and
stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not hallucinations differ?
shared by the culture.
Serotonin syndrome. It is also associated with high

What syndrome is characterized by sweating,
doses and MAOI and synthetic narcotic
insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, cramps, delirium, and
combinations (Ecstasy). Treatment consists of
general restlessness secondary to MAOI and SSRI in
decreasing SSRI dosage, removing the causative
combination?
agent, and giving cyproheptadine.
138
What is the legal age to be deemed competent to
18 years old (except if emancipated) make decisions?
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any With what stage of sleep is enuresis
stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with
a major stressor being introduced into the home. associated?
When more than one explanation can account for the

Confounding bias end result, what form of bias occurs?
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, in the

Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of
hippocampus, decrease the likelihood of learned
learned helplessness.
helplessness?
By causing rebound insomnia and How does ceasation of barbiturate

decrease in REM sleep use affect sleep?
139
What type of correlation compares
Spearman correlation two ordinal variables?
What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial

temporal lobe lesion, placidity, hyperorality,
Klüver-Bucy syndrome hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and
visual agnosia?
What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in

Transvestite fetishism female clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual
men?
What disorder is described as having • Unconscious

Somatoform disorder symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Malingering What disorder is described as having • Conscious

symptoms with conscious motivation?
140
What disorder is described as having • Conscious
Factitious disorder symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or What is the term for the ability of a test to measure
"precise") something consistently?
Small to medium-sized cerebral What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with
vessels vascular dementia?
What is the name of the program that deals with

Al-Anon codependency and enabling behaviors for family
members of alcohol abusers?
What level of mental retardation is characterized by •

Profound (I.Q. range < 20) Needing a highly structured environment with
constant supervision?
141
Severe (range 20–34) Having the ability to communicate and learn basic
habits but training is usually not helpful?
Mild (50–70) Being self-supportive with minimal guidance and

able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the
mentally retarded)?

Moderate (35–49) Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple
tasks but need supervision?
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Taking

Introjection (a sports fan is a good others' beliefs, thoughts, and external stimuli and
example) making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done
consciously, it is called imitation.)
Name these immature defense mechanisms: •

Regression Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g.,
enuresis)
142
Name these immature defense mechanisms: •
Blocking Inability to remember a known fact (aware of
forgetting)
Somatization Name these immature defense mechanisms: •

Psychic feelings converted to physical symptoms
What is the term for ejaculation before or

Premature ejaculation immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular
basis?
At what stage of cognitive development (according to

Concrete operations (6–12 years) Piaget) do children • See death as irreversible?

Formal operations (> 12 years) Piaget) do children • Have abstract thinking?
143
Preoperational (2–6 years) Piaget) do children • Lack law of conservation and be
egocentric?
Is it acceptable to lie, even if it protects a colleague

No, it is never acceptable to lie. from malpractice?
Prevalence increases. (Note: What happens to prevalence as

Incidence does not change.) duration increases?
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that With what stage of sleep are
we recall. nightmares associated?
What is the statistical term for the proportion of

Specificity (it deals with the healthy) truly nondiseased persons in the screened population
who are identified as nondiseased?
144
Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we In the elderly, what happens to total sleep time,
age, but REM sleep remains relatively constant percentage of REM sleep, and percentage of NREM
(20%) up to age 80, then begins to decline. sleep?
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is What happens to dopamine levels
associated with wakefulness. when we awaken?
Previous suicide What is the primary risk factor for

suicide?
attempt
IQ What is defined as a general estimate of the

functional capacities of a human?
What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles

These are the gross pathologic changes associated with diffuse cortical atrophy, decreased parietal lobe
with Alzheimer's disease. blood flow, and a decrease in choline acetyl
transferase activity?
145
What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder fantasies or desires?
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of What phobia is described as the fear
humiliation or hopelessness. of open spaces?
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild What antidepressant, which recently was approved
for general anxiety disorder, inhibits the reuptake of
dopaminergic effect.) NE and 5-HT?
What judgment states that the decision, by rights of

Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who autonomy and privacy, belongs to the patient, but if
best knows the patient, not the closest relative. the patient is incompetent to decide, the medical
decision is based on subjective wishes?
What ethnic group has the highest

Native Americans adolescent suicide rate?
146
Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and What are the three microscopic pathologic changes
granulovascular changes in neurons seen in Alzheimer's disease?
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of

When does most REM sleep occur, in the first or
sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the
second half of sleep?
night goes on.
Flumazenil What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist

used in the treatment of an overdose?
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant, What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene,
but the size, placement, erasures, and distortions are attempting to find out the individual's unconscious
relevant. perceptions in his or her life?
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway What is the biochemical trigger for
begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.) REM sleep?
147
What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test the patient, then asks for recall of as many as
possible?
1. Short attention span 2. What are the three characteristics of

Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity ADHD?
It is rare with normal grief; however, it is relatively Is suicidal ideation a component of

common in depression normal grief?
In what stage of sleep is it easiest to arouse a

During REM sleep sleeping individual?
Nominal scale (categorical, e.g., What scale separates things into groups without
male or female) defining the relationship between them?
148
What specifies how accurately the sample values and
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting
the true values of the population lie within a given
estimation for the population.
range?
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no, but if the

If the family member of a patient asked you to
information would do more harm than good,
withhold information, would you?
withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4,

Huntington's chorea. (Death in 15–20 years, often onset between the ages of 30 and 40,
via suicide.) choreoathetosis, and progressive deterioration to an
infantile state?
100%, with about 20% remaining What percentage of children born to HIV-positive
positive after 1 year mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
Name the reaction that appears in babies who are

temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This
Separation anxiety reaction usually begins around 6 months of age,
peaks around 8 months, and decreases at 12
months.)
149
Clonidine Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal,
ADHD, and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
What chromosome is autism linked

Chromosome 15 to?
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables

Positive correlation that go together in the same direction?
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables

Zero correlation with no linear relation to one another?
What type of correlation is defined as • One variable

Negative correlation that diminishes in the presence of the other?
150
When the results of a test are compared to findings
Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students in the class
for a normative group, what form of reference does
will pass)
the objective test use?
Null hypothesis (what you hope to What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are
disprove) a result of chance?
Anhedonia What is the term to describe the inability to feel any

pleasant emotions?
What is the term for involuntary constriction of the

Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of
outer third of the vagina to prevent penile
premature ejaculation.
penetration?
What is the term for the same results achieved again

Test–retest reliability on testing a subject a second or third time?
151
At what age does a child develop •
At birth (reflex) Endogenous smile?
At what age does a child develop •

8 weeks (response to a face)
Exogenous smile?
12 to 16 weeks (in response to At what age does a child develop •

mother's face) Preferential smile?
Id Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex

and aggression (instincts) associated?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is What enzyme is inhibited by

blocked, acetaldehyde builds up, and its presence in
excess results in nausea and hypotension. disulfiram?
152
It is best to begin with open-ended questions,
allowing patients to describe in their own words
What type of questions should you begin with when a
what troubles them. You can then move to
patient seeks your medical opinion?
closed-ended questions when narrowing the
diagnosis.
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that

Fixed interval after a desired response, the reinforcement is given •
On a set time schedule?

Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors) after a desired response, the reinforcement is given •
After a set number of responses?

Variable interval after a desired response, the reinforcement is given •
Varying in time?
Variable ratio If it is based on time, it is an interval, What type of scheduled reinforcement states that
and if it is based on the number of responses, it is a after a desired response, the reinforcement is given •
ratio. Varying in the number of responses?
153
At what stage of psychosexual development
Phallic stage (4–6 years) (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Very superior (<2.5% of the What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •
population) 130
High average What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •

110 to 119
Low average What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •

80 to 89
Borderline What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is

70 to 79
154
Average What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •
90 to 109
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •

Mentally disabled Below 69
Superior What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •

120 to 129
At what stage of sleep is GH output

Stage 4 elevated?
Case control studies cannot assess incidence or

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be
prevalence, but they can determine causal
assessed in • Case control studies?
relationships.
155
Cross-sectional studies determine prevalence, not Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be
incidence or cause and effect. assessed in • Cross-sectional studies?
Cohort studies determine incidence and causality, Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be
not prevalence. assessed in • Cohort studies?
NO!! Remember, only a judge can commit a patient.

A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 Can a physician commit a patient?
hours).
1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the

procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of
the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The What are the five pieces of information considered
alternative to this procedure and its availability necessary for fully informed consent?
(Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians
get in trouble.)
What is the term for the number of individuals who

Prevalence rate have an attribute or disease at a particular point in
time?
156
Validity (remember, reliability is necessary but not What is the term for the degree to which a test
the only thing needed for validity) measures what it is intended to measure?
What Freudian psyche component is described as •

Id (pleasure principle) The urges, sex aggression, and "primitive" processes?
Superego What Freudian psyche component is described as •

The conscience, morals, beliefs (middle of the road)?
Ego What Freudian psyche component is described as •

Reality, rationality, language basis?
Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid
increases with chronic alcohol abuse) relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?
157
Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted, "Necessity What is the term for new made-up
obliges us to neologize." (Abnormal use of
neologisms is known as neolalism.) words?
What rate removes any difference between two

Standardized rate populations, based on a variable, to makes groups
equal?
Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical
come and go as they please. treatment?
Reinforcement What is the term for any stimulus that increases the
probability of a response happening?
No, but it does interfere with performing complex

Does REM deprivation interfere with performance
tasks and decreases attention to detail. (Be careful
on simple tasks?
post call!)
158
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Gets
Dependent others to assume responsibility, is subordinate, and
is fearful of being alone and caring for self
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Orderly,

inflexible, perfectionist; makes rules, lists, order;
Obsessive-compulsive doesn't like change, has a poor sense of humor, and
needs to keep a routine
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Sensitive

Avoidant to criticism, shy, anxious; socially isolated but yearns
to be in the crowd
Sexual aversion What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual
contact?
disorder
Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are
them, but otherwise healthy persons do not. associated with • Dopamine receptors?
159
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are
persons have them, but schizophrenics do not. associated with • Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing

NREM sleep. Remember awake of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower
body, sleeping brain synchronization), muscle contractions, and lack of
eye movement or mental activity?
No, it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you Is spousal abuse a mandatory
can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are
mandatory reportable offenses. reportable offense?
Formation of an identity through issues of

What is the key issue surrounding teenagers'
independence and rebellion; they define who they
maturation?
are.
As the standard deviation increases, the greater the What is the relationship between chance of error and
chance of error. • Standard deviation?
160
As sample size increases, the lower What is the relationship between chance of error and
the chance of error. • Sample size?
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Colorful,

Histrionic dramatic, extroverted, seductive, and unable to hold
long-term relationships
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • In a
Borderline constant state of crisis, promiscuous, unable to

tolerate anxiety-causing situations, afraid of being
alone, and having intense but brief relationships
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Criminal

Antisocial behavior; lacking friends, reckless, and unable to
conform to social norms
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Grandiose

Narcissistic sense of self-importance; demands constant
attention; fragile self-esteem; can be charismatic
161
Look for broken blood vessels in the In what organ system would you attempt to localize a
sign for shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look
baby's eyes. for?
Infant Doe. Generally, parents cannot forego

lifesaving treatment, but this case states that there What case is known as "let nature take its course"?
are exceptions to the rule.
Reject it If the P value is less than or equal to .05, what do you

do to the null hypothesis?
What disorder is characterized by an alternating

Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego
pattern of depressed mood with periods of
syntonic.
hypomania for more than 2 years?
What projective test asks the patient to tell a story

TAT (Thematic apperception test) about what is going on in the pictures, evaluating the
conflicts, drives, and emotions of the individual?
162
What has proved to be the best way
Bell pad to extinguish enuresis?
Ordinal scale (e.g., faster/slower, What scale assesses a rank order classification but
taller/shorter) does not tell the difference between the two groups?
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must What is associated with prolonged

be monitored.) lithium use?
Ratio scale What scale has a true zero point, graded into equal
increments, and also orders them?
6 years old By what age should children be able to draw the

following figures? • Triangle
163
following figures? • Cross

following figures? • Diamond

following figures? • Square

following figures? • Circle
4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a

By what age should children be able to draw the
diamond last: circle, cross, rectangle, square,
following figures? • Rectangle
triangle)
164
What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison
Antisocial personality population?
Stanford-Binet Scale, developed in 1905, is useful in

What is the first formal IQ test used today for
the very bright, the impaired, and children less than
children aged 2 to 18?
6 years old.
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, dried fish,

sauerkraut, chocolate, avocados, and red wine) What type of foods should patients
should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when taking MAOIs avoid? Why?
tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
What form of anxiety, appearing at 6 months,

Stranger anxiety peaking at 8 months, and disappearing by 1 year of
age, is seen in the presence of unfamiliar people?
What are the three stages that children aged 7

1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment months to 5 years go through when they are
separated from a primary caregiver for a long time?
165
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone What five things are checked in the
5. Respiratory rate APGAR, Appearance, Pulse,
Grimace, Activity, Respiration APGAR test?
Birth defects, low birth weight (< 1500 g) with What are the top three causes of
neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), and
SIDS infant mortality?
Moving objects, along with large bright objects with Do newborns have a preference for
curves and complex designs. still or moving objects?
What is the name of the 12-step program believed to

Alcoholics Anonymous be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol
abuse?
How can you differentiate between a medial

Long-term memory is impaired in hippocampal
temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on
lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
memory impairment?
166
Trazodone What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual
side effect is priapism?
The patient decides about the health care she does or

does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade
means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it decision (legalization of abortion)?
harms the fetus.
The biofeedback model is based on the What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback
parasympathetic nervous system. model of operant conditioning?
The proportion of truly diseased persons in the

Sensitivity (it deals with the sick) screened population who are identified as diseased
refers to?
At least 15% How far below ideal body weight are patients with
anorexia nervosa?
167
True or false? According to social learning theory,
False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions
an external locus of control. of others control their fate have an internal locus of
control.
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence What is the term for an inhibited

is 30%.) female orgasm?
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2.

Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the What are the four exceptions to requirements for
patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. informed consent?
Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain
who have been raped or sexually abused. before, after, or during sexual intercourse?
Selection bias What type of bias is it when the sample population is

not a true representative of the population?
168
During stage 3 and 4 (remember, it In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a
is called deep sleep.) sleeping individual?
REM latency; normally it is about 90 What is the period between falling asleep and REM
minutes. sleep called?
Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted

standard could not apply because the patient had
never been competent, so no one knew what the What case is best known for use of the "best interest
patient would have wanted. Therefore, the decision standard"?
was based on what a "reasonable" person would have
wanted.
Disulfiram What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption

by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
According to Freud, what facet of the psyche

Superego represents the internalized ideals and values of one's
parents?
169
Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by
associated with sleepiness. daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?
What somatoform disorder is described as • Having a

Somatization disorder F:M ratio of 20:1, onset before age 30, and having 4
pains (2 gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?
What somatoform disorder is described as • La belle

Conversion disorder indifférence, suggestive of true physical ailment
because of alteration of function?
Body dysmorphic What somatoform disorder is described as •

Unrealistic negative opinion of personal appearance,
disorder seeing self as ugly?
What somatoform disorder is described as •

Hypochondriasis (they will begin with "I think I
Preoccupied with illness or death, persisting despite
have...")
reassurance, lasting longer than 6 months?
170
Somatoform pain What somatoform disorder is described as • Severe,
prolonged pain that persists with no cause being
disorder found, disrupts activities of daily living?
One-way What statistical test compares the means of many

groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an
ANOVA interval variable?
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by What disease is described by the following
teachers as ADHD with symptoms of characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics,
obsessive-compulsive disorder and learning average age of onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and
disabilities. association with increased levels of dopamine?
In Parkinson's disease, what area of the basal ganglia

Substantia nigra has a decreased amount of dopamine?
Enkephalins What naturally occurring substances mimic the

effects of opioids?
171
What disorder, experienced more than half of the
time for a 6-month period, is described as being
Generalized anxiety disorder fearful, worrisome, or impatient and having sleep
disturbances, poor concentration, hyperactivity, and
an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity?
50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most

What percent of sexual abuse cases are committed by
likely perpetrators, although stepfathers also have a
family members?
high rate.
Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal copper metabolism,

Wilson's disease (Remember chromosome 13 and and ceruloplasmin deficiency characterize what
hepatolenticular degeneration) disease, which may include symptoms of dementia
when severe?
To what does failure to resolve

School phobia separation anxiety lead?
What is the term to describe the

Mean average?
172
It increases REM and total sleep
How does L-tryptophan affect sleep?
time.
Your duty is to tell the patient, not the family. The

Should information flow from the patient to the
patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't,
family or vice versa?
not you.
Yes, as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. Can parents withhold treatment
If illness is critical or an emergency, treat the child. from their children?
Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has What is the name of the hypothesis
been defined) you are trying to prove?
50%, with 50% of them having the What percent of unwed mothers are
child teenagers?
173
Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and
What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4
decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning
sleep during major depression?
awakening
What 11–amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter

Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by
of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the
blocking substance P.)
periphery to the spinal cord?
True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is

less than the median is less than the
True or false? In a positively skewed curve the mean
mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution:
is greater than the mode.
the tail points in the direction of its name. positive
skew tails point to the positive end of a scale.)
What is the term to describe jumping from one topic

Loose association to the next without any connection?
What is the leading cause of school

Pregnancy dropout?
174
1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations
(while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive Name the four components of the
daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic)
Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM narcoleptic tetrad.
occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived
in sleep-deprived individuals. individuals?
Sleep latency What is the period between going to bed and falling
asleep called?
Dysthymia, which is also known as nonpsychotic What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood
depression. (Think of it as the car running but not and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2
well.) years?
Operant conditioning What form of conditioning is defined as a new

response to an old stimulus resulting in a
(reinforcement is after a response) consequence?
175
TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep, and What pituitary hormone is inhibited
dopamine levels decrease during sleep. during sleep?
Based on operant conditioning, what type of

Punishment reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus
stops a behavior?

Extinction reinforcement is described when • Removing a
stimulus stops a behavior?

Positive reinforcement reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus
reinforces a behavior?
Negative Based on operant conditioning, what type of

reinforcement is described when • Removing a
reinforcement stimulus reinforces a behavior?
176
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA = mental age
and CA = chronological age What is the formula to calculate IQ?
Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels What happens to NE levels in •

do the same) Major depression?
Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels What happens to NE levels in •

do the same) Bipolar disorder?
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to What law was adopted to shield physicians from
stop and help.) liability when helping at the scene of an accident?
What is the term for the number of new events

Incidence rate occurring in a population divided by the population
at risk?
177
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are What is the term to describe inability to recall the
past and possible assumption of a completely new
unaware of memory loss.) identity?
What classical conditioning therapy or modification

Aversive conditioning is described as • Pairing noxious stimuli to an
inappropriate behavior?
Exposure is described as • Forcing patients to confront their

fears by being exposed to them until they are
extinguished?

is described as • Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from
Systematic desensitization least to most), then teaching muscle relaxation
techniques in the presence of those fears until the
subject is not afraid anymore?
Recall bias. These problems arise in Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what
retrospective studies. form of bias?
178
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency, the Regarding neuroleptics, what is the relationship
lower the anticholinergic side effects. between potency and anticholinergic side effects?
Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should

develop this side effect. be monitored with frequent blood drawing?
True; also, stressful marriage, early sexual

experiences in the back of a car, and sex with a True or false? Being college educated increases a
prostitute all increase the risk of premature man's risk of having premature ejaculation.
ejaculation.
What is the term for the rate measured for a

Specific rate (e.g., men aged 55–60) subgroup of a population?
In what stage of psychosexual development,

Latency stage (6–12 years) according to Freud, do children resolve the Oedipus
complex?
179
95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and Where is lithium metabolized and
fluid intake is essential. excreted?
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view At what age do children begin to understand the
death as a form of punishment. irreversibility of death?
Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL)

(mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo What are the three benzodiazepines that do not
glucuronide conjugation, not via the cytochrome undergo microsomal oxidation?
p450 system.
The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales
oscillation, speech sound perception, rhythm, testing for the presence and localization of brain
tactual, and category testing. dysfunction?
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by •

Childlike behaviors, unorganized speech and
Disorganized schizophrenia behaviors, poor grooming, incongruous smiling and
laughter, and the worst prognosis?
180
Catatonic What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by •
Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic
schizophrenia obedience, waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture?
Paranoid What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by •

Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur, auditory
schizophrenia hallucinations, late onset, and the best prognosis?
No, you never refuse to treat a patient simply If a patient cannot pay, can you
because he or she can't pay. You are a patient
advocate. refuse services?
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times Does alcoholism increase the rate of
that of the general population. suicide?
What is the term for the dementia characterized by

Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise
decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive
deterioration in cognitive function.
function due to a cerebrovascular accident?
181
Range What is the term for the difference between the
highest and the lowest score in a population?
Decreased REM sleep and REM How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol
rebound during withdrawal intoxication?
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember, they How many attacks are needed over how much time
come out of the blue.) before panic disorder is diagnosed?
What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun

reversal, preference for inanimate objects,
Autism. Head-banging, rocking, and self-injurious
obliviousness to the external environment, lack of
behaviors are also common in autism.
separation anxiety, and abnormalities in language
development?
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is What major side effect of neuroleptics is
discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on characterized by pill rolling, shuffling gait, and
monitoring for side effects and prevention. tremors that abate during sleep?
182
Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out
of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are
protect the child first, not worry about legal wrong, are you protected from legal liability?
responsibility.
Yes Can advance directives be oral?
Bipolar disorder (manic-depressive Increased self-esteem, flight of ideas, decreased

sleep, increased libido, weight loss, and erratic
disorder) behavior are all symptoms of what disorder?
Without children (but don't think about this one for Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or
too long) without children?
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes. At what age does IQ stabilize?
183
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: •
Nonfluent speech, telegraphic and ungrammatical;
Broca's aphasia lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired
comprehension

Transcortical aphasia Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak
spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat

Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers
because the connection between Broca's and
Conduction aphasia Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension
preserved; inability to write or speak the statement
(can't tell you what you said)

Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by
Global aphasia lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble
repeating statements; poor comprehension with
telegraphic speech

Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired
Wernicke's aphasia comprehension; incoherent rapid, fluent speech;
verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements
184
What rare form of dementia is associated with
Pick's disease personality changes and affects the frontal and
temporal lobes?
Naloxone or Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression

associated with an overdose of opioids?
naltrexone
What rate is indicated by

False-positive rate 1-specificity?
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4)
in the first half of sleep. occur, in the first or second half of sleep?
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •

Stage 1 Disappearance of alpha waves, appearance of theta
waves
185
Stage 3 and 4 Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •
Delta waves
REM Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •

Sawtooth waves, random low voltage pattern
Being awake Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •
Alpha waves
Stage 2 Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •

Sleep spindles, K-complexes
What is the drug of choice for

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
treating ADHD?
186
True. PIF is dopamine in the True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough
tuberoinfundibular system. indicator of overall dopamine activity.
What is the term for failure to give up infantile

Fixation (arrested development) patterns of behavior for mature ones?
No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with normal Is masturbation considered an

sexual or occupational function. abnormal sexual practice?
Which benzodiazepine has the

Flurazepam longest half-life?
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the In the classical conditioning model, when a behavior
unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned is learned, what must occur to break the probability
stimulus must cease.) that a response will happen?
187
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic What is the most abundant neuron
acid, which is also the principal neurotransmitter of
the visual pathways. in the cerebellum?
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: •

Dissociation Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are
accepted but the form is changed for protection.
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Use of

Rationalization explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.
Acting out Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is

covered, not redirected).
Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff

Displacement flows downhill).
188
Fact without feeling (la belle
Isolation of affect indifférence)
Replacing normal affect with "brain

Intellectualization power"
Repression Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot

something!)
Undoing Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an

unacceptable behavior
Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if

Passive-aggressive conscious, you're just rude)
189
A complete opposite expression of your inward
Reaction formation feeling (e.g., arguing all the time with someone you
are attracted to when your feelings are not known)
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Odd,

Schizotypal strange; has magical thinking; socially isolated,
paranoid, lacks close friends; has incongruous affect
Schizoid Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Socially

withdrawn, seen as eccentric but happy to be alone
Name these cluster A personality disorders: •
Paranoid Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up;

uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks
hallucinations or delusions
Chi-square. What statistical method do you use when analyzing •

Cross-sectional studies?
190
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort What statistical method do you use when analyzing •
studies deal with incidence.) Cohort studies?
Odds ratio. (Case control studies What statistical method do you use when analyzing •
deal with prevalence.) Case control studies?
Absolutely not! Answer any question If a patient asks you a question and you do not know
the answer, do you tell a white lie or simply not
you are asked. respond?
True. IQ correlates well with education and academic True or false? There is a strong positive correlation
achievement but is not a predictor of success. between IQ and academic achievement.
What is the term for headaches, inability to

Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: concentrate, sleep disturbances; avoidance of
symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 associated stimuli; reliving events as dreams or
month.) flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event
beyond the normal range of expectation?
191
What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform
longer than 30 days with full return to former
disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
functioning capacity?
Facial expression (the second is What is the primary method of nonverbal

vocal intonation) communication of emotional states?
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number

Crude mortality rate of deaths • In the population?

Cause-specific mortality rate of deaths • From a specific cause per population?

Proportionate mortality rate of deaths • From a specific cause per all deaths?
192
Case fatality rate of deaths • From a specific cause per number of
persons with the disease?
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide Does being a female physician increase or decrease
nearly four times the general population. the risk of suicide?
Yes, by three to four times. Having multiple sexual

partners, being overweight, and pelvic pain and/or Are sexually abused females more likely to have
inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in learning disabilities than the general population?
sexually abused females.
Lead-time bias (remember, patients don't live longer What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival
with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.) rates?
The probability that a person with a positive test

Positive predictive value result is truly positive refers to what value?
193
Objective tests that base the result of the
Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain
examination on a preset standard use what form of
number correct to pass (e.g., the USMLE).
reference?
True. It is considered medical treatment, so it can be True or false? A patient can refuse a
withdrawn or refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.) feeding tube.
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism

makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye What are the CAGE questions?
opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)
What type of scale is graded into equal increments,

Interval scale (a ruler, for example) showing not only any difference but how much?
Teeth grinding is associated with With what stage of sleep are

stage 2 sleep. bruxisms associated?
194
What rate is indicated by 1-
False-negative rate sensitivity?
What drug is being given to HIV-positive mothers

Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is during labor and to the children after birth to
also used, cutting the rate from 20% to 10%. decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV
transmission?
What is the name of depression and mania

Rapid cycling bipolar disorder alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period?
Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and

REM sleep. Remember, awake brain desynchronization), saccadic eye movements, ability
in a sleeping body. to dream, and sexual arousal are all associated with
what general pattern of sleep?
Epstein-cardiac anomaly of the What is the teratogenic effect

tricuspid valve associated with lithium?
195
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH
wet, wacky, wobbly) What is the triad of NPH?
Sad but true. Some women can have multiple True or false? Only men have
successive orgasms. refractory sexual periods.
Münchhausen's syndrome In which syndrome does a person present with

intentionally produced physical ailments with the
(factitious disorder) intent to assume the sick role?
Anticipation Name these mature defense mechanisms: •

Preparing for an upcoming event
Altruism Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Helping

others without expecting any return
196
Name these mature defense mechanisms: •
Sublimation Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially

acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all
defense mechanisms)
Name these mature defense mechanisms: •

Suppression Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually
remember it)
Humor Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Easing

anxiety with laughter
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the

function described: • Speech; critical for personality,
Frontal lobe concentration, initiating and stopping tasks (do one

thing and begin a new without completion of the
first), abstract thought, and memory and
higher-order mental functions

Temporal lobe function described: • Language, memory, and
emotion (Hint: herpesvirus infects here commonly)
197
function described: • Intellectual processing of
Parietal lobe sensory information, with the left (dominant)
processing verbal information, the right processing
visual-spatial orientation

Basal ganglia function described: • Initiation and control of
movements

Cerebellum function described: • Skill-based memory, verbal
recall, balance, refined voluntary movements

Pons function described: • Important for REM sleep;
origin of NE pathway
Limbic system function described: • Motivation, memory, emotions,

violent behaviors, sociosexual behaviors, conditioned
responses
198
Occipital lobe function described: • Recall of objects, distances, and
scenes; visual input processed here
Correlation. No, correlation does not What is the degree to which two measures are
imply causation. related? Does it imply causation?
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT). What is the most common form of
(Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of
dementias seen in patients 65 years old.) dementia?
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty What is the only drug that does not
withdrawal!) have an intoxication?
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are

Ego syntonic comfortable with their own person and agree with
their sense of self?
199
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are
Ego dystonic uncomfortable with their own person and disagree
with their sense of self?
Which benzodiazepine has the

Triazolam shortest half-life?
What statistical test compares the means of groups

Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several
generated by two nominal variables by using an
variables at the same time.
interval variable?
What are the two ways to leave the

Recovery and death prevalence pot?
REM and stage 4 sleep; they What aspects of sleep are affected during
decrease. benzodiazepine use?
200
What is the term to describe a man who has • Never
Primary erectile disorder been able to achieve an erection?
What is the term to describe a man who has • The

Selective erectile disorder ability to have an erection sometimes and other
times not?
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is What is the term to describe a man who has • Used
the same as impotence.) to be able to achieve an erection but now cannot?
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs What stage of sleep is associated
most often in the first third of sleep. with somnambulism?
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the What are the three surrogate
patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests? criteria?
201
True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 True or false? Four-fifths of those who attempt
months. And 50% within the last month! suicide first give a warning.
Yes. (Remember, Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment for
transfusions.) religious reasons?
What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's

Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This expectation inadvertently is expressed to the
can be eliminated with double-blind studies. subjects, producing the desired effects? How can it
be eliminated?
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during What type of hallucination occurs

awakening, whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur
while one is falling asleep. during awakening?
About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered,

When attempting to make up sleep, what stage of
approximately half of REM is recovered, and only
sleep is recovered?
one-third of total sleep is ever made up.
202
When showing two pictures in rapid succession, you
split the pictures half a second apart, resulting in the
What is backward masking, and is there a positive
second picture masking the first (indicating poor
correlation with schizophrenic patients?
short-term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of
schizophrenic patients.
False. Separation, divorce, being widowed, and True or false? Being single increases
unemployment increase your risk, but being single
does not. your risk of suicide.
False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of True or false? Serious psychiatric illness is more
serious psychiatric illness as abortion. common after abortion than childbirth.
Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying What type of error is made if you accept the null
something doesn't work when it does.) hypothesis when it is false?
Stage 2, which accounts for approximately 45% of Most sleep time is spent in what
total sleep time, with REM occupying 20%. stage of sleep?
203
Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than
greater than the median is greater than the mode. the mode?
What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically

significant syndrome that affects social,
Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion
occupational, and/or academic achievement; occurs
(used if no other choice).
less than 3 months after a stressor; and abates less
than 6 months after the stressor is removed?
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of What type of personality test is the Rorschach
possibilities for the answers are projective. inkblot test, objective or projective?
The T-test (used when comparing What statistical test checks to see whether the groups
are different by comparing the means of two groups
two groups) from a single nominal variable?
What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at
Akathisia any time and is characterized by a subjective sense of

discomfort that brings on restlessness, pacing, sitting
down, and getting up?
204
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light What form of depression is due to abnormal
therapy) metabolism of melatonin?
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or

others. 2. The child is unable to self-care daily at the
appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or What three circumstances allow a child to be
guardians have no control over the child or will not committed to institutional care?
promise to ensure the child's safety even though they
refuse hospitalization.
What operant conditioning therapy or modification

Shaping (successive approximation) is described as • Reinforcing successive attempts that
lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)?

Stimulus control is described as • Having a stimulus take over the
control of the behavior (unintentionally)?
Biofeedback is described as • Providing the person with

information regarding his or her internal responses
to stimuli with methods of controlling them?
205
Fading is described as • Removing a reinforcement (without

the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a
condition?

Extinction is described as • Stopping the reinforcement that is
leading to an undesired behavior?
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of
Axis IV diagnosis. In what axis would you place •

Psychosocial and environmental problems
(stressors)?

Axis III diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Medical or
physical ailments?

Axis II diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Personality
and mental disorders?
206
Axis V diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Global
assessment of function?

Axis I diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Clinical
disorders (e.g., schizophrenia)?
Actually, yes. You should encourage your patient to

try other forms of medicine as long as they are not
Should you refer a patient to a form of folk medicine
contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness.
even if you don't believe in it?
You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your
patients, even if you don't agree.
In regard to motor development during infancy,

Grasp proceeds release choose the motor response that happens first. •
Release or grasp

Proximal to distal progression choose the motor response that happens first. •
Proximal or distal progression
207
Ulnar to radial progression choose the motor response that happens first. •
Radial or ulnar progression
Palms-up before palms-down In regard to motor development during infancy,

choose the motor response that happens first. •
maneuvers Palms up or down
Parental assignment and culture What are the strongest determinants

(not biology) of gender identity?
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are With what stage of sleep are night
unable to recall. terrors associated?
What type of bias is it when the information is

Measurement bias distorted because of the way it is gathered?
208
Verbigeration What term describes senseless repetition of words or
phrases?
The courts. These are legal, not Who decides competency and
medical terms. sanity?
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: •

Splitting Everything in the world is perceived as either good or
bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Not

Denial allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of
becoming aware of painful aspect of reality.
Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: •
Projection Person takes his or her own feelings, beliefs, wishes,

and so on and thinks they are someone else's. (e.g., a
cheating man thinks his wife is unfaithful)
209
The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus,
Which is the conditioned response, the conditioned
inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The
stimulus, the unconditioned response, the
needle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is
unconditioned stimulus in this case? A patient has
the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and
blood withdrawn and faints. The next time she goes
conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in the
to have blood taken, she faints at the sight of the
conditioned response (fainting at the sight of the
needle.
needle).
What three actions should take place when one

1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making
person threatens the life of another? (Hint: think of
the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.
the Tarasoff decision.)
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the
Limbic system description of the effects, symptoms, and results of

the lesion. • Apathy, aggression, inability to learn
new material, and memory problems
Dorsal prefrontal description of the effects, symptoms, and results of

the lesion. • Apathy, poor grooming, poor ability to
think abstractly, decreased drive, poor attention span
cortex (Hint: if the lesion is in the dominant hemisphere,
the patient will develop Broca's aphasia)

Dominant temporal description of the effects, symptoms, and results of
the lesion. • Euphoria, delusions, thought disorders,
lobe Wernicke's aphasia, auditory hallucinations (Hint:
the lesion is in the left hemisphere)
210
Dominant parietal lobe description of the effects, symptoms, and results of
(Gerstmann's syndrome) the lesion. • Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia,
right–left disorientation

description of the effects, symptoms, and results of
Orbitomedial frontal lobe the lesion. • Withdrawn, fearful, explosive moods,
violent outbursts, and loss of inhibitions

Nondominant parietal lobe the lesion. • Denial of illness, hemineglect,
construction apraxia (can't arrange matchsticks)

Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to
bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions)
the lesion. • Denies being blind, cortical blindness

Nondominant temporal lobe the lesion. • Dysphoria, irritability, musical and
visual abilities decreased
211
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24-hour period is What hormone's release is strongly associated with
during stage 4 sleep. stage 4 sleep?
M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 What is the male-to-female ratio for
(males commit more but females try it more) committing suicide?
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues, because they are What is the term for the total percentage of correct
the ones correctly identified) answers selected on a screening test?
Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying

What type of error is made if you reject the null
something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a
hypothesis when it is true?
type I error occurring is the P value.
Addition (They are mutually If one event precludes another event, their
exclusive.) probabilities are combined by what method?
212
True; military service and independent self-care by a True or false? Marriage emancipates a child less than
child over 13 years old also emancipate. 17 years old.
Amnesia. (The person is aware of What term describes the inability to recall personal
the memory loss.) information, commonly associated with trauma?
The death of a spouse. The higher the score, the

What is the most stressful event as determined by
greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6
the Holmes and Rahe scale?
months.
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients
polyuria and polydipsia. taking lithium?
Chi-square (when you are in doubt and have nominal What statistical test, using nominal data only, checks
data, use chi-square) whether two variables are independent events?
213
Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad What is the term for repetitive actions blocking
thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts. recurring bad thoughts?
False. You need clear evidence the patient is not

True or false? A patient has to prove his or her
competent; if you are unsure, assume the patient is
competency.
competent.
True. Yohimbine, sodium lactate, and epinephrine

True or false? Panic attacks can be induced by
can also induce panic attacks; they are considered
hyperventilation or carbon dioxide.
panicogens.
In what study, for ethical reasons, is no group left out

Crossover study of intervention?
Shuffling gait, cogwheel rigidity, masklike facies,

Parkinson's disease pill-rolling tremor, and bradykinesia describe what
form of dementia?
214
Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings of
Unipolar disorder (major worthlessness, decreased sex drive, insomnia, and
recurrent thoughts for at least 2 weeks, representing
depression) a change from previous level of function, describes
what disorder?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease. Patients first develop

What form of dementia is characterized by onset at
vague somatic complaints and anxiety, rapidly
age 40 to 50, rapid progression, infection by a prion,
followed by dysarthria, myoclonus, ataxia, and
and death within 2 years?
choreoathetosis.
The most frequent number

Mode occurring in a population is what?
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal Movement disorders are associated with what

ganglia) dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)?
Histamine What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation

and weight gain?
215
The probability that a person with a negative test
Negative predictive value result is truly disease free refers to what value?
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No,

What are the five Kübler-Ross stages of death and
they can be skipped, repeated, and completed out of
dying? Must they be completed in order?
sequence.
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis
hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
What hormone level increases in the

Prolactin first 3 hours of sleep?
What is the most widely used class

SSRIs of antidepressants?
216
Prevalence increases. (Remember, prevalence can What happens to prevalence as the number of
decrease in only two ways, recovery and death.) long-term survivors increases?
Hypertension What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular

dementia?
Pedophilia What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual urges toward

children?
What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual

Voyeurism pleasure from watching others having sex, grooming,
or undressing?
Exhibitionism What paraphilia is defined as • Having a recurrent

desire to expose the genitals to strangers?
217
Sadism What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual
pleasure from other peoples' pain?
Masochism What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual

pleasure from being abused or in pain?
What paraphilia is defined as •

Necrophilia Having sex with cadavers?
Zoophilia What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual fantasies or

practices with animals?
Coprophilia What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with

defecation?
218
Urophilia What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with
urination?
Frotteurism What paraphilia is defined as • A male rubbing his

genitals on a fully clothed female to achieve orgasm?
Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular

ACh; think about the ANS. junctions for all of the voluntary muscles in the body.
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually

Impaired ejaculation with • α1-Blockers?

Inhibited orgasm with • Serotonin?
219
Impotence What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually
with • β-Blockers?
Priapism What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually

with • Trazodone?

Increased erection and libido with • Dopamine agonists?

Erectile dysfunction with • Neuroleptics?
Median (think of it as the halfway What is the term for the point on a scale that divides
point) the population into two equal parts?
220
True or false? Pregnancy ensures
FALSE emancipation.
True. Being female, having positive symptoms, quick

True or false? Paranoid and catatonic schizophrenia
onset, and family history of mood disorders are all
are good prognostic predictors.
good prognostic predictors of schizophrenia.
What happens to prevalence as

Prevalence increases. incidence increases?
What type of correlation compares

Pearson correlation two interval variables?
What term is defined as a patient unconsciously

Transference. When it is from the physician to the
placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the
patient it is called countertransference.
physician in a caregiver or parent role?
221
Phase III. It is considered the What phase of Food and Drug Administration
approval tests • The efficacy and occurrence of side
definitive test. effects in large group of patient volunteers?
Phase I What phase of Food and Drug Administration

approval tests • The safety in healthy volunteers?
What phase of Food and Drug Administration

Phase II approval tests • The protocol and dose levels in a
small group of patient volunteers?
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required
error is greater to increase power?
If the occurrence of one event had nothing to do with

Since they are independent events, their probabilities
the occurrence of another event, how do you
would be multiplied.
combine their probabilities?
222
Double-blind study. It is the most scientifically What type of random controlled test is least
rigorous study known. subjective to bias?
Because incidence is defined as new events;

treatment does not decrease the number of new Why isn't the incidence of a disease decreased when
events. It does decrease the number of individuals a new treatment is initiated?
with the event (prevalence would decrease).
1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of What are the three
the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns posttranscriptional modifications?
Glutamine What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen byproducts

from most tissues in the body?
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid What two AAs have a pKa of 4?
223
2 acetyl CoA per glucose, producing 12 ATPs per How many acetyl CoAs per glucose
acetyl CoA, resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced
from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle enter into the TCA cycle?
What topoisomerase makes ssDNA cuts, requires no

Topoisomerase I (Relaxase) ATP, relaxes supercoils, and acts as the swivel in
front of the replication fork?
Shine-Dalgarno In prokaryotes, what is the name of the RNA

sequence that ribosomes bind to so translation can
sequence occur?
Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M

and F are affected; M-to-M transmission may be
present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skips
Autosomal recessive generations; two mutant alleles are needed for
disease; and affected children may be born of
unaffected adults?
What factors are needed for

Elongation factor-G and GTP
translation in prokaryotes?
224
What three AAs must patients with maple syrup
Isoleucine, leucine, and valine urine disease not eat?
2 ATPs, via the amino acyl tRNA How many high-energy bonds are
synthase enzyme used to activate an AA?
What water-soluble vitamin

Niacin (B3) deficiency results in pellagra?
Glucokinase What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax, high Km,

and low affinity for glucose?
12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic How many ATPs are generated per
acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle) acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?
225
HMP shunt What cytoplasmic pathway produces NADPH and is
a source of ribose 5-phosphate?
What is the main inhibitor of

Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
pyruvate dehydrogenase?
3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5' Where on the codon and anticodon does the wobble
end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA. hypothesis take place?
Excision endonuclease, which removes thiamine What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in
dimers from DNA patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?
Unconjugated What form of bilirubin is carried on

albumin?
(indirect)
226
Leucine and lysine What are the two ketogenic AAs?
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both Which organisms have polycistronic

start with P. mRNA?
As what compound do the carbons for fatty acid

Citrate, via the citrate shuttle synthesis leave the mitochondria?
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA What four substances increase the

4. ATP rate of gluconeogenesis?
1. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate

dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase Thiamine
pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital
With what three enzymes is thiamin pyrophosphate
to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative
(TPP) associated?
decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-coenzyme
A, providing entry of oxidizable substrate into the
Krebs cycle for the generation of energy
227
What test uses very small amounts of DNA that can
PCR be amplified and analyzed without the use of
Southern blotting or cloning?
What apoprotein is required for the release of

apo B-48 chylomicrons from the epithelial cells into the
lymphatics?
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which uses 2 ATPs for What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the
this reaction. AA's carboxyl group to the 3' end of tRNA?
What must be supplemented in patients with

Short-chain fatty acids medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD)
deficiency?
What form of AA is found only in

Hydroxyproline collagen?
228
In a diabetic patient, to what does aldose reductase
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts) convert glucose?
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in

HMG-CoA reductase cholesterol metabolism?
What is the term for the pH at which the structure

pI (isoelectric point) carries no charge?

Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase gluconeogenesis?
What is the drug of choice in treating a patient with

Probenecid, a uricosuric agent hyperuricemia due to underexcretion of uric acid?
229
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients What enzyme deficiency results in darkening of the
with alcaptonuria. urine when exposed to air?
Transcription factor In eukaryotes, what transcription factor binds to the

TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?
IID
What enzyme produces an RNA primer in the 5'-3'
Primase direction and is essential to DNA replication because

DNA polymerases are unable to synthesize DNA
without an RNA primer?
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty

Acetyl CoA carboxylase acid synthesis?
Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the

DNA polymerase-γ following information: • Replicates mitochondrial
DNA
230
DNA polymerase-α following information: • Synthesizes the lagging
strand during replication

DNA polymerase-δ following information: • Synthesizes the leading
strand during replication
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from What is the order of fuel use in a
gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat prolonged fast?
Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with

Shifts it to the right the addition of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3-BPG)
to adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?
What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by

Thymidylate synthase the following? • 5-FU
231
Dihydrofolate What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by
the following? • Methotrexate
reductase
Ribonucleotide What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by

the following? • Hydroxyurea
reductase
If a carboxyl group is the R group, it is acidic; if an What is found in the R group if the
amino group is the R group, it is said to be basic. AA is acidic? Basic?
What gluconeogenic mitochondrial

Pyruvate carboxylase enzyme requires biotin?

EF-2 and GTP translocation in eukaryotes?
232
DNA replication occurs during what
S phase phase of the cell cycle?
What is the end product of purine

Uric acid catabolism?
What causes transcription to stop in

The poly(A) site on the DNA
eukaryotes?
Succinate What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the

production of the following: • FADH2
dehydrogenase
Succinyl CoA What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the

production of the following: • GTP
synthetase
233
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the
Isocitrate dehydrogenase, α-ketoglutarate
production of the following: • NADH (hint: 3
dehydrogenase, and malate dehydrogenase
enzymes)
Methanol (wood What form of alcohol causes

blindness?
alcohol)
There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream.

How many base pairs upstream is the prokaryotic
The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream, and the
TATA box promoter?
-35 promoter site is self-explanatory.
What are the two essential fatty

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
acids?
Fatty acids cannot cross the blood-brain barrier; During a prolonged fast, why is the brain unable to
therefore, they cannot be used as an energy source. use fatty acids?
234
Conjugated (direct) What type of jaundice is seen in
hyperbilirubinemia Rotor's syndrome?
Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%; therefore, C + G = If a sample of DNA has 30% T, what
40%; then C = 20% and G = 20% (example of
Chargaff's rule) is the percent of C?
From where is the energy for

β-Oxidation of fatty acids
gluconeogenesis derived?
Frameshift Name the type of mutation: • The deletion or

addition of a base
Missense Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies a

different AA
235
Large segment Name the type of mutation: • Unequal crossover in
meiosis with loss of protein function
deletions
Silent Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for

the same AA
Nonsense Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for

a stop codon
What form of bilirubin can cross the

Unconjugated free bilirubin
blood-brain barrier?
What AA is broken down into N2O, causing an

Arginine increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
of smooth muscle, hence vasodilation?
236
What three things are needed to produce a double
NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5 bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic
reticulum?
Factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C What are the vitamin K–dependent
and S coagulation factors?
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' Is the hydroxyl (–OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3'
end. or the 5' end?
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, How many codons code for AAs? How many for
UAG) code for the termination of translation. termination of translation?
What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in

Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase glycolysis?
237
GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of What substrate builds up in
β-hexosaminidase A Tay-Sachs disease?
What pattern of genetic transmission is

characterized by no transmission from M, maternal
Mitochondrial inheritance inheritance, and the potential for the disease to affect
both sons and daughters of affected F?
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of

Glycogen synthase glycogen synthesis?
Sphingosine What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine

and palmitoyl CoA?
What causes an increase in bone mineralization and

Vitamin D Ca2+ along with PO4- absorption from the GI tract
and kidney tubules?
238
What two sugars can be used to
Glucose and galactose produce cerebrosides?
Homeodomain What group of eukaryotic regulatory proteins has a

major factor in controlling the gene expression
proteins embryonically?
The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in

What causes the lysis of RBCs by oxidizing agents in
a decrease in NADPH production, leaving
a G-6-PD deficiency?
glutathione in the reduced state.
All AAs have titration plateaus at

pH of 2 and 9 what pH values?
SER What cytoplasmic organelle carries the enzymes for

elongation and desaturation of fatty acyl CoA?
239
The promoter indicates where What is the binding site for RNA
transcription will begin. polymerase?
Vitamin A is responsible for vision What vitamin is necessary for

and epithelial health. epithelial health?
LDL What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL particle

acquires cholesterol from a HDL particle?
What structure of a protein describes the interaction

Quaternary structure among subunits?
What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the

Ea (activation energy) enzyme affects?
240
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels
Is the Lac operon activated or inactivated in the
and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP
presence of both glucose and lactose?
and CAP.
At the end of each round of

Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH
β-oxidation, what is released?
Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs 1 What is the rate-limiting enzyme on

ATP glycolysis?
What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the

Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase autosomal dominant disorder acute intermittent
porphyria?
Aldehyde What enzyme is blocked by

disulfiram?
dehydrogenase
241
Deficiencies in what enzyme result in insoluble
α-1, 6 transferase glycogen synthesis formation?
What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated

eIF-2 in the P site with the following: • Initiation
eEF-1 What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated

with the following: • Elongation
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated
reaches the A site, it results in termination. with the following: • Termination
What AA undergoes
Asparagine N-glycosylation?
242
What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP
Orotic acid (purine metabolism) (5-Phosphoribosyl-1-Pyrophosphate)?
What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors

Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP) proteins in the membranes and forms CoA?
Tyrosine What AA is a phenol?
Hormone-sensitive What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when

blood glucose levels decrease?
lipase
2 NADPHs per acetyl How many NADPHs are used per addition of acetyl
CoA into a fatty acid chain?
CoA
243
EF-1 and GTP elongation in eukaryotes?
Hypoxanthine (remember, IMP is a What purine base is contained in

precursor for AMP and GMP) inosine monophosphate?
What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4- the urea cycle?
Lactose must be present and glucose What two requirements must be met for the Lac
must be absent operon to be activated?
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period

G1 phase (gap 1) of cellular growth (translation and transcription)
before DNA synthesis
244
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period
G2 phase (gap 2) of cellular growth (translation and transcription)
after DNA synthesis
S phase Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period

of DNA replication (preparing for mitosis)
G0 phase Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Cells

cease replicating (i.e., nerve cell)
True. Remember, RBCs do not contain True or false? RBCs anaerobically use glucose in both
mitochondria, so they cannot metabolize aerobically. the well-fed and fasting states.
Succinyl CoA What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate
level phosphorylation?
synthetase
245
apo A-1 What apoprotein on HDL activates
lecithin–cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)?
What three AAs are used to

1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
synthesize the purine ring?
How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic

2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation NADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphate
shuttle?
What enzyme is deficient in patients

Phenylalanine hydroxylase
with PKU?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase What three steps of the TCA cycle
3. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase generate NADH?
246
ALA dehydrogenase and What two enzymes of heme
ferrochelatase synthesis are inhibited by lead?
What enzyme, induced by insulin and activated by

Lipoprotein lipase apo C-II, is required for chylomicron and VLDL
metabolism?
G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase What is the most common genetic deficiency
deficiency is second. resulting in hemolytic anemia?
Are the following conditions associated with a

Negative negative or positive nitrogen balance? • AA
deficiency
Positive Are the following conditions associated with a

negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Growth
247
Positive Are the following conditions associated with a
negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Pregnancy

Negative negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Uncontrolled
DM
Negative Are the following conditions associated with a

negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Starvation

negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Infection

Positive negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Recovery
from injury
248
negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Kwashiorkor
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA Why is the liver unable to
acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase). metabolize ketone bodies?
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gs

Cholera toxin protein to increase cAMP?
What two vitamins are inactivated when they come

Thiamine and folate in contact with acetaldehyde?
Name the end product or products: •

Palmitate Fatty acid synthesis
249
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in Name the end product or products: •
odd chain fatty acids) Fatty acid oxidation
What is the term for production of a DNA copy from

Reverse transcription an RNA molecule?
What two monosaccharides are produced when

Galactose and glucose lactose is hydrolyzed?
The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to What mineral is required for cross-linking of
function properly. collagen molecules into fibrils?
Southern blot What blotting technique uses the following for

analysis? • DNA
250
Western blot What blotting technique uses the following for
analysis? • Protein
Northern blot What blotting technique uses the following for

analysis? • RNA
Four high energy bonds, two from ATP in AA How many high-energy bonds does the cycle of
activation and two from GTP elongation cost?
PRPP What enzyme of purine synthesis is inhibited by

allopurinol and 6-mercaptopurine?
aminotransferase
True. Remember, carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

True or false? The urea cycle takes place in both the
and ornithine transcarbamoylase are mitochondrial
cytoplasm and the mitochondria.
enzymes.
251
What is the only fatty acid that is
Propionic acid gluconeogenic?
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki

DNA polymerase I fragments, 3' exonuclease activity, and 5' exonuclease
activity?
In what organelle does the TCA cycle

Mitochondria occur?
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA, are Do genomic or cDNA libraries contain introns,
fragmented, and contain all sequences found in the exons, promoters, enhancers, and are they
particular genome copied. fragmented?
What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase immunodeficiency?
252
True. Adipose depends on glucose uptake for True or false? Adipose tissue lacks
dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) production for
triglyceride synthesis. glycerol kinase.
In what form is excess folate stored

N-5-methyl THF in the body?
Translation What is the term for taking an mRNA molecule and

arranging the AA sequence forming a protein?
Ribonucleotide What enzyme is blocked by

hydroxyurea?
reductase
What protein carries free fatty acids

Albumin to the liver?
253
What substrate is built up in
Sphingomyelin Niemann-Pick disease?
True. Restriction endonucleases cut True or false? Methylation of bacterial DNA prevents
restriction endonuclease from cutting its own
only unmethylated DNA. chromosomes.
Lysine and tyrosine What two AAs have a pKa of 10?
What is the only enzyme in the body that uses

Homocysteine methyl transferase N-5-methyl folate?
Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and

How can you differentiate vitamin K from vitamin C
increased PT, and vitamin C deficiency has increased
deficiency by bleeding time and PT levels?
bleeding time and normal PT.
254
A gene (a rather simple definition What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a
but accurate) particular protein or RNA molecule?
The coding strand is identical to mRNA, and the Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical
template strand is complementary and antiparallel. to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
What enzyme is deficient in acute

Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
intermittent porphyria?
1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. Coenzyme A from

What five cofactors and coenzymes are required by
pantothenate 4. NAD(H) (from niacin or
tryptophan) 5. FADH2 (from riboflavin)
What pattern of genetic transmission affects only M

X-linked recessive and has no M-to-M transmission, and mother is
usually an unaffected carrier?
255
To what does aldose reductase
Galactitol convert galactose?
Xanthine, hypoxanthine, theophylline, theobromine, Name three purine bases that are not found in
caffeine, and uric acid are all purines. nucleic acids.
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated

Riboflavin (B2) with cheilosis and magenta tongue?
What is the precursor of all

Ceramide sphingolipids?
1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. What three substances stimulate

Epinephrine 3. Glucagon glycogenolysis?
256
The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at What is the primer for the synthesis of the second
the 3' end of the first strand is the primer. strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?
EF-Tu or EF-ts and What factors are needed for

elongation in prokaryotes?
GTP
MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the What restriction endonuclease site is destroyed in
restriction site. sickle β-globin allele?
What complex is needed for

Biotin, ATP, and CO2 propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Glutamate What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative

deamination of glutamate and produces the TCA
dehydrogenase cycle intermediate α-ketoglutarate?
257
What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase porphyria?
Allopurinol What is the drug of choice for treating a patient with

hyperuricemia due to overproduction of uric acid?
Vmax What is the maximum rate possible with a given

amount of enzyme?
From what do catalase, superoxide dismutase, and

Production of oxygen free radicals glutathione peroxidase defend the cell?
Phosphorylation of mannose What signals are used to direct an

residues enzyme to a lysosome?
258
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I urea cycle?
What liver enzyme, for triglyceride synthesis,

Glycerol kinase converts glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate?
What organ functions to keep blood glucose levels
Liver normal through both well-fed and fasting states and

produces ketones in response to increased fatty acid
oxidation?
What pattern of inheritance does

X-linked recessive G-6-PD deficiency follow?
What is the term for conversion of a dsDNA

Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet, and
molecule to the base sequence of an ssRNA
transCription comes before transLation)
molecule?
259
Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol
Scavenger receptor (SR-B1) from the periphery enter hepatoceles?
Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from

Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?
Thymidylate What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?

synthetase
What disease has a genetically low level of

Gilbert's syndrome UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in elevated
free unconjugated bilirubin?
What AA has a pKa of

Arginine 13?
260
Lesch-Nyhan What X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by
hyperuricemia, spastic cerebral palsy, mental
syndrome retardation, and self-mutilation?
2 ATPs, because RBCs use only How many ATPs per glucose are generated from
anaerobic metabolism. glycolysis in RBCs?
Glycogen What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in

glycogenolysis?
phosphorylase
G-C rich sequences, because they have 3 hydrogen

Would a G-C or an A-T rich dsDNA sequence have a
bonds, where A-T has 2 hydrogen bonds, resulting in
higher melting point? Why?
higher melting points.
As what AAs do muscles send

Alanine and glutamine nitrogen to the liver?
261
Ganglioside What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic
acid and amino sugars?
Affinity decreases; they are inversely What happens to affinity if you

proportional. increase Km?
Indirect or What type of bilirubin is found in

neonatal jaundice?
unconjugated
Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two What two AAs do not have more
AAs with only one codon. than one codon?
What bonds are broken by

External 3', 5' PDE bonds
exonucleases?
262
Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl phosphate
transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in synthetase be differentiated from an ornithine
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency. transcarbamoylase deficiency?
IDL Name the lipoprotein based on the following

characteristics. • apo E
LDL Name the lipoprotein based on the following

characteristics. • apo B-100
VLDL Name the lipoprotein based on the following

characteristics. • apo E, apo B-100, apo C-II
HDL Name the lipoprotein based on the following

characteristics. • apo A-1, apo E, apo C-II
263
Chylomicrons Name the lipoprotein based on the following
characteristics. • apo E, apo C-II, apoB-48
True. The energy status of the cell dictates if the cycle True or false? There is no hormonal control to the
is running or relaxing. TCA cycle.
What are the three tissues where triacylglycerols are

1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue produced?
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gi to

Pertussis toxin increase cAMP?

δ-ALA synthase heme synthesis?
264
Cori cycle What cycle is responsible for converting to glucose in
the liver the lactate produced in the RBCs?
S1 nuclease What enzyme is used to remove the hairpin loop

during production of cDNA from mRNA?
No, unsaturated fatty acids have Does a saturated fatty acid have
double bonds. double bonds?
What pyrimidine base is found •

Uracil Only in RNA?
What pyrimidine base is found •

Thymine Only in DNA?
265
What pyrimidine base is found • In
Cytosine both DNA and RNA?
What two AAs require vitamin C for

Proline and lysine hydroxylation?
What is the only organ in the body that can produce

The liver (in the mitochondria) ketone bodies?
The energy of What determines the rate of

reaction?
activation
Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome; What is the term for the number of trinucleotide
Huntington's disease is also associated with a repeats increasing with successive generations and
decrease in onset of age. correlating with increased severity of disease?
266
Dihydrofolate What enzyme is blocked by
methotrexate/ trimethoprim?
reductase
What fructose metabolism enzyme is deficient in

Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by eliminating patients with vomiting, apathy, diarrhea, jaundice,
fructose from the diet. proximal renal tubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, and
hyperuricemia?
PRPP What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in

purine synthesis?
aminotransferase
What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated

Vitamin C with poor wound healing, easy bruising, bleeding
gums, anemia, and painful glossitis?
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. What three substrates control the enzyme PEPCK for
the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to pyruvate in
Glucagon 3. GTP the cytoplasm?
267
What genetic defect is characterized by coarse facial
features, gingival hyperplasia, macroglossia,
I-cell disease is a result of a genetic defect affecting
psychomotor and growth retardation, club foot, claw
the phosphorylation of mannose residues.
hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and death in the first
decade of life?
3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the
produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs) substrate-level phosphorylations?
Cholesterol What pathway uses HMG CoA

synthetase in the cytoplasm?
biosynthesis
Where in the body is heme

RES(Reticular endothelial system)
converted to bilirubin?
What protein is required by prokaryotic RNA

Sigma factor polymerases to initiate transcription at the promoter
region of DNA?
268
Aspartate transcarbamylase pyrimidine synthesis?
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and What are the two actions of
increases bone mineralization. calcitonin?
What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficient in the following? • Selective T-cell
immunodeficiency
What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is

Adenosine deaminase deficient in the following? • SCID
HGPRT What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is

deficient in the following? • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
269
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it
Alanine cycle is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before
being taken back to the liver?
What is the primary end product of

UMP pyrimidine synthesis?
What pyrimidine base is produced

Uracil by deaminating cytosine?
Histidine, because of the imidazole ring found in the What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is
R group, is basic. 6.5 to 7?
What enzyme is deficient in

Ferrochelatase hereditary protoporphyria?
270
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria What elongation factor is inactivated by ADP
toxins work. ribosylation, preventing translation?
Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or

Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6
omega-6 fatty acid?
38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 How many ATPs per glucose are
ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2
ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs) generated in glycolysis?
Acetoacetate, acetone, and

Name the three ketone bodies.
β-hydroxybutyrate
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3.

What three bases are pyrimidines?
Thymidine
271
rRNA Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • The
most abundant form of RNA in the cell
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •

snRNA Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotes and
functions to remove introns from mRNA
mRNA Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •

Only type of RNA that is translated
tRNA Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •

Carries AA to the ribosome for protein synthesis
Ribozymes Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •

RNA molecules with enzymatic activity
272
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •
hnRNA Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are
precursors of mRNA
What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen

Glucose-6-phosphatase storage disease? • von Gierke's disease

Lysosomal α-1, 4-glucosidase storage disease? • Pompe's disease

Muscle glycogen phosphorylase storage disease? • McArdle's disease

Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase storage disease? • Hers' disease
273
In prokaryotes, what is the term for a set of
Operon structural genes that code for a select group of

proteins and the regulatory elements required for the
expression of such gene?
What are the two most common AAs

Lysine and arginine found in histones?
1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3.

What five pathways use SAM
Creatine 4. Methylation of cytosine 5. N-methyl cap
(S-adenosylmethionine) as the methyl donor?
of mRNA
What complex of the ETC contains

Complex 4 Cu2+?
6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are

How many ATPs per glucose are produced by
produced, and 2 NADHs result from production of
acetyl CoA, so 6 ATPs)
274
70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in What is the size of the prokaryotic
eukaryotes ribosome?
What type of fatty acid is associated with a decrease

Omega-3 fatty acids in serum triglycerides and cardiovascular disease?
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the What disease is produced by a deficiency in the
enzyme tyrosinase. enzyme tyrosinase?
VLDLs In what form are triglycerides sent to adipose tissue

from the liver?
What determines the rate of a

The energy of activation (Ea)
reaction?
275
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of
G-6-PD the HMP shunt?
Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and

What vitamin is necessary for the transfer of one
is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon
amino group from a carbon skeleton to another?
skeleton to another.
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline
is not a sphingolipid) and PO4?
What protein catalyzes the formation of the last PDE

DNA ligase bond between the Okazaki fragments to produce a
continuous strand?
What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by

Nephrotoxic oxylate stones drinking ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
276
Biotin (only if eaten in large What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency may result
quantities) from eating raw eggs?
Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following

β-Galactosidase genes code? • Z gene

Galactoside permease genes code? • Y gene

Lac repressor protein genes code? • I gene

Thiogalactoside transacetylase genes code? • A gene
277
What attaches to protons and allows them to enter
2, 4-Dinitrophenol into the mitochondria without going through the
ATP-generating system?
Hypocalcemia and 1-α-Hydroxylase activity is increased in response to

what two physiologic states? (hint: think of vitamin
hypophosphatemia D activity)
What is the major ketone body produced during

β-Hydroxybutyrate alcoholic ketoacidosis?
Isocitrate What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the

TCA cycle?
dehydrogenase
Name the pattern of genetic transmission

characterized thus: both M and F are affected; M
Autosomal dominant may transmit to M; each generation has at least one
affected parent; and one mutant allele may produce
the disease.
278
What bonds are broken by
Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds
endonucleases?
GLUT 2 Name the GLUT transporter based on the following:

• Found in liver and pancreatic β-cells
GLUT 4 Name the GLUT transporter based on the following:

• Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues
GLUT 3 and 4 Name the GLUT transporter based on the following:

• Found in most tissues, including brain and RBCs
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty

Carnitine acyltransferase-I acid oxidation?
279
Succinate What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II
of the ETC?
dehydrogenase
What is the term for chemicals that keep the pH

Buffers (remember that buffers are best when they
constant despite the formation of acids and bases
are used in a pH range near its pK)
during metabolism?
In the mitochondria, what complex is needed for

Biotin, ATP, and CO2 pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from
pyruvate to OAA?
How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic

3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation NADH oxidation using the malate shuttle?
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? •

Acetyl CoA carboxylase Fatty acid synthesis
280
Carnitine acyltransferase I β-Oxidation

HMG CoA synthase Ketogenolysis

HMG CoA reductase Cholesterol synthesis
3'-5' direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' What direction does RNA polymerase move along
direction the template strand of DNA during transcription?
False. Histidine operon is activated when there are True or false? Histidine activates the
low intracellular levels of histidine. histidine operon.
281
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the What organ is responsible for the elimination of
body as urea in the urine. excess nitrogen from the body?
What is the only way to increase

Increase enzyme concentrations
maximum velocity (Vmax)?
Name the two purine bases found in

Adenine and guanine both DNA and RNA.
EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation
ribosomal subunit is blocked by the following? • Tetracycline
EF-G of the 50S What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation

is blocked by the following? • Erythromycin
subunit
282
What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation
IF-2 of the 30S subunit is blocked by the following? • Streptomycin
True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5' exonuclease True or false? DNA polymerases can correct
activity for proofreading. mistakes, whereas RNA polymerases lack this ability.
Glycine and What are the two precursors of

heme?
succinyl-CoA
A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase What two factors cause PTH to be

in PO4- secreted?
What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP

Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they
shunt? Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or
catalyze are reversible.
irreversible?
283
Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine, and What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and
phenylalanine glucogenic?
What artificial sweetener must

Aspartame patients with PKU avoid?
Chromosome 5 Cri-du-chat syndrome results in a terminal deletion

of the short arm of what chromosome?
What substrate gets built up in

Glucosyl cerebroside Gaucher's disease?
What protein prevents ssDNA from reannealing

Single-strand DNA binding protein during DNA replication?
284
Conjugated (direct)
What type of jaundice is seen in
hyperbilirubinemia, a transport
Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
defect
cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA, are

What type of DNA library is made from the mRNA
continuous, and contain no introns or regulatory
from a tissue expressing a particular gene?
elements.
What is the most common cause of

Isoniazid treatment vitamin B6 deficiency?
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Gaucher's

Glucocerebrosidase disease?
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in •

Sphingomyelinase Niemann-Pick disease?
285
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Tay-Sachs
Hexosaminidase A disease?
Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, and What are the three exceptions to the rule of
immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci codominant gene expression?
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both How many kilocalories per gram are produced from
CHO and protein metabolism the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?
Increase the concentration of What is the only way to increase the

enzymes Vmax of a reaction?
Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic From which two substances are

acid phospholipids made?
286
Succinyl CoA What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter
into the TCA cycle?
What vitamin is an important

Vitamin A component of rhodopsin?
Palindrome What is the term to describe the 5'-3' sequence of one

strand being the same as the opposite 5'-3' strand?
What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in muscle,

Glucose-6-phosphatase accounting for its inability to use glycogen as a
source for blood glucose?
Rickets prior to fusion, osteomalacia if the deficiency What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to
occurs after epiphyseal fusion. epiphyseal fusion?
287
Crigler-Najjar In what disease is there a genetic absence of
UDP-glucuronate transferase, resulting in an
syndrome increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
What enzyme requires molybdenum

Xanthine oxidase as a cofactor?
1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate glycolysis?
pK (think of it as where half is base What is the term for the pH range where the
and half is acid) dissociation of H+ occurs?
What regulates the rate of ketone

The rate of β-oxidation body formation?
288
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4.
PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. What are the eight liver-specific
Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. enzymes?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The

How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA
TATA box is –25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box
box promoter?
is –75 bases upstream.
What is needed to initiate

IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
translation?
16S subunit What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the

Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
Complex I What component of the ETC is inhibited by the

following? • Barbiturates
289
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the
Cytochrome b/c1 following? • Antimycin A

Cytochrome a/a3 following? • Cyanide
Fo/F1 complex What component of the ETC is inhibited by the

following? • Oligomycin

ATP/ADP Translocase following? • Atractyloside

Cytochrome a/a3 following? • CO
290
Complex I What component of the ETC is inhibited by the
following? • Rotenone

Cytochrome a/a3 following? • Azide
Tryptophan What AA is a precursor of the following substances? •

Serotonin
Glutamate What AA is a precursor of the following substances? •

GABA
Histidine What AA is a precursor of the following substances? •

Histamine
291
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? •
Glycine/arginine Creatine
What AA is a precursor of the

Tryptophan following substances? • NAD
What AA is a precursor of the

Arginine following substances? • N2O
Homocysteine methyl transferase and What two enzymes are vitamin

methylmalonyl CoA transferase B12-dependent
What two post-transcriptional enzymes in collagen

Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?
292
What three organs participate in
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
production of vitamin D?
Folic acid What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated

with neural tube defects in the fetus?
G1 phase; G2 and S phase are What phase of Interphase is haploid

diploid (2N). (N)?
Glutamate What neurotransmitter inhibits the optic nerve

bipolar cell and shuts off in response to light?
Which of the following—DNA methylating enzymes,

Histone acetylases is a regulator favoring gene scaffolding proteins, histone acetylases, or
expression. All of the others favor inactivation. deacetylases—is a regulator of eukaryotic gene
expression?
293
Name the pattern of genetic transmission
characterized thus: both M and F affected; no
M-to-M transmission; affected M passes trait to all
X-linked dominant daughters, every generation; affected F passes trait to
both sons and daughters; a single mutant allele can
produce the disease.
Vitamin E What fat-soluble vitamin is connected to selenium

metabolism?
In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription
translation in the cytoplasm. and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?
What is determined by the

The folding of an AA chain
secondary structure of an AA?
What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with

Folate, vitamin B12, and vitamin B6 homocystinemia?
294
When the pH is more acidic than the pI, it has a net
If the pH is more acidic than the pI, does the protein
positive charge, and when the pH is more basic than
carry a net positive or net negative charge?
the pI, it has a net negative charge.
What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has

cDNA, when it is made from mRNA no introns or regulatory elements?
The one start codon, AUG, in eukaryotes codes for What is the start codon, and what does it code for in
methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine. eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?
Diphyllobothrium What parasite found in raw fish can produce vitamin

B12 deficiency?
latum
Methylating uracil produces what

Thymine pyrimidine base?
295
Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the
RNA polymerase III following: • Synthesizes tRNA, snRNA, and the 5S
rRNA

RNA polymerase II following: • Synthesizes hnRNA, mRNA, and snRNA

RNA polymerase I following: • Synthesizes 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs
ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very

sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test What is the primary screening test used to detect
because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV HIV-infected individuals? Confirmatory test?
virus.
How many covalent bonds per purine-pyrimidine

None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen
base pairing are broken during denaturation of
bonds, not covalent bonds.
dsDNA?
296
A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3 How many hydrogen bonds link
hydrogen bonds. A-T? C-G?
What DNA replication enzyme breaks the hydrogen

Helicase (requires ATP for energy) bond of base pairing, forming two replication forks?
Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is

negative in patients with CGD because there is no What test is done to diagnose CGD?
production of oxygen radicals.
The number of Ags that the Ab can What is the valence of an Ig

bind molecule equal to?
What is the name of the process that ensures that

Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell
each B cell produces only one heavy-chain variable
produces only one Ab.
domain and one light chain?
297
What is the major Ab of the primary
IgM immune response?
Cell-mediated What form of immunity is responsible for removal of

intracellular infections?
immunity
False. Direct tests detect Ags; True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to
indirect tests detect Abs. detect Abs in a patient?
Thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immunodeficiency What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich

is the triad of this X-linked recessive disorder. syndrome?
C3 deficiency What complement factor deficiency leads to •

Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
298
What complement factor deficiency leads to •
C5-C8 deficiency Recurrent gonococcal infections?

C1, C2, or C4 deficiency Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor
opsonization?

C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) Hereditary angioedema?
Which IgG cannot activate

IgG4 complement?
CD40 ligand Name the T-cell CD marker: • Essential for Ab

isotype switching (for B cell binding)
299
CD8 Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC
class I molecules
Name the T-cell CD marker: • Expressed on all T

CD3 cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T
cell receptor
CD4 Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC

class II molecules
CD28 Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a costimulatory

molecule in T cell activation
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and What three cells are essential for T-cell
thymic epithelial cells differentiation in the thymus?
300
B cells; macrophages and dendritic What is the only specific
cells are nonspecific. Ag-presenting cell?
Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and What is the tetrad of

increase in temperature Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
What is the name of the B cell that

Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)
secretes Ig?
There would be two Fab and Fc What would be the result if an Ab

regions. were cleaved with papain?
14 days What is the bone marrow maturation time for a

phagocytic cell?
301
LTC4 and LTD4 Which leukotrienes are associated with the
late-phase inflammatory response?
What is the term for the strength of the association

Affinity (one of each) between Ag and an Ab?
True or false? More Ag is needed to produce a

False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary
secondary immune response than a first immune
response.
response.
What is the term for the strength of association

Avidity (more than one binding site) between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple
antigenic determinants?
IgG What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, opsonizes, and is

the Ig of the secondary immune response?
302
Coombs test What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in
hemolytic anemia?
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember, 8×1=8 What subset of T cells recognizes the
(CD×8×MHC class I=8); 4×2=8 (CD×4 MHC class II
8) MHC class I Ags?
CD40 What cell surface marker is found on activated helper

T cells?
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM What are the five Ig isotypes?
Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial

Beta2-integrins cells for migration in and out of the blood during an
immune response?
303
What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated
Type II hypersensitivity reaction response against our own cells, receptors, or
membranes via IgG or IgM?
What is the term to describe the limited portion of an

Antigenic determinant (epitope) Ag that is recognized by an Ab?
INF-gamma What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell

function?
Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic What three cells are essential for
cells, and macrophages T-cell maturation?
Hapten (not What is the term for a single isolated antigenic

determinant?
immunogenic)
304
What are the two opsonizing
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
factors?
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with What is the most common Ig
recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI
disturbances. deficiency?
What is the name of the B cell–rich

Primary follicle (in the white pulp)
area of the spleen?
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic, it also acts as an What IL, produced by macrophages, is chemotactic
adhesive for neutrophils. for neutrophils?
What Ig prevents bacterial

IgA adherence to mucosal surfaces?
305
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection What are the three rules of clonal
of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound
Ag undergo clonal expansion selection?
What is a plasma cell's life

7 to 14 days expectancy?
What are defined by Ag-binding

Idiotypes specificity?
Affinity What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one

idiotype of IgG?
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell
the T cell to trigger activation activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?
306
Thymus-independent What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without
T-cell signaling?
Ags
1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier

What are the three rules governing a secondary
2. B-cell exposure to hapten twice 3. T-cell exposure
immune response?
to carrier twice
What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell-mediated

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type
response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or
because of the 48–96 hour latency)
complement?
Name the macrophages by location:

Kupffer cells • Liver

Alveolar macrophages • Lungs
307
Microglial cells • CNS
Mesangial Name the macrophages by location:

• Kidney
macrophages
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) What is the first human disease successfully treated
deficiency with gene therapy?
What receptors are the best markers

CD16 and CD56 for NK cells?
False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are True or false? Ag-Ab binding is
not linked covalently. irreversible
308
What three major cell lines participate in the
T cells, B cells, and macrophages acquired immune system?
ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG. What test is used to screen for HIV?
During what stage of B-cell development is IgM first

Immature B cells seen on the surface?
What Ig is responsible for Antibody-Dependent
IgE Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites, has a

high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils,
and is responsible for the allergic response?
True. B cell antigen receptors are True or false? B-cell Ag receptors

Abs. can be secreted.
309
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary
immune response (shorter lag period). immune response?
Opsonization By which process do Abs make microorganisms more

easily ingested via phagocytosis?
MHC class II Ags. This is What MHC class acts to remove

accomplished via CD4 T cells. foreign Ags from the body?
What disorder is characterized by

Pernicious anemia autoantibodies to IF?
What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1

IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13 cell function?
310
Valence What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites
on an Ig?
RBCs. That is why it is called red Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the
pulp. spleen?
Lipoxygenase pathway, from What is the name of the pathway

arachidonic acid that produces leukotrienes?
Mast cells What is the term to describe basophils that have left
the bloodstream and entered a tissue?
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial What are the three major functions
barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative
proteases of secretory IgA?
311
What IL is important in myeloid cell
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
development?
Isotypes What is the term for different classes and subclasses

of the same gene products?
IgM What is the first Ab a baby makes?
Flow cytometric What test, by using specific Abs to different

receptors, allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a
analysis blood sample?
PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic What is the name of the T cell–rich

sheath) area of the spleen?
312
What three complement fragments
C3a, C4a, and C5a are also anaphylatoxins?
CD40 Name the B-cell CD marker: • Required for class

switching signals from T cells
CD21; it is a complement receptor Name the B-cell CD marker: •

for cleaved C3 Receptor for EBV
CD19 Name the B-cell CD marker: • Used clinically to

count B cells in blood
What immunologic test checks for a reaction

Agglutination test between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)
313
Which leukotriene is chemotactic for
LTB4 neutrophils?
IgA What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and

external secretions?
Allotypes What are the genetic variants of a molecule within

members of the same species?
IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the

What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B
second step in the immune response, known as
cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the
Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF-alpha to activate
MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?
macrophages
Which protein prevents internal binding of self

Invariant chain proteins within an MHC class II cell?
314
There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still be What would be the result if an Ab
able to participate in precipitation and agglutination. were cleaved with pepsin?
Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a

byproduct (remember, catalase breaks down H2O2), Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous
allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for Disease not prone to develop infections from
the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are catalase-negative bacteria?
prone to catalase-positive bacterial infections.
gamma and delta What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly
found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?
chains
Which IL is associated with

IL-4 increases of IgG and IgE?
Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the

What branch of the immune system is acquired in
immune system has a slow initiation with rapid
response to an Ag?
responses thereafter.
315
False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags, but T cells True or false? T cells can recognize, bind, and
can recognize only processed Ags. internalize unprocessed Ags.
What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high

Type III hypersensitivity reaction circulating levels of soluble immune complexes made
up of IgG or IgM Abs?
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG, IgA, At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD
or IgE on its surface. be expressed on the cell surface?
DiGeorge syndrome, which is due to a failure of the

What T cell deficiency syndrome is associated with
third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development.
facial anomalies, hypoparathyroidism, thymic
Remember, B cell deficiencies are associated with
hypoplasia, and recurrent viral and fungal
extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are
infections?
associated with intracellular infections
Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects What is the stimulus for the classical
without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus. pathway activation?
316
What is the first membrane-bound
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
Ig on B cell membranes?
What region of the Ig does not

Hypervariable region change with class switching?
In MHC class II molecules, what chain blocks access

Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T
to the peptide-binding groove during transportation
cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound
within the cell, ensuring that the MHC class
to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)
II–peptide complex is transported to the surface?
What chromosome codes for HLA

The short arm of chromosome 6
gene products?
What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear

T cells, not B cells in heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
317
IgA What is the major Ig of the secondary immune
response in the mucosal barriers?
What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent

Ataxia-telangiectasia sinopulmonary infections, uncoordinated muscle
movements, and dilation of the blood vessels?
1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. What are the four chemotactic

Bacterial peptides agents?
Th2 What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell

division and differentiation?
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three Which region of the variable domain comprises the
per heavy chain) Ag-binding site of the Ab?
318
False; it is for the production of toxic True or false? The increased oxygen consumption
metabolites. after phagocytosis is for ATP production.
What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will

Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to actually be recognized and bound to an Ab and that
epitopes.) contains approximately five to six amino acids or
four to five hexose units?
C5a What complement factor or factors are associated

with • Chemotaxis?
C5–C9 What complement factor or factors are associated

with • Membrane attack complex (MAC)?
C3b What complement factor or factors are associated

with • Opsonization?
319
C3a, C4a, C5a What complement factor or factors are associated
with • Anaphylaxis?
As the isotype is switched, the Ab specificity does not What happens to the Ab specificity when class
change because it does not affect the variable chains. switching occurs in mature B cells?
What IL down-regulates cell

IL-10 mediated immunity?
Name the type of graft described by these

Autograft transplants: • From one site to another on the same
person
Isograft Name the type of graft described by these

transplants: Between genetically identical individuals
320
Name the type of graft described by these
Allograft transplants: • From one person to the next (the same
species)
Xenograft Name the type of graft described by these

transplants: • From one species to another
What is the name of the process in which cells

Chemotaxis migrate toward an attractant along a concentration
gradient?
Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and What are the two functions of the thymus in T-cell
T-cell education to recognize self from nonself differentiation?
Paracortex What is the name of the T cell–rich area of the lymph

node?
321
What cell surface marker do all T
CD3 cells have?
True. Common variable hypogammaglobinemia first

True or false? Patients with common variable
appears by the time patients reach their 20s and is
hypogammaglobinemia have B cells in the peripheral
associated with a gradual decrease in Ig levels over
blood.
time.
What is the Ig associated with the

IgM primary immune response?
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells
surface of platelets. carry on their surface membranes?
What Ig is responsible for activation of complement,

IgG opsonization, and ADCC and is actively transported
across the placenta?
322
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of What type of Ag do T cells
the MHC molecule recognize?
What Ig is the major protective

IgA factor in colostrum?
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the What is the second cell involved in
immune response. the immune response?
What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with

Negative selection. This helps to prevent
high-affinity Ag receptors for self that are
autoimmune diseases.
programmed to undergo apoptosis?
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. What five main oxidizing reactions are used to kill
Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid ingested organisms?
323
What Ig is associated with ADCC for
IgE parasites?
True. Remember, all nucleated cells (and platelets) True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I Ags on
have MHC class I Ags, and RBCs are not nucleated. their surface.
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the What Ig is associated with mast cell
heavy epsilon chain and basophil binding?
IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface What IL do T cells secrete to induce
to induce self-expression. T-and B-cell division?
CD4+T cells Development of what T cell line follows low affinity

for self-MHC class II Ags in the thymus?
324
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of What is the term for a substance secreted by a
leukocytes, it is called an interleukin. leukocyte in response to a stimulus?
Th2 cells What subset of CD4 T cells is responsible for mast

cell and eosinophil precursor proliferation?
1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell

What are the four major functions of the acquired
division or complementation 3. Control the level of
immune system?
the response 4. Remove foreign material
What endotoxin receptor is the best

CD14 marker for macrophages?
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a
Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance. specific immune response?
325
The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the separately encoded What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II
Beta-chain for class I Ags. Ag? (Hint: it's in the light chain.)
What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in

Bruton X-linked hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine
the bone marrow, no circulating B cells in plasma,
kinase deficiency leads to inadequate B cell
normal cell-mediated immunity, low Igs, and
maturation.
appearance by 6 months of age?
IgG3 What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal

A protein?
What mast cell mediator is a

Eosinophil chemotactic factor A
chemotactic agent?
What is the major Ig of the

IgG secondary immune response?
326
TCR What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts
to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
What is the confirmatory test for

Western blot HIV?
What is the name of the major chemotactic agent

Leukotriene B4 (LTB4) released from • Neutrophils?

IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma also) released from • Macrophages?

C5a released from • The blood serum? (Hint: it is a
complement factor.)
327
F-Met-Peptides What is the name of the major chemotactic agent
released from • Bacteria?
What cell surface marker is found on

CD19 blood B cells?
What is the name of the B cell–rich area in the lymph

Primary follicle of the cortex node?
1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer

IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag What are the four ways to
bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T down-regulate the immune system?
or B cell with anti-Ab
What is the only Ig that crosses the

IgG placenta?
328
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), an anti-RhD What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours
IgG antibody, prevents generation of RhD-specific after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from
memory B cells in the mother. their circulation?
IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is What IL is essential for lymphoid

for Lymphoid) cell development?
What type of cell can never leave the

Plasma cell lymph node?
HMP shunt Via what pathway is glycolysis increased after

phagocytosis?
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal
usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months. IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?
329
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping
hypersensitivity (type IV) the development of CD8 T cells?
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between What is the term for the strength of the association
valence numbers and avidity. between Ags and Abs?
What type of Ag do B cells

Free, unprocessed Ag recognize?
What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor

IgD; IgM is also correct. on the surface of mature B cells?
Which chromosome is associated

Chromosome 6 with MHC genes?
330
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. What is the term for processing an APC's
Class II molecules have an invariant chain that pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal
protects them from breakdown. granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for What is the most common precipitin test used in
Ig levels. clinical medicine?
What Ig activates the complement

IgM cascade most efficiently?
What assay is used to identify MHC

Microcytotoxic assay class I molecules?
IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil

Which IL increases IgA synthesis?
proliferation.
331
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier, it may become What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is
immunogenic. too small to elicit an immune response?
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as •

Myasthenia gravis Autoantibodies directed against ACh receptors?
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as •

purpura Autoantibodies directed against platelet integrin?

Goodpasture syndrome Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen in the
basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs?
Graves disease What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as •

Autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor?
332
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
What Ig activates the alternate pathway, neutralizes

IgA bacterial endotoxins and viruses, and prevents
bacterial adherence?
NADPH oxidase is deficient, resulting in an inability What enzyme is deficient in patients

to produce toxic metabolites. with CGD?
What subtype of IgG does not

IgG4 activate complement cascade?
T and B-cells belong to the adaptive branch, whereas

What two cell lines of the immune system do not
PMNs, NK cells, eosinophils, macrophages, and
belong to the innate branch?
monocytes belong to the innate branch.
333
What subset of T cells recognizes the
CD4+ T cells (helper) MHC class II Ags?
CD8+ T cells What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC
class I Ags in the thymus?
MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This

allows the body to eliminate tumor cells, What MHC class functions as a target for elimination
virus-infected cells—anything the body recognizes as of abnormal host cells?
nonself via CD8+ T cells.
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

basophils Be specific.
Primary What disease is associated with the

HLA-A3 allele
Hemochromatosis
334
Psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory What diseases are associated with
bowel disease, and Reiter's syndrome the HLA-B27 allele
What disease is associated with the HLA-DR2 and

Systemic lupus erythematosus HLA-DR3 alleles
Sjogren's syndrome, active hepatitis, systemic lupus What diseases are associated with
erythematosus (with HLA-DR2) and type 1 diabetes
(with HLA-DR4) the HLA-DR3 allele
Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 What diseases are associated with

diabetes (with HLA-DR3) HLA-DR4
What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it

It forms a germinal tube at 37°C. from other fungi?
335
What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via
fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites
metronidazole) in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted
flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?
Pseudomonas What is the most likely causative organism for a

patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot
aeruginosa tub?
What two viruses get their envelope not from

HIV and poxvirus budding but from coding?
Which type of hepatitis can cause

Hepatitis B hepatocellular carcinoma?
Gas gangrene is associated with

Clostridium perfrigens which Clostridium species?
336
Blastomyces Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with
nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper
Great Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern seaboard of
dermatitidis the United States, and southern Canada?
Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the

placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications,
Toxoplasma gondii chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and
convulsions?
What staphylococcal species is positive for

Staphylococcus aureus Beta-hemolysis and coagulase?
What vector is associated with

Anopheles mosquito malaria?
What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at

Pseudohyphae each septum that are commonly seen in Candida
albicans?
337
Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid
Echinococcus multilocularis cyst disease?
Which hepatitis virus is in the

Hepatitis C Flaviviridae family?
What nonmotile gram-negative,
Shigella non–lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod

uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is
transmitted by fecal-oral spread?
What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the

Coxiella burnetii environment?
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal

After the eclipse period virus present before or after the eclipse period?
338
HBc Ab What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for
hepatitis?
Listeria What small gram-positive, non–spore-forming rod is

a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the
cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk
monocytogenes products?
What is the only DNA virus that is

Poxvirus not icosahedral?
Which organism causes trench

Fusobacterium mouth?
False. Adenovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus True or false? All of the following are inactivated
in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are vaccines available in the United States: influenza,
inactivated vaccines. Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.
339
Name the Plasmodium species based on the
Plasmodium following information: No persistent liver stage or
relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and
falciparum crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern;
associated with cerebral malaria

following information:No persistent liver stage or
Plasmodium malariae relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts;
72-hour fever spike pattern

following information:Persistent hypnozoite liver
Plasmodium ovale stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid
trophozoites with oval, jagged infected RBCs;
48-hour fever spike pattern

following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver
Plasmodium vivax stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid
trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most
prevalent form worldwide
True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the

False. The PPD tests exposure to TB. patient has active pulmonary disease.
340
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral
calcifications but it is a parasite. calcifications?
What viruses are associated with

HPVs 16 and 18 cervical carcinoma?
What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with

flagella is oxidase positive, urease positive, and
Helicobacter pylori associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and
stomach cancer?
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus

GP41 is used for fusion?
HBeAg What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient

with hepatitis B?
341
Which organism causes multiple infections by
Borrelia recurrentis antigen switching?
What is the first Ag seen in an

HBsAg (incubation period)
individual with hepatitis?
With which DNA virus are Guarnieri

Variola (smallpox) bodies associated?
Enterobius vermicularis; the What nematode is known as

treatment is albendazole. pinworms? What is the treatment?
P1 protein What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the

respiratory epithelium?
342
Rotavirus What organism is associated with the following types
of diarrhea? Day care–associated diarrhea in infants
Clostridium What organism is associated with the following types

of diarrhea? Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or
perfringens gravies
Vibrio cholera What organism is associated with the following types

of diarrhea? Rice water stools
Vibrio What organism is associated with the following types

of diarrhea? Diarrhea associated with raw or
parahaemolyticus undercooked shellfish
What organism is associated with the following types

Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli of diarrhea? Bloody diarrhea associated with
hamburger ingestion
343
Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a
Sporothrix schenckii cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose
gardener's disease?
Which type of hepatitis is a

Hepatitis A (infectious) picornavirus?
Listeria What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its

tumbling motility?
What is the vector for Leishmania

The sandfly infections?
Eclipse period What is the term of the viral growth period when no
viruses can be found intracellularly?
344
Coxiella burnetii What organism causes Q fever?
1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. What are the three naked RNA

Reovirus (Remember PCR) viruses?
gag gene HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins

are products of what structural gene?
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES What facultative intracellular fungus is associated
and can result in hepatosplenomegaly. with hepatosplenomegaly?
Hepatitis E What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate

among pregnant women?
345
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does Which gram-negative diplococcus
not) ferments maltose?
No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by
useless. a prion?
What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's

Bacillus anthracis disease?
Coxsackie A What picornavirus is associated with

hand-foot-and-mouth disease?
Schistosoma have separate males What is the only trematode that is

and females. not hermaphroditic?
346
What water-associated organism is a weakly stained
Legionella (think air conditioners) gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for
growth?
With what virus are Downey type II

EBV cells associated?
False. Interferons are produced by virally infected

cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins
endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus, that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.
nor are they virus specific.
Aedes mosquito What is the vector for yellow fever?
What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular

Brucella rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized
dairy products and undulant fever?
347
True or false? All Proteus species
TRUE are urease positive.
Epidermophyton Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with

the following sites of infection? • Nails and skin only
Microsporum Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with

the following sites of infection? • Hair and skin only
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with

Trichophyton the following sites of infection? • Skin, hair, and
nails
P24 What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to

determine whether a patient is HIV positive?
348
Staphylococcus What genus of bacteria is described by
catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?
True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl
enterococci also grow in high-salt media. in its growth medium.
Molluscum What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors

and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
contagiosum
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling What two bacteria are associated with drinking
motility) unpasteurized milk?
Taenia solium What cestode causes cysticercosis?
349
HHV 6 What DNA virus is associated with exanthem
subitum (roseola)?
Which acid-fast rod is an obligate

Mycobacterium leprae intracellular parasite?
Gametocytes What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by

mosquitoes?
What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires

Bordetella pertussis Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengou medium for growth?
False. Staphylococci have catalase; True or false? Streptococci have

streptococci do not. catalase.
350
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae What three bacteria are positive to
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae quellung reactive test?
A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps,

vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours
Staphylococcus aureus after eating potato salad at a picnic; what is the most
likely responsible organism?
True or false? All spore formers are

TRUE gram positive.
Hepadnavirus What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse
transcriptase enzyme?
Integrase What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral

dsDNA into the host?
351
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular
carcinoma?
What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod

Clostridium botulinum blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ, resulting in
reversible flaccid paralysis?
Protease, integrase, and reverse Name three products of HIV's pol

transcriptase gene.
What form of Plasmodium species

Hypnozoite affects the liver?
What small coagulase-positive, gram-negative rod

Yersinia pestis with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular
parasite resulting in buboes?
352
What hemoflagellate species is the
Trypanosoma cruzi cause of Chagas disease?
To what host cell receptor does the

ACh receptor rabies virus attach?
Which hepatitis virus is in the

Hepatitis A Picornaviridae family?
Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide

Abs to HBsAg immunity?
Blastoconidia What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding

daughter yeast cell?
353
Which of the following characteristics accurately
describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? •
Parasites Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no
cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and
meiosis

describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Small
Bacteria prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no
sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall;
replicate by binary fission

describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? •
Fungi Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes;
chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane;
replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Viruses describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? •

Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the
host cell; no cell walls
What mosquito is the vector for

Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
dengue fever?
354
False. Meningococcus is True or false? Gonococcus is
encapsulated; Gonococcus is not. encapsulated.
Variola virus What virus is associated with

Guarnieri bodies?
(Smallpox)
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external

After the latent period virus present before or after the latent period?
What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive

and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary
Nocardia asteroides bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed
patients?
What obligate extracellular fungus is silver

Pneumocystis carinii stain–positive and is associated with pneumonia in
patients with AIDS?
355
What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile
Salmonella typhi anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with
enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?
What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in

Vibrio vulnificus a patient who was cut by an oyster shell?
What virus is associated with the

Calicivirus Norwalk agent?
Streptococcus Describe the organism based on the following

information: • Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus;
agalactiae positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus Describe the organism based on the following

information: • Alpha-Hemolytic Streptococcus; lysed
pneumoniae) by bile; sensitive to Optochin
356
Describe the organism based on the following
Streptococcus viridans information: • Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not
lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin
Streptococcus Describe the organism based on the following

information: • Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
pyogenes sensitive to bacitracin
Clostridium What is the only nonmotile

pathogenic Clostridium species?
perfringens
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative

If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used as
sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires
mRNA or is a template needed?
special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host,

Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the
whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the
intermediate or definitive host?
intermediate host.
357
Which streptococcal species is characterized by being
Enterococcus (Streptococcus catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black,
faecalis) producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary
and urinary tract infections?
1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma What three carcinomas are

3. Thymic carcinoma associated with EBV?
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Which organism causes trench

Bartonella quintana) fever?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are
conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and
symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days. Chlamydia differentiated?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to
ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of
toxin) glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?
358
True or false? All of the following are live attenuated
True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the
vaccines available in the United States: measles,
Sabin polio vaccine.
mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.
What family do the following viruses

Filovirus belong to? • Ebola
Bunyavirus What family do the following viruses belong to? •

California encephalitis
Bunyavirus What family do the following viruses belong to? •

Hantavirus

Rhabdovirus belong to? • Rabies
359
Paramyxovirus belong to? • RSV

Paramyxovirus belong to? • Measles
What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative

Campylobacter jejuni curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious
diarrhea at low doses (<500)?
Legionella What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle

silver stain?
The vaccine contains 23 capsular How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular

polysaccharides. polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?
360
Trichuris trichiura is treated with What nematode is known as
albendazole. whipworms? What is the treatment?
Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin

Streptolysin O is immunogenic?
A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative

Neisseria gonorrhoeae diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you
diagnose?
A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with

Arthroconidia with hyphae KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with

Measles (rubeola) cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis with photophobia?
361
M12 strains Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is
associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis What are the three C's of measles?
Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, What is the term given to

and togavirus) arthropod-borne viruses?
Which organism causes Weil's

Leptospira disease?
Sporozoites What form of the Plasmodium species are injected

into humans by mosquitoes?
362
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA What ssDNA virus must make
virus) dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
What is the vector of African

The tsetse fly sleeping sickness?
What HIV enzyme produces a

Reverse transcriptase dsDNA provirus?
What non–spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod

produces bull neck, sore throat with
Corynebacterium diphtheriae pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes
respiratory obstructions?
Diphyllobothrium What organism is associated with

megaloblastic anemia?
latum
363
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which
Tinea favosa (favus) results in permanent hair loss and is highly
contagious?
What are the first intermediate hosts

Snails for trematodes?
Y, W-135, and C and A capsular What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in
polysaccharides the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
What is the only encapsulated fungal

Cryptococcus pathogen?
What type of spore is asexual and

Conidia formed of hyphae?
364
Plasmodium malariae; the others What is the only Plasmodium that is
are tertian. quartan?
Serratia Which bacteria are associated with the following

pigment production? • Red pigmentation
Which bacteria are associated with the following

Corynebacterium diphtheriae pigment production? • Black-gray pigmentation
Pseudomonas Which bacteria are associated with the following

pigment production? • Pyocyanin (blue-green)
aeruginosa
Which bacteria are associated with the following

Staphylococcus aureus pigment production? • Yellow pigmentation
365
Which carcinoma—Burkitt's lymphoma,
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular
B and C infections, not with EBV. carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma—is not associated
with EBV?
K1 capsule What capsular serotype is associated with

Escherichia coli– induced meningitis?
What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have

HBsAg and HBeAg chronic active hepatitis?
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which
antibodies c and e. Abs do you see?
True or false? All streptococci are

TRUE catalase-negative
366
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to
The first trimester congenital rubella syndrome?
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth

Vesicular stomatitis virus
disease?
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on

Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium. chocolate agar? Thayer- Martin medium?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces
metronidazole) a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; enveloped;

Poxvirus virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the
cytoplasm :
367
Herpes virus Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; nuclear
envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Adenovirus Name the DNA virus: • Linear dsDNA; naked;

replicates in the nucleus
Parvovirus Name the DNA virus: • ssDNA; naked; icosahedral;

replicates in the nucleus
Name the DNA virus: • Partially dsDNA circular;

Hepadnavirus enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA
intermediate; replicates in the nucleus
Papovavirus Name the DNA virus: • Circular dsDNA; naked;

icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
368
Cryptococcus What fungus is urease positive?
What bacterium is characterized by large

boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is
Bacillus anthracis spore-forming, aerobic, and associated with
cutaneous infections and woolsorter's disease?
Yes Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?
True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are
virion-associated polymerases too. enveloped.
What urease-positive non–lactose-fermenting

Proteus gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is
associated with staghorn renal calculi?
369
What two viruses are associated with
Varicella virus and influenza virus
Reye's syndrome?
Which organism releases endotoxins

Neisseria meningitidis prior to cell death?
Clue cells are associated with which organism that

Gardnerella vaginalis causes vaginal discharge?
What is the name of the

Rhabdovirus bullet-shaped virus?
Cryptococcus What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of

the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a
neoformans black background?
370
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B
HBsAg as its envelope virus to be infective?
Which type of hepatitis is a

Hepatitis E (enteric) calicivirus?
What genus is known as the smallest free living

Mycoplasma bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the
membrane)
Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get What three organs can be affected by
megas: cardiomegaly, megaesophagus, and
megacolon. Trypanosoma cruzi?
Which serotypes of HPV are

HPV serotypes 1 and 4 associated with plantar warts?
371
What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is
Escherichia coli motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?
Reovirus What is the only dsRNA virus?
1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. What are the four segmented RNA

Reovirus Remember BOAR viruses?
What type of Plasmodium affects •

Plasmodium malariae Only mature RBCs?
What type of Plasmodium affects •

Plasmodium vivax Only reticulocytes?
372
Plasmodium What type of Plasmodium affects •
RBCs of all ages?
falciparum
What is the major cell membrane

Ergosterol sterol found in fungi?
HBeAb What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for

hepatitis?
What is the term for

Reverse transcriptase RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is

Clostridium botulinum associated with ingestion of honey?
373
Schistosoma Which trematode is associated with bladder
carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
haematobium
Cryptococcus Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched

with pigeon droppings?
neoformans
What virus lies dormant in the •

Herpes I Trigeminal ganglia?
What virus lies dormant in the •

Varicella Dorsal root ganglia?
Herpes II What virus lies dormant in the • Sensory ganglia of

S2 and S3?
374
What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S
produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga
ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein
toxin)
synthesis inhibition?
What protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped

Giardia lamblia (treat with lesions in the duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral
metronidazole) route, and is commonly seen in campers who drank
stream water?
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black What color do fungi stain with PAS?
with silver stain Silver stain?
Mycobacterium A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions

and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending
marinum organism?
Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia

Coccidioides immitis in desert sand of the southwestern United States
(e.g., San Joaquin Valley)?
375
Ureaplasma Which mycoplasma species is associated with
urethritis, prostatitis, and renal calculi?
urealyticum
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme What tick is the vector for
disease) babesiosis?
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its
cytoplasm. DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
What organism would you suspect in a patient with

Bacillus cereus diarrhea after eating rice?
What small gram-negative facultative intracellular

Francisella tularensis rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor
tick bite?
376
True. They absorb nutrients from True or false? Cestodes have no GI
the host's GI tract. tract.
Mumps What negative sense RNA virus is associated with

parotitis, pancreatitis, and orchitis?
>10 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the

following? (Reactive) • IV drug abuser

following? (Reactive) • Patient with AIDS

following? (Reactive) • Recent immigrant from India
377
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the
>15 mm following? (Reactive) • Healthy suburban male
without any medical illnesses
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the

>5 mm following? (Reactive) • Posttransplantation patient
taking immunosuppressive agents
What are the only two picornaviruses that do not

Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus lead to aseptic meningitis?
Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing

Taenia saginata cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?
What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic

Parvovirus B-19 crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
378
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus
GP120 attaches to CD4?
Salmonella What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce

osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
What organism is commonly associated with a

Pasteurella multocida cellulitis from an animal bite?
What fungus is seen as colored

Chromomycosis cauliflower lesions?
What is the reservoir for the

Birds togavirus?
379
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are
gram-negative cocci. gram positive"?
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and What nematode is known as

iron therapy. hookworms? What is the treatment?
What HIV structural gene produces

env structural protein GP120 and GP41?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as Which hemoflagellate species causes
visceral leishmaniasis) kala azar?
CMV; remember, EBV is associated with What DNA virus is associated with
heterophile-positive mononucleosis. heterophile-negative mononucleosis?
380
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with
Rabies intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri
bodies?
What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic

Clostridium tetani rod is associated with infections due to puncture
wounds and trauma?
What is the vector for Chagas

The reduviid bug disease?
Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and What is the polarity (i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive
therefore has 5'-3' polarity sense RNA?
What viral infection is associated

Yellow fever (flavivirus)
with black vomit?
381
What encapsulated gram-negative,
lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia
Klebsiella pneumoniae in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic
lung disease?
What is the essential reservoir host

The cat for Toxoplasma gondii?
What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching

filaments is a component of the normal flora of the
Actinomyces israelii mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for
draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the
exudates?
What is the term for Candida

Thrush infection of the oral mucosa?
Dimorphic What is the term for fungi that can convert from
hyphal to yeast forms?
382
To what viral family does the polio
Picornaviridae virus belong?
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae,

Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to
Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa,
prevent immediate destruction from the host's
and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus
defense system.
neoformans, a fungus
True or false? There are no persistent infections with

True. They lyse the host cell naked viruses?
JC virus What virus is associated with progressive multifocal

leukoencephalopathy?
Pseudomonas What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive

aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and
aeruginosa pyocyanin pigmentation?
383
CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative
Listeria mononucleosis?
What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned

Clostridium botulinum food causes flaccid paralysis?
Which two negative sense RNA viruses have

Mumps and influenza virus neuraminidase enzymes?
What Staphylococcus aureus protein

Protein A inhibits phagocytosis?
Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all Which four bacteria require cysteine
of the-ellas) for growth?
384
What fungus causes endocarditis in
Candida albicans IV drug users?
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A

Herpes virus I and II intranuclear inclusions?
Which streptococcal species is associated with dental

Streptococcus viridans caries and infective endocarditis in patients with
poor oral hygiene?
Cysticerci What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found

in intermediate hosts?
Malassezia furfur (treat with What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented

spots on the thorax, spaghetti-and-meatball KOH
selenium sulfide) staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?
385
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated What nematode is known as threadworms? What is
with thiabendazole. the treatment?
Transposons What are known as jumping genes?
HPV What virus produces koilocytic cells on a

Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?
Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio,

Histoplasma Mississippi, Missouri, and Eastern Great Lakes, is
found in soil with bird and bat feces, and is
capsulatum associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken
coop cleaners?
Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family

All are lactose fermenters except members—Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter,
Yersinia and Proteus. Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter— do not
ferment lactose?
386
What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC
nef and tat genes class I expression in the host?
80S ribosomes (because they are

What size ribosomes do fungi have?
eukaryotic)
What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen

Keloid type III that produces a large bulging scar, seen
primarily in blacks?
TRUE True or false? Klinefelter syndrome cannot be

diagnosed until puberty.
What form of sunlight is the most

Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight
carcinogenic?
387
What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of
the glomerular capillary wall, granular appearance
Membranous glomerulonephritis under the microscope, and effacement of foot
processes?
HIV What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells

and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
NADPH oxidase What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous

disease of childhood?
What rare disorder presents as a large, hard,

irregular thyroid gland due to fibrous proliferation of
Riedel thyroiditis connective tissue in the thyroid gland and extends to
adjacent structures?
Rheumatic fever most commonly follows pharyngeal

Group A β-hemolytic streptococci infections with what bacteria?
388
Rhabdomyoma What benign cardiac tumor is associated with
tuberous sclerosis?
10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, and 10% familial, What are the rules of 10 regarding
10% in children, and 10% outside the adrenal gland pheochromocytoma?
Postductal coarctation of the aorta What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in
the upper extremities, hypotension in the lower
(adult) extremities, and a radial-femoral delay?
What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in

HLA-B27–positive young females and presents with
Reiter syndrome the triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis
affecting the knees and ankles?
What AD disease involves hyperkeratosis of the

Tylosis palms and soles in association with esophageal
carcinoma?
389
A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed
with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with
with a tender, painful, swollen, and erythematous
monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely
culprit?
What vasculitis is characterized by systemic

vasculitis in small to medium- size vessels (except
Polyarteritis nodosa the lung); affecting young males; 30%
HBsAg-positive; P-ANCA and autoantibodies against
myeloperoxidase?
Osteosarcoma What malignant bone tumor is associated with

familial retinoblastoma?
Polycystic kidney disease of What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as

progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at
childhood right angles to the cortical surface?
In what syndrome does the patient have

angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas;
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome pheochromocytomas; retinal, cerebellar, medulla, or
spinal cord hemangioblastomas; and epidermal
cysts?
390
What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and
Swan-neck deformities flexion of the DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis?
Roth spots, and they are seen in What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded
bacterial endocarditis. by hemorrhage? In what condition are they seen?
BPH. Although an argument can be made for

A 70-year-old man complains of urinary urgency,
prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher
nocturia, hesitancy, postvoid dribbling, urinary
PSA result), these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic
retention, and a PSA result of 6.5 ng/mL. What is
cancer is usually silent until late in the disease, when
your diagnosis?
obstructive symptoms begin to occur.
Virchow triad, associated with the What triad consists of endothelial injury, changes in
formation of a thrombus. laminar flow, and hypercoagulation?
Osteoblasts (Remember, they modulate the function What bone cell has receptors for
of osteoclasts.) PTH?
391
What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by
Gastric ulcer the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately
after eating?
What is the term for normal cellular genes associated

Proto-oncogenes with growth and differentiation?
Osteogenesis Blue sclera is seen in what

hereditary bone disorder?
imperfecta
Paroxysmal nocturnal What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis

hemoglobinuria test and Ham test?
In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia,

defective degranulation, and delayed microbial
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and
migration?
392
What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased
hematocrit, blood viscosity, basophils, and
Polycythemia vera (Remember, polycythemia vera is
eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due
a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
to histamine release from basophils, increased LAP,
and plethora?
If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary

Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is highly
emboli, is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or
suspicious for pulmonary embolism.
perfusion side?
Transferrin What transports iron in the blood?
ALL (nearly 15–20 times the normal What hematological malignancy is particularly likely
risk) to affect patients with Down syndrome?
What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing
Rickets of the tibia, epiphyseal enlargements, and

costochondral widening, with the endochondral
bones being affected?
393
A Japanese man has weight loss, anorexia, early
satiety, epigastric abdominal pain, and a palpable left
supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find
Gastric carcinoma a large, irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the
lesser curvature of the stomach. What is your
diagnosis?
What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia,

Marijuana can impair motor activity, and can cause lung
problems?
What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with

Transient ischemic attack a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with
full recovery?
What is the name of the tumor when gastric

Krukenberg tumor carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?
What condition results from a deficiency in the

Tay-Sachs disease enzyme hexosaminidase A?
394
Cingulate gyrus herniation Which cerebral herniation results in compression of
(subfalcine) the anterior cerebral artery?
What pathology involves excessive fibrosis
Scleroderma throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity,

occurs in women more than men, and is most
commonly seen in the third to the fifth decade?
What is the term for the syndrome consisting of

Budd-Chiari syndrome hepatomegaly, ascites, and abdominal pain due to
hepatic vein thrombosis?
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary

artery vasospasm, symptom occurrence at rest, ST
Prinzmetal variant angina segment elevation (during episode), and no signs on
ECG?

Stable angina artery luminal narrowing, symptom occurrence
during exertion, ST segment depression on ECG?
395
artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence
Unstable (crescendo) angina with increasing frequency, duration, intensity, and
decreasing activity, frequently at rest?
What skin condition is a localized proliferation of

Benign lentigo melanocytes presenting as small, oval, light brown
macules?
What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal

Dysplasia proliferation of cell size, shape, and cellular
organization?
What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated
Psoriasis erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the

knees, elbows, and scalp along with nail bed pitting
and discoloration?
What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?
396
What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by
affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice,
Primary biliary cirrhosis pruritus, fatigue, xanthomas, increased direct
bilirubin levels, and antimitochondrial Abs?
Macrophages What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from

blood monocytes?
True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in
vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum. vitamin B12 malabsorption.
What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess

serotonin; is associated with diarrhea, flushing,
Carcinoid tumor bronchospasms, wheezing; and is diagnosed by
findings of elevated urinary 5-HIAA levels?
Teratoma What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in

children?
397
What urinary metabolite is elevated
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
in pheochromocytoma?
A 25-year-old black woman presents with

nonproductive cough, shortness of breath, fatigue,
Sarcoidosis and malaise; she has bilateral hilar
lymphadenopathy on chest radiography and elevated
ACE levels. What do you diagnose?
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and heme

What are the four reasons for hypochromic
synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron
microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
deficiency 4. Lead poisoning
What is characterized by an intense inflammatory

Healing by secondary intention reaction, an increase in the amounts of granulation
tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?
What thyroiditis presents as a tender, enlarged, firm

de Quervain thyroiditis thyroid gland, usually preceded by an upper
respiratory viral illness?
398
Graves disease What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the
TSH receptor?
Iodine, resulting in congenital What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to

thrive, mental retardation, motor incoordination,
hypothyroidism and stunted growth?
Gastrinoma What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with

MEN I syndrome?
What type of PUD is classically described by the

Duodenal ulcer onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after
eating that is relieved by food?
What disease arises from the adrenal medulla,
Neuroblastoma displaces and crosses the midline, metastasizes early,

is the most common solid tumor, and is seen in the
2-to 4-year-old age group?
399
What AD disease associated with chromosome 19
Familial hypercholesterolemia involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to
skin and tendon xanthomas?
A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis,

diplopia, weakness in her jaw muscles when chewing,
Myasthenia gravis and muscle weakness with repeated use. What is
your diagnosis?
What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations

Burr cells (echinocytes) on the surface of their membrane, commonly seen in
uremia?
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
tumors Beta-hCG
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor

Ovarian cancer markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
CA-125
400
Pancreatic cancer markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
CA-19.9 and CEA
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
testicular germ cell tumors alpha-Fetoprotein

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
Calcitonin

Prostate cancer markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase

Seminoma markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
Placental alkaline phosphatase
401
Cancer of the lung, stomach, colon, Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
and breast CEA
What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in

HLA-B27–positive young men, involves the
Ankylosing spondylitis sacroiliac joints, has no subcutaneous nodules, and
has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?
Disseminated intravascular What disorder is associated with decreased platelet

count, prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen,
coagulation (DIC) and increased fibrin split products (D-dimers)?
What spirochete is responsible for

Borrelia burgdorferi Lyme disease?
What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell) and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic
syndromes?
402
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von What bone disorder is characterized by brown
tumors, bone pain, deformities, and fractures due
Recklinghausen disease) to excessive PTH?
What glycogen storage disease is due to the

Pompe's disease following enzyme deficiencies? • Lysosomal
glucosidase (acid maltase)

McArdle's syndrome following enzyme deficiencies? • Muscle
phosphorylase

von Gierke's disease following enzyme deficiencies? •
Glucose-6-phosphatase
What ovarian disease involves

Serocystadenocarcinoma psammoma bodies?
403
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most
Hydatidiform mole common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
Pyelonephritis In what condition do you see dimpling on the

kidney's surface?
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •

Staphylococcus aureus Overall?
Streptococcus What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •

In neonates?
agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •
salmonella infections) In patients with sickle cell disease?
404
Pseudomonas What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •
In drug addicts?
What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated

with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning
Ewing's sarcoma of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur,
pelvis, and tibia; and chromosome 11;22
translocation?
What lymphoma is characterized by CD19, CD20,

Mantle cell lymphoma CD5; CD23-negative; and chromosome 11;14
translocations?
What components of the

C5b–C9 complement cascade form the MAC?
True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of
squamous cell carcinoma. developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
405
What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated
Preductal (infantile) with Turner syndrome?
True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is
associated with increased bone formation. a marker for increased bone formation.
Toxoplasmosis What is the most common opportunistic infection of

the CNS in HIV?
Osteopetrosis (Albers-Schönberg What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased

osteoclast function, resulting in thick, sclerotic bones
disease) that fracture easily?
True. Delta-Cell tumors produce excess

True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit
somatostatin, which inhibits CCK, gastrin
CCK secretion, leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.
(hypochlorhydria), and insulin secretion (diabetes).
406
What is the term for the speckled appearance of the
Brushfield spots iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Pott disease What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral
body due to TB?
Liver What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart

disease to occur?
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with

MEN III (or IIb) the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid,
pheochromocytoma, and mucocutaneous neuromas

the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid,
MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome) pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid adenomas (or
hyperplasia)
407
the following? • Parathyroid, pancreatic, and
MEN I (or Wermer syndrome) pituitary gland tumors and Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome
Lesch-Nyhan What X-linked recessive disease involves mental

retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis,
spasticity, a decrease in HGPRT, and an increase in
syndrome uricemia?
What disorder is associated with spider angiomas,
Cirrhosis palmar erythema, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy,

encephalopathy, abnormalities in clotting factors,
and portal HTN?
What is your diagnosis of a young, thin

Mitral valve prolapse asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on
cardiac auscultation?
What infection is associated with ring-enhancing

Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out
lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the
cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
brain in an HIV-positive individual?
408
Metaplasia (usually to a more What is the term for a reversible change in one cell
protective cell type) type to another?
What liver tumor is associated with oral

Hepatic adenomas contraceptive pill use?
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated

with downward displacement of the cerebellar
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2 vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle
and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
Severe combined immunodeficiency What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated

and humoral immune responses that can be either
disease X-linked or AR?
What condition results in the following CSF results?

Normal values • Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 0–10 WBCs
(monocytes); glucose 45 to 85, protein 15 to 45
409
Brain abscess • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90%
lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels

Viral meningitis • Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90%
lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17

TB meningitis • Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90%
lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100

Bacterial meningitis • Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90%
PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
True. The ileum is the site where True or false? Removal of the ileum results in
vitamin B12 is absorbed. vitamin B12 deficiencies.
410
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200,
has an elevated cellular content. protein level 2.5, and a specific gravity below 1.020?
What is the term for thickened, hyperpigmented skin

Acanthosis nigricans in the axillae, groin, and skin folds associated with
malignancies, obesity, and DM?
How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24

>3.5 g/day of protein, along with generalized edema,
hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic
hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia
syndrome?
Heroin What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal

segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?
What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor, a

Pheochromocytoma secondary cause of HTN, results in headache,
diaphoresis, anxiety, tachycardia, and palpitations?
411
What is the term for flattened nose, low-set ears, and
Potter facies recessed chin seen in patients with bilateral renal
agenesis?
What type of healing occurs in a

Primary intention clean surgical incision?
CMV retinitis and What are the two most common

viral infections in HIV?
HSV-2
What disorder is defined by inability of the lower

Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a
esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a
person from Central or South America.)
bird beak barium swallow result?
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and

cortisol suppression with dexamethasone, whereas Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have
Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with
decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?
dexamethasone.
412
What CD4 T-cell receptor does the
gp120 HIV virus bind to?
What is the term for RBC

Schistocytes fragments?
What disorder is due to a deficiency

Albinism in tyrosinase?
Antithyroglobulin and What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's

antimicrosomal Abs thyroiditis?
Helicobacter pylori, which is also associated with an What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is
increased risk of gastric carcinoma associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?
413
Leukemias and Name the cancer associated with the following
chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
lymphomas answer.) • Alkylating agents
Hepatocellular Name the cancer associated with the following

carcinoma answer.) • Aromatic amines and azo dyes
Name the cancer associated with the following

Squamous cell carcinoma (skin, lung) and
angiosarcoma of the liver
answer.) • Arsenic
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic Name the cancer associated with the following
carcinoma answer.) • Asbestos

Bladder cancer chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
answer.) • Naphthylamine
414
Leukemias chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
answer.) • Benzenes

Angiosarcoma of the liver chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
answer.) • Vinyl chloride
Bronchogenic Name the cancer associated with the following

carcinoma answer.) • Chromium and nickel
Bronchogenic Name the cancer associated with the following

carcinoma answer.) • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

Gastric cancer chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
answer.) • Nitrosamines
415
What are the five conditions associated with
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia
normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal
4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with

Insulinoma hypoglycemia, sweating, hunger, confusion, and
increased C-peptide levels?
Ristocetin What substance is used to test platelets' response in

patients with von Willebrand disease?
What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Remember, Becker's
abnormality in the dystrophin gene, has onset by age
is slower in progress, less severe, later in onset, and
5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness, calf
lacks cardiac involvement.)
pseudohypertrophy, and elevated CPK levels?
What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the

Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?
416
What estrogen-producing tumor of the female
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more

edematous polyps, most commonly affects the
Familial polyposis coli colorectal area, and is associated with chromosome
5q21?
What is the term for osteophyte formation at the

Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in
the DIP joints. osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP)
joints?
PGE (along with low oxygen What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining
tension) patency of the ductus arteriosus?
Varicocele What is the term for dilated veins within the

spermatic cord?
417
Thrombus What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space
consists of fibrin, platelets, RBCs, and WBCs?
What is the most common primary

Osteosarcoma malignant tumor in bone?
What is the most common infectious

Pneumocystis carinii agent in HIV?
What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone

Myelofibrosis with myeloid marrow aspirations, splenomegaly,
metaplasia leukoerythroblastosis, teardrop RBCs, and
hyperuricemia due to increased cell turnover?
What disease that involves mental retardation, flat

face, muscle hypotonia, and a double-bubble sign on
Down syndrome (trisomy 21) radiograph poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's
disease and ALL?
418
What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia against Rh antigens, positive direct Coombs test, and
splenomegaly?
5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with

(5-HIAA) carcinoid syndrome?
What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance

Primary sclerosing cholangitis of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?
What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms

LC4, LD4, and LE 4 and an increase in vessel permeability and
vasoconstriction?
What are the three Bs of adult

1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
polycystic kidneys?
419
What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on
chromosome 7, causing a defect in Cl- transportation
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find
that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an
out because the baby tastes salty.)
increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with
pancreatic insufficiencies?
What law states that an enlarged, palpable

Courvoisier's law gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone
obstruction?
What is the term for air in the

Pneumothorax pleural space?
What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick,

Paget disease (osteitis deformans) weak bones and is associated with high-output
cardiac failure?
Hypertrophy What is the term to describe the increase in organ

size due to the increase in cell size and function?
420
What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects
Meningioma mostly females is associated with psammoma
bodies?
TRUE True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome

P-450 enzymes.
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. What are the five components of
Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids portal HTN?
Prader-Willi syndrome and What syndrome results when there is a deletion to

Angelman syndrome, respectively paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
What CNS tumor arises from

Craniopharyngioma Rathke's pouch?
421
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. What is the triad of Reiter
Peripheral arthritis Can't see, can't wee, can't kick
with your knee syndrome?
Which of the following is not a risk factor for

Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia, which are risk cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy, OCP use, female
factors for pigmented gallstones. gender, hemolytic anemia, cirrhosis, and obesity?
(May be more than one answer.)
Name the nephritic disease based on the

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease) immunofluorescent staining. • Mesangial deposits of
IgA and C3

Goodpasture disease immunofluorescent staining. • Smooth and linear
pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM

Postinfectious GN immunofluorescent staining. • Granular deposits of
IgG, IgM, and C3 throughout the glomerulus
422
GP IIb/IIIa, which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each
used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes other through the use of fibrinogen?
HHV-8 What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell

lymphomas?
What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old
Seminoma age group, peaks when the person is 35 years of age,

and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic
system?
What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be

found from the mouth to anus, has noncaseating
Crohn disease granulomas, is discontinuous (skip lesions), and has

a cobblestone appearance, thickening of the bowel
wall, linear fissures, and aphthous ulcers with
normal mucosa between?
ELISA screens and Western blot Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a
confirms the diagnosis. patient is HIV-positive?
423
Membranoproliferative What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C
glomerulonephritis (MPGN) infections?
What is the term for squamous to columnar

Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of
metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to
developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
chronic inflammation?
What is the term for excessive amounts of

Proud flesh granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization
and wound healing?
Cytochrome c What is released from the mitochondria to trigger

apoptosis?
How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause

More than 75% of the vessel sudden cardiac death?
424
Heinz bodies Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with
G-6-PD deficiency?
Conn syndrome (primary What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland

adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in
hyperaldosteronism) HTN, hypokalemia, and low rennin levels?
EBV What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal

carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?
Hereditary What normochromic, normocytic AD anemia has

splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?
spherocytosis
Gigantism What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth

hormone lead to?
425
What enzyme is deficient in
Homogentisic oxidase alkaptonuria?
What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty,

Leydig cell tumor masculinization, gynecomastia in adults, and
crystalloids of Reinke?
DM, hypercholesterolemia, smoking, and HTN are

major risk factors. Being male, obesity, sedentary
lifestyle, homocysteine elevation, oral contraceptive
Name four major risk factors for
pills, and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.
atherosclerosis.
Name the AD disease associated with chromosome

15 in which the patient has long extremities, lax
Marfan syndrome joints, pigeon chest, and posterior mitral leaflet
prolapse and is prone to developing dissecting aortic
aneurysm.
What is the term for a large VSD that leads to

Eisenmenger syndrome, which can also occur with
pulmonary HTN, RVH, and cyanosis due to
any left-to-right shunt
right-to-left reversal of the shunt?
426
Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean
G-6-PD deficiency type of what deficiency?
Hemophilia A What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and

due to a deficiency in factor VIII?
What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3

months of fever, fatigue, generalized
ALL lymphadenopathy, CNS involvement,
hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, and platelet count
below 100, 000?
Deficiency in What protein deficiency results in respiratory

distress syndrome of newborns?
surfactant
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. What are the three components of

Glycosaminoglycans amyloid?
427
What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to
Myasthenia gravis ACh receptors at the NMJ?
What are the three left-to-right

1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA shunts?
Plasmin What protein causes fibrinolysis?
VIPoma What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with

watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria?
False. They are all risk factors for endometrial

carcinoma except multiparity. Nulliparity, True or false? Obesity, DM, HTN, multiparity, early
estrogen-producing tumors, and estrogen menarche, and late menopause are all risk factors for
replacement therapy are also risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.
endometrial carcinoma.
428
Lisch nodules What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas
seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?
What GI pathology is associated with a positive

string sign, an increase in the number of bloody
Crohn disease stools, RLQ pain, skip lesions, terminal ileum most
commonly affected, occurrence in women more than
men, and an increased thickness of the bowel?
What is the most common fungal

Candida infection in HIV?
True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis True or false? GERD is a cause of
of an asthmatic. asthma.
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: •

PGI2 Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation
produced by vascular endothelium
429
PGD2, PGE2, and PGF Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: •
Vasodilation
2
PGE2 Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: •

Pain and fever

TXA2 Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced
by platelets
LTB4 Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: •

Chemotactic for neutrophils

LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 Vasodilation, bronchospasm, and increased vascular
permeability
430
Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low
HBeAb transmissibility?
Silicosis Note: Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to
synonymous with black lung disease, an upper lobe the following occupations or materials? • Miners,
occupational disorder metal grinders, and sandblasters
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to

Berylliosis the following occupations or materials? • Aerospace
industry, nuclear reactors
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to
Asbestosis the following occupations or materials? • Shipyards,

brake linings, insulation, and old building
construction
What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder

Porcelain gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or
adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?
431
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization, What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell
ischemia, aging, and a host of other causes. size and function usually associated with disuse?
Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface

CLL (B-cell origin) markers: CD19, CD20, CD5 (T-cell marker), CD23;
and are CD10-negative?
What disease caused by decompression sickness

Caisson disease leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect
the head of the femur, humerus, and tibia?
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. What are the four DNA oncogenic

Kaposi sarcoma viruses?
The AR form is malignant and AD is Is the AD or AR form of

benign. osteopetrosis malignant?
432
This is the triad of renal cell What carcinoma produces hematuria, flank pain, and
carcinoma a palpable mass?
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P, (hyper)

Parathyroid/ Paget disease A, Addison's disease M,
Milk-alkali syndrome/metastatic cancer S, Name at least three causes of
Sarcoidosis M, Multiple myeloma I, metastatic calcification.
Immobilization/idiopathic D, Vitamin D intoxication
T, Tumors
What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma

Nodular sclerosis that is most commonly seen in females?
Smoking What is the leading cause of preventable premature

death and illness in the United States?
What prion-associated CNS pathology produces

rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus,
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease involuntary movements, and death within 6 to 12
months?
433
What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo
surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the
Paget disease of the breast nipple and areola with crusting, fissuring, and
oozing?
What breast pathology involves malignant cells with

Paget disease of the breast halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
Megaloblasts Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are

formed from what cell in the bone marrow?
Name the type of exudate, given the following

Serous exudates examples. • Sunburn

Fibrinous exudates examples. • Uremic pericarditis
434
Eosinophilic exudates examples. • Parasitic infection

Pseudomembranous exudates examples. • Diphtheria infection

Purulent exudates examples. • Meningococcal infection

Hemorrhagic exudates examples. • Rickettsial infection
Schistosoma What parasite is associated with squamous cell

carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
haematobium
435
What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal
Celiac sprue (gluten-sensitive distention, bloating, flatulence, diarrhea,
enteropathy) steatorrhea, and weight loss shortly after eating
bread products?
What herpes virus is associated with

HHV 8 Kaposi sarcoma?
What is the term for the copper corneal deposits

Kayser-Fleischer rings found in Wilson's disease?
Factors II, VII, IX, and X and Name the six vitamin K–dependent
proteins C and S. coagulation factors.
What ovarian carcinoma is

Cystadenocarcinoma characterized by psammoma bodies?
436
A marfanoid patient presents with tearing
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the
retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is
list, but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.
your first diagnosis?
Squamous cell What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated

with keratin pearls?
carcinoma
N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a Name four chemotactic factors for

IL-8 neutrophils.
What is the term for granuloma at

Simon focus the lung apex in TB?
What are the three platelet

1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2 aggregating factors?
437
What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of
the adrenal glands?
What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by

Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the
layers of the heart?
Chief cell adenoma What is the leading cause of primary

hyperparathyroidism?
(80%)
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease

G-6-PD deficiency in the HMP shunt, along with Heinz body formation?
Target cell What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim
of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?
438
False. The disease has no associated pathology; the
True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no
phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an
underlying pathology.
underlying disease.
What benign solitary papillary growth within the

Intraductal papilloma lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces
bloody nipple discharge?
Hemophilia B What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is

due to a deficiency in factor IX?
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia
deficiency with elevated MCV?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung, Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell
esophagus, ureter, and kidney, just to name a few. carcinoma of the bladder?
439
What disease has multiple schwannomas,
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with
café-au-lait spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and
neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)
is associated with chromosome 17q?
Eaton-Lambert What syndrome is due to Abs directed to calcium

channels and causes muscle weakness that improves
syndrome with repeated use?
Malignant In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients

had an occupational exposure to asbestos?
mesothelioma
What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in

Basophilic stippling RBCs, seen in lead poisoning?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3.

Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult What is the triad of fat embolism?
(e.g., long bone fracture)
440
Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped
Gout crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe, what
form of arthritis do you diagnose?
What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis

of the parotid glands, submaxillary gland, and
Mikulicz syndrome submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract
involvement?
What female genital tract disorder is characterized

Polycystic ovary disease by obesity, hirsutism, infertility, amenorrhea,
(Stein-Leventhal syndrome) elevated LH and testosterone levels, and low FSH
levels?
What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an

Squamous cell elevated level of Ca2+, involves keratin pearls, occurs
in men more than women, is associated with
carcinoma smoking, occurs in the major bronchi, and is seen in
the central areas of the lung?
PKU What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme

phenylalanine hydroxylase?
441
Oddly enough, it is true. Cryptorchidism, Klinefelter
True or false? Being a white male increases your risk
syndrome, testicular feminization, and family history
factor for testicular cancer.
of testicular cancer are all risk factors.
No. Remember, tests do not diagnose, they confirm

or refute your diagnosis. Also, diagnosis of MI
requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent Can an acute MI be diagnosed only
and characteristic of MI, elevated cardiac enzymes by looking at an ECG?
consistent with MI, and ST segment elevation of 2
mm or more in at least two contiguous leads.
What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by

Sjögren's syndrome; SS-A (Ro) and keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, xerostomia, and
SS-B (La) an increased risk of high-grade B-cell lymphomas?
What two Ab tests are used in making the diagnosis?
True or false? Sickle cell anemia, Caisson disease,

True. Fractures and trauma, however, are the most
chronic steroid use, and Gaucher disease are causes
common causes.
of avascular necrosis of bone.
p-53 What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is

unable to be done?
442
Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly
Ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
What test uses p24 protein when

ELISA test diagnosing HIV?
At least six How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the
diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?
Mallory-Weiss What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting

resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal
syndrome junction?
What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in

Metastatic calcification precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
443
Volvulus What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around
its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?
Cyanide What form of poisoning is associated with bitter

almond–scented breath?
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on

the following properties. • Circulating Ab-Ag
Type III hypersensitivity (immune immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in
complex) neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal
enzymes.

the following properties. • IgE-mediated release of
Type I hypersensitivity chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells;
(anaphylactic) need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils
amplify and continue reaction; can be system or
localized.

the following properties. • IgG or IgM Abs against a
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic) specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent
or ADCC.
444
Type IV hypersensitivity Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on
the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by
(cell-mediated) sensitized T-cells
What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor

Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e.,
of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children
medulloblastomas and retinoblastomas)
and is associated with pseudorosettes?
What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed

Goodpasture syndrome against the lung and kidneys?
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated
release of tissue factors. when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?
What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group;
Wilms tumor does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli,
tubules, and stroma; and metastasizes late to the
lungs?
445
What CNS tumor commonly
Schwannoma produces tinnitus and hearing loss?
True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in
scleroderma. diagnosing CREST syndrome.
What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood

with gait ataxia, loss of deep tendon reflexes,
Friedreich ataxia impaired vibratory sensation, hand clumsiness, and
loss of position sense?
TXA2 What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor

is synthesized by platelets?
Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with

Transtentorial (uncal) CN III palsy?
446
What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch
Syphilitic and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa
vasorum?
T lymphocyte What is the main type of cell involved in cellular

immunity?
What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of

Melasma hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated
with OCP use and pregnancy?
Fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis What is the classic triad of TB?
True. A thrombus has platelets, but True or false? Blood clots lack
clots do not. platelets.
447
What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with
Histiocytosis X Birbeck granules?
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in
B12 absorption) intrinsic factor?
Scrotal cancer, due to the high exposure to polycyclic What cancer is particularly likely to affect English
aromatic hydrocarbons chimney sweeps?
What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity

Bulla greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of
the skin?
EBV What virus is associated with the endemic form of

Burkitt lymphoma?
448
GH-producing With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated
somatomedin C level associated?
adenoma
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer
surrounding mucosa from an erosion or carcinoma?
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great Name the four right-to-left
vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot
They all begin with T congenital cardiac shunts.
What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with

Hypoparathyroidism neuromuscular irritability indicate?
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic
wPeT and hPiTT, which means warfarin, extrinsic,
PT; heparin, intrinsic, PTT) coagulation pathway?
449
What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover
Adult T-cell leukemia lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
Schatzki ring What ring is a weblike narrowing of the

gastroesophageal junction?
With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small

Henoch-Schönlein purpura vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
Lymphoblastic What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell

lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal
lymphoma mass (thymic)?
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in
malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its
in pyelonephritis) surface)?
450
False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in
bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
and ovaries, as well as meningiomas.
<2 What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in

respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
Guillain-Barré What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes,

muscle weakness, and ascending paralysis preceded
syndrome by a viral illness?
What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE

Libman-Sacks endocarditis commonly encounter?
Melanosis coli What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon
associated with laxative abuse?
451
Minor Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of
rheumatic fever? • Fever
Major Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of

rheumatic fever? • Migratory polyarthritis

rheumatic fever? • Subcutaneous nodules
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of

Minor rheumatic fever? • Elevated acute phase reactants
(e.g., ESR)
Minor Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of

rheumatic fever? • Arthralgias
452
rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis

rheumatic fever? • Erythema marginatum

rheumatic fever? • Sydenham chorea
Bcl-2 What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the

release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?
Hepatitis D Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can

replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?
453
Fibrillary protein, amyloid protein, and What are the three main
glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly) components of amyloid?
What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia

chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive
CML splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly >

100, 00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific
symptoms of fatigue, malaise, weight loss, and
anorexia?
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle, whereas a Ghon

What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a
complex is a focus with hilar lymph node
Ghon complex?
involvement.
In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys,

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18) rockerbottom feet, low-set ears, micrognathia, and
mental retardation?
What parasitic infection is associated with

Clonorchis sinensis cholangiocarcinoma?
454
What disorder is associated with loss of polarity,
Malignancy anaplasia, pleomorphism, discohesiveness, increase

in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromasia,
and increase in the rate of mitosis?
What is the term for telescoping of the proximal

bowel into the distal segment presenting as
Intussusception abdominal pain, currant jelly stools, and intestinal
obstruction?
What mushroom poisoning is associated with

Amanita phalloides fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?
What type of erythema do you see in

Erythema nodosum • Ulcerative colitis?
What type of erythema do you see in

Erythema marginatum • Rheumatic fever?
455
What type of erythema do you see in •
Erythema multiforme Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
What benign bone tumor is

Osteoma associated with Gardner syndrome?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting

(struvite) bacteria?
What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and

cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures,
Waldenström's macroglobulinemia headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity, IgM
M-protein spike on serum electrophoresis, and
Russell bodies?
Mercury What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach

and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?
456
What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old
Oligodendroglioma patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg
cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?
Goodpasture Ag is a component of
Type IV collagen what type of collagen?
If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes,

TTP; thrombocytopenia with megathrombocytes is
reticulocytes, and thrombocytopenia, is it more
more characteristic of ITP.
commonly seen in patients with ITP or TTP?
After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean,

Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg
absolute but a classic description. and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do
you immediately diagnose?
What cell type involves humoral

B lymphocyte immunity?
457
What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a
Hypersegmented neutrophils peripheral blood smear?
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with
burn) severely burned or traumatic patients?
What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin

Marfan syndrome gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?
What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration

Huntington disease of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in
atrophy, chorea, dementia, and personality changes?
Mycoplasma What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with

elevated cold agglutinin titers?
pneumoniae
458
Neutropenia, splenomegaly, and
What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
rheumatoid arthritis
What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of

Chemotaxis cells toward a chemical mediator released during
inflammation?
What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor

associated with sun exposure that presents as
Benign nevus (mole) tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined
well-circumscribed borders?
What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a

Buerger disease (thromboangiitis 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting
obliterans) with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower
extremities?
Salpingitis What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of

the fallopian tubes?
459
What disease with familial mental retardation
Fragile X syndrome produces large, everted ears and macro-orchidism?
Squamous cell What type of skin carcinoma occurring on

sun-exposed sites has a low level of metastasis?
carcinoma
VSD, RVH, overriding aorta, and What is the tetrad of tetralogy of

pulmonary stenosis Fallot?
What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary

Bronchiectasis infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and
associated with Kartagener syndrome?
What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between skin

Vesicle (e.g., poison ivy) layers up to 0.5 cm?
460
What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary
Sheehan syndrome to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?
Scleroderma What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and

anti-SCL-70 antibodies?
Teratoma (dermoid What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing

ectodermal, endodermal, and mesodermal elements
cyst) (i.e., skin, hair, teeth and neural tissue)?
Plummer-Vinson What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged

women with esophageal webs?
syndrome
What are the three causes of

CHF, cirrhosis, and nephrosis
transudate?
461
A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
weakness, a sore, beefy red tongue, loss of vibration
is treated with IM vitamin B12 injections. If
and position sense, arm and leg dystaxia, elevated
treatment is working, you will see an increased
levels of methylmalonic acid in the urine, and anemia
reticulocyte count on the peripheral smear in about 5
with an MCV above 105 fL. What is your diagnosis,
days.
and how will you monitor his response to treatment?
Rapidly progressive What form of GN is characteristically associated with

glomerulonephritis (RPGN) crescent formation?
What vitamin deficiency may result

Vitamin B6 in sideroblastic anemia?
Scrofula What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node
involved?
Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell

Massive influx of calcium injury?
462
What pathology is associated with elevated levels of
Primary hyperparathyroidism Ca2+, cardiac arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney
stones, and metastatic calcifications?
What type of metal poisoning causes mental

Lead retardation, somnolence, convulsions, and
encephalopathy?
What syndrome is rheumatoid

Caplan syndrome arthritis with pneumoconiosis?
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for

True. Don't forget this list; you will cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies, early age of
be asked. intercourse, multiple sexual partners, OCP use,
smoking, HIV, and STDs.
Dystrophic What is the term for precipitation of calcium

phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?
calcification
463
What congenital small bowel outpouching is a
Meckel diverticulum remnant of the vitelline duct?
What type of crystals are associated

Monosodium urate crystals
with gout?
What is the term for transverse bands on the

Mees lines fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic
poisoning?
Klatskin tumor What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and
left hepatic ducts?
Histamine IgE-mediated mast cell release, C3a and C5a, and

IL-1 all trigger the release of what vasoactive amine?
464
What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age
group, is more prevalent in women than men,
involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools,
Ulcerative colitis starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping
areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a thickness of
the bowel that does not change?
What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens
Osteoarthritis with repetitive motion, crepitus, effusions, and

swelling and commonly affects the knees, hips, and
spine?
Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude What condition is characterized by a 46XY

karyotype, testes present, and ambiguous or female
looks like a lady!) external genitalia?
What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear

Howell-Jolly bodies chromatin in asplenic patients?
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with

Cushing's ulcers increased intracranial pressure?
465
What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in
Hemolytic uremic syndrome children following a bout of gastroenteritis with
bloody diarrhea?
Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased

Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of
phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with
calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase.
osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
What vascular tumor associated with von

Hemangioblastoma Hippel-Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum,
brainstem, spinal cord, and retina?
How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are

At least 5 lobes necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?
Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or

Labile permanent) based on the following examples. •
Epidermis
466
Permanent permanent) based on the following examples. •
Skeletal muscle

Stable permanent) based on the following examples. •
Pancreas

Permanent permanent) based on the following examples. • CNS
neurons

Fibroblasts

Hematopoietic cells
467
Stable Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or
permanent) based on the following examples. • Liver

Smooth muscle

Permanent permanent) based on the following examples. •
Cardiac muscle

Mucosal epithelium

Kidney
468
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or
cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent permanent) based on the following examples. •
cells as the name states, do not proliferate.) Osteoblasts
Astrocytoma What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial

fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?
True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum

False. ASO titers are elevated, but serum
complement levels are associated with
complement levels are decreased.
poststreptococcal GN.
GP Ib What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von

Willebrand factor?
Progressive multifocal What encephalitis is associated with

leukoencephalopathy the JC virus?
469
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local
edema in organs (e.g., GI, skin, respiratory tract).
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH) What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary
permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?
Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization

Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization
or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with
or recent infection?
acute or recent infection.
Intercellular adhesion molecule Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to

lymphocyte function– associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and
(ICAM) 1 MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid
Willis hemorrhage
Bridging veins draining into the Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Subdural
sagittal sinus hemorrhage
470
Middle meningeal Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Epidural
artery hemorrhage
TRUE True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in

patients with SCID.
What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic

Lewy bodies eosinophilic inclusions containing ǡ-synuclein found
in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
In which form of emphysema, panacinar or

Centriacinar worse in upper lobes; panacinar worse
centriacinar, is the effect worse in the apical
in base of lower lobes
segments of the upper lobes?
Hurler syndrome and Hunter What syndrome results if the enzyme

ǡ-1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase
syndrome, respectively deficiency?
471
At least 30% blast in the bone What percentage of the bone marrow must be
marrow composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain

CHF perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues
and organs?
What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in
violin string adhesions?
True. Remember, the second X chromosome is

True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have
inactivated, and so is the Barr body. Turner
no Barr bodies.
syndrome has only one X chromosome.
What is the term for the sign revealed when a

Auspitz sign psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding
occurs?
472
Hgb F What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle
cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female

Takayasu arteritis (medium-size to having visual field deficits, dizziness, decreased
large vessels) blood pressure, and weakened pulses in the upper
extremities?
A 20-year-old college student has fever, grey-white

EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis
membranes over the tonsils, posterior auricular
can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember,
lymphadenitis, and hepatosplenomegaly. What is
it may be negative in the first week of the illness, so
your diagnosis? What test do you order to confirm
retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)
your diagnosis?
What cell type is commonly elevated

Eosinophil in asthma?
What pathology is associated with deposition of

Pseudogout calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50
years?
473
What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid arises from the parafollicular C cells?
Cocaine What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis, MI,

cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac arrhythmias?
What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position

Valine 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell
anemia?
What endogenous pigment found in the substantia

Melanin nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of
tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
What tumor marker is associated

Placental alkaline phosphatase
with seminomas?
474
What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy) dermatitis herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of
IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, and IgM?
What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p;

does not present until the person is in his or her 30s;
Huntington disease and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus,
dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles, and
signs of extrapyramidal lesions?
What pattern of inheritance is

X-linked recessive G-6-PD deficiency?
What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels

Prostatic carcinoma of acid phosphatase, dihydrotestosterone, PSA, and
bone pain?
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia,

Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated
but Dubin-Johnson syndrome is differentiated from
with black pigmentation of the liver?
Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.
475
What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires
Myeloperoxidase hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce
hypochlorous acid?
What condition results in a

Cholesterolosis strawberry gallbladder?
Arsenic, thorotrast, and vinyl What three chemical agents are associated with
chloride angiosarcomas of the liver?
Apoptosis (Remember, there is a lack of What is the term for programmed

inflammatory response.) cell death?
Reye syndrome What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who

are given aspirin during a viral illness?
476
Lead poisoning What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia
with basophilic stippling?
What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous,

Ulcerative colitis with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps, and is
associated with HLA-B27?
Neurologic symptoms Renal failure

Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic
hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an What is the pentad of TTP?
intern, my senior resident asked me this question
more times than I would like to remember.)
HBeAg Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and

viral proliferation?
What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a

Job syndrome defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE
level higher than 2000?
477
What female pathology is associated with
Endometriosis endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus
commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
What is the karyotype in Turner

45XO syndrome?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic What is the term for a congenital absence of the
ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus
megacolon) in the rectum and sigmoid colon?
What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable
peptic ulcers?
What type of collagen is associated

Type III with keloid formation?
478
Folate deficiency (very common in The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with
the elderly) what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of
Pyelonephritis the renal pelvis, tubules, and interstitium causing

costovertebral angle tenderness, fever, chills,
dysuria, frequency, and urgency?
It causes a buildup of dATP, which inhibits

ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a
deoxynucleoside triphosphate, a precursor of DNA, bone marrow suppressor?
resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.
Type II Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is

incompatible with life?
With what is cherry red intoxication

Acute CO poisoning associated?
479
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell What are the four most common causes of femoral
anemia head necrosis?
Rubor (red), dolor (pain), calor (heat), tumor What are the four signs of acute
(swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function inflammation?
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on

the following laboratory values. • Increased iron,
Sideroblastic anemia decreased TIBC, increased percent saturation,
increased ferritin

Anemia of chronic disease the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron,
TIBC, and percent saturation; increased ferritin

Iron deficiency anemia the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron,
percent saturation, and ferritin; increased TIBC
480
Thalassemia minor the following laboratory values. • Normal iron, TIBC,
percent saturation, and ferritin
Panacinar Which form of emphysema is associated with an

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
An 80-year-old woman presents to you with

Temporal arteritis (giant cell right-sided temporal headache, facial pain and
arteritis) blurred vision on the affected side, and an elevated
ESR. Your diagnosis?
Type 2 What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with

bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme

Gaucher disease glucocerebrosidase?
481
Boutonnière What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension
of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
deformities
False. Atelectasis is a reversible True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of

collapse of a lung. a lung.
What viral infection in patients with sickle cell

Parvovirus B 19 anemia results in aplastic crisis?
What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with

Klinefelter syndrome decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated

Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2 with 90% of syringomyelia?
482
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the
Onion skinning arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant
hypertension?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with
distinguishing features from breast cancer, which is bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with
commonly unilateral, single nodule, no variation menstruation and have cyclical pain and
with pregnancy. engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
What disease is X-linked recessive, is associated with

eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance
Wiskott-Aldrich of developing recurrent infections, involves a
decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell-dependent
syndrome paracortical areas of the lymph nodes, and means
that the patient is likely to develop malignant
lymphoma?
Which form of melanoma carries the

Nodular melanoma worst prognosis?
Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk

Encapsulated bacteria for infection from what type of organisms?
483
Two major or one major and two How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are
minor required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate
of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years
lymphoma) old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
Hemosiderin What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in

areas of hemorrhage or bruises?
What is a palpable, elevated solid

Papule mass up to 0.5 cm?
True or false? Monocytosis is seen in

TRUE TB.
484
Gout What pathology is associated with podagra, tophi in
the ear, and PMNs with monosodium urate crystals?
Pseudomembranous What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking

clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium
difficile, ischemia, Staphylococcus, Shigella, or
colitis Candida infection?
What do the risk factors late menopause, early

Breast cancer menarche, obesity, nulliparity, excessive estrogen,
genetic factor p53, and brc-abl characterize?
What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid exposure, psammoma bodies, and Orphan Annie eye
nuclei?
Fc portion of IgG, C3b, and

mannose-binding proteins Name three opsonins.
485
Beryllium What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the
aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG,
HBcAb IgM HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,

HBV-DNA—are associated with the following
periods? • Window period
HBsAb IgG HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,

periods? • Immunization
HBcAb IgG and HBsAb Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG,

HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,
IgG periods? • Prior infection

HBcAb IgM, HBV-DNA, HBeAg, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,
HBsAg HBV-DNA—are associated with the following
periods? • Acute infection
486
HBcAb IgG, HBV-DNA, HBeAg, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,
HBsAg HBV-DNA—are associated with the following
periods? • Chronic infection
Name the type of necrosis. • The most common form

Coagulative necrosis of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the
cytoplasm
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with

Gangrenous necrosis coagulative necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with

Liquefaction necrosis liquefactive necrosis?
Fat necrosis Name the type of necrosis. • Due to lipase activity

and has a chalky white appearance
487
Name the type of necrosis. • Soft, friable,
Caseous necrosis cottage-cheese appearing; characteristically seen in
TB
Name the type of necrosis. • Histologically resembles

Fibrinoid necrosis fibrin
Superoxide dismutase, glutathione Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from
peroxidase, catalase oxygen-derived free radicals.
2% of population, 2 cm long, 2 feet from ileocecal What are the rules of 2 for Meckel
valve, 2 years old, and 2% of carcinoid tumors diverticulum?
Berry aneurysm What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated

with polycystic kidney disease?
488
A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with
nonspecific joint pain, fever, and a malar rash over
SLE; ANA, anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a
(anti-Smith) classic example of what autoimmune disease? What
are three autoantibody tests you could order to make
the diagnosis?
True. It deposits at the gingivodental line, known as True or false? Excess lead deposits
the lead line. in the oral cavity.
What is the term for increased iron deposition

Hemochromatosis resulting in micronodular cirrhosis, CHF, diabetes,
and bronzing of the skin?
What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in

Glanzmann syndrome glycoprotein IIb-IIIa, resulting in a defect in platelet
aggregation?
What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly

enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the
Ménétrier's disease stomach in middle-aged males, resulting in
decreased acid production and an increased risk of
gastric cancer?
489
What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh
Myasthenia gravis receptors can present with thymic abnormalities, red
cell aplasia, and muscle weakness?
Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated

M3 (promyelocytic leukemia) with Auer rods?
What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and

Female pseudohermaphrodite female internal organs with virilized external
genitalia?
Two weeks after her son has a throat infection, a

mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever,
Poststreptococcal GN malaise, HTN, dark urine, and periorbital edema.
What is your diagnosis?
Wiskott-Aldrich What X-linked recessive immune disorder is

characterized by recurrent infections, severe
syndrome thrombocytopenia, and eczema?
490
Pseudogout What form of arthritis is associated with calcium
pyrophosphate crystals?
What is the term for excessive production of collagen

Hypertrophic scar that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site
of the injury?
What is the term for inflamed, thickened skin on the

Peau d'orange breast with dimpling associated with cancer?
What rare vasculitis has the following

Wegener characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small
arteries and veins; involving nose, sinuses, lungs,
granulomatosis and kidneys; C-ANCA and autoantibodies against
proteinase 3?
What retrovirus is associated with

HTLV-1 adult T-cell leukemia?
491
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years
of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive
cardiac myopathies, calf pseudohypertrophy,
Duchenne muscular dystrophy lordosis, protuberant belly, an increase then a
decrease in CPK, and death commonly in the second
decade of life?
Giant cell bone tumor What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap
(osteoclastoma) bubble appearance on radiograph?
Minimal change What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the

epithelial foot processes without immune complex
disease deposition?
What is the term for tissue-based

Mast cells basophils?
What malignant bone tumor is characterized by

Osteosarcoma Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on
radiograph?
492
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with
in the liver, it results in hepatomegaly. intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
What cancer of the male genitourinary system is

Prostatic carcinoma associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
What stromal tumor in males is characterized

Leydig cell tumor histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?
What pulmonary disease, most commonly associated
Emphysema with smoking, results in enlarged, overinflated lungs

owing to the destruction of the alveolar walls with
diminished elastic recoil?
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of
extrinsic pathway the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
493
What chronic systemic inflammatory disease
commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a
Rheumatoid arthritis progressive, symmetric arthritis affecting the hands,
wrists, knees, and ankles that improves with
increased activity?
Roth spots Name the following descriptions associated with

bacterial endocarditis: • Retinal emboli
Name the following descriptions associated with

Osler nodes bacterial endocarditis: • Painful subcutaneous
nodules on fingers and toes
Name the following descriptions associated with

Janeway lesions bacterial endocarditis: • Painless hyperemic lesions
on the palms and soles
CD15 and CD30 What two CD cell surface markers do Reed-

Sternberg cells stain positive for?
494
Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red
diseases spots on the retina?
False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and

True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline
helps differentiate benign conditions from CML,
phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.
which has low LAP levels.
What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic

Turcot syndrome polyps and CNS gliomas?
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial
through a patent septal defect in the heart. system?
Embolic Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly

associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?
495
Red blood cell distribution width What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
index (RDW) The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
(MCH) Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC
What is the name for the following RBC indices? •

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) Average volume of a RBC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed
concentration (MCHC) RBCs
What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic
obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and
subaortic stenosis, or IHSS)
leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
496
Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma
HPV serotypes 6 and 11 acuminatum?
Lentigo maligna Which form of melanoma carries the

best prognosis?
melanoma
Hyperplasia What is the term for an increase in the number of

cells in a tissue?
A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression

spinal fracture), hypercalcemia, increased serum
Multiple myeloma protein, Bence- Jones proteinuria, and monoclonal
M-spike on serum electrophoresis. What is your
diagnosis?
What is the term for pus in the

Empyema pleural space?
497
What is flat, circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented
Macule (e.g., a freckle) change up to 1 cm?
Kupffer cells Name the macrophage based on its location: • Liver

macrophages
Osteoclasts Name the macrophage based on its location: • Bone

macrophages
Microglia Name the macrophage based on its location: • Brain

macrophages
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Lung

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages macrophages
498
Histiocytes Name the macrophage based on its location: •
Connective tissue macrophages
Name the macrophage based on its location: •

Langerhans cells Epidermal macrophages
Reticulocyte What is the term for a large, immature RBC that is

spherical, blue, and without a nucleus?
What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by

Yolk sac tumor elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval
bodies?
Starry sky appearance of macrophages is

Burkitt lymphoma pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
499
Lower lobe In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary
infarcts seen?
For what disease are SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and

Sjögren disease R-ANA diagnostic markers?
What HPV serotypes are associated with increased

HPV serotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33 risk of cervical cancer?
Hematoxylin Do the following structures pick up stain from

hematoxylin or eosin? • Nuclei

hematoxylin or eosin? • Nucleoli
500
Eosin Do the following structures pick up stain from
hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm

hematoxylin or eosin? • Collagen

hematoxylin or eosin? • RBCs

hematoxylin or eosin? • Calcium

hematoxylin or eosin? • Bacteria
501
hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin

hematoxylin or eosin? • Thyroid colloid
What commonly encountered overdose produces

ASA (salicylate) headache, tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic
acidosis, confusion, vomiting, and tachypnea?
Bernard-Soulier What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of

glycoprotein Ib, resulting in a defect in platelet
syndrome adhesion?
What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations

of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry
Adult polycystic kidney disease aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the
fifth decade with abdominal masses, flank pain,
hematuria, HTN, and renal insufficiency?
502
Based on the following information, is the renal
transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or
hyperacute? • Months to years after transplantation;
Chronic rejection gradual onset of HTN, oliguria, and azotemia; seen
as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and interstitial
lymphocytes

Hyperacute rejection hyperacute? • Immediately after transplantation;
seen as a neutrophilic vasculitis with thrombosis

hyperacute? • Weeks to months after
Acute rejection transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria and
azotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis and
interstitial lymphocytes
Type I (makes sense, since they have a predisposition

What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with
for fractures and type I collagen is associated with
osteogenesis imperfecta?
bones and tendons)
What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese

infants and children less than 4 years old with acute
Kawasaki disease febrile illness, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash,
and lymphadenopathy?
503
What disease has IgG autoantibodies, occurs in
Graves disease women more than men, and includes exophthalmos,

pretibial myxedema, nervousness, heart palpitations,
and fatigue?
What condition is defined by both testicular and

True hermaphrodism ovarian tissues in one individual?
A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER

because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating
Pyloric stenosis and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and
a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is
your diagnosis?
Churg-Strauss What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated

with bronchial asthma, granulomas, and
syndrome eosinophilia?
What component of the basement membrane binds

Laminin to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell
surface receptor?
504
What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive
splenomegaly, produces dry tap on bone marrow
Hairy cell leukemia aspirations, and stains positive for tartrate-resistant
acid phosphatase (TRAP)?
What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with

IgA nephropathy celiac sprue and Henoch- Schönlein purpura?
What syndrome is characterized by embryologic

failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches
DiGeorge syndrome resulting in hypocalcemia, tetany, and T-cell
deficiency?
What is the treatment for

Phototherapy physiologic jaundice of newborns?
3 months of symptoms in 2 How many months in how many years must a person
cough with copious sputum production for the
consecutive years diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
505
What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with
Eosinophils IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic
infections?
Peutz-Jeghers What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps

in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips
syndrome and oral mucosa?
Hemostasis What is the term for formation of a stable

fibrin–platelet plug to stop bleeding?
False. All except multiparity are risk factors for

True or false? All of the following are risk factors for
breast cancer. Nulliparity, increasing age, and family
breast cancer: early menses, late menopause, history
history in first-degree relative are also risk factors.
of breast cancer, obesity, and multiparity.
Memorize this list!
Right-sided Is jugular venous distention a presentation of

isolated left or right heart failure?
506
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following
Hepatitis D information. • Small circular RNA virus with
defective envelope
Hepatitis C Name the hepatitis virus based on the following

information. • Enveloped RNA flavivirus
Hepatitis E Name the hepatitis virus based on the following

information. • Naked capsid RNA calicivirus
Hepatitis B Name the hepatitis virus based on the following

information. • Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus
Hepatitis A Name the hepatitis virus based on the following

information. • Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
507
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of
sphingomyelinase, massive organomegaly, zebra
Niemann-Pick disease bodies, and foamy histiocytes and is associated with
chromosome 11p?
Mural infarct What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area

involving only the inner layers?
Marrow failure, cancer, and What are the three causes of normochromic
normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low
leukemia reticulocyte count?
Dilation of the internal mammary arteries results in Notching of the ribs, seen on chest radiograph in
erosions on the inner surface of the ribs and is seen patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta, is
as notching. due to collateralization of what arteries?
What is the physiologic storage form

Ferritin of iron?
508
What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due
Embolism to an intravascular mass that has been carried
downstream?
What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be

Wilson disease. (Remember, patients commonly
characterized by Kayser- Fleischer rings, decreased
present with psychiatric manifestations and
ceruloplasmin levels, and increased urinary copper
movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)
excretion and tissue copper levels?

Burkitt lymphoma oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
c-myc

Small cell cancer of the lung oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
L-myc
Melanoma, cancer of the stomach Name the cancer associated with the following
oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
and bladder hst-1 and int-2
509
MEN II and III Name the cancer associated with the following
oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
syndromes et

Pancreas and colon oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
Ki-ras

Mantle cell lymphoma oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
cyclin D

Neuroblastoma oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
N-myc

Melanoma oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
CDK4
510
CML and ALL oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
abl

Breast cancer oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
hst-1, int-2, erb-2, and erb-3

Astrocytoma oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
sis

Lung cancer oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
Ki-ras and erb-2

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
erb-1
511
What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple
Gardner syndrome adenomatous polyps, osteomas, fibromas, and
epidural inclusion cysts?
What disease involves microcephaly, mental

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13) retardation, cleft lip or palate, and dextrocardia?
What type of GN occurs most commonly in children

after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune
Postinfectious GN complex–mediated; and is seen as lumpy-bumpy
subepithelial deposits?
What are the three most common sites for left-sided

Brain, spleen, and kidney heart embolisms to metastasize?
With what two pathologies is a

Asbestosis and silicosis honeycomb lung associated?
512
What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast
Achondroplasia growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size

vertebral column and skull and short, thick
extremities?
False. hyperkalemia decreases digoxin's activity,

True or false? Hyperkalemia increases the effect of
while hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and
digoxin.
hypercalcemia all increase digoxin toxicity.
Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca

Dantrolene 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of
malignant hyperthermia?
Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate, that
withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates. of benzodiazepines or barbiturates?
Amantadine What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of

drug-induced Parkinson's disease?
513
H1 Are the following responses associated with
histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Edema
Are the following responses associated with

H2 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Gastric
acid secretion

H2 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • SA nodal
activity

H1 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Pain and
pruritus

H1 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Bronchial
smooth muscle activity
514
H2 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Inotropic
action and automaticity
True or false? The lack of dopamine production in

True. The lack of dopamine leads to an excess of the substantia nigra leads to the extrapyramidal
ACh, hence extrapyramidal dysfunction. dysfunction, characteristically seen in patients with
Parkinson's disease.
Which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus

PGI 2 and is used in the treatment of primary pulmonary
HTN?
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are
and M 2 receptor is inhibitory. excitatory? Inhibitory?
True. They are useful in the early-phase response to True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in
an asthmatic attack. the management of an acute asthmatic attack.
515
Inactivated Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or
inactivated sodium channels?
What is the drug of choice for

Pimozide treating Tourette syndrome?
What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of

Anopheles mosquito malaria?
What enzyme is inhibited by

Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
disulfiram?
Which diuretic is used as an adrenal

Spironolactone steroid antagonist?
516
Fentanyl What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain
but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Spectinomycin What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant

gonococcal infections?
What is the DOC for treating torsade

Magnesium de pointes?
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy, but warfarin is Is heparin contraindicated in

contraindicated in pregnancy because of its ability to
cross the placenta. pregnancy?
What oral antifungal agent is used to treat

Griseofulvin dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule
structure and depositing keratin?
517
Carbamazepine Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic
craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. What are the three Beta-lactamase

Tazobactam inhibitors?
Carbamazepine Which anticonvulsant used in the treatment of

bipolar disorder is refractory to lithium?
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively
on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide and acidosis, acute mountain sicknesses, and glaucoma
dorzolamide) and to aid in the elimination of acidic drug
overdoses?
518
Raloxifene What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the
treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?
Which tetracycline is used in the

Demeclocycline treatment of SIADH?
With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint (miosis) How is the eye affected by use of
because of increased cholinergic activity. opioids?
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

Chloramphenicol effect is listed. • Grey baby syndrome
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

Aminoglycosides effect is listed. • CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)
519
Metronidazole Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side
effect is listed. • Teratogenicity
Erythromycin Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. • Cholestatic hepatitis
Nitrofurantoin Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. • Hemolytic anemia
Tetracycline Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. • Dental staining in children
Trimethoprim Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. • Altered folate metabolism
520
Vancomycin Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side
effect is listed. • Auditory toxicity
Quinolones Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. • Cartilage abnormalities
Constipation and What are the two side effects of opioids to which the
user will not develop tolerance?
miosis
Valproic acid Which anticonvulsant is also used in the treatment of

bipolar disorder and for migraine headaches?
Ethambutol What antitubercular agent causes loss of red-green

visual discrimination?
521
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak
Ultralente effect and duration of action. • Peak, 8 to 16 hours;
duration, 24 to 36 hours

Regular insulin effect and duration of action. • Peak, 0.5 to 3 hours;
Lente or NPH insulin (neutral Name the insulin preparation based on the peak
effect and duration of action. • Peak, 8 to 12 hours;
protamine Hagedorn insulin) duration, 18 to 24 hours

Lispro insulin effect and duration of action. • Peak, 0.3 to 2 hours;
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically Is digoxin or digitoxin renally

eliminated. eliminated?
522
Alendronate What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced
osteoporosis?
What are the first signs of overdose

Nystagmus and ataxia from phenobarbitals?
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low

How are lipid solubility and potency related for
potency (directly related), so they have rapid
inhaled anesthetics? How do they affect onset and
induction and rapid recovery; vice versa for drugs
recovery?
with high lipid solubility.
What α1-agonist, not inactivated by
Phenylephrine catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT), is used as a

decongestant and for treatment of paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia?
Lactulose Which laxative is used in the treatment of hepatic

encephalopathy ?
523
Phase I Are hydrolysis, oxidation, and reduction phase I or II
biotransformations?
Labetalol What β-blocker is also an α-blocker?
What agent is used IM to treat acute

Diphenhydramine dystonias?
True. Aminoglycosides use O 2-dependent uptake

True or false? Anaerobes are resistant to the effects
and therefore are ineffective for treatment of
of aminoglycosides.
anaerobic infections.
Acebutolol and What two β-blockers decrease serum

lipids?
Pindolol
524
Ionized drugs are water soluble, and since only
lipid-soluble drugs can cross biomembranes, an If a drug is ionized, is it water or lipid soluble? Can it
ionized drug cannot cross them without the help of a cross a biomembrane?
carrier.
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is What are the longest-acting and shortest-acting
shortest acting. benzodiazepines?
What is the DOC for severe infections with

Amphotericin B Sporothrix, Mucor, Histoplasma, Cryptococcus,
Candida, and Aspergillus?
NE What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited

by reserpine and guanethidine?
Cefuroxime and Which two cephalosporins cross the

blood-brain barrier?
cefaclor
525
Tyramine What agent, in combination with a MAOI inhibitor,
can cause hypertensive crisis?
True. β-Blockade would result in

unopposed-adrenergic stimulation and worsen the True or false? Cocaine-induced coronary ischemia
patient's symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are should not be treated with β-blockers.
the way to go.
What antimuscarinic is used as an

Ipratropium inhalant for asthma?
Lente insulin and either NPH or protamine zinc What two forms of insulin, if mixed together,
insulin (PZI) precipitate zinc?
Flutamide What androgen receptor blocker is used in the

treatment of prostatic cancer?
526
What are the first signs of
Nystagmus and ataxia phenobarbital overdose?
RSV Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody

palivizumab?
Which medication used in the treatment of bipolar

Lithium disorder decreases the release of T 4 from the thyroid
gland?
Class III Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium

channel blockers?
M2 Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl

cyclase as its second messenger?
527
What antiepileptic agent has SIADH
Carbamazepine as a side effect?
Ketamine What is the only anesthetic that causes

cardiovascular stimulation?
Dapsone Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is

the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid synthesis?
Bactericidal What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an

immunocompromised patient?
Hydralazine Which direct-acting vasodilator is associated with

SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
528
Low molecular weight heparin What class of heparin is active against factor Xa and
(LMWH) has no effect on PT or PTT?
What is the DOC for

Fluconazole coccidioidomycosis?
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. What three cephalosporins have good penetration

Ceftizoxime against Bacteroides fragilis?
Which form of alcohol toxicity

Methanol results in ocular damage?
Azathioprine What immunosuppressive agent is converted to

6-mercaptopurine?
529
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are
rates are most sensitive to local blockade more sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?
Dihydrofolate What enzyme is inhibited by

trimethoprim?
reductase
NADPH and molecular What are the two absolute requirements for the
cytochrome P450 enzyme system?
O2
PGE 1, PGI 2 (most potent), and What three PGs are potent platelet
TXA 2 aggregators?
A depressive patient who is taking paroxetine goes to

Serotonergic crisis may be precipitated when an
the ER with pain and is given meperidine. Shortly
SSRI is mixed with MAOIs, TCADs,
afterward she develops diaphoresis, myoclonus,
dextromethorphan, and meperidine. Treat it with
muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and seizures. What is
cyproheptadine.
your diagnosis?
530
What class of drugs is used in the treatment of
Bisphosphonates demineralization of the bone?
What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used

Acetazolamide in the short-term treatment of glaucoma and of acute
mountain sickness?
True. Aluminum reacts with PO4, resulting in

True or false? All aluminum-containing antacids can
AlPO4, an insoluble compound that cannot be
cause hypophosphatemia.
absorbed.
What TCAD causes sudden cardiac

Desipramine death in children?
What two β2-agonists are used to

Metaproterenol and albuterol
produce bronchodilation?
531
What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in
Mannitol the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial

pressure, increased intraocular pressure, and acute
renal failure?
They prevent mast cell What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for
degranulation. prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
What two β2-agonists cause

Ritodrine and terbutaline
myometrial relaxation?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opioid
afferent neurons receptors?
What thrombolytic agent is derived from β-hemolytic
Streptokinase streptococci, is antigenic, and produces depletion of

circulating fibrinogen, plasminogen, and factors V
and VII?
532
Terbinafine What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte
infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
Which class of antihypertensives produces

ACE inhibitors (the-pril agents) angioedema, hyperkalemia, and a dry cough?
Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for

Sucralfate activation to form a protective gel-like coating over
ulcers and GI epithelium?
Of what serotonin receptor is

5HT1D sumatriptan an agonist?
A patient with a history of epilepsy goes to the ER
Phenytoin with sedation, gait ataxia, diplopia, and vertical

nystagmus. Which anticonvulsant overdose resulted
in the patient's symptoms?
533
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin What are the five
5. Methicillin (CONDM) penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
Streptomycin Which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and

the bubonic plague?
Is the following description characteristic of

competitive or noncompetitive antagonists: parallel
shift to the right on a dose-response curve, complete
Competitive antagonist reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist
drug, and capacity to decrease the potency of the
agonist drug?
True or false? Progestins are used in combination

TRUE with estrogens to decrease the risk of endometrial
cancer.
Clozapine What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but

does not induce tardive dyskinesia?
534
First-pass metabolism and acid What two factors influence low oral
lability bioavailability?
What is the only site in the body that

The stomach uses M1 receptors?
Vitamin B 6 What vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic amino acid

decarboxylase and decreases the efficacy of L-dopa if
(pyridoxine) used concomitantly?
True or false? Acetaminophen has analgesic and

TRUE antipyretic activities but lacks anti-inflammatory
effects.
The larger the volume of distribution, the lower the What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if
plasma concentration of a drug. there is a large volume of distribution?
535
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients
increased intracerebral pressure. with head trauma?
Clofazimine What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the

lepra reaction?
Succinylcholine and halothane (Treatment is with What two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant
dantrolene.) hyperthermia?
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. What three β-blockers are used in the treatment of

Carteolol glaucoma?
What is the neurotransmitter at the

Dynorphin K-receptor?
536
TRUE True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor
agonist.
α-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients

clonidine is also used.) with a decreased renal function?
What is the volume of distribution (increased or

Volume of distribution is decreased when a large
decreased) of a drug when a large percentage is
percentage of drug is protein bound.
protein bound?
Cyproheptadine What antihistamine is used in the treatment of

serotonergic crisis?
Selegiline What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's

disease?
537
The entire tubule barring the thick What is the site of action of the following? • Osmotic
ascending limb diuretics
Ascending limb What is the site of action of the following? • Loop

diuretics
What is the site of action of the following? • Thiazide

Early distal tubule diuretics
What is the site of action of the following? •

Early collecting duct K+-sparing diuretics
What is the site of action of the following? •

Distal convoluted tubules Aldosterone antagonists
538
Non-Hodgkin What hematologic malignancy is treated with the
monoclonal antibody rituximab?
lymphoma
Amiloride Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat

lithium-induced diabetes insipidus?
Which two antipsychotic drugs create a high risk for

Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any
developing extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) side
high-potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
effects?
Yes, because they both activate the BZ1-receptors, Could an overdose with either zolpidem or zaleplon
which can be reversed by flumazenil. be reversed with flumazenil?
What drug blocks intragranular

Reserpine uptake of NE?
539
False. Bacteriocidals kill; True or false? Antimicrobial agents that slow
bacteriostatics slow growth. bacterial growth are bactericidal.
Nicotinic acid, because its side effects include Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not
hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers. prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
Mebendazole What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug

of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
What antiviral agents inhibit neuraminidases of

Zanamivir and oseltamivir influenza A and B?
Cefamandole, cefoperazone, and What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin

moxalactam K–dependent factors?
540
Which direct-acting vasodilator is used clinically to
Diazoxide treat hypertensive emergencies, insulinomas, and as
a uterine smooth muscle relaxant?
Which leukotriene—LTA4, LTB4, LTC4, or LTD4—is

LTB4 not associated with anaphylaxis and
bronchoconstriction?
Thioridazine What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits,

hypotension, and torsades de pointes?
Acarbose What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits α-glucosidase

in the brush border of the small intestine?

Dihydropteroate synthetase
sulfonamides?
541
The affinity of the drug for its What is the most important
receptor determinant of drug potency?
False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but not True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of
ovarian cancer increases with the use of estrogen. developing ovarian cancer.
Which sedative–hypnotic is contraindicated for

Chloral hydrate patients taking warfarin?
Phentolamine and What mixed α-antagonists are used for patients with
phenoxybenzamine pheochromocytoma?
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. What are the four types of signaling
Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors mechanisms?
542
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea
dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic
renal dysfunction. dysfunction?
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes

d-Tubocurarine hypotension and is associated with malignant
hyperthermia?
Transient protein C deficiency, because of its

What transient deficiency may result in a
relatively short half-life, may result if warfarin is
hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone?
instituted alone.
Arterioles What component of the vascular system is most

sensitive to the effects of calcium channel blockers?
What drug blocks glucose uptake, leading to

Albendazole decreased formation of ATP and resulting in
immobilization of the parasite?
543
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase
Proximal tubule inhibitors?
G2 phase What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Bleomycin
S phase What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cytarabine
Mitosis What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vinblastine

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Alkylating agents
544
antineoplastic agents specific for? • Paclitaxel

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vincristine

antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Thioguanine
What phase of the cell cycle are the following

S phase antineoplastic agents specific for? •
6-Mercaptopurine

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Dacarbazine
545
antineoplastic agents specific for? • Hydroxyurea

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cisplatin

antineoplastic agents specific for? • Nitrosoureas
Tolcapone and Inhibition of peripheral COMT, allowing increased

CNS availability of L-dopa, is accomplished by what
entacapone two agents?
What medication is a PGE1 analog that results in

Misoprostol increased secretions of mucus and HCO3-in the GI
tract?
546
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half-lives Is there a difference between mathematical and
to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 clinical steady states? If so, what are their values
half-lives to reach clinical steady state. (half-lives)?
True. At high doses ASA decreases uric acid

reabsorption in the renal tubules, resulting in
True or false? At high doses aspirin has uricosuric
uricosuric actions. At low doses ASA decreases
properties.
tubular secretion of uric acid, leading to
hyperuricemia.
What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV, influenza A

Ribavirin and B, Lassa fever, and hantavirus and as an adjunct
to IFN-in hepatitis C?
Neomycin Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because

it is too toxic for systemic use?
Which class of antiarrhythmics

Class 1 (1A, 1B, and 1C) blocks sodium channels?
547
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin) life-threatening illnesses?
What is the DOC for esophageal

Fluconazole candidiasis?
False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of True or false? Flumazenil is used in the treatment of
barbiturates. barbiturate overdose.
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Which three aminoglycosides have

Tobramycin vestibular toxicity?
Potency What is the term for the amount of a drug that is

needed to produce the desired effect?
548
Finasteride What agent used in the treatment of BPH and
baldness is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor?
What β-blocker is also a membrane

Propranolol stabilizer?
Name one of the ADP receptor antagonists used in

Ticlopidine or clopidogrel patients who are post-MI, have had TIAs, have
unstable angina, and are allergic to ASA?
Amiloride What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes

insipidus induced by lithium?
Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat

Nimodipine subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing
posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
549
What two drugs inhibit the release of
Guanethidine and bretylium neurotransmitters from storage granules?
What is the DOC for

Pergolide hyperprolactinemia?
False. The faster the rate of absorption, the smaller

True or false? The faster the rate of absorption, the
the Tmax and larger the Cmax (bioinequivalence).
smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax)
The slower the rate of absorption, the larger the
and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
Tmax and smaller the Cmax.
What tetracycline is associated with

Chlortetracycline hepatotoxicity?
Efficacy What is the term for how well a drug produces its
desired response?
550
What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause
RU 486 the uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone
withdrawal and induce an abortion?
No, it is used in chronic treatment of gout to Is allopurinol used in the acute

decrease the uric acid pools in the body. treatment of gout?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. What three cephalosporins can produce

Moxalactam disulfiram-like reactions?
What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth

They block the midcycle surge of LH. control pills?
When a drug is administered orally and enters into

First-pass effect portal circulation, it undergoes hepatic metabolism.
What is the name of this effect?
551
Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence
Alteplase of fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA
process?
Midazolam Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in

conscious sedation protocols?
Thiabendazole What is the drug of choice for threadworm,

trichinosis, and larva migrans?
No, therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer, Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on
not more toxic. therapeutic indices alone?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of What blood disorder is a side effect

vitamin B12 and folic acid) of metformin?
552
A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially
brought to your ER with muscle rigidity, a
life-threatening condition which is treated with
temperature of 104° F, altered mental status, and
symptomatic support, bromocriptine, and
hypotension. What is your diagnosis and what is the
dantrolene.
treatment?
Minoxidil (orally and topically, Which α-blocking agent is used to treat refractory
respectively!) hypertension and baldness?
Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state

What components of the coagulation cascade are
because of the decrease in AT III and increase in
affected by estrogen?
factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Sulfonamides What class of antimicrobial agents should be avoided

in patients with a history of GPDH deficiency?
What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by

HMG-CoA reductase the statins?
553
Imipenem and What bactericidal agents are resistant to
β-lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital
meropenem life-threatening infections?
What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate

α1-Receptors (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second
messenger system?
True or false? Dopamine antagonists at the D2A

TRUE receptor have the capacity to induce
pseudoparkinsonism.
What two PGs are used to induce

PGE2 and PGF2α labor?
How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary

Enterohepatic cycling system resorbed by the GI tract?
554
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and
Aminoglycosides interfere with the initiation complex, causing a
misreading of mRNA?
Amantadine What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and

penetration of influenza A virus?
What is the antidote for

Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
organophosphate ingestion?
Which antihypertensive class is used to help stop the

ACE inhibitors (-pril) progression of microalbuminuria?
Proton pump What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer
disease, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and
inhibitors gastroesophageal reflux disease?
555
What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile
Chloramphenicol includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid

decarboxylase and increased CNS availability of
Carbidopa and benserazide L-dopa are results of what drug used in the
treatment of Parkinson's disease?
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the

following? • Elimination independent of plasma
Zero-order elimination concentration; constant amount eliminated per unit
time; no fixed half-life
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the

following? • Elimination directly proportional to
First-order elimination plasma level; constant fraction eliminated per unit
time; fixed half-life
TRUE True or false? NSAIDs have analgesic, antipyretic,

anti-inflammatory, and antiplatelet activities.
556
True or false? Tetracyclines are
False. They are bacteriostatic.
bactericidal.
Procainamide What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE-like

syndrome side effect in slow acetylators?
What is the major pulmonary side

Respiratory depression effect of µ-activators?
Risperidone What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an

antihistamine?
What form of penicillin is stable in

Penicillin V acid environments?
557
What is the term for the proportion of a drug that
Bioavailability reaches systemic circulation?
What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the

Carbidopa and benserazide periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to
dopamine?
What is the DOC for bipolar

Lithium disorder?
True if she is Rho-negative; false if True or false? If a mother delivers a Rho-positive

she is Rho-positive baby, she should receive Rho-immunoglobulin.
False. Glutamic acid is excitatory, True or false? Both GABA and glutamic acid are
but GABA is inhibitory. excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
558
Rifampin What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic
meningitis carriers?
Edrophonium What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis

from myasthenia gravis?
Nitrates What class of antianginal activates the NO pathway

to produce endothelial vasodilation?
Celecoxib What selective Cox-2 inhibitor should be avoided in

patients with a history of sulfonamide allergy?
What is the DOC for blastomycoses

Itraconazole and sporotrichoses?
559
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a What are the two most important features in the
high index of suspicion) diagnosis of malaria?
Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam ( OTL, Name the three benzodiazepines that are not
Outside The Liver) metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
What drug is an M1-specific

Pirenzepine antispasmodic?
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is safe

Methyldopa for use in renal dysfunction and in HTN during
pregnancy?
What is the monoamine oxidase B

Selegiline (MAOB) inhibitor?
560
Rifampin What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge
to tears and urine?
What two classes of drugs can cause

Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
schizoid behavior?
What tetracycline is associated with

Minocycline vestibular toxicity?
Doxacurium What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has
no cardiovascular side effects?
What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger

D2 and 5HT3 receptors zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
561
Which group of antihypertensive agents best
Thiazide diuretics decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
What area of the brain is linked to

Mesolimbic system emotion and movement?
Because they do not block D2A receptors, they are Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result
antagonists of 5HT2 receptors. in EPS effects?
Prodrugs What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they

are metabolized to their active products?
True or false? You would not prescribe probenecid

True. Probenecid can precipitate uric acid crystals in
for a patient with gout who is an overexcretor of uric
the kidney if the patient is an overexcretor of urate.
acid.
562
True. They block the dopamine receptors in the True or false? Dopamine antagonists
chemoreceptor trigger zone. are antiemetic.
Vancomycin What bactericidal agent is the DOC for MRSA,

enterococci, and Clostridium difficile?
True. β-Blockers are a component of CHF regimen

for stable patients, not those who are
decompensated. (This means you discharge a patient True or false? β-Blockers are contraindicated in
from the hospital with a prescription for a -blocker; patients who present to the hospital with CHF.
you don't start -blockers when the patient is
admitted.)
True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo True or false? Fluoroquinolones are
II). bactericidal.
What antiviral agent for ganciclovir-resistant

Foscarnet infections has limited utility because of its
nephrotoxic side effect?
563
What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates pancreatic
Repaglinide β-cell release of insulin and is given just prior to
meals because of its short half-life?
True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is True or false? There is no absorption of an
given IV. IV-administered drug.
Log-kill hypothesis (follows first What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent
kills a fixed percentage of tumor cells, not a fixed
order kinetics) number?
Cocaine What is the only local anesthetic to produce

vasoconstriction?
Zileuton Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a

selective inhibitor of the lipoxygenase pathway?
564
Spironolactone (binds to What is the only diuretic that works on the blood
aldosterone receptors) side of the nephron?
Heparin, intrinsic pathway, PTT; warfarin, extrinsic Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or
pathway, PT (mnemonic: hPeT, wPiTT) PTT?
Molindone What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an

increase in weight or appetite?
What α1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial

Metaraminol (α1, β1 ) tachycardia with hypotension?
What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating

Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in
and diagnosing paroxysmal supraventricular
emergencies because its half-life is 30 seconds)
tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal arrhythmias?
565
Aminophylline What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the
management of status asthmaticus ?
Atracurium Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to

laudanosine?
Yohimbine What α2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and

postural hypotension?
What drug of choice for ascaris causes

Pyrantel pamoate neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers

Phase 1 without the disease is a component of which phase of
clinical drug testing?
566
Tetracycline Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel
dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
Ketoconazole What antifungal agent is used in the treatment of

androgen receptor–positive cancers?
What MAOI does not cause a

Selegiline hypertensive crisis?
Which penicillin can cause

Methicillin interstitial nephritis?
Progestin Is hirsutism a side effect of estrogen or progestin

therapy?
567
Spironolactone Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone
receptor antagonist ?
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased What are the three signs of

respiratory rate 3. Coma morphine overdose?
Gabapentin Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of

bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain?
False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in obese
potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas). patients because of weight gain as its side effect.
Corticosteroid What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase
response in an asthmatic attack?
568
Regardless of the rate of infusion, it takes 4 to 5 If you double the infusion rate of a drug, how long
half-lives to reach steady state. will it take to reach steady state?

β-Endorphin µ-receptor?
Metronidazole What is the DOC for the following protozoal

infections? • Amebiasis
Stibogluconate What is the DOC for the following protozoal

infections? • Leishmaniasis
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole What is the DOC for the following protozoal

(TMP-SMX) infections? • Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
569
infections? • Giardiasis

infections? • Trichomoniasis
What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of
Pentoxifylline intermittent claudication because it decreases blood

viscosity and increases RBC membrane flexibility
and stability?
What enzyme system is the most common form of

Glucuronidation phase II biotransformation?
In what three areas of the body are sympathetics the

1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins predominant tone?
570
What is the only antifungal agent to
Fluconazole penetrate CSF?
Which class of antiarrhythmics are

Class II β-blockers?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. What three cephalosporins are eliminated via biliary

Ceftriaxone mechanisms?
Clonidine Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is used

in the treatment protocol of opioid withdrawal?
What is the name of the monoclonal antibody used in

Infliximab the treatment of Crohn disease and rheumatoid
arthritis?
571
Which macrolide is used in the
Erythromycin treatment of gastroparesis?
What syndrome is characterized by the triad of renal

Fanconi-like syndrome tubular acidosis, nephrosis, and amino aciduria?
In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine

Mesocortical area lead to psychotic symptoms?
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Name five causes for zero-order

Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity metabolism.
Isoniazid What antitubercular agent requires vitamin B6

supplementation?
572
Meclizine Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for
treatment of vertigo?
What is the DOC for treating Entamoeba histolytica,

Metronidazole Giardia, Trichomonas, Bacillus fragilis, and
Clostridium difficile infections?
Which class of antihypertensives is used in the

α-Blockers (-zosins) treatment of BPH?
Which macrolide is given as 1200 mg/week for the

Azithromycin prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
complex?
Niclosamide What is the drug of choice, which inhibits oxidative

phosphorylation in cestodes, for taeniasis?
573
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and
colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you avoid
therefore, they are not used if a patient has for a patient with elevated triglyceride levels?
hypertriglyceridemia.
False. Ergotamines are used in the treatment of

True or false? Ergotamines, because of their
migraines for their vasoconstrictive action in the
vasodilation action, cause migraines.
cerebral circulation.
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a β-blocker

Is DM a contraindication to use of a β-blocker in a
for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better
patient who is having an MI?
outcomes than those who do not.
Salmeterol What β2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in

the treatment of asthma?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway, dopamine

release will decrease prolactin release, which is why What hormone can be affected by dopamine release
dopamine agonists are used in the treaatment of in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
hyperprolactinemic states.
574
What determines the plasma level at
The rate of infusion steady state?

5' deiodinase propylthiouracil (PTU)?
Ganciclovir What is the DOC for CMV retinitis?
What agent antagonizes the effects

Protamine sulfate of heparin?
Nitroprusside What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and

thiocyanate as byproducts?
575
What is the DOC for
Ipratropium β-blocker-induced bronchospasms?
Clozapine What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not

cause hyperprolactinemia?
True. Cimetidine can decrease androgen production True or false? Gynecomastia is a side
and lead to gynecomastia. effect of cimetidine.
Hydralazine, isoniazid, and What three drugs are associated with SLE-like
procainamide (HIP) syndrome in slow acetylators?
What is the drug of choice for filariasis and

Diethylcarbamazine onchocerciasis?
576
What aminoglycoside causes
Streptomycin disruption of CN I?
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in Which anticonvulsant causes

gingival hyperplasia) gingival hyperplasia?
ASA What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible

inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?
Flucytosine What antifungal agent is activated by fungal cytosine

deaminase to form 5-FU?
Irreversible ototoxicity is associated with which loop

Ethacrynic acid diuretic?
577
Tamoxifen What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is
used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Doxycycline Which tetracycline is used to treat prostatitis because

it concentrates strongly in prostatic fluid?
False. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in True or false? Dopamine is an excitatory

the CNS. neurotransmitter in the CNS.
What oral hypoglycemic agent should be used with

Metformin caution in patients with CHF because it causes lactic
acidosis?
Phase 4 Which phase of clinical drug testing includes

postmarket reporting of adverse reactions?
578
Zafirlukast Which prophylactic asthmatic agent is an antagonist
of LTD4?
Coma, convulsions, and What are the three C's of a TCAD

cardiotoxicity overdose?

Enkephalin δ-receptor?
What body fluid preferentially

Blood breaks down esters?
What are the two broad-spectrum

Ampicillin and amoxicillin
penicillins?
579
Nasal polyps, rhinitis, and aspirin What are the three components to
hypersensitivity the asthma triad?
Class IV Which class of antiarrhythmics are calcium channel

blockers?
What are the glycoprotein receptors that platelets

GP IIb and IIIa receptors and fibrinogen cross-link to when forming a
thrombus?
Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of

Propofol postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of
recovery?
Physiologic Are two different receptors with two different

agonists characteristic of pharmacologic or
antagonism physiologic antagonism?
580
Leuprolide What GnRH analog is used as a repository form of
treatment in prostatic cancer?
Clindamycin Which antimicrobial agent is used with

pyrimethamine to treat toxoplasmosis?
What is the DOC for trigeminal

Carbamazepine neuralgia?
What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is

Ephedrine found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal
decongestant?
Clearance What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in
a given volume of blood?
581
Which two tetracyclines have the
Doxycycline and minocycline
highest plasma binding?
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median What do the following values
effective dose) indicate? • ED50
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers What do the following values
(median toxic dose) indicate? • TD50
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers What do the following values
(median lethal dose) indicate? • LD50
Do agents used in the treatment of Parkinson's

Agents that decrease ACh function reduce tremors
disease that decrease ACh function have little effect
and rigidity, not bradykinesias.
on reducing tremors and rigidity?
582
Spasms of the uterus, bladder, and the biliary tree A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of
occur with all of the opioids except meperidine. biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?
Hydrolysis What form of oxidation takes place with the addition

of a water molecule and breakage of bonds?
Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the prepotential,

In a ventricular pacemaker cell, what phase of the
allowing threshold to be reached sooner, and
action potential is affected by NE?
increases the rate of firing.
Physiologic dead space is the total dead space of the Anatomical and alveolar dead spaces together
respiratory system. constitute what space?
What three organs are necessary for the production

Skin, liver, and kidneys of vitamin D3(cholecalciferol)?
583
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal
What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal
androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen
androgens?
production.
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. What four conditions result in secondary
Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis hyperaldosteronism?
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen-binding What are the five hormones

protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5.
Antimüullerian hormone produced by Sertoli cells?
What is the term for the negative resting membrane

Depolarization (i.e., Na+ influx) potential moving toward threshold?
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left Does the left or right vagus nerve
vagus innervates the AV node innervate the SA node?
584
Repolarization is from base to apex and from How does ventricular repolarization take place, base
epicardium to endocardium. to apex or vice versa?
Anatomical dead space, which ends at the level of the What is the term for any region of the respiratory
terminal bronchioles. system that is incapable of gas exchange?
Increased CO2, H+, temperature, and 2, 3-BPG

What four factors shift the Hgb-O2 dissociation
levels all shift the curve to the right, thereby making
curve to the right? What is the consequence of this
the O2 easier to remove (decreased affinity) from the
shift?
Hgb molecule.
Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure (low

What two factors result in the apex of the lung being
perfusion) and less-distensible vessels (high
hypoperfused?
resistance) result in decreased blood flow at the apex.
1:1. Remember, the flow through the pulmonary What is the ratio of pulmonary to
circuit and the systemic circuit are equal. systemic blood flow?
585
To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes
Central. Remember, there is a deficiency in ADH
insipidus, after an injection of ADH, which will show
production in the central form.
a decreased urine flow?
Duodenum In what area of the GI tract are water-soluble

vitamins absorbed?
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse
V wave deflections? • The rise in right atrial pressure

secondary to blood filling and terminating when the
tricuspid valves opens
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse

C wave deflections? • The bulging of the tricuspid valve into
the right atrium
A wave What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse

deflections? • The contraction of the right atrium
586
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion What are the four
4. Begin fat digestion functions of saliva?
When a person goes from supine to

Increases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to
standing, what happens to the
compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate.
following? • Dependent venous
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
pressure

Increases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to
following? • Dependent venous blood
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
volume

Decreases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to
following? • Cardiac output
Decreases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to When a person goes from supine to
compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. standing, what happens to the
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- following? • BP
587
It normally does not play a role in filtration but
When does the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's
becomes important when there is an obstruction
capsule play a role in opposing filtration?
downstream.
Intrapleural pressure decreases What happens to intrapleural pressure when the

(becomes more negative). diaphragm is ontracted during inspiration?
What is used as an index of cortisol

Urinary 17-OH steroids secretion?
Combined metabolic and respiratory If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and
decreased HCO3- levels, what is the acid-base
acidosis disturbance?
Membrane conductance (think What is the term that refers to the number of
conductance = channels open) channels open in a cell membrane?
588
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the What are the five tissues in which glucose uptake is
pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa insulin independent?
Place in order from fastest to slowest the rate of

Liquids, CHO, protein, fat gastric emptying for CHO, fat, liquids, and proteins.
Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts,

resulting in intramyocardial vessel compression and Is most of the coronary artery blood flow during
therefore very little blood flow in the coronary systole or diastole?
circulation.
The JG cells What modified smooth muscle cells of the kidney

monitor BP in the afferent arteriole?
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. What are the three functions of
Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation surfactant?
589
Name the hormone—glucagon, insulin, or
Epinephrine epinephrine: • Glycogenolytic, gluconeogenic,
lipolytic, glycolytic, and stimulated by hypoglycemia
Glucagon epinephrine: • Glycogenolytic, gluconeogenic,

lipolytic, glycolytic, proteolytic, and stimulated by
hypoglycemia and AAs

epinephrine: • Glycogenic, gluconeogenic, lipogenic,
Insulin proteogenic, glycolytic, and stimulated by
hyperglycemia, AAs, fatty acids, ketosis, ACh, GH,
and Beta-agonist
Hydrophobic (water-insoluble) end faces the Is the hydrophobic or hydrophilic end of the
aqueous environment and the hydrophilic phospholipids of the cell membrane facing the
(water-soluble) end faces the interior of the cell. aqueous environment?
What type of muscle is characterized by no

White muscle; short term too myoglobin, anaerobic glycolysis, high ATPase
activity, and large muscle mass?
590
90% as HCO3-, 5% as carbamino compounds, and What percentage of CO2 is carried in
5% as dissolved CO2 the plasma as HCO3- ?
What is the most potent male sex

Dihydrotestosterone hormone?
Decreases With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure, what

happens to • Stroke volume?

happens to • TPR?

happens to • Heart rate?
591
Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1, 4-glucoside linkages, What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreatic
forming alpha-limit dextrins, maltotriose, and amylase hydrolyze? What three complexes are
maltose. formed?
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval, and Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic
contractility determines the systolic interval. interval?
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold On a graphical representation of filtration,
for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over reabsorption, and excretion, when does glucose first
into the urine. appear in the urine?
They are directly related; the greater the preload, the

What is the relationship between preload and the
greater the passive tension in the muscle and the
passive tension in a muscle?
greater the prestretch of a sarcomere.
The conversion of tyrosine to What is the rate-limiting step in the synthetic

dopamine in the cytoplasm pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
592
How many days prior to ovulation does LH surge
1 day prior to ovulation occur in the menstrual cycle?
As flow increases, the urine becomes more dilute How are flow through the loop of Henle and
because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption. concentration of urine related?
What is the PO2 of aortic blood in

60% fetal circulation?
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1, and they How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH
inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic
secretion. hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
Terminal collecting duct has the highest What segment of the nephron has the highest
concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin? Lowest concentration of
concentration of inulin. inulin?
593
A high-resistance system is formed when resistors What type of resistance system, high or low, is
are added in a series. formed when resistors are added in a series?
hCS and serum estriol, which are produced by the

What hormones, secreted in proportion to the size of
fetal liver and placenta, respectively, are used as
the placenta, are an index of fetal well-being?
estimates of fetal well-being.
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by an

Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2, low H+, increase in alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2
slightly low HCO3-) levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the left
and decreasing both H+ and HCO3- levels?
Apneustic center (deep breathing What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the
center for rhythm promoting prolonged
place) inspirations?
What area of the GI tract has the highest activity of

Jejunum (upper) brush border enzymes?
594
What is the term to describe the increased rate of
Adrenarche secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of
puberty?
What period is described when a larger-than-normal

Relative refractory period stimulus is needed to produce an action potential?
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and Does T3 or T4 have a greater affinity for its nuclear
therefore is considered the active form. receptor?
1. Lowers surface tension, so it decreases recoil and

increases compliance 2. Reduces capillary filtration What are the three main functions of
3. Promotes stability in small alveoli by lowering surfactant?
surface tension
Low interstitial free Ca2+ What is the only important physiological signal
concentrations regulating the release of PTH?
595
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the
Secondary hypoparathyroidism following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
(vitamin D toxicity) phosphate (Pi)? • PTH decreased, Ca2+ increased, Pi
increased

Secondary hyperparathyroidism (vitamin D following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
deficiency, renal disease) phosphate (Pi)? • PTH increased, Ca2+ decreased, Pi
decreased

following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
Primary hypoparathyroidism phosphate (Pi)? • PTH decreased, Ca2+ decreased, Pi
increased

following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
Primary hyperparathyroidism phosphate (Pi)? • PTH increased, Ca2+ increased, Pi
decreased
14 L, 33% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • ECF
weight
596
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
9.3 L, 15% of body weight for the following compartments? • Interstitial fluid
for the following compartments? • ICF
weight
4.7 L, 5% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • Vascular fluid
weight
for the following compartments? • Total body water
weight
What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in

pregnancy, stimulates mammary growth during
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or
pregnancy, mobilizes energy stores from the mother
human placental lactogen (hPL)
so that the fetus can use them, and has an amino acid
sequence like GH?
597
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
TSH through negative feedback.) decreased, TSH decreased, T4 increased
Secondary hypothyroidism/pituitary (Low TSH

What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
results in low T4 and increased TRH because of lack
increased, TSH decreased, T4 decreased
of a negative feedback loop.)
Tertiary hypothyroidism/hypothalamic (Low TRH

What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
causes all the rest to be decreased because of
decreased, TSH decreased, T4 decreased
decreased stimulation.)
Primary hypothyroidism (Low T4 has a decreased

negative feedback loop, resulting in both the What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland to increased, TSH increased, T4 decreased
increase TRH and TSH release, respectively.)
Secondary hyperthyroidism (Increased TSH results

in increased T4 production and increased negative What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
feedback on to hypothalamus and decreased release decreased, TSH decreased, T4 increased
of TRH.)
598
Glucagon and What two stress hormones are under the permissive
action of cortisol?
epinephrine
The resistance will decrease one-sixteenth of the If the radius of a vessel doubles, what happens to
original resistance. resistance?
What prevents the down-regulation of the receptors

The pulsatile release of GnRH on the gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland?
False. It has glycogenolytic and lipolytic actions but True or false? Epinephrine has proteolytic metabolic
not proteolytic. effects.
Cortisol, a 21-carbon steroid, has a -OH group at What is the only 17-hydroxysteroid
position 17. with hormonal activity?
599
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes
Does the oncotic pressure of plasma promote
reabsorption and is directly proportional to the
filtration or reabsorption?
filtration fraction.
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant,

Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated when a
so there is a large change in their size and volume
person is standing upright?
and therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.
The removal of Na+ results in the renal tubule

becoming negatively charged. The negative luminal By removing Na+ from the renal tubule and pumping
charge attracts both K+ and H+ into the renal tubule it back into the ECF compartment, what does
and promotes HCO3- to enter the ECF and results in aldosterone do to the body's acid-base stores?
hypokalemic alkalosis.
What hormone causes contractions of smooth

Motilin muscle, regulates interdigestive motility, and
prepares the intestine for the next meal?
Umbilical vein and ductus venosus What two vessels in fetal circulation have the highest
(80%) PO2 levels?
600
How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol
2 days prior to ovulation peak in the menstrual cycle?
What serves as a marker of

C-peptide levels endogenous insulin secretion?
Total ventilation (minute ventilation What is the term for the total volume of air moved in
or minute volume) and out of the respiratory system per minute?
Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3-, shifting the What is the renal compensation
reaction to the right and increasing H+ mechanism for alkalosis?
What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor

Excess estradiol in the blood
in a man?
601
Arterioles have the largest drop, whereas the vena
In the systemic circulation, what blood vessels have
cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic
the largest pressure drop? Smallest pressure drop?
circulation.
IGF-1 What is the major stimulus for cell division in

chondroblasts?
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane What are two causes of diffusion
thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2) impairment in the lungs?
1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2.

Increased release of PIF by the hypothalamus 3. What are the four effects of suckling
Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk on the mother?
secretion
A migrating myoelectric complex is a propulsive

movement of undigested material of undigested
It repeats every 90 to 120 minutes and correlates
material from the stomach to the small intestine to
with elevated levels of motilin.
the colon. During a fast, what is the time interval of
its repeats?
602
Increases With an increase in arterial systolic pressure, what
happens to • Stroke volume?
Decreases With an increase in arterial systolic pressure, what

happens to • Vessel compliance?
Decreases With an increase in arterial systolic pressure, what

happens to • Heart rate?
Enterokinase What enzyme is needed to activate the following

reactions? • Trypsinogen to trypsin
Trypsin What enzyme is needed to activate the following

reactions? • Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
603
What enzyme is needed to activate the following
Trypsin reactions? • Procarboxypeptidase to
carboxypeptidase
Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via increasing

In a ventricular pacemaker cell, what phase of the
potassium conductance, taking longer to reach
action potential is affected by ACh?
threshold and slowing the rate of firing.
Hypoglycemia for secretion and What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon
hyperglycemia for inhibition secretion? Inhibition?
What is the term for the summation of mechanical

Tetany stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit
becoming saturated with calcium?
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is

characterized by low back leaks, high affinity of a
A transport maximum (Tm) system substance, and easy saturation? It is surmised that
the entire filtered load is reabsorbed until the
carriers are saturated, and then the rest is excreted.
604
Dopamine is converted into NE in the vesicle via the In an adrenergic nerve terminal, where is dopamine
enzyme dopamine-Beta-hydroxylase. converted to NE? By what enzyme?
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e., PAH). Filtered

Is the clearance for a substance greater than or less
and reabsorbed: Cx < Cin (i.e., glucose), where Cx =
than for inulin if it is freely filtered and secreted? If it
clearance of a substance and Cin = clearance of
is freely filtered and reabsorbed?
inulin.
Preload. It is the load on a muscle What is the term for the load on a muscle in the
Prior to contraction. relaxed state?
The surge of what hormone induces

LH ovulation?
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end-diastolic What are the two best indices of left
volume and end-diastolic pressure, respectively) ventricular preload?
605
What stage of male development is characterized by
Puberty the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH

pulsatile amplitude and levels increase, with
increased testosterone production.

Childhood the following LH and testosterone levels? • Both LH
and testosterone levels drop and remain low.
Adulthood the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH

secretion drives testosterone production, with both
levels paralleling each other.
Aged adult the following LH and testosterone levels? •

Decreased testosterone production is accompanied
by an increase in LH production.
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a

Metabolic alkalosis (summary: high pH, low H+ and
loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the
high HCO3-)
right, thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
606
Resistance increases as resistors are added When referring to a series circuit, what
happens to resistance when a resistor is
to the circuit. added?
Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the

Why is there an increase in prolactin if the
release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is
hypothalamic-pituitary axis was severed?
removed, thereby increasing the secretion of prolactin.
Why is the clearance of creatinine always

Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted slightly greater than the clearance of inulin
and GFR?
What acid form of H+ in the

NH4+(ammonium) urine cannot be titrated?
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial Regarding the venous system, what
vessels, small changes in pressure result in large changes in happens to blood volume if there is a small
blood volume. change in pressure?
607
Stages 3 and 4 In what stage of sleep is GH
secreted?
(NREM)
In the RBC; remember, you need carbonic anhydrase Where does the conversion of CO2
for the conversion, and plasma does not have this
enzyme. into HCO3- take place?
From the fourth month of fetal life to term, what

The placenta secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains
the uterus?
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged What two factors are required for
macromolecules to be extruded from the cell. effective exocytosis?
Serum 25-hydroxy-vitamin D What is the best measure of total body vitamin D if

(25-OH-D) you suspect a deficiency?
608
What hormone is required for 1,
PTH 25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (1, 25-diOH-D) to have bone
resorbing effects?
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO

4- concentrations, whereas resorption (breakdown) Is bone deposition or resorption due to increased
is increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or interstitial Ca2+concentrations?
PO4-.
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination The opening of what valve indicates the termination
of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the of isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac
beginning of the ventricular filling phase. cycle?
The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine

N-methyltransferase (PNMT), used in the conversion Why is there a decrease in the production in
of epinephrine, is regulated by cortisol. Removing epinephrine when the anterior pituitary gland is
the anterior pituitary gland decreases ACTH and removed?
therefore cortisol.
Name the period described by the following

Absolute refractory period is due to voltage
statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is, no
inactivation of sodium channels.
further action potentials can be stimulated.
609
Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one How many carbons do estrogens
carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.) have?
True. Because of intrapulmonary shunting, there is a

slight decrease in PO2 and increase in PCO2 between True or false? The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels
the pulmonary end capillary blood and the systemic match the pulmonary end capillary blood levels.
arterial blood.
The main drive shifts from central chemoreceptors In high altitudes, what is the main
(CSF H+) to peripheral chemoreceptors monitoring
low PO2 levels. drive for ventilation?
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost

with the following changes in body hydration for the
Loss of isotonic fluid (diarrhea, ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
vomiting, hemorrhage) respectively: • ECF, decrease; ICF, no change; body,
no change

Gain of hypotonic fluid (water intoxication or
ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
hypotonic saline)
respectively: • ECF, increase; ICF, increase; body,
decrease
610
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol, diabetes insipidus,
ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
dehydration)
respectively: • ECF, decrease; ICF, decrease; body:
increase

Gain of isotonic fluid (isotonic ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
saline) respectively: • ECF: increase; ICF: no change; body:
no change

Gain of hypertonic fluid (mannitol ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
or hypertonic saline) respectively: • ECF, increase; ICF, decrease; body,
increase
What hormone excess produces

ACTH adrenal hyperplasia?
T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding Is there more circulating T3 or T4 in
protein, T4 has a significantly (nearly fifty times)
longer half-life than T3. plasma?
611
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV Why is the cell's resting membrane
because of the intracellular proteins. potential negative?
False. Thyroid size is a measure of TSH levels (which True or false? Thyroid size is a
are goitrogenic). measure of its function.
If the radius of a vessel is decreased by half, what

The resistance increases 16-fold. happens to the resistance?
NE, via its vasoconstrictive action on What neurotransmitter is essential for maintaining a
blood vessels normal BP when an individual is standing?
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the

What form of diabetes insipidus is due to an
nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available,
insufficient amount of ADH for the renal collecting
but the renal collecting ducts are impermeable to its
ducts?
actions.
612
1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 Name the three methods of vasodilation via the
activity 3. Increase ACh levels sympathetic nervous system.
What hormone is characterized by the following

PTH renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption, phosphate
excretion

Calcitriol renal effects? • Calcium excretion, phosphate
excretion

Vitamin D3 renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption, phosphate
reabsorption
True. Elevated plasma levels of progesterone can True or false? Progesterone has
raise the body temperature 0.5° to 1.0°F. thermogenic activities.
613
How long is the transit time through
2 to 4 hours the small intestine?
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas Where is the last conducting zone of

exchange occurs here.) the lungs?
True; cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in most tissue, True or false? Cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in
making it available for neural tissue use. skeletal muscle.
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the What percentage of cardiac output flows through the
pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal. pulmonary circuit?
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the
Site 4 following information: • Least affinity for O2;

requires the highest PO 2 levels for attachment
(approx. 100 mm Hg)
614
Site 2 following information: • Greatest affinity of the three

remaining sites for attachment; requires PO2 levels
of 26 mm Hg to remain attached

Site 1 following information: • Remains attached under
most physiologic conditions

Site 3 following information: • Requires a PO2 level of 40
mm Hg to remain attached
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine
cold (The three Es) from the adrenal medulla?
One, and it provides the energy for How many ATPs are hydrolyzed every time a skeletal
mechanical contraction. muscle cross-bridge completes a single cycle?
615
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric, Why would a puncture to a vein above the heart have
so a puncture there has the potential to introduce air the potential to introduce air into the vascular
into the system. system?
High volume, watery solution; sympathetic What type of saliva is produced under
stimulation results in thick, mucoid saliva. parasympathetic stimulation?
In what area of the GI tract does iron

Duodenum get absorbed?
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated

Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilated when a
prior to inflation, and although they are large, they
person is standing upright?
receive low levels of alveolar ventilation.
alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on What pancreatic islet cell secretes
-cells and inhibitory effects on -cells. glucagons?
616
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical
substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for
transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics What are the four characteristics of all
(Transportation is maximal when all transporters are protein-mediated transportation?
saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than if by
simple diffusion
Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a

HCO3--rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the What is secretin's pancreatic action?
chyme entering the duodenum.
Because RPF is markedly decreased, while GFR is

Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is
only minimally diminished; this results in an
decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
increase in FF (remember FF = GFR/RPF).
What triggers phase 3 of the action potential in a

Rapid efflux of potassium ventricular pacemaker cell?
What is the primary target for the

Liver (hepatocytes) action of glucagon?
617
Production of HCO3-, shifting the reaction to the left What is the renal compensation
and thereby decreasing H+ mechanism for acidosis?
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and

What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapse breaks
choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic
down ACh? What are the byproducts?
nerve terminal).
What hormone, produced by Sertoli cells, if absent

MIF would result in the formation of internal female
structures?
The lung will expand; also the What happens to the lung if the intrapleural pressure
opposite is true. exceeds lung recoil?
Plasma concentration and excretion What two factors determine the

rate clearance of a substance?
618
What type of muscle contraction occurs when the
Isotonic contraction muscle shortens and lifts the load placed on it?
What type of potential is characterized as being an

Action potential all-or-none response, propagated and not
summated?
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a

Metabolic acidosis (summary: low pH, high H+, and
gain in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the
low HCO3-)
left, decreasing HCO3- and slightly increasing CO2?
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all What two pituitary hormones are
others are by basophils. produced by acidophils?
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high

venous PO2) difference in the body because of the What organ of the body has the smallest AV oxygen
overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from difference?
filtration.
619
What is the titratable acid form of
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
H+ in the urine?
GnRH What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in the

preoptic nucleus?
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. What five factors promote turbulent
Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches
5. Narrowing of an orifice flow?
Aldosterone Remember, from the outer cortex to the What is the major hormone produced in the
inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal cortex gets following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
sweeter as you go deeper. glomerulosa
Cortisol Remember, from the outer cortex to the What is the major hormone produced in the
inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal cortex gets following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
sweeter as you go deeper. fasciculata
620
DHEA (androgens) Remember, from the outer What is the major hormone produced in the
cortex to the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper. reticularis
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as Where is most of the body's Ca2+
hydroxyapatite. stored?
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases, What is the relationship between ventilation and
there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa. PCO2 levels?
Is T3 or T4 responsible for the negative feedback

T4, as long as T4 levels remain constant, TSH will be
loop on to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
minimally effected by T3.
gland?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open

What is the signal to open the voltage-gated
these slow channels, and if they are prevented from
transmembrane potassium channels?
opening, it will slow down the repolarization phase.
621
Hydroxyproline Increased urinary excretion of what substance is
used to detect excess bone demineralization?
Compliance (think of it as What is the term to describe how

distensibility) easily a vessel stretches?
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroid
T3 when iodine becomes deficient. gland?
Under normal resting conditions no, but they are

strongly stimulated when PO2 arterial levels Do the PO2 peripheral chemoreceptors of the carotid
decrease to 50 to 60 mm Hg, resulting in increased body contribute to the normal drive for ventilation?
ventilatory drive.
The number of cross-bridges cycling during

What determines the overall force generated by the
contraction: the greater the number, the greater the
ventricular muscle during systole?
force of contraction.
622
From the adrenal medulla; NE is mainly derived Where does most circulating plasma
from the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons. epinephrine originate?
When calcium is removed from troponin and What causes a skeletal muscle
pumped back into the SR, skeletal muscle
contraction stops. contraction to terminate?
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in What happens to intracellular volume when there is
osmolarity and vice versa. an increase in osmolarity?
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively Which CHO is independently absorbed from the
absorbed via secondary active transport. small intestine?
Surface tension, the force to collapse the lung, is When is the surface tension the greatest in the
greatest at the end of inspiration. respiratory cycle?
623
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in
17-alpha-Hydroxylase deficiency hypertension, hypernatremia, increased ECF volume,
and decreased adrenal androgen production?
In reference to membrane potential (Em) and

Ions diffuse in the direction to bring the membrane
equilibrium potential (Ex), which way do ions
potential toward the equilibrium potential.
diffuse?
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries Under normal conditions, what is the main factor
(promotes filtration) that determines GFR?
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of
of the ejection phase and the beginning of the the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac
isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. cycle?
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries What vessels in the systemic circulation have the
have the slowest velocity. greatest and slowest velocity?
624
Thin extremities, fat collection on the upper back
and abdomen, hypertension, hypokalemic alkalosis,
Hypercortisolism (Cushing acne, hirsutism, wide purple striae, osteoporosis,
syndrome) hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia with insulin
resistance, and protein depletion are all
characteristics of what disorder?
What enzyme is essential for the conversion of CO2

Carbonic anhydrase to HCO3-?
True or false? The parasympathetic nervous system

TRUE has very little effect on arteriolar dilation or
constriction.
TLC, FRC, and RV have to be calculated. What three lung measurements must be calculated
(Remember, any volume that has RV as a component because they cannot be measured by simple
has be calculated.) spirometry?
They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there

What is the venous and arterial stretch receptors'
is a decrease in the blood volume, the stretch
function regarding the secretion of ADH?
receptors send fewer signals, and ADH is secreted.
625
What cell converts androgens to
Granulosa cell estrogens?
What hormone acts on Granulosa

FSH cells?
How long is the transit time through

3 to 4 days the large intestine?
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or
positive pressure acts to collapse the lung. collapse the lung?
What hormone constricts afferent and efferent
AT II arterioles (efferent more so) in an effort to preserve

glomerular capillary pressure as the renal blood flow
decreases?
626
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a
Why is there a minimal change in BP during exercise
large increase in cardiac output, resulting in a
if there is a large drop in TPR?
minimal change in BP.
Insulin increases total body stores of protein, fat, and What is the effect of insulin on
CHOs. When you think insulin, you think storage. protein storage?
Renshaw What is the term for an inhibitory

interneuron?
neuron
Calcium influx secondary to slow What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a
channel opening ventricular pacemaker cell?
What are the following changes seen in the luminal

At the end of the PCT 25% of the fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? •
original volume is left Percentage of original filtered volume left in the
lumen
627
At the end of the PCT 25% of Na+, What are the following changes seen in the luminal
fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? •
Cl-, K+ is left Percentage of Na+, Cl-, K+ left in the lumen

300 mOsm/L fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? •
Osmolarity

No CHO, AA, ketones, or peptides are left in the
fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? •
tubular lumen.
Concentration of CHO, AA, ketones, peptides
False. It is an enzyme secreted by the lining of the True or false? Enterokinase is a

small intestine. brush border enzyme.
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it Where does the synthesis of ACh
is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase. occur?
628
delta-Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on What pancreatic islet cell secretes
alpha- and Beta-islet cells. somatostatin?
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content

because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the
blood. As for polycythemic patients, their O2 content
Why is O2 content depressed in
is increased because of the excess Hgb anemic patients?
concentrations.
Clearance What term describes the volume of plasma from

which a substance is removed over time?
If capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than

Filtration; if hydrostatic pressure is less than oncotic
oncotic pressure, is filtration or reabsorption
pressure, reabsorption is promoted.
promoted?
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH What cells of the parathyroid gland are simulated in
in response to hypocalcemia. response to hypocalcemia?
629
Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O At the base of the lung, what is the baseline
(more positive than the mean), resulting in a force to intrapleural pressure, and what force does it exert on
collapse the alveoli. the alveoli?
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are What hormone is necessary for
necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid
patients have decreased GH secretions. normal GH secretion?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open

What is the signal to open the voltage-gated
these channels, which are closed in resting
transmembrane sodium channels?
conditions.
None; they are the storage sites for What hormones are produced in the median
eminence region of the hypothalamus and the
ADH and oxytocin. posterior pituitary gland?
What is the most energy-demanding phase of the

Isovolumetric contraction cardiac cycle?
630
What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate
alpha2-Receptors further neurotransmitter release?
Hypotonic, because NaCl is Are salivary secretions hypertonic,

reabsorbed in the salivary ducts hypotonic, or isotonic?
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by What is the effect of T3 on heart rate
increasing the number of Beta-receptors and their
sensitivity to catecholamines. and cardiac output?
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest Why will turbulence first appear in the aorta in
velocity in systemic circulation patients with anemia?
If the polyuria begins before the collecting ducts, the

patient is dehydrated and electrolyte depleted. If the What is the origin of the polyuria if a patient is
polyuria originates from the collecting ducts, the dehydrated and electrolyte depleted?
patient is dehydrated with normal electrolytes.
631
What is the physiologically active
Free ionized Ca2+ form of Ca2+?
Metabolic rate and alveolar What are the two factors that affect
ventilation (main factor) alveolar PCO2 levels?
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in

Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic
Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone, produced by
steroid therapy?
Leydig cells, is needed for spermatogenesis.
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable

What type of membrane is characterized as being
membrane allows both water and small solutes to
permeable to water only?
pass through its membrane.
Peroxidase, which is also needed for iodination and What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I– to
coupling inside the follicular cell I'?
632
What is the most important stimulus for the
An increase in serum glucose levels secretion of insulin?
Preload (the load on the muscle in What term is described as the prestretch on the
the relaxed state) ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
The carotid body, which monitors What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most
arterial blood directly blood per gram of weight in the body?
11-Beta-Hydroxylase deficiency results in excess

production of 11-deoxycorticosterone, a weak What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in
mineralocorticoid. It increases BP, Na+, and ECF hypertension, hypernatremia, and virilization?
volume along with production of adrenal androgens.
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower What is the term for diffusion of water across a
water concentrations. semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane?
633
When do hCG concentrations peak
In the first 3 months in pregnancy?
How many milliliters of O2 per

0.2 milliliter of blood?
What type of cell is surrounded by

Osteocyte mineralized bone?
Concentration force and electrical What two forces affect movement of

force ions across a membrane?
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember,

when resistors are connected in a series, the total of What happens to the resistance of the system when a
the resistance is the sum of the individual resistor is added in a series?
resistances.)
634
Surface tension; in the alveoli, it is a force that acts to What is the greatest component of
collapse the lung. lung recoil?
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is

stored in the posterior pituitary gland. Where is ADH synthesized?
Velocity is inversely related to How is velocity related to the total cross-sectional

cross-sectional area. area of a blood vessel?
True. In the distal colon, sweat glands, and salivary True or false? Aldosterone has a sodium-conserving
ducts, aldosterone has sodium-conserving effects. action in the distal colon.
What form of hormone is described as having

Water-soluble hormones are membrane-bound receptors that are stored in
considered fast-acting hormones. vesicles, using second messengers, and having its
activity determined by free hormone levels.
635
What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the
Short-chain fatty acids small intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?
Ovulation What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the
female cycle?
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the

The opening of what valve indicates the beginning of
isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of
the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
the cardiac cycle.
What is the region of an axon where

Nodes of Ranvier no myelin is found?
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn characterized by • Increased total body sodium, ECF
syndrome) volume, plasma volume, BP, and pH; decreased
potassium, renin and AT II activity; no edema?
636
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is
Primary hypoaldosteronism characterized by • Decreased total body sodium, ECF
(Addison's disease) volume, plasma volume, BP, and pH; increased
potassium, renin, and AT II activity; no edema?
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient,

greater diffusion rate) 2. Surface area (greater
surface area, greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility What four factors affect diffusion
(greater solubility, greater diffusion rate) 4.
Membrane thickness (thicker the membrane, slower rate?
the diffusion rate) Molecular weight is clinically
unimportant
How long after ovulation does

8 to 25 hours fertilization occur?
Lung recoil, being a force to collapse the lung, What is the name of the force that develops in the
increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration. wall of the lungs as they expand?
What day of the menstrual cycle

Day 14 does ovulation take place?
637
A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from How does sympathetic stimulation to the skin result
constriction of the arterioles, and decreased in decreased blood flow and decreased blood
cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of volume? (Hint: what vessels are stimulated, and
the venous plexus. how?)
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2, 3-BPG,

What two compensatory mechanisms occur to
also called 2, 3-diphosphoglycerate (2, 3-P2Gri)
reverse hypoxia at high altitudes?
(increase in glycolysis)
Theca cell What female follicular cell is under LH stimulation

and produces androgens from cholesterol?
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow, What is the main factor determining
increase FF) FF?
Where is the action potential

Axon hillock generated on a neuron?
638
If positive, hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300
If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive, what type
mOsm/L); if negative, hypertonic urine (osmolarity
of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
> 300 mOsm/L)>>
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker What cell in the heart has the highest rate of
of the heart. automaticity?
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending
leaving the loop of Henle. loop of Henle to decrease the osmolarity?
True. Sarcoplasmic calcium-dependent ATPase

True or false? In skeletal muscle relaxation is an
supplies the energy to terminate contraction, and
active event.
therefore it is an active process.
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration What three factors increase simple

gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane diffusion?
639
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase, What is the pancreatic action of
lipase, and proteases for digestion. CCK?
The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the postjunctional What is the rate-limiting step in a
membrane conduction of a NMJ?
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net
to occur. secretion to occur?
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from What acid-base disturbance is

vomiting because of the loss of H+, K+, and Cl-. produced from vomiting?
Follicular phase is estrogen-dependent with

What phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by
increased FSH levels, while the luteal phase is
estrogen? Progesterone?
progesterone-dependent.
640
Name the lung measurement based on the following
Tidal volume (VT) descriptions: • The amount of air that enters or
leaves the lung system in a single breath

Inspiratory capacity descriptions: • The maximal volume inspired from
FRC

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) descriptions: • Additional volume that can be expired
after normal expiration

Vital capacity (VC) descriptions: • Maximal volume that can be expired
after maximal inspiration

Functional residual capacity (FRC) descriptions: • Volume in the lungs at the end of
passive expiration
641
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) descriptions: • Additional air that can be taken in
after normal inspiration

Residual volume (RV) descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after
maximal expiration

Total lung capacity (TLC) descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after
maximal inspiration
What growth factors are chondrogenic, working on

Somatomedins (IGF-1) the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
What determines the Vmax of

The muscle's ATPase activity
skeletal muscle?
642
True or false? All of the hormones in the
TRUE hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are water
soluble.
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by

What is the effect of T3 on the glucose absorption in
increasing the absorption of glucose from the small
the small intestine?
intestine.
Is the bound form or free form of a lipid-soluble

Free form determines hormone activity and is
hormone responsible for the negative feedback
responsible for the negative feedback loop.
activity?
What region or regions of the adrenal cortex are

Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis stimulated by ACTH?
Are the following parameters associated with an

Obstructive lung disorders. The opposite changes
obstructive or restrictive lung disorder: decreased
(where you see decrease exchange it for increase and
FEV1, FVC, peak flow, and FEV1/FVC; increased
vice versa) are seen in a restrictive pattern.
TLC, FRC, and RV?
643
Hypoventilation, which increases CO2, shifting the What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for
reaction to the right and increasing H+ metabolic alkalosis?
Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the During puberty, what is the main drive for the
increased GH secretion. increased GH secretion?
What type of potential is characterized as graded,

Subthreshold potential decremental, and exhibiting summation?
Liver, kidneys, and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase What three organs are responsible for peripheral
enzyme conversion of T4 to T3?
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the

The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of
ventricular filling phase and beginning of
isovolumetric contraction?
isovolumetric contraction.
644
How many carbons do androgens
Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.
have?
Baseline apical intrapleural pressure is -10 cm H2O At the apex of the lung, what is the baseline
(more negative than the mean) resulting in a force to intrapleural pressure, and what force does it exert on
expand the alveoli. the alveoli?
True. Increased renin and AT II levels occur as a True or false? Renin secretion is increased in
result of the decreased production of aldosterone. 21-β-hydroxylase deficiency.
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the What are the four ways to increase
length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4.
Decrease the number of parallel channels TPR?
What form of estrogen is of placental

Estriol origin?
645
Compliance; the more compliant a lung is, the easier What term is an index of the effort needed to expand
it is to inflate. the lungs (i.e., overcomes recoil)?
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via At which three sites in the body is T4
5'-deiodinase enzyme) converted to T3?
Using Laplace's relationship regarding wall tension,

The wall tension is greater because the aneurysm has
why is the wall tension in an aneurysm greater than
a greater radius than the surrounding vessel.
in the surrounding normal blood vessel's wall?
Seven-eighths of nephrons are cortical, with the What percentage of nephrons is

remainder juxtamedullary. cortical?
Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to To what is the diffusion rate

membrane thickness and is directly proportional to
membranes surface area. indirectly proportional?
646
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma ADH is secreted in response to what
osmolarity and decreased blood volume. two stimuli?
Capillaries What vessels have the largest total cross-sectional

area in systemic circulation?
14 days in most women (Remember, the luteal phase How many days before the first day of menstrual
is always constant.) bleeding is ovulation?
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a

passive process; therefore, no muscles are used. In What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of
the active state the abdominal muscles can be expiration?
considered the major muscle of expiration.
The β-subunit; remember, the What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a
α-subunit is nonspecific. patient is pregnant?
647
Oncotic pressure increases because What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with
of the removal of water. dehydration?
Macula densa What cells of the kidney are extravascular

chemoreceptors for decreased Na+, Cl-, and NaCl?
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while What is the effect of insulin on

decreasing serum K+ levels. intracellular K+ stores?
Decreasing potassium conductance, which results in What triggers phase 4 of the action potential in a
increased excitability ventricular pacemaker cell?
GnRH pulsatile What is it called when levels of sex steroids increase,

LH increases, and FSH increases?
infusion
648
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to What parasympathetic neurotransmitter of the GI
release Gastrin. (All G's) tract stimulates the release of gastrin?
What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain

The carotid sinus reflex BP during a hemorrhage?
What is the name of the regulatory protein that

Tropomyosin covers the attachment site on actin in resting skeletal
muscle?
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that

CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule
Which way does the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve shift
as does O2, reducing the carrying capacity and
in patients with CO poisoning?
shifting the curve to the left, making it difficult to
remove the CO molecule from Hgb.
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular What is the main factor determining
capillary pressure, increased GFR and vice versa) GFR?
649
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral
and therefore an increase in blood flow. blood flow?
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in
calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia. response to hypercalcemia?
What is the term for the amount of blood in the

Residual volume ventricle after maximal contraction?
Pulmonary shunt (i.e., pulmonary What does failure of PaO2 to increase with
embolism) supplemental O2 indicate?
What two substances stimulate

FSH and testosterone Sertoli cells?
650
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard
Para-aminohippurate (PAH) of renal plasma flow?
What bile pigment is formed by the metabolism of

Stercobilin bilirubin by intestinal bacteria, giving stool its brown
color?
Bronchoconstriction is associated with

parasympathetic stimulation (ACh), and
Is ACh associated with bronchoconstriction or
catecholamine stimulation is associated with
bronchodilation?
bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in
emergency treatment of bronchial asthma.)
What are the growth factors released

Somatomedins from the liver called?
An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they

Regarding skeletal muscle mechanics, what is the
are inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by
relationship between velocity and afterload?
afterload.)
651
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is
a net gain in total body water and decreases when What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain
there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is in body fluid?
named in terms of the ECF compartment.
1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin

What are the six substances that promote the
inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. β-Agonists 6.
secretion of insulin?
ACh
O2 has a higher driving force but is only

one-twenty-fourth as soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very
small partial pressure difference across the alveolar Does O2 or CO2 have a higher driving force across
membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg), but it is extremely the alveolar membrane?
soluble and therefore diffuses readily across the
membrane.
Urinary What is used as an index for both adrenal and

testicular androgens?
17-ketosteroids
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally How are resistance and length
related. The greater the length of the vessel, the
greater the resistance is on the vessel. related regarding flow?
652
Filtration is greater than excretion for net Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for net
reabsorption to occur. reabsorption to occur?
Hormone-sensitive lipase, which breaks down What hormone, stimulated by epinephrine, results in
triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid an increase in lipolysis?
FALSE True or false? Miniature end-plate potentials

(MEPPs) generate action potentials.
Yes, it decreases fat and muscle uptake of glucose, Is GH considered a gluconeogenic

thereby increasing blood glucose levels. hormone?
True or false? Somatic motor neurons innervate the
TRUE striated muscle of the bulbospongiosus and

ischiocavernous muscles and result in ejaculation of
semen.
653
As the name indicates, there is no change in volume What happens to intraventricular pressure and
but there is an increase in pressure. volume during isovolumetric contraction?
Yes, they stimulate the growth of mammary tissue

Do high levels of estrogen and progesterone block
but block milk synthesis. At parturition, the decrease
milk synthesis?
in estrogen lifts the block on milk production.
Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over a long time What two factors lead to the development of the
and sudden decompression result in the bends. bends (caisson disease)?
In what type of circuit is the total resistance always

Parallel circuit less than that of the individual resistors?
What is the term for days 15 to 28 in

Luteal phase the female cycle?
654
With an increased rate of breathing the total
ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation.
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with •
Rapid, shallow breathing increases dead space
Increased rate of breathing?
ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation.
(This is hypoventilation).
With an increased depth of breathing both the total

What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with •
and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is
Increased depth of breathing?
always tested on the boards, so remember it.
Primary hypocortisolism (Addison's What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by

the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? •
disease) Cortisol decreased, ACTH increased
Secondary hypercortisolism What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by

(pituitary) Cortisol increased, ACTH increased
Primary What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by

hypercortisolism Cortisol increased, ACTH decreased
655
Secondary hypocortisolism What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by
(pituitary) Cortisol decreased, ACTH decreased
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries
dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction. with arteriolar dilation? Arteriolar constriction?
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on

the following changes in the GFR, RPF, FF, and
Dilation of afferent arteriole glomerular capillary pressure? • GFR ↑, RPF ↑, FF
normal, capillary pressure ↑

Constriction of efferent arteriole glomerular capillary pressure? • GFR ↑, RPF ↓, FF ↑,
capillary pressure ↑

Dilation of efferent arteriole glomerular capillary pressure? • GFR ↓, RPF ↑, FF ↓,
capillary pressure ↓
656
Constriction of afferent arteriole glomerular capillary pressure? • GFR ↓, RPF ↓, FF
normal, capillary pressure ↓
When the intra-alveolar pressure equals zero, there Which direction is air flowing when the
is no airflow. intra-alveolar pressure is zero?
What phase of the female cycle

Follicular phase occurs during days 1 to 15?
The concentration of plasma proteins determines

effective osmolarity because capillary membranes What determines the effective osmolarity of the ICF
are freely permeable to all substances except and the ECF compartments?
proteins.
What region of the brain houses the central

The surface of the medulla chemoreceptors responsible for control of
ventilation?
657
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the
cAMP-dependent chloride pumps of the small and What is the site of action of cholera
large intestine, producing a large volume of toxin?
chloride-rich diarrhea.
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action

potential based on the following information: • Slow
Phase 2 channels open, allowing calcium influx;
voltage-gated potassium channels closed; potassium
efflux through ungated channels; plateau stage
Phase 1 potential based on the following information: • Slight

repolarization secondary to potassium and closure of
the sodium channels
Phase 0 potential based on the following information: • Fast

channels open, then quickly close, and sodium influx
results in depolarization

potential based on the following information: • Slow
Phase 3 channels close, voltage-gated potassium channels
reopen with a large influx of potassium, and the cell
quickly repolarizes
658
In the medulla; all the other Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle and
structures are cortical. the terminal regions of the collecting ducts?
What is absorbed in the gallbladder

Water to concentrate bile?
What type of hormone is described as having

Lipid-soluble hormones are intracellular receptors, being synthesized as needed,
considered slow-acting hormones. mostly bound to proteins, and having its activity
determined by free hormone levels?
1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low

What are the three stimuli that result in the
sodium sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased
reninangiotensin-aldosterone secretion?
β-1-sympathetic stimulation of the JG cells
The p50 value does not change in either anemia or Is there a shift in p50 values with
polycythemia; the main change is the carrying
capacity of the blood. anemia? Polycythemia?
659
Estradiol What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of
LH and FSH in the female cycle?
True; it requires both a concentration gradient and True or false? Active protein transport requires a
ATP to work. concentration gradient.
Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be Up to how many hours post ejaculation do sperm
fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release. retain their ability to fertilize the ovum?
What type of membrane channel opens in response

Voltage-gated channel to depolarization?
1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased

triglyceride uptake by fat cells 3. Increased What are the five effects of insulin
conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in on fat metabolism?
fat tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation
660
True. They are evaginations of the surface True or false? In a skeletal muscle fiber, the interior
membranes and therefore extracellular. of the T-tubule is extracellular.
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral Under resting conditions, what is the main
blood flow. determinant of cerebral blood flow?
Atrial contraction Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • A wave?
Ventricular contraction Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • C wave?
Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • V wave?
661
Osteoblast (Remember, blasts make, What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone
clasts take) deposition?
False. Cardiac output refers to circulating blood

True or false? The blood stored in the systemic veins
volume. The blood in the systemic veins and the
and the pulmonary circuit are considered part of the
pulmonary circuits are storage reserves and
cardiac output.
therefore are not considered in cardiac output.
Pituitary What hormone disorder is characterized by the

following abnormalities in sex steroids↓, LH↓, and
hypogonadism FSH↓? • Sex steroids , LH , FSH
GnRH constant What hormone disorder is characterized by the

following abnormalities in sex steroids↑, LH↓, and
infusion FSH↓? • Sex steroids , LH , FSH ?
What hormone disorder is characterized by the

Primary hypogonadism following abnormalities in sex steroids↓, LH↑, and
(postmenopausal women) FSH↑? • Sex steroids , LH , FSH ?
662
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to What are the three characteristics of
local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous
reflexes autoregulation?
Purkinje cell is the fastest, and the AV node is the What is the fastest-conducting fiber of the heart?
slowest. Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
Afterload What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the

preload?
What follicular cell possesses FSH receptors and

Granulosa cells converts androgens into estradiol?
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the

NE following sites? • Postganglionic sympathetic
neurons
663
Epinephrine following sites? • Chromaffin cells of the adrenal
medulla
Serotonin What are the primary neurotransmitters at the

following sites? • Brainstem cells
Histamine What are the primary neurotransmitters at the

following sites? • The hypothalamus

ACh following sites? • All motor neurons, postganglionic
parasympathetic neurons
ACh What are the primary neurotransmitters at the

following sites? • Autonomic preganglionic neurons
664
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 What region of the nephron has the
mOsm/L) highest osmolarity?
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for
therefore needed for protein digestion. pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
Stroke volume What is the term for the amount of blood expelled
from the ventricle per beat?
False. It does increase uterine synthesis of True or false? Oxytocin initiates rhythmic
prostaglandins, which increase uterine contractions. contractions associated with labor.
DLCO, an index of lung surface area and membrane

thickness, is decreased in fibrosis because of
increased membrane thickness and decreased in Why does carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung
emphysema because of increased surface area (DLCO) decrease in emphysema and fibrosis but
without increase in capillary recruitment; in exercise increase during exercise?
there is an increase in surface area due to capillary
recruitment.
665
What enzyme converts androgens to
Aromatase estrogens?
Inulin The clearance of what substance is the gold standard

of GFR?
The greater the myelination, the greater the How does myelination affect conduction velocity of
conduction velocity. an action potential?
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. α-Limit dextrans (α-1, 6 What are the three end products of
binding) amylase digestion?
Where is most of the airway resistance in the

In the first and second bronchi respiratory system?
666
Hyperventilation, which decreases CO2, shifting the What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for
reaction to the left and decreasing H+ metabolic acidosis?
Viscosity and resistance are proportionally related. How are resistance and viscosity
The greater the viscosity, the greater the resistance is
on the vessel. related regarding flow?
GH T3 increases bone ossification through synergistic

effect with what hormone?
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: •

Voltage-gated calcium channel Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to
open slowly

Ungated potassium channel Always open
667
Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to
Voltage-gated sodium channel open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus
until cell is repolarized.

Open at rest; depolarization is stimulus to close;
Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to reopen during the plateau phase and during
repolarization
What are the three glycogenic

Liver, kidney, and GI epithelium
organs?
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2, the rate at

which CO2 is brought to the membrane determines
its rate of exchange, making it perfusion-limited a Is CO2 a perfusion-or
gas. For O2 the more time it is in contact with the diffusion-limited O2 gas?
membrane, the more likely it will diffuse, making it
diffusion-limited.
Transmembrane potential (an What is the term for the potential difference across a
absolute number) cell membrane?
668
What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed up
21-β-Hydroxylase deficiency leads to hypotension,
as a mineralocorticoid deficiency, glucocorticoid
hyponatremia, and virilization.
deficiency, and an excess of adrenal androgens?
Increase in ECF osmolarity means a in decrease in When the ECF osmolarity increases, what happens to
ICF osmolarity, so cells shrink. cell size?
In early-morning sleep, usually between the sixth

and eighth hours When does cortisol secretion peak?
What is the term for ventilation of

Alveolar dead space unperfused alveoli?
What is the bioactive form of thyroid

T3 hormone?
669
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic What acid-base disturbance occurs
diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and
potassium into the colonic lumen. in colonic diarrhea
Glutamine and What two AAs act as excitatory transmitters in the

CNS, generating EPSPs?
aspartate
1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of

What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial
the efferent arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of
natriuretic peptide's diuretic and natriuretic affects?
sodium and water in the collecting ducts
Resistance decreases as resistors are In a parallel circuit, what happens to resistance when
added in parallel. a resistor is added in parallel
What component of the ANS is responsible for

Sympathetic nervous system movement of semen from the epididymis to the
ejaculatory ducts?
670
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50, What happens to O2 affinity with a
making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb
molecule. decrease in p50?
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a If the ratio of a substance's filtrate and plasma
substance is equal, the substance is freely filtered by concentrations are equal, what is that substance's
the kidney. affect on the kidney?
A loss of afferent activity indicates a decrease in BP,

What does a loss of afferent activity from the carotid
and an increase in afferent activity indicates an
sinus onto the medulla signal?
increase in BP.
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial What are the five F's associated with
5. Fertile gallstones?
False. It is a passive process due to decreased sex True or false? Menstruation is an active process due
hormones. to increased gonadal sex hormones?
671
Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the What happens to the intrapleural pressure when the
intrapleural pressure (becomes more positive). diaphragm relaxes?
What component of the
AT II renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis increases sodium

reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules and
increases thirst drive?
The aorta What large-diameter vessel has the smallest

cross-sectional area in systemic circulation?
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be

of collagen) detected by checking urine levels of what substance?
What happens to the following during skeletal

No change in length muscle contraction? • A band
672
Shortens What happens to the following during skeletal
muscle contraction? • I band

muscle contraction? • H zone

muscle contraction? • Sarcomere
What happens to the following during skeletal

No change in length muscle contraction? • Actin and myosin lengths
1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2.

What are the three effects of insulin on protein
Decreased protein breakdown 3. Increased protein
metabolism?
synthesis
673
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein-mediated What is the main mechanism for exchange of
transport nutrients and gases across a capillary membrane?
What event signifies the first day of

Onset of bleeding the menstrual cycle?
Name the muscle type based on the histological

features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated;
Cardiac muscle uninuclear; gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding
complex; T tubules and SR forming dyadic contacts;
voltage-gated calcium channels

features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated;
Skeletal muscle multinuclear; lacks gap junctions; troponin:calcium
binding; T tubules and SR forming triadic contacts;
highest ATPase activity; no calcium channels

features: • Actin and myosin not in sarcomeres;
Smooth muscle nonstriated; uninuclear; gap junctions;
calmodulin:calcium binding; lacks T tubules;
voltage-gated calcium channels
674
Name the valve abnormality based on the following
criteria: • Back-filling into the left atrium during
Mitral insufficiency systole; increased v-wave, preload, left atrial volume,
and left ventricular filling

criteria: • Systolic murmur, increased preload and
Aortic stenosis afterload, decreased aortic pulse pressure and
coronary blood flow

criteria: • Diastolic murmur, increased right
Mitral stenosis ventricular pressure, left atrial pressure, and atrial to
ventricular pressure gradient; decreased left
ventricular filling pressure

criteria: • Diastolic murmur; increased preload,
Aortic insufficiency stroke volume, and aortic pulse pressure; decreased
coronary blood flow; no incisura; and peripheral
vasodilation
Circulating levels of what hormone cause the cervical

Estrogen mucus to be thin and watery, allowing sperm an
easier entry into the uterus?
675
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic
What hormone controls relaxation of the lower
neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the
esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
lower esophageal sphincter.
Pulse pressure What is the term for the difference between systolic
and diastolic pressures?
Androgen-binding What hormone, produced by the Sertoli cells, is

responsible for keeping testosterone levels in the
seminiferous tubules nearly 50 times that of the
protein serum?
True or false? There are no central

TRUE O2 receptors.
Osteoblasts, which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to What cell type of the bone has PTH
break down bone, releasing Ca2+ into the
interstitium. (Remember, blasts make, clasts take.) receptors?
676
What substance is secreted by parietal glands and is
Intrinsic factor (IF) required for life?
Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2

delivery in the coronary circulation because What is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the
extraction is nearly maximal during resting coronary circulation?
conditions.
Afterload What is the term for the load a muscle is trying to

move during stimulation?
What is the term for days 1 to 7 of

Menses the female cycle?
Afterload What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle
must generate to expel the blood into the aorta?
677
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water What happens to the tonicity of the urine with
reabsorption in the collecting duct. increased ADH secretion?
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is

characterized by high back leak, low affinity for
Gradient-time system substance, and absence of saturation and is surmised
to be a constant percentage of a reabsorbed filtered
substance?
What type of circuit is described when the total

Series circuit resistance is always greater than the sums of the
individual resistors?
What hormone excess brings about abnormal

glucose tolerance testing, impaired cardiac function,
Increased secretion of GH postpuberty leading to
decreased body fat, increased body protein,
acromegaly.
prognathism, coarse facial features, and
enlargements of the hands and feet?
The V/Q ratio increases, since the area is ventilated What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in
but hypoperfused as a result of the occlusion. the pulmonary artery?
678
What hormone has the following effects:
GH, especially IGF-1. GH also increases the chondrogenic in the epiphyseal end plates of bones;
incorporation of thymidine in DNA synthesis and increases AA transport for protein synthesis;
uridine in RNA synthesis. increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases
chondroitin sulfate synthesis?
FALSE True or false? Bile pigments and bile salts are

reabsorbed in the gallbladder.
PR interval What component of an ECG is associated with the

following? • Conduction delay in the AV node
QRS complex What component of an ECG is associated with the

following? • Ventricular depolarization
P wave What component of an ECG is associated with the

following? • Atrial depolarization
679
T wave What component of an ECG is associated with the
following? • Ventricular repolarization
Where is the greatest venous PO2 in

Renal circulation resting tissue?
Near the end of pregnancy, what hormone's

Oxytocin receptors increase in the myometrium because of
elevated plasma estrogen levels?
Pneumotaxic center (short, fast What respiratory center in the rostral pons has an
breaths) inhibitory affect on the apneustic center?
For what hormone do Leydig cells

LH have receptors?
680
What primary acid-base disturbance is cause by a
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2, high H+, decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2
slightly high HCO3-) levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right
and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
What lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio

2.0 or greater indicates lung maturity?
What is the term for the negative resting membrane

Hyperpolarization (i.e., K+ influx) potential becoming more negative?
A low-resistance system is formed by resistors added What type of resistance system (i.e., high or low) is
in parallel. formed when resistors are added in parallel?
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of Why is hypothyroidism associated

carotene to vitamin A. with night blindness?
681
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21%
What is the FiO2 of room air?
of the air is O2.
Where are the lowest resting PO2 levels in a resting

Coronary circulation individual?
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the What is the rate-limiting step in the production of
enzyme desmolase steroids?
Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus In the water deprivation test, does a patient with
will continue to produce large volumes of dilute reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or
urine. diabetes insipidus?
True; the greater the fat, the less the True or false? There is an inverse relationship
total body water. between fat content and total body water.
682
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein What is the role of the negative charge on the
anions. filtering membrane of the glomerular capillaries?
What cardiac reflex is characterized by stretch

receptors in the right atrium, afferent and efferent
Bainbridge reflex limbs via the vagus nerve, and increased stretch
leading to an increase in heart rate via inhibition of
parasympathetic stimulation?
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of bile
the distal ileum. salts take place?
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. What three structures increase the surface area of the
Microvilli (600 times) GI tract?
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during

inspiration because of the increased output of the Does physiologic splitting of the first heart sound
right ventricle, delaying the closure of the pulmonic occur during inspiration or expiration? Why?
valve.
683
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain
Most people ingest 500 mcg/day. normal thyroid hormone secretion?
CSF H+ levels, with acidosis being the main central

What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for
drive, resulting in hyperventilation (the opposite
ventilation?
being true with alkalosis)
What result occurs because of the negative alveolar

Air flows into the respiratory system. pressure generated during inspiration?
Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH Corticotropin-releasing hormone promotes the

and β-lipotropin. synthesis and release of what prohormone?
Free hormone levels remain constant, and the bound What happens to free hormone levels when the liver
hormone level changes with a decrease in binding decreases production and release of binding
hormones. proteins?
684
Estrone What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral
tissues from androgens?
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and What changes does more negative intrathoracic
increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary pressure cause to systemic venous return and to the
vessels pulmonary vessels?
In the JG cells of the kidney

Where is renin
produced?
False. Right-sided valves are the first to open and True or false? Right-sided valves close before the
last to close. valves on the left side of the heart.
What enzyme is associated with

Alkaline phosphatase osteoblastic activity?
685
What is the order of attachment of O2 to
Order of attachment is site 1, 2, 3, 4, and for release
Hgb-binding sites in the lung? Order of release from
is 4, 3, 2, 1.
the binding sites in the tissue?
Insulin What hormone is secreted into the plasma in

response to a meal rich in protein or CHO?
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and What happens to blood flow and pressure
pressure downstream decrease. downstream with local arteriolar constriction?
What occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter

Achalasia fails to relax during swallowing due to abnormalities
of the enteric nervous plexus?
True. They have no gates, so by definition they are True or false? Ungated channels are
always open. always open.
686
What component of the ANS is responsible for
Parasympathetics (parasympathetics point,
dilation of the blood vessels in the erectile tissue of
sympathetics shoot)
the penis, resulting in an erection?
What muscle type is characterized by low ATPase

Red muscle activity, aerobic metabolism, myoglobin, association
with endurance, and small muscle mass?
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased

What happens to diastolic and systolic intervals with
contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary
an increase in sympathetic activity?
to an increase in heart rate.
Circulating levels of what hormone in men is
Testosterone responsible for the negative feedback loop to the

hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland
regulating the release of LH?
They are inversely proportional to each other; as How are pulse pressure and
pulse pressure increases, compliance decreases. compliance related?
687
What three substances stimulate
ACh, histamine, and gastrin
parietal cells?
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high

What two factors result in the base of the lung being
perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low
hyperperfused?
resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.
True. Without ADH hypotonic urine True or false? Without ADH the collecting duct
would be formed. would be impermeable to water.
Depolarization is from apex to base and from How does ventricular depolarization take place, base
endocardium to epicardium. to apex or vice versa?
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the What are effects of PTH in the
kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT. kidney?
688
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to Regarding muscle mechanics, how is passive tension
contraction. produced?
Insulin-induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable

GH deficiency (by far not the safest) test for what hormone
deficiency?
Water flows from a low-solute to high-solute In regards to solute concentration,

concentrations. how does water flow?
Macula densa Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low

NaCl concentrations?
A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is

If the AV difference is positive, is the substance
extracted by the organ, and a negative difference
extracted or produced by the organ?
indicates that it is produced by the organ.
689
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function What is used as an index of the number of
carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the functioning carriers for a substance in active
number of functioning carriers. reabsorption in the kidney?
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is

buffered by K+ leaving the cells, resulting in
intracellular depletion and serum excess. Why is there a transcellular shift in K+ levels in a
(Intracellular hypokalemia is the reason you diabetic patient who becomes acidotic?
supplement potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis, even
though the serum levels are elevated.)
True or false? Catechol-O-methyl transferase

False. That is precisely where COMT is found; it is
(COMT) is not found in smooth muscle, liver, and
not found in adrenergic nerve terminals.
the kidneys.
IGF-1 (somatomedin What somatomedin serves as a 24-hour marker of

GH secretion?
C)
What receptor is in the smooth muscle cells of the

Stretch receptors prevent overdistension of the lungs
small bronchi, is stimulated during inflation, and
during inspiration.
inhibits inspiration?
690
True. They are also necessary for True or false? Thyroid hormones are necessary for
normal brain maturation. normal menstrual cycles.
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume,

What component of the cardiovascular system has
and the pulmonary veins have the second largest
the largest blood volume? Second largest blood
blood volume in the cardiovascular system. They
volume?
represent the reservoirs of circulation.
Creatinine Serum concentration of what substance is used as a

clinical measure of a patient's GFR?
In the mouth with salivary

Where does CHO digestion begin?
α-amylase (ptyalin)
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect

It decreases insulin secretion. insulin secretion?
691
The greater the cell diameter, the greater the How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity
conduction velocity. of an action potential?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Calf
pseudohypertrophy
Wilson disease Kayser-Fleischer rings
Rheumatic fever Aschoff bodies
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous

plugs) Curschmann spirals
692
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil Charcot-Leyden
membranes)
crystals
Squamous cell
carcinoma Keratin pearls
Bence-Jones
Multiple myeloma
proteinuria
Multiple myeloma Russell bodies
Acute cystitis WBCs in the urine
693
Bladder carcinoma RBCs in the urine
Acute
RBC casts in the urine
glomerulonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis WBC casts in the urine
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis Renal epithelial casts in the urine
Chronic end-stage renal disease Waxy casts
694
Gastric carcinoma Signet ring cells
G-6-PD deficiency Heinz bodies
Chronic alcoholic Mallory bodies
AML-M3 Auer rods
Burkitt lymphoma Starry sky pattern
695
Histiocytosis X Birbeck granules
Hodgkin lymphoma Reed-Sternberg cells
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the

ovary Call-Exner bodies
Herpesvirus Cowdry type A bodies
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary Orphan Annie cells
696
Turner syndrome Streaky ovaries
Fibrocystic change of the breast Blue-domed cysts
Leydig cell tumor Reinke crystals
Yolk sac tumor Schiller-Duval bodies
Osteosarcoma Codman triangle on radiograph
697
Toxic or viral hepatitis Councilman bodies
Osteogenesis
imperfecta Blue sclera
Soap bubble appearance on

Giant cell tumor of the bone
radiograph
Ewing sarcoma Pseudorosettes
Alzheimer disease Neurofibrillary tangles
698
Neuroblastoma Homer-Wright rosettes
Parkinson disease Lewy bodies
Epidural hematoma Lucid interval
Subarachnoid Bloody tap on lumbar puncture

hemorrhage
Glioblastoma
Pseudopalisades
multiforme
699
Alzheimer disease Senile plaques
Neurofibromatosis Café-au-lait spot on the skin
Name the most common cause. •

Chlamydia trachomatis Blindness worldwide
Name the most common cause. • Blindness in the

Diabetes mellitus United States
Name the most common cause. • Dementia in

Alzheimer disease persons aged 60 to 90 years
700
Name the most common type. •
Dyslexia Learning disability
Name the most common type. •

Fetal alcohol syndrome Mental retardation
Stage fright (discrete performance Name the most common type. •

anxiety) Phobia
Anxiety disorders; for men it is Name the most common type. • Psychiatric disorder
substance abuse. in women of all ages
Public speaking (Remember: stage Name the most common type. •

fright) Specific phobia
701
Alcohol abuse Chronic pancreatitis

Mumps Infectious pancreatitis

Depression Insomnia
RSV Name the most common cause. • Hospitalization in

children younger than 1 year of age

Parainfluenza virus Croup
702
Coronavirus Name the most common cause. • A cold in the winter
and summer
Rhinovirus Name the most common cause. • A cold in the spring

and fall
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for Which virus is the MCC of a cold in the summer and
winter and spring fall? Winter and spring?
Amyloidosis Name the most common type or cause. • Restrictive

cardiomyopathy
Name the most common type or cause. • Death in the

Ischemic heart disease (MIs) United States
703
Name the most common type or cause. • Sudden
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib) cardiac death
Name the most common type or

Left heart failure cause. • Right heart failure
Congenital heart Name the most common type or cause. • Childhood

heart disease in the United States
disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Cyanotic

Tetralogy of Fallot heart disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Subacute

Streptococcus viridans bacterial endocarditis
704
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute
Staphylococcus aureus bacterial endocarditis
RSV Name the most common type or cause. • Viral

pneumonia leading to death
Pseudomonas Name the most common type or cause. • Infection in

a patient on a ventilator
aeruginosa
RSV Name the most common type or cause. •

Bronchiolitis in children
VSD Name the most common type or cause. • Pulmonary

HTN in children
705
Alcohol abuse Name the most common type or cause. • Reversible
HTN in the United States
Name the most common type or cause. •

Emphysematous bleb Spontaneous pneumothorax
Asbestosis Name the most common type or cause. • Nonorganic

pneumoconiosis

Hypoxia cause. • Cellular injury

Ischemia cause. • Hypoxia
706
Streptococcus Name the most common type or
cause. • Lobar pneumonia
pneumoniae

Aspiration cause. • Lung abscess
Name the most common type or cause. • Cirrhosis in

Alcohol consumption the United States
Membranoproliferative Name the most common type or

glomerulonephritis (MGN) cause. • Nephrotic syndrome
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephrotic

Lipoid nephrosis syndrome in children
707
Name the most common type or cause. • Liver
Alcoholic cirrhosis transplantation in adults

Escherichia coli cause. • UTIs
BPH Name the most common type or cause. • Urinary

tract obstruction

Renal cell carcinoma cause. • Painless hematuria

Infection cause. • Hematuria
708
IgA nephropathy cause. • GN in the world
Minimal change Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic

syndrome in children
disease
MGN Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic

syndrome in adults
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute renal

Acute tubular necrosis failure in the United States
Ischemic Name the most common type or cause. • Acute

tubular necrosis
709
Rotavirus Name the most common type or cause. • Diarrhea in
children
Name the most common type or cause. • Intestinal

Adhesions and hernias obstructions in adults
Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal

Hirschsprung disease bowel obstruction

Diverticulosis cause. • Rectal bleeding
Alcoholism Name the most common type or cause. •

Mallory-Weiss syndrome
710
Polycystic ovaries cause. • Anovulation
Name the most common type or cause. • Breast lump

Fibrocystic change of the breast in females

Sickle cell disease Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis

Sheehan syndrome cause. • Panhypopituitarism

Pituitary adenoma cause. • Cushing syndrome
711
Hashimoto thyroiditis Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism in the United States
Iatrogenesis Name the most common type or cause. •

Hypothyroidism in the United States
Name the most common type or cause. • Pyogenic

Staphylococcus aureus osteomyelitis
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal
Streptococcus, or GBS) septicemia and meningitis
Pneumococcus Name the most common type or cause. • Sinusitis

and otitis media in children
712
Pneumococcus Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis
in adults
Listeria Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis

in renal transplantation patients
monocytogenes
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (Rotavirus is the Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile
MCC overall.) bacterial diarrhea

Rotavirus cause. • Infantile diarrhea

Haemophilus ducreyi cause. • Chancre
713
Name the most common type or cause. • Urethritis in
Staphylococcus saprophyticus a young, newly sexually active individual

Escherichia coli cause. • Cystitis
Streptococcus Name the most common type or

cause. • Erysipelas
pyogenes
Lead Name the most common type or cause. • Chronic

metal poisoning
Arsenic Name the most common type or cause. • Acute metal

poisoning in the United States
714
Neonatal respiratory distress Name the MCC of death. • In
syndrome (NRDS) neonates
Renal failure Name the MCC of death. • In SLE
Name the MCC of death. • In

MI diabetic individuals
Name the MCC of death. • In

Pulmonary infections patients with cystic fibrosis
What is the MCC of death in the

Heart disease United States?
715
Cancer What is the second leading cause of death in the
United States?
Accidents What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14 in

the United States?
Cancer What is the second leading cause of death in children

aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
What is the MCC of cancer mortality

Lung cancer in males and females?
For males it's prostate cancer, and for females it's What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in
breast cancer. males? In females?
716
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in What is the MCC of death in black
black females aged 15 to 24. males aged 15 to 24?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in
Chlamydia trachomatis males? • Less than 35 years old
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in
sp. males? • More than 35 years old
Propionibacterium What is the most common causative organism of

acne vulgaris?
acnes
What is the MCC of viral

Adenovirus conjunctivitis?
717
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis
Streptococcus viridans scenarios? • Post dental work

Enterococcus faecalis scenarios? • Following biliary infections

Staphylococcus aureus scenarios? • Non–IV drug user
Name the MCC. • Epiglottitis in an

Haemophilus influenzae type B
unvaccinated child
Streptococcus Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in

adults
pneumoniae
718
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a
Pseudomonas sp. neutropenic burn patient
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a patient with

Chlamydia psittaci atypical bird exposure and hepatitis
Mycoplasma Name the MCC. • Walking pneumonia, seen in teens

and military recruits
pneumoniae
Name the MCC. • Aspiration

Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia in an alcoholic
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in an HIV-positive

Pneumocystis carinii patient with CD4 less than 200
719
Cryptococcus What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In
patients who have AIDS or are immunocompromised
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In

Neisseria meningitides military recruits
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In

Haemophilus influenzae type B those 12 months to 6 years of age
Streptococcus agalactiae and What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In

Escherichia coli neonates to 3 months of age
Streptococcus What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In

adults
pneumoniae
720
Listeria What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In
renal transplant patients
monocytogenes
What is the most common one? • Helminthic

Ascaris lumbricoides parasite worldwide
Enterobius What is the most common one? • Helminth parasitic

infection in the United States
vermicularis
What is the most common one? •

Coagulative Form of necrosis
What is the most common one? • Organism that

Escherichia coli causes pyelonephritis
721
VSD Congenital cardiac anomaly
PDA What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly in

children

Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Complication of PDA
ASD What is the most common one? • Congenital heart

defect in adults
Ostium secundum What is the most common one? •

Type of ASD
defects
722
Temporal arteritis Vasculitis

Temporal arteritis Form of vasculitis

Left atrial myxoma Cardiac tumor

Rhabdomyoma Cardiac tumor of infancy
What is the most common one? • Cardiac pathology

Libman-Sacks endocarditis in patients with SLE
723
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly
Coarctation of the aorta in Turner syndrome
What is the most common one? • Valve abnormality

Mitral valve stenosis associated with rheumatic fever

Coxsackie B Viral cause of myocarditis

Adenocarcinoma Primary lung cancer
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant

Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%) tumor of the lungs
724
What is the most common one? • Neoplastic tumor
Metastatic carcinomas in the lungs

Transitional cell carcinoma
Bladder tumor

Calcium oxylate Renal calculus type

Calcium oxalate Kidney stone type

Neuroblastoma Solid tumor in children
725
Diffuse proliferative What is the most common one? • Renal pathology in
patients with SLE
GN
Squamous cell What is the most common one? • Cancer of the

esophagus in the world
carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in
esophagus) the United States
Squamous cell What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of

the esophagus
carcinoma

Leiomyoma Benign GI tumor
726
What is the most common one? • Site of ischemia in
Splenic flexure the GI tract
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as What is the most common one? •

common as gastric) Type of PUD
Anterior wall of the first part of the What is the most common one? • Location of a
duodenum duodenal ulcer
Lesser curvature of the antrum of What is the most common one? • Location of a
the stomach gastric ulcer

Appendix (second is terminal ileum)
Site for carcinoid tumors
727
Sigmoid colon What is the most common one? • Site for colonic
diverticula

Terminal ileum Site of Crohn disease

Rectum Site of ulcerative colitis

Head of the pancreas Site of pancreatic cancer
Insulinoma What is the most common one? • Pancreatic islet cell

tumor
728
Mixed (both cholesterol and What is the most common one? • Stone type
calcium) associated with cholecystitis

Metastatic carcinoma Liver tumor
Hepatocellular What is the most common one? • Primary malignant

tumor in the liver
carcinoma

Hemangioma (benign) Primary tumor of the liver
What is the most common one? • Organism

Entamoeba histolytica associated with liver abscesses
729
Clear cell Renal cell cancer type
Squamous cell What is the most common one? •

Esophageal carcinoma
carcinoma

Nephroblastoma Solid tumor in the body

ALL Malignancy in children
What is the most common one? • Lymph node

Periaortic lymph nodes affected in non-Hodgkin lymphoma
730
What is the most common one? • Subtype of
Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma

Papillary carcinoma Thyroid cancer

Follicular adenoma Thyroid adenoma

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Malignant thyroid tumor
Chromophobe What is the most common one? •

Pituitary tumor
adenoma
731
Prolactinoma Pituitary adenoma
What is the most common one? • Tumor arising

Multiple myeloma within the bone

Basal cell carcinoma Tumor on sun-exposed sites
What is the most common one? • Malignant germ

Choriocarcinoma cell tumor in women
What is the most common one? • Primary

Serocystadenocarcinoma malignant tumor of the ovary
732
Breast Malignant tumor in women
Squamous cell What is the most common one? •

Cancer of the vulva
carcinoma

Cervical neoplasia tumor of the female genital tract in the world

Adenocarcinoma of the cervix tumor of the female genital tract in the United States
Leiomyoma What is the most common one? • Tumor of the

female genitourinary tract
733
Serocystadenoma Benign tumor of the ovary

Fibroadenoma Benign tumor of the breast
Fibroadenoma What is the most common one? • Benign breast

tumor in females less than 35 years old
What is the most common one? • Histologic variant

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma of breast cancer
What is the most common one? • Benign lesion that

Fibrocystic change of the breast affects the breast
734
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of
Invasive ductal carcinoma the breast
Ovarian cancer What is the most common one? • Female genital

tract malignancy resulting in death
What is the most common one? • Malignancy of the

Endometrial cancer female genital tract
What is the most common one? • Tumor of the

Leiomyoma (fibroids) female genital tract

Cystadenoma Benign ovarian tumor
735
What is the most common one? • Malignant
Cystadenocarcinoma carcinoma of the ovaries

Ovarian fibroma Stromal tumor of the ovary
Dysgerminoma What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor of

the ovary

Testicular tumors Tumor in men aged 15 to 35
What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in

Testicular lymphoma men over 50 years old
736
Seminoma Germ cell tumor in men
Yolk sac tumor What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in
infants and children

Yolk sac tumor Germ cell tumor in boys
Osteosarcoma What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor in

the bone of teenagers

Ependymoma Intraspinal tumor
737
Retinoblastoma Eye tumor in children
Kidney What is the most common one? • Organ involved in

amyloidosis
What is the most common one? • Complication of

Aspiration pneumonia nasogastric tube feeding
What is the most common one? • Acquired GI

Necrotizing enterocolitis emergency of infancy
What is the most common one? • Organism

Staphylococcus aureus associated with mastitis
738
Bronchogenic What is the most common one? • Tumor in
individuals exposed to asbestos
carcinoma
BPH What is the most common one? • Proliferative

abnormality of an internal organ

Rheumatoid arthritis Inflammatory arthritis

Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Form of muscular dystrophy
Knee What is the most common one? • Joint affected in

pseudogout
739
Hematogenous What is the most common one? • Route for
infectious arthritis

Osteoarthritis Form of arthritis
Hematogenous What is the most common one? • Route of spread in

pyogenic osteomyelitis
Osteoporosis What is the most common one? • Bone disorder in

the United States
Breast What is the most common one? • Primary tumor

metastasis to the bone
740
Metastatic Bone tumor
What is the most common one? • Neurotransmitter

GABA, quantitatively in the brain

Middle cerebral artery Site of a cerebral infarct
Glioblastoma What is the most common one? • Primary CNS

tumor in adults
multiforme
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS

Medulla blastoma tumor in children
741
Metastatic Brain tumor
Glioblastoma What is the most common one? •

Primary CNS tumor
multiforme
Ependymoma What is the most common one? • Intramedullary

spinal cord tumor in adults
In children, the fourth ventricle; in adults, the lateral What is the most common one? • Location of
ventricle or spinal cord ependymomas in children
What is the most common one? • Melanoma in

Acral-lentiginous melanoma dark-skinned persons
742
Superficial spreading melanoma
Type of melanoma
What is the most common one? • Skin tumor in the

Basal cell carcinoma United States
Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm, usually What is the most common one? Site of congenital
resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia. diaphragmatic hernias
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect What is the most common one? • Type of hernia seen
hernias are the most common type. in males more than 50 years old
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of What is the most common one? • Sites for abdominal
the abdominal aorta aorta aneurysm
743
The bifurcation of the abdominal What is the most common one? • Site for
aorta atherosclerotic plaques in the abdominal aorta
What is the most common one? • Site for an ectopic

The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas) abdominal pregnancy
On the superior body of the What is the most common site for implantation of
posterior wall of the uterus the blastocyst?
Where is the most frequent site of

Ampulla of the fallopian tube
ectopic pregnancy?
Breast cancer What is the most common diagnosis made (or

missed!) resulting in a malpractice suit?
744
0157:H7 What is the most common serotype of
enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
What is the most common

IgG circulation Ig in the plasma?
In men it is prostate cancer, and in women it is What is the most common cancer
breast cancer. diagnosed in men? In women?
Lung and bronchus What is the second most common cancer diagnosed
in both males and females?
cancer
Prostate and lung cancer, What are the two leading causes of cancer-related
respectively death in men?
745
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related
Breast and lung cancer, respectively. death in women?
For males, HTN; for females, What is the most common primary diagnosis
pregnancy. resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember, it is What is the most common disease or infection
mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.) reported to the CDC?
HPV What is the most common STD?
Name the most common reported

Chlamydia STD. • In females
746
Name the most common reported
Gonorrhea STD. • In males
What is the most common sexual

Pedophilia assault?
Nearly 50% of all reported cases of elderly abuse are

due to neglect. Physical, psychological, and financial What is the most common form of
are other forms of elderly abuse with an overall elderly abuse?
prevalence rate of 5% to 10%.

C2 deficiency complement deficiency?
What is the most common organ

Kidney involved in amyloidosis?
747
What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin
Follicular lymphoma lymphoma in the United States?
Upper outer quadrant (left more In which quadrant is breast cancer

than right) most commonly found?
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium What is the most common cardiac tumor? In what
near the fossa ovalis. chamber does it most commonly arise?
Temporal lobes What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in

herpes encephalitis?
HTN What is the most common condition leading to an

intracerebral bleed?
748
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and What carpal bone is most commonly
the lunate is the most commonly dislocated. fractured? Dislocated?
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country What is the costliest health care problem in the
approximately $100 billion a year. United States?
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a What is the most abused drug across
problem with alcohol. all age groups?
What are the two most common

α-and β-chains are on most T cells.
chains of the TCR?
What is the most common form of

Achondroplasia inherited dwarfism?
749
What is the most common lethal AR disorder
Cystic fibrosis affecting white Americans?
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than What is the most common genetic cause of mental
fragile X syndrome.) retardation?
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have What is the most common chromosomal
abnormal karyotypes.) abnormality associated with CLL?
Name the most common one. •

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Chromosomal disorder
Name the most common one. •

Endocardial cushion defect
Heart defect in Down syndrome
750
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal
Klinefelter syndrome disorder involving sex chromosomes
Chromosome 9, 22 (Philadelphia Name the associated chromosomal

chromosome) translocation. • CML
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. •

Chromosome 11, 22 Ewing sarcoma

Chromosome 5, 21 Adult familial polyposis

Chromosome 8, 14 Burkitt lymphoma
751
Chromosome 15, 17 Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
Name the associated chromosomal

Chromosome 15, 17 translocation. • M3 AML

Chromosome 14, 18 Follicular lymphoma
Name the associated chromosome. •

Chromosome 5p Cri-du-chat

Chromosome 13 Patau syndrome
752
Chromosome 4p Huntington disease
Chromosome 19 Name the associated chromosome. • Familial

hypercholesterolemia

Chromosome 1 Gaucher disease
Chromosome Name the associated chromosome. •

Niemann-Pick disease
11p

Tay-Sachs disease
15q
753
Chromosome 7 Cystic fibrosis
Chromosome 12 Name the associated chromosome. • Chronic

lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Chromosome 15 Marfan disease
Chromosome 17 Name the associated chromosome. •

Neurofibromatosis type 1

Neurofibromatosis type 2
22q
754
Chromosome 21 Down syndrome

Chromosome 18 Edward syndrome
Chromosome 3p Name the associated chromosome. • VON

Hippel-Lindau disease

Down syndrome chromosomal disorder?
What is the MCC of inherited mental

Down syndrome retardation?
755
What is the most common lysosomal
Gaucher disease storage disorder?
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the What chromosome is mutant in
chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on
chromosome 7. patients with cystic fibrosis?
Chromosome 19 Familial hypercholesteremia is due to a mutation in

the LDL receptor gene. What chromosome carries it?
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in What chromosome is associated

adenosine deaminase) with the AR form of SCID?
On what chromosome is the

Chromosome 5q21 adenomatous polyposis coli gene?
756
Albinism
11p
What mineral is associated with

Chromium (Cr) impaired glucose tolerance?
What mineral is associated with

Iodine (I) hypothyroidism?
What mineral is an important component of the

Molybdenum (Mb) enzyme xanthine oxidase?
What vitamin deficiency produces angular

Riboflavin (B2) deficiency stomatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis?
757
Thymine (B1) What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme
thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg Avidin decreases the absorption of

whites. what vitamin?
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. What are the four Ds of niacin

Dementia 4. Death deficiency?
Selenium (Se) What mineral is an important component of

glutathione peroxidase?
What mineral deficiency in children is associated

Zinc (Zn) deficiency with poor growth and impaired sexual development?
758
Iron (Fe) What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver,
causes hemochromatosis?
What vitamin is needed for the

Pyridoxine (B6) production of heme?
What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty

Pantothenic acid acid synthase and acyl CoA?
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria
deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.) and methylmalonic aciduria?
What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound

Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the
healing, loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and
signs of scurvy.)
ecchymosis?
759
Pyruvate, acetyl CoA, and propionyl What are the three carboxylase
CoA carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
What vitamin requires IF for

Cyanocobalamin (B12) absorption?
What mineral is a component of

Copper cytochrome a/a3?
Copper Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental deterioration

are signs of what mineral deficiency?
What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking

Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency neuropathy seen in alcoholics?
760
What mineral deficiency involves
Copper deficiency blood vessel fragility?
Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are

Folic acid deficiency signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Thiamine What vitamin deficiency can result in high-output

cardiac failure?
Name the antidote. • Carbon

Oxygen monoxide (CO)
Dimercaprol, penicillamine Name the antidote. • Mercury
761
Pyridoxine Name the antidote. • Isoniazid
Physostigmine Name the antidote. • Atropine
Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine Name the antidote. • Arsenic
Antidigoxin Fab fragments Name the antidote. • Digoxin
Dimercaprol Name the antidote. • Gold
762
Ethyl alcohol Name the antidote. • Ethylene glycol
Naloxone, naltrexone Name the antidote. • Opioids
Name the antidote. •

Atropine, 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
Organophosphates
Vitamin K Name the antidote. • Warfarin
D-Penicillamine Name the antidote. • Copper
763
Protamine sulfate Name the antidote. • Heparin
Deferoxamine, penicillamine Name the antidote. • Iron
Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or

Name the antidote. • Cyanide
sodium thiosulfate
Ethyl alcohol Name the antidote. • Methyl alcohol

N-Acetylcysteine Acetaminophen
764
Methylene blue Name the antidote. • Nitrates
Penicillamine, EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), or

dimercaprol Name the antidote. • Lead

Flumazenil Benzodiazepines
Name the antidote. • AChE

Atropine with pralidoxime
inhibitors

Physostigmine Anticholinergics
765
The triad of respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, A known IV drug abuser goes to the ER with
and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils and in a
overdose (e.g., heroin), and you should give semicomatose state. What overdose do you suspect,
naloxone. and what agent will you give to reverse its effects?
CO Cherry red intoxication is associated with what form

of poisoning?
Anemia What toxicities are caused by the following agents? •

Occupational nitrous oxide exposure
Nephrotoxicity What toxicities are caused by the following agents? •

Methoxyflurane
What toxicities are caused by the following agents? •

Hepatitis, with or without necrosis Halothane
766
What are the first signs of overdose
Nystagmus and ataxia from phenobarbitals?
Pinpoint pupils, decreased What are the three signs of

respiratory rate, and coma morphine overdose?
What is the major pulmonary side

Respiratory depression effect of µ-activators?
Constipation and What are the two side effects of opioids to which the
user will not develop tolerance?
miosis
767

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What gland is found in the muscular

Thyroid gland triangle of the neck?

Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an

What is the name of the spinal cord passing within

Thyroarytenoid Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

From what aortic arch are the following structures

From what aortic arch are the following structures

What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior

Name the correct artery. • The right recurrent

Name the correct artery. • The left recurrent

The inferior mesenteric artery drains

What bones make up the

Middle meningeal What vessel is lacerated in an

True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the

What ocular muscle • Elevates and

What ocular muscle • Abducts the eyeball and is

Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins Is a subdural hematoma an arterial

Chorda tympani of CN What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior

What part of the heart forms • The

What part of the heart forms •

What part of the heart forms •

What muscle keeps the stapes taut

What muscle is most superior in the

What portion of the pericardium adheres to the

During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

Subscapularis What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

What nerve is associated with the following

Musculocutaneous What nerve is associated with the following

What nerve is associated with the following

Ulnar nerve functions? • Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris,

What nerve is associated with the following

The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity

What two regions of the vertebral column are

What vein drains the lower third of

True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the

What is the largest muscle in the

What artery travels with the following veins? • Great

What artery travels with the following veins? • Small

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of

The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low)

CN XI and X What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and

Which muscle of the eye is under

True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the

Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with

The duodenal–jejunal flexure is suspended from the

What connects the third and the

What region of the pharynx does the

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it

What connects the lateral ventricles to the third

What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the

What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium,

Waldeyer's ring Where are the tonsillar tissues?

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no

What is the name of inflammation of

What nerve roots constitute the

Name the compartment of the mediastinum

Name the compartment of the mediastinum

Name the compartment of the mediastinum