TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT

ET 101 (Part A)
MATHEMATICS-I
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Mathematics-I.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET101A
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 (a) (i) Find the inverse function of the following
2
1 y x x + + .
(ii) Examine the following function is even or cold at
2 2
( ) 1 1 f x x x x x + + + +
(b) (i) Evaluate :
3
0
tan sin
lim
x
x x
x

(ii) Find
dy
dx
: ( )
m n m n
x y x y
+
+ .
(c) (i) Verify Rolles theorem for the following function :
( ) cos 2 in [0, ] f x x
(ii) Is Lagranges Mean Value Theorem applicable to
2
3
( ) 4 (6 ) in [5, 7] f x x
(d) (i) When traveling x km/hr, a truck consumes diesel oil at the rate of
1 900
lit/km
300
x
x
| `
+

. ,
. If the diesel oil costs 40 paise/lit and the driver is paid
Rs. 1.50 an hour, find the steady speed that will minimize the total cost of a trip of
500 km.
(ii) Evaluate by L Hospitals Theorem :
2
0
1 cos 2
lim
x
x
x

(e) If
xyz
u e , show that
3
2 2 2
(1 3 )
xyz
u
xyz x y z e
x y z

+ +

Q.2 (a) Integrate (i)
2 1
sin x x dx

(ii)
sin
x
e x dy

3
(b) Evaluate (i)
2
3 2 2
0
cos cos (sec 1) cos x x x x dx

(ii)
2
0
3 1
dx
x x + +

(c) Find the volume of the solid of revolution formed by revolving the area enclosed between
2 2
4 y x x + , the x-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = 3.
(d) Find the area lying above x-axis and included between the circle
2 2
8 x y + and the
parabola
2
2 x y .
(e) Solve :
(i)
2
2
dy y y
dx x
x
+
(ii)
2 2
dy
x y
dx

Q.3 (a) (i) If 0 a b c + +
r
r r
, show that the angle between the vectors If
b
r
and c
r
is given
2 2 2
cos
2 | | | |
a b c
b c


r
r r
r
r
(ii) Find the angles which the vector

3 6 2 a +
r
i j k makes with the coordinate
axes.
(b) (i) Find the vector projection of
b
r
and c
r
, when

2 a +
r
i j k ,

7 3 b +
r
i j k .
(ii) Show that the points whose position vectors are

5 6 7 , 7 8 9 + + + i j k i j k and

20 5 + + 3i j k are collinear.
(c) (i) If w
r
is a constant vector, r
r
and s
r
are vector functions of a scalar variable t and if
,
dr ds
w r w s
dt dt

r r
r r r r
, then show that ( ) ( )
d
r s w r s
dt

r r r r r
.
(ii) If

cos sin tan r a t a t at + +
r
i j k , then find the value of
2 3
2 3
.
dr d r d r
dt
dt dt

r r r
.
(d) Prove that
2 2
2
1

14 75 15
d r
r dt
dt
+

i j k
, where
2 3

( ) 5 r t t t t + i j k .
(e) (i) If
2

2 F xz x y + i j k and v be the region bounded by the surfaces x = 0, y = 0,
y = 6, z = x
2
and z = 4, then evaluate
v
F dv

.
(ii) Prove :
. ( ) . . F G F G + +
.
Q.4 (a) If
3 3 4
2 3 4
0 1 1
A
]
]

]
]

]
, show that A
3
= A
1
. Find the adjoint A.
4
(b) Solve the system of equations

2 3 1 x y z + +
2 3 2 2 x y z + +
3 3 4 1 x y z + +
By matrix method.
(c) (i) For what values of and , the system of equations

6 x y z + +
2 3 10 x y z + +
2 x y z + +
Has (i) no solution, (ii) unique solution and (iii) more than one solution.
(ii) Find the rank of the following matrix :
1 2 2
1 4 2
2 6 5
]
]
]
]
]
(d) Find the characteristic equation of the matrix :
6 2 2
2 3 1
2 1 3
A
]
]

]
]

]
.
Also find the eigen values and eigen vectors.
(e) Find a, b, c when
2
( ) , (0) 6, (2) 11 f x ax bx c f f + + and
( 3) 6 f
. Determine
the quadratic function f (x) and find its value when x = 1.
5
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 101 (Part B)
MATHEMATICS-II
Note : All questions given are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions
have been shown in brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of
Mathematics-II.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-101B
Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 (a) A container contains 12 balls of which three are red, four blue and five black. Three balls
are drawn at random. What is chance that,
(i) The three balls are of different colours
(ii) Two balls are of the same colour and third of a different colour
(iii) Three balls are all of same colour.
(b) The probability that a contractor will get a sanitary contract is 3/4, the probability that he
will not get an electric contract is 4/9. If the probability of getting at least one contract is
4/5, what is probability that he will get both the contracts.
Q.2 (a) What is the probability of 5 turning up at least once in two tosses of a fair die.
(b) A box contains 4 blue and 5 red balls. Two drawing of two balls are made.
Find the probability of drawing first 2 red balls and second 2 blue balls if the balls are not
returned after the first draw.
Q.3 (a) A Poisson distribution has density f(x) =
x
e
x x 7 . 0
) 72 . 0 (

.
(i) Probability (x = 0)
(ii) Probability (x = 1)
(iii) Probability (x = 2)
(iv) Probability (x = 3)
(b) If the probability that an individual suffers bad reaction from a particular infection is
0.002. Determine probability that out of 1000 individuals exactly 100 will suffer a
reaction.
Q.4 (a) A multiple choice quiz has 500 questions each with 5 possible answers of which only
one is correct answer. What is probability that sheer guesswork yields from 25 to
30 correct answers for 80 out of the 300 problems about which the candidates has no
knowledge.
(b) 1% of tools produced by a certain machine are defective. What is probability that in a
consignment of 500 such tools 3% or more will be defective?
Q.5 An expert shot hits a target 95% of the time. (i) What is the probability that he will miss the
target for the first time on the 15
th
shot. (ii) What is probability that the expert will miss the
target for the third time on the 15
th
shot.
6
Q.6 (a) A population consists of four 0, 2, 4, 6, consider all possible samples of size two which
can be drawn with replacement from this population.
Find :
(i) the mean of the population
(ii) standard deviation of the population
(iii) means of the sampling distribution of means
(iv) standard error of means.
Q.7 (a) In a certain city A, 100 men in a sample of 400 are found to be smokers. In another
city B, 300 men in a sample of 800 are found to be smokers. Does this indicate that
there is a greater proportions of smokers in B than in A.
(b) When running computer programs on time sharing basis, cost varies from session. Let x
be the cost in rupees per session to a user. Observed sample of size on x is x1 = 3900,
x2 = 4000, x3 = 4060, x4 = 4100, x5 = 4500, x6 = 3950, x7 = 4010, x8 = 4080, x9 = 4150.
Compute values of sample mean, sample variance, sample range R.
Q.8 (a) A students marks in the written examination, oral examination and laboratory
examination were 87, 71 and 61. If the weighing factors accorded to these marks are
5, 3 and 2, determine the average marks obtained by the student. Determine the
average marks if equal weightage for all the examination used.
(b) Structural engineers sometimes apply a factor of safety to the statistical minimum failing
stress. They usually employ the criteria that 95% of the tests should exceed the
minimum failing stress. For a certain specimen of timber, 100 tests for strength,
properties were carried out which were found to be normally distributed with a mean
failing stress of 30.35 N/mm
2
and standard deviation of 3.97 N/mm
2
. Determine the value
of the minimum failing stress.
Q.9 Ten specimens of mild steel are chemically analysed for carbon contents in two different
Laboratories. The percentage of carbon content contained are as follows :
Lab A
0.22
0.23
0.24
0.21
0.22
0.14
0.25
0.23
0.28
0.24
Lab B
0.21
0.18
0.19
0.20
0.23
0.21
0.20
0.25
0.22
0.17
Test the hypothesis that there is no significant difference in two laboratories in their
determination of percentage of carbon.
Q.10 In the measurement of temperature it measured 100 times with variation in apparatus and
procedure. After applying the corrections the results are
Temperature
o
C 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405
Frequency of
Occurrence
2 5 9 26 39 15 3 2 2
Calculate (i) arithmetic mean, (ii) mean deviation, (iii) standard deviation, (iv) probable error of
one reading, (v) standard deviations and the probable error of mean, and (vi) standard
deviation of standard deviations.
7
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 105 (Part A)
PHYSICS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Physics.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET105A
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 (a) A ball of mass m makes a perfectly elastic head-on collision with a second ball, of mass
M, initially at rest. The second ball moves off with half the original speed of the first ball.
Express M in terms of m and determine the fraction of the original kinetic energy
retained by the ball of mass m after the collision.
(b) Two blocks of masses M1 = 2 kg and M2 = 5 kg are moving in the same direction along a
frictionless surface with speeds 10 ms

1
and 3 ms

1
respectively, M2 being ahead of M1.
An ideal spring with k = 1120 Nm

1
is attached to the backside of block M2 as shown in
Figure 1. Find the maximum compression of the spring when the blocks collide.
Figure 1
Q.2 A conical pendulum with the mass m suspended from a string of length L sweeps out a cone
of vertical angle . Show that the speed v is given by sin tan g L .
Q.3 Find the moment of inertia of a solid hemisphere of uniform density about radius perpendicular
to the circular base.
Q.4 For a geostationary satellite, calculate :
(i) the height above the Earths surface, and
(ii) the speed in orbit. (Radius of Earth = 6.38 10
6
m; mass of earth = 5.98 10
24
kg).
Q.5 A wheel of the bicycle is rotating with frequency of 6 rps. If the mass of the wheel is 1.5 kg and
radius is 40 cm, find the torque experienced if the cyclist tilts by 30 degrees in a matter of
0.4 seconds. Deduce the expressions you use.
Q.6 (a) Write a note on Lissajous figures.
(b) Define and discuss the applications of Biot-Savart law.
Q.7 (a) Explain Youngs double slit experiment.
(b) Calculate the observed fringe width for a Youngs double-slit experiment using light of
wavelength 700 mm and slits 0.60 mm apart. The distance from the slit to the screen is
0.90 m.
8
M
2
M
1
Q.8 (a) State and deduce mathematical expression for Coulombs law. Compare the electric and
the gravitational forces that exist between an electron and a proton. Assume standard
numerical values for required constants you use.
(b) A charge is placed at the origin. Another charge q is on the x-axis at x = 4d. Find the
point on the axis where the electric potential is zero
Q.9 Deduce the expression for the centre of a uniform quarter circular plate of radius r.
Q.10 (a) A torch bulb has a power supply of two 1.5 V cells connected in series. The potential
difference across the bulb is 2.5 V, and it dissipates energy at the rate of 500 mW.
Calculate :
(i) the current through the bulb,
(ii) the internal resistance of each cell, and
(iii) the heat energy dissipated in each cell in two minutes.
(b) The uniform flux between the poles of a magnet is 0.080 T. A small coil of area of
cross-section 6.5 cm
2
has 250 turns and is placed with its plane normal to the magnetic
field. The coil is withdrawn from the field in a time of 0.26 seconds.
Determine :
(i) the magnetic flux through the coil when it is between the poles of the magnet,
(ii) the charge in magnetic flux linkage when the coil is removed from the field, and
(iii) the average emf induced in the coil whilst it is being withdrawn.
9
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 105 (Part B)
CHMISTRY
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Chemistry.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET105B
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 (a) Discuss the hydrogen spectrum in detail. What are the defects in Bohrs atomic models
with reference to Hydrogen spectrum? How are they rectified?
(b) With neat sketches explain the shapes and sizes of atomic orbitals.
(6 + 4 = 10)
Q.2 Explain the following bonds with examples :
(i) Ionic Bond
(ii) Covalent Bond
(iii) Metallic Bond
(iv) Coordinate Covalent Bond
(v) Hydrogen Bond
(10)
Q.3 Give IUPAC names of the following structures :
(i) CH3 COOCH2 CH3
(ii) H2C = CH . CH2COOH
(iii) CH2(OH) CH(OH) CH2(OH)
(iv)
2 2 3
Cl Cl
| |
CL CH CH CH CH CH
(10)
Q.4 Discuss the concepts of enthalpy and internal energy. State and prove the Hesss law of
constant heat summation.
(10)
Q.5 (a) 0.12 gm of a metal x was dissolved in 25 ml (N/2) acid. The resulting solution required
25 ml (N/10) alkali solution for complete neutralization. What is the equivalent weight of
the metal?
(b) 25 ml of a solution containing NaOH and Na2CO3 when titrated with (N/2) HCl using
phenolphthalein as indicator required 40 ml of HCl. The same volume of mixture when
titrated against (N/2) HCl using methyl orange as indicator required 45 ml of HCL.
Calculate the amount of NaOH and Na2CO3 in one litre of the mixture.
(5 + 5 = 10)
10
Q.6 (a) Define and explain Second Law of Thermodynamics. Define and explain Carnots cycle.
(b) State and explain Le-Chatliers principle and its application on at least two examples.
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.7 Define and explain various types of isomerism existing in Organic compounds with at least two
examples to each.
(10)
Q.8 (a) Arrange , & rays according to :
(i) Penetrating power (ii) ionizing power
(iii) momentum (iv) charge
(b) A piece of wood from a tomb was burned and 7.32 gm CO2 was collected. The total
radioactivity in CO2 was 10.8 dis/min. How old was the wood sample?
(t1/2 = 5730 years). The activity in the fresh wood is 15.3 dis/min/gm.
(4 + 6 = 10)
Q.9 (a) An atom contains 2, 8 and 2 electrons in K, L and M shell respectively. Calculate the
(i) number of protons, (ii) principal quantum number (n) of outermost shell, (iii) total
number of sub-shells and (iv) number of electrons in the p orbit.
(b) Deduce the expressions for automic radius and energy.
(4 + 6 = 10)
Q.10 (a) What are the merits of using isolated enzyme over the use of whole organisms in
bio-technology?
(b) What is polymerization? Explain with suitable examples.
(c) Define structural, stereo and position isomerism.
(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)
11
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 201 (Part A)
MECHANICS OF FLUIDS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Mechanics of fluids.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-201A
Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011
BTWRE
Q.1 (a) Enumerate the difference between the bulk modulus and compressibility. Also derive a
relationship between bulk Modulus (K) and Pressure (P) of a gas for isothermal as well
as adiabatic processes.
(b) The dynamic viscosity of oil used for lubrication between a shaft and sleeve is 10 poise.
Calculate the power lost in the bearing for a sleeve length of 100 mm. Given the
thickness of the oil film as 2.5 mm and shaft diameter 0.1 m. The shaft is rotating at the
rate of 1500 rpm.
Q.2 (a) What do you understand by the temperature lapse rate (L) with elevation? Derive an
expression for temperature at any given point in a compressible fluid underadiabatic
condition.
(b) Calculate the capillary effect (in millimetre) in a glass tube of 5 mm diameter when
immersed in (1) water (2) Mercury. The temperature of liquids is 20
o
C and the values of
the surface tension of water and mercury at 20
o
in contact with air are 0.0736 N/m and
0.5145 N/m, respectively. The angle of contact for water is 0
o
that for mercury 1.3
o
. Take
the density of water at 20
o
C as 998 Kg/m
3
.
Q.3 (a) Define Metacentre. Derive an expression for finding out the metacentric height of a ship
which is floating in the Dead Sea. Assume all the required values within permissible
limits.
(b) A solid cylinder of diameter 10 m has a height of 15 m. Find the metacentric height of the
cylinder when it is floating in water with its axis vertical. The specific gravity of the
cylinder is 0.9.
Q.4 (a) The velocity rector in a fluid flows given as
3 2
4 10 2 V x x y t + i j k
Find the velocity and acceleration of a fluid particle at time t = 1, when the coordinate of
the particle are (2, 1, 3).
(b) The following cases represent the two velocity components. Determine the third
component of velocity such that they satisfy the continuity equilibrium. Assume the flow
to be incompressible.
(i)
2 2 2 2 2
; u x y z v xy yz xy + +
(ii)
2
2 ; 2 v y w xyz
12
Q.5 (a) A hydraulic press has a ram of 50 cm diameter and a plunger of 10 cm diameter
(Figure 1). It is used for lifting a weight of 200 kN. Find the force required at the plunger.
Figure 1
(b) A single column manometer is connected to a pipe containing a liquid of specific gravity
S1. The pressure in the pipe is 5.21 N/cm
2
. Area of the reservoir is 100 times the area of
the tube for mercury manometer reading as shown (Figure 2). If the specific gravity of
mercury is 13.6 then find the specific gravity of the liquid.
Figure 2
Q.6 (a) The atmospheric pressure at sea land is 10.15 N/cm
2
. Determine the pressure at a
height of 10,000 m assuming the pressure variation follows : (i) Hydrostatic Law and
(ii) Isothermal Law. The density of the air is given as 1.3 kg/m
3
.
(b) A rectangular gate 5 m x 2 m is hinged at its base and inclined at 45
o
to the horizontal as
shown in Figure 3. To keep the gate in stable position, a counter weight of 4000 kgf is
attached at the upper end of the gate as shown in the figure. What will be the depth of
water at which the gate begins to fall? The friction of the hinge and pulley and the weight
of the gate are negligible.
Figure 3
Q.7 (a) Discuss in brief the various types of flows encountered in our daily life. What do you
understand by rotational flow? Derive a general equation for the rotational flow.
(b) The velocity potential function is given by :
= 5 (x
2
y
2
)
Calculate the velocity components at points (3, 4), ( 4, 6), (7, 8) and ( 9, 12).
13
200 kN
W
Ram
F
Plunger
10 cm
50 cm
20 cm
40 cm
4000 kgf
B
4000 kgf
45
o
A
5 y
F
W
E H D
Hinge
Q.8 (a) Prove that the actual discharge in a Venture can be measured by :
1 2
2 2
1 2
2
act d
a a
Q C gh
a a

where various terms have their usual meaning.

(b) A vertical pipe is carrying water in vertical upward direction, if it is fitted with a venturi of
30 cm x 15 cm size (of inlet and outlet). A differential manometer connected to the inlet
and throat gives a reading 20 cm. calculate the discharge rate. Given Cd = 0.98.
Q.9 (a) Water is filled in a hemispherical tank of d = 4 m, the water level is 1.5 m. An orifice of
d = 50 mm is provided at the bottom. Find the time required by water (i) to fall from 1.5 m
to 1.0 m and (ii) for completely emptying of the tank, take Cd = 0.60.
(b) A hemispherical tank of radius R is fitted with an orifice of area a at its bottom
(Figure 4). The tank contains a liquid where initial length is H1 and in time t the height of
the liquid falls to H2. Derive the relation between t, H, a, and R.
Figure 4
Q.10 (a) A pipe line of 60 cm diameter bifurcates at a Y divide into two branches of diameters
equal to 40 and 30 cm each. If the rate of flow in the main pipe is 1.5 m and the mean
velocity of flow is 7.5 m/s in 30 cm pipe, determine the rate of flow in the other branch
pipe.
(b) A jet of water of diameter 50 mm strikes a 40 x 40 cm
2
plate of uniform thickness with a
velocity of 10 m/s at the centre plate which is suspended vertically by a hinge on its top
horizontal edge (Figure 5). The weight of the plate is 98.1 N. The jet strikes normal to the
plate. What force must be applied at the lower edge of the plate so that the plate is kept
vertical? If the plate is allowed to deflect freely, what will be the inclination of the plate
with vertical due to the force exerted by jet of water?
Figure 5
14
40 cm
p
20 cm
F
H1
R
H
2
H
1
dh
h
=
x
Q.1 (a) Define an isolated system. Distinguish between the term Change of state, Path and
Process with the help of suitable example.
(b) What are intensive and extensive properties? Explain what is meant by Thermodynamic
equilibrium.
Q.2 (a) A vacuum gauge mounted on a condenser reads 740 mm Hg. What is the absolute
pressure in the condenser in kPa when the atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of Hg.
(b) A vessel of cylindrical shape is 50 cm in diameter and 75 cm high. It contains 4 Kg of a
gas. The pressure measured with manometer indicates 620 mm of Hg above
atmosphere when barometer reads 760 mm of Hg. Determine.
(i) The absolute pressure of the gas in the vessel in bar, and
(ii) Specific volume and density of the gas.
Q.3 (a) A man of gas is compressed in a quasi-static process form 80 KPa, 0.1 m
3
to 0.4 MPa,
0.03 m
3
. Assuming that the pressure and volume are related by PV
n
= constant, find the
work done by the gas system.
(b) Define a thermodynamic system. Differentiate between open system, closed system and
an isolated system with the help of suitable examples.
Q.4 (a) State the first law of thermodynamics for closed system under going a cycle. Explain
zeroth law of thermodynamics.
(b) During are cycle the working fluid in an engine engages in two work interactions; 15 KJ
to the fluid and 44 KJ from the fluid, and three heat interaction, two of which are known;
75 KJ to the fluid and 40 KJ from the fluid. Evaluate the magnitude and direction of the
third heat transfer.
Q.5 Estimate the pressure which would be exerted by 3.7 kg of CO in a 0.030 m
3
container at
215 k employing :
(i) the ideal gas equation of state, and
(ii) Van der Waals equation.
Q.6 In an ideal air cycle refrigeration system, air enters the compressor at 2 bar, 7
o
C and is
compressed to 5 bar. The air then cooled at constant pressure to 55
o
C and then expanded in
a turbine to 1 bar. The cooling capacity of the system is 12 kW. Assume air behaves as a
perfect gas with Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg.K and Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg.K. Find COP, mass flow rate of air
and the power required by the system.
15
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 201 (Part B)
ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Engineering Thermodynamics.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET 201 B
Last Date of Submission : Oct. 31, 2011
BTWRE
Q.7 (a) Define Internal Energy and prove that it is a property of a system.
(b) A cylinder contains 0.45 m
3
of a gas at 1 x 10
5
N/m
2
and 80
o
C. The gas is companied to
a volume of 0.13 m
3
, the final pressure being 5 x 10 N/m
2
. Determine :
(i) The man of gas;
(ii) The value of index n for companion;
(iii) The increase in internal energy of the gas; and
(iv) The heat rejected or received by the gas during compression.
Take r = 1.4, R = 294.2 J/Kg
o
C.
Q.8 A steam boiler has a total volume of 3 m
3
. Initially it contains 2 m
3
of saturated steam and 1 m
3
of saturated liquid at 30 bar. Calculate the mass of vapour, mass of liquid, quality of the steam,
its specific internal energy and specific enthalpy.
Q.9 An air compressor has a volumetric efficiency of 80%. When tested, the discharge state being
600 kPa, 170
o
C and thee inlet state 200 kPa, 20
o
C. If the clearance is 6%, predict the new
volumetric efficiency when the discharge pressure is increased to 800 kPa. Assume that the
ratio of real to ideal volumetric efficiency and the exponent n remain constant.
Q.10 8 kg of nitrogen is cooled in a rigid tank from 300
o
C to 37
o
C. The initial pressure is 30 bar.
Calculate the changes in entropy, internal energy and enthalpy. Assume nitrogen to be an
ideal gas with Cp = 1.024 kJ/kg.K and Cv = 0.745 kJ/kg.K.
16
Q.1 (a) A gravity dam (specific gravity of the material = 2.4) as shown retains water behind it.
Find the resultant of the forces in magnitude and direction, and locate its point of
application on base B1 B2.
Figure 1
(b) Find the value of h, and H if b = 50 m, and F. B = 1.2 m (as before), for the resultant R to
fall within the middle third of b.
Q.2 A body A is acted upon by seven forces (coplanar) as shown in Figure 2. Determine the sum
of forces acting along x-x, and the sum along y-y. Evaluate the resultant, R, (in magnitude and
direction with respect to x-x) of the forces.
Figure 2
17
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 202 (Part A)
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Engineering Mechanics.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-202A
Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011
BTCM
1
1
2
B
1
b
B
2
h
16.8 m = H
1
1
2 m
F.D = 1.2 m
38
o
10
o
5
o
32
o
A
99.5 N
100 N
x x
38 N
60 N
15 N
y
60 N
42 N
62
o

3
o
Q.3 A regular hexagon ABCDEF carries forces as shown in Figure 3 (AB = 2.0 m). Find the total
moment of the forces about A, D and T respectively.
Figure 3
Q.4 (a) Two cantilevers (fixed at one end) are differently loaded as shown in Figure 4.
Determine the sections (force and moment) at the fixed ends in each case.
(a) (b)
Figure 4
(b) A block A sets on a rigid plane surface ( = 0.53). Check whether the block shall move.
What should be the max value of for the block just to be on the point of moving if P1 is
increased by 50 N
Figure 5
Q.5 (a) The position vector of a particle at any time t with respect to 3 coordinate axes is given
by :
2 2

( ) ( 2) ( 1) 0 r t t t + + + + i j k
Determine the path of the particle through as equation, and its position after 2.5 sec of
start of motion. Also, give its velocity and acceleration at that moment.
(b) A body, P, falls freely under the influence of gravity, passing from point A to point B in
0.75 sec, after having begun falling from point P. Find the vertical distance PA if
g = 8.91 m/sec
2
.
Figure 6
Q.6 (a) A toy aeroplane (wt. = 35 kN) flies horizontally with a velocity of 25 m/s. Another mass
(wt. = 25 kN) coming from the opposite direction at the same height from the reference
horizontal plane, at 23 m/sec, collides with the aeroplane. Assuming the resultant body
(after collision) to be a compound of the two, find its velocity.
(b) A ball of 5 kg falls freely from a 3 m height on a solid horizontal surface. If rebound back
to 0.62 m height after the impact in
1
45
of a sec. Find the force on the ball due to the
impact it suffers. What is the total reaction given by the solid surface.
18
20 kN
per m
2.75 m
3.5 m
30
o

P
1
=450
k
P
2
=100 N
k
A
X P
A
B
25 m
A
10 N
B
9 N
6 N
11 N
16 N
F
7 N
T
E D
C
4 m 2 m
10 kN
per m
10 kN/m
per
Q.7 A frame as shown in Figure 7 is loaded as indicated. Determine the stresses (and their nature)
in all the members of the frame. Give your result in a tabular form.
Figure 7
Q.8 (a) The given frame (Figure 8) is loaded as indicated. Find the horizontal and vertical
components of the hinge reaction. Also, determine the force at C.

Figure 8
Q.9 A frame is fixed along AG as shown in Figure 9. Find the stresses in all its members by
method sections, as well as by method of joints.
Figure 9
Q.10 A lifting machine is applied an effort of 17 N to raise a load of 80 N with an efficiency of 65%, a
20 N effort to left a load of 1500 N.
Determine the law of the machine what effort is required to raise 1700 N. And what is the
maximum mechanical advantage achieved? Also find the maximum efficiency.
19
A D
B
10 kN
3 kN
3.5 m
E
C
F
1 kN
5 kN
A
B
30 kN
2m
C
45

45

On rollers
D
2m
A
2.5 t 2 t 1.5 t
D

C

B

G F E
1.5 t
AG = 3.5 m
AB = GF = 3.5 m
FE = CD
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 202 (Part B)
PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL SCIENCES
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Principles of Electrical Sciences.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-202B
Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011
BTCM
Q.1 (a) Define the terms :
(i) Potential difference and electric current
(ii) A parallel plate capacitor
(iii) Resistor and inductor
(iv) State KVL and KCL
(v) Difference between DC and AC source
(b) Explain delta-star and star-delta transformations in the circuits. What is the difference
between the line current in delta connected 3-phase system and star-connected 3-phase
system?
Figure 1
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.2 (a) State and explain Thevenins theorem and Nortons theorem with the help of circuit
diagrams.
(b) Explain the phenomenon of resonance in parallel RLC circuit and derive expression for
resonant frequency.
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.3 Explain working principles of :
(i) Transformer,
(ii) Inductor motor, and
(iii) Synchronous motor and synchronous generator
(10)
20
~
~
j 30 j 30
V
A
I
1
I
2
50
+
+
100 0
100 30
o
Q.4 (a) Explain the speed-torque characteristics of :
(i) A dc series motor, and
(ii) A dc shunt motor.
(b) How A dc motor drives a 100 KW generator having an efficiency of 87% :
(i) What should be the KW rating of the motor?
(ii) If the overall efficiency of the motor generator set is 74%, what is the efficiency of
the motor?
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.5 Explain the working of following :
(i) Difference between Analog and digital instruments,
(ii) Moving iron instruments and PPMC instrument,
(iii) Induction type energymeter,
(iv) Importance of power factor, and
(v) Advantage of 3-phase over single-phase.
(10)
Q.6 (a) An amplifier circuit has an input current of 20 A flowing though 10 k and an output
current of 150 mA flowing though 5 k . What is its voltage gain?
(b) Using the op-amp circuit in the Figure 2, calculate the output voltage of the amplifier.
Figure 2
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.7 (a) Explain different types of logical/Digital gates with examples.
(b) Explain the differential amplifier. Also state the applications for the same.
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.8 Explain :
(i) Voltage regulators and current boosters,
(ii) Phase shift oscillator,
(iii) MOSFET, and
(iv) Function generator circuit for a frequency of oscillation of 1 kHz.
(5 4 = 20)
Q.9 (a) Explain the working of ADC and DAC and give their examples.
(b) Write notes :
(i) RAM & ROM, and
21
20 K
10 K
R
f
2 V
I
f
+ 15 V
15 V
R
i
V
0
1 V

+
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 204 (Part A)
MATERIALS SCIENCE
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Materials Science.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET204A
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM
(ii) Stack, Register, Counter.
(5 + 5 = 10)
Q.1 What is grain boundary? What are the advantages of its study? Explain with suitable
examples.
(10)
Q.2 What are the primary and secondary bonds? Distinguish between ionic and covalant bonding
in solids giving suitable examples.
(10)
Q.3 What do you understand about crystal structure? Describe the various types of crystal
structure in metals with appropriate examples.
(10)
Q.4 What is an iron-carbon diagram? Draw the iron-carbon phase diagram and explain the various
regions in it.
(10)
Q.5 What are the various types of defects in solids? Explain edge dislocation and screw
dislocation with neat diagram.
(10)
Q.6 What is a semiconductor? What are the various types of semiconductors? Explain with neat
diagram and also its applications.
(10)
Q.7 Write short notes on the following :
(i) Hardness,
(ii) Tensile Strength,
(iii) Brittleness,
(iv) Toughness, and
(v) Ductility.
(2 5 = 10)
Q.8 Define stress, strain and elasticity. Derive the relationship between stress and strain of an
elastic body.
(10)
Q.9 What is casting process? What are the basic steps involved in casting? Give some examples
of casted materials and its applications in the mechanical industry.
(10)
22
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 204 (Part B)
ENGINEERING MATERIALS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Engineering Materials.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-204B
Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011
BTCM
Q.10 What is corrosion? Explain in detail. How the corrosion of metals will be protected? Describe
the different methods of corrosion protection in metals.
Q.1 Explain the importance of engineering materials. What are the different yardsticks of selecting
quality engineering materials for civil structures?
Q.2 Explain the basis of classifying the cementing materials. What are different calcareous
cementing materials? Explain their classification and uses based on BIS standards.
Q.3 Is water proofing a big challenge in maintenance of civil structures? Explain. What are the
waterproofing agents? Describe the role of bitumen as a water proofing agent in buildings.
Q.4 Explain the properties of different mortars and grouts. What are their specific uses?
Q.5 Explain the concreting process. What do you mean by degree of control in proportionate
concrete mixes? Explain different grades of concrete with recommended applications as per
the BIS norms.
Q.6 Explain the importance and characteristics of wear resisting materials. Prepare a chart
showing different wear resisting materials, their characteristics and their specific uses.
Q.7 List various modern waterproofing compounds. Explain their characteristics, specifications and
specific uses. Write their application methods.
Q.8 Explain the use of PVC in flooring. Discuss the materials and methods available for wall
finishing.
Q.9 Describe application of plastics in construction industry and uses of plastics with examples.
Q.10 Wood is one of the oldest building materials which have relevance even today. Justify the
statement by giving specific examples.
23
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 301 (Part A)
SYSTEMS METHODS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Systems Methods.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-301A
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM
Q.1 (a) What do you understand by Electric Power System? Describe Electric Power Generation
System with the help of block diagram.
(b) The DC motor is the most suitable motor for variable speed drives. State the reasons.
Q.2 (a) Differentiate between physical and non-physical system by citing at least two examples
of each.
(b) What are the two basic types of control systems? Give at least two examples of each
type.
Q.3 (a) Describe static system and dynamic system. Give suitable examples of both type of
systems.
(b) Describe scale model and analogue model with the help of examples. Give atleast four
examples of each.
Q.4 A diet for sick person must contain at least 4000 units of vitamins, 50 units of minerals and
1400 units of calories. Two foods A and B are available at a cost of Rs. 4/- and Rs. 3/- per unit
respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamins, 1 unit of minerals and 40 units of
calories and 1 unit of food. B contains 100 units of vitamins, 2 unit of minerals and 40 units of
calories. Find by the graphic, what combination of foods be used to have least cost. Also solve
the problem by SIMPLEX method.
Q.5 A company has 3 factories A, B and C which supply to 4 warehouses situated at P, Q, R
and S. The monthly production capacity tons of A, B and C are 120, 80 and 200 respectively.
The monthly requirements (tone) for the warehouses P, Q, R and S are 60, 50, 140 and 50
respectively. Transportation cost (Rs. per ton) matrix is given below :
Factories
Warehouses
P Q R S
A 4 5 2 5
B 3 8 4 8
C 7 4 7 4
Determine the optimum transportation distribution of products to warehouses to minimize the
total transportation cost. Use all the methods described in your study material to find the
optimal solution.
Q.6 What do you understand by Kendalls notation? Customers arrive at a sales counter manned
by a single person according to a Poisson process with a mean rate of 20 percent. The time
24
required to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with a mean by 100 seconds.
Find the average waiting time of a customer.
Q.7 Define EOQ. A purchase manager places order each time for a lot of 500 units of a particular
item. From the available data the following results are obtained :
Inventory carry cost = 40%
Ordering cost per order = Rs. 600
Cost per unit = Rs. 50
Annual demand = 1000
Find out the loss to the organization due to his ordering policy.
Q.8 An automobile dealer wishes to put four repairmen to four different jobs. The repairmen has
some what different kinds of skills and they exhibit different levels of efficiency from one job to
another. The dealer has estimated the number of man houses that would be required for each
job man combination. This is given in the matrix from in the following table :
Job
Man
A B C D
1 8 10 12 16
2 1 11 15 8
3 9 6 5 14
4 15 14 9 7
Also indicate the total time taken in completing the jobs.
Q.9 A small project consist of seven activities, details of which are given below :
Activity
Duration (Days)
Immediate
Predecessor
Most Likely Optimistic Pessimistic
A 3 1 7
B 6 2 14 A
C 3 3 3 A
D 10 4 22 B, C
E 7 3 15 B
F 5 2 14 D, E
G 4 4 4 D
Draw the network diagram and find the critical path. Determine the expected project
completion time. What project duration will have 95% confidence of completion. For 85%
probability, take value of Z as 1.64. Also calculate total float, free float and independent float
for each activity.
Q.10 Write short notes on following :
(i) Characteristics of dynamic programming
(ii) Traveling salesman problem
(iii) Dual simplex problem
(iv) Transhipment problem.
25
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 301 (Part B)
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Computer Applications.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET301B
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTCM
Q.1 (a) What is the difference between a syntax error and a logical error? Differentiate between
PROM and EPROM.
(b) Mark True or False for the following statements :
(i) FORMAT can also transfer DOS after formatting the diskette,
(ii) DISKCOMP and VER are internal DOS commands,
(iii) The output of DIR can be stored in a disk file, and
(iv) ERASE clears the screen.
(c) What is an operating system? Explain the various functions of the operating systems.
(4 + 6 + 4 = 10)
Q.2 (a) How will you format a diskette?
(b) Briefly explain the following commands :
COPY, PATH, DISKCOPY, TREE, XCOPY, MODE
(7 + 7 = 14)
Q.3 (a) How will you connect a spread sheet with database? Explain with example.
(b) Give a sequence of steps to draw a bar graph? Explain with example.
(7 + 7 = 14)
Q.4 (a) What commands in Word Star can be used to :
(i) Move a block,
(ii) Hide a block,
(iii) Starts a new page, and
(iv) Set the right margin.
(b) What is a mail merge operation? What are the files that you have to prepare for mail
merge operation? Explain with the help of an example.
(b) In an opening menu of Word Star, what do D, L, X and R mean?
(4 + 7 + 3 = 14)
26
Q.5 (a) What are functions in LOTUS 1-2-3? Describe the structure of a functions and Date
related functions?
(b) What are the special characters used to print the date and page numbers in footer or
header?
(10 + 4 = 14)
Q.6 (a) What are the different hardware and software requirements for making a Computer
Aided Drawing?
(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Computer Aided Drafting?
(7 + 7 = 14)
Q.7 How would you describe utility of Computer Aided Designing in routine work?
(20)
27
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 501 (Part A)
SOIL MECHANICS
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Soil Mechanics.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-501A
Last Date of Submission : July. 31, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 (a) How many cable meters of earth fill can be constructed at a void ratio of 0.68 from
20,0000 m
3
of borrow material that has a void ratio of 1.15.
(b) How the liquid limit of clayey soil is determined by Casagrades apparatus. Discuss its
limitations.
Q.2 (a) What is Stokes law? Derive following relation :
He
D
t

(b) Discuss is classification for the soil as per IS 1498-1970.

Q.3 (a) Explain specific surface, Isomorphous substitution and vander waals forces.
(b) The shrinkage limit of a clay is 18%. The initial water content of the soil in the field was
42%. On evaporation the water content comes down to 15%. Calculate the
corresponding decrease in volume per unit Volume and shrinkage ratio. Assume specific
gravity as 2.66.
Q.4 (a) Discuss the influence of pore pressure on the behavior of the soil.
(b) A sand stratum as 8 m think. The water table is 2 m below ground level. The unit weights
of sand layer above and below water table are 17-5 kn/m
3
and 20.5 kn/m
3
, respectively
the capillary rise above water table is 0.75 m. Draw the effective stress diagram for the
sand stratum.
Q.5 (a) What are the methods available for the compaction of various soils? Discuss the
suitability of compaction equipment.
(b) The results of standard the modified Proctors tests on a clayey soil are as follows :
Water Content
(%)
Dry Density (kN (m
3
))
Standard Proctor Test Modified Proctor Test
7.0 16.0 17.5
9.0 16.8 18.8
12.0 17.6 1.6
14.5 17.9 19.2
16.0 17.7 18.4
18.5 16.5 17.5
21.5 15.0 16.0
Draw compaction curves for both tests along with zero air void lines. Determine OMC
and MDD in each case. Assume G = 2 66.
28
Q.6 (a) What is liquefaction of the soil? Explain quick sand phenomena.
(b) A soil sample taken in a container of internal diameter 10 cm has a length of 12.5 cm the
coefficient of permeability of the soil is 2 x 10
1
cm/sec with void ratio 0.8. If the water is
made to flow through the soil sample in upward direction and the rate of discharge is
0.06 cc/Acc find the effective stresses at the bottom and middle section of the sample
table = 2.66.
Q.7 (a) Discuss new marks chart for finding vertical stress.
(b) There parallel strip foundation each 3 m wide 6 m apart centre to centre transmit contact
pressure of 250, 150, 50 KN/m
2
respectively determine vertical stress 3 m below centre
of each loading.
Q.8 (a) Write a note on sand drain.
(b) A clay layer whose total settlement under a given load is expected to be 300 mm, settles
by 60 mm in 15 days after the application of laced increment. How many days will be
required for it to reach a settlement of 100 mm? How much settlement will occur in
250 days? The layer has single drainage.
Q.9 (a) Discuss the factors affecting the shear strength of sandy and clayey soils.
(b) A cylindrical specimen of saturated clay fails at an axial stress of 170 KN/m
2
in an
unconfirmed test. The failure plane makes an angle of 56
o
with the horizontal. Determine
shear parameters.
Q.10 (a) Discuss Swedish circle method for slope stability.
(b) A canal with depth of 5 m has banks with slope 1 : 1. The soil properties are :
C = 21KN/m
2
= 0
e = 0.68
G = 2.66
Determine the factor of safety w.r.t. cohesion when :
(i) Canal is running full, and
(ii) Sudden draw down and empty conditions.
29
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 501 (Part B)
FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Foundation Engineering.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-501B
Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011
BTCM/BTWRE
Q.1 At a site the SPT was conducted on the existing soil. The number bellows required to derive
the sampler for three consecutive 15 cm derive are 10, 17 and respectively. Determine the
corrected N-value.
Q.2 (a) Differentiate various modes of failure in case of shallow foundation with neat sketches.
(b) Write Terzaghis equation for the estimation of bearing capacity of square footing when
water table is at the ground level. Also mention the assumptions mode.
Q.3 (a) A strip foundation 2.5 m, wide is founded at 1.0 m depth on the soil with following
properties :
C = 0, = 40
o
, = 19 kN/m
3
Determine the net ultimate bearing capacity.
(b) Discuss the factors affecting bearing capacity.
Q.4 (a) What is the difference between combined footing and strap footing? How a combined
footing is designed?
(b) What are the courses of settlement of foundation?
Q.5 (a) A retaining wall with a smooth vertical book retains dry sand foot a depth of 4.0 m and
has a leveled surface. The properties of sand are :
C = 0, = 35
o
, = 19 kN/m
3
Find total active earth pressure.
(b) Discuss Culmanrys method of earth pressure.
Q.6 (a) Discuss types of earth retaining structures.
(b) For the design of a gravity wall what are the factors of safety to be calculated.
Q.7 (a) Find lead carrying capacity of pile of diameter 25 cm and length 20 m in depp deposit of
clay with following properties. Take C = 45 kN/m
2
, = 19 kN/m
3
, = 16.
(b) Repeat problem 7 as sand with following properties = 40
o
, C = 0, = 19 kN/m
3
.
Q.8 (a) How lateral capacity of a pile is determined?
(b) What is group efficiency and negative in friction?
Q.9 (a) Explain uphole wave propagation test.
(b) Discuss the foundation type for expensive soils.
30
Q.10 Write short notes on the following :
(i) Hansens bearing capacity theory,
(ii) Well foundation,
(iii) Theory of vibration with/without damping, and
(iv) Shear wave velocity.
31
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 531 (Part A)
EARTH AND ITS ENVIRONMENT
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Earth and its Environment.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET 531 A
Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011
BTWRE
Q.1 The origin of solar system is a subject of great controversial opinions among the scientists.
Explain the statement with the help of major hypothesis proposed on the subject.
Q.2 Describe hydrologic cycle and its importance. Discuss factors influencing various processes
involved in hydrologic cycle.
Q.3 Differentiate between weather and climate also giving suitable examples. Discuss the various
reasons for erratic rainfall at various flows all over India.
Q.4 Give a generalized system of atmospheric circulation. What are main local winds? Describe
their importance.
Q.5 What is Tsunami? Give a detailed account of recent Tsunami of Indian Ocean. What methods
do you propose to mitigate destructiveness of Tsunami?
Q.6 Describe the geological action of wind. With examples, describe main features of three major
types of deserts.
Q.7 Describe five major rock forming minerals. With suitable database, justify that India is mineral
rich country.
Q.8 Formation of Indo-Gangetic alluvial plains is relatively geologically recent phenomenon.
Do you agree? Give a detailed note on features of three physiographic divisions of India
Q.9 Discuss biotic and abiotic components of eco-system with suitable examples. Describe biotic
and abiotic stresses in relation to plant growth. Discuss the major steps to be taken for
mitigating abiotic stresses with respect to plants.
Q.10 On a world map, delineate major types of biomes. Explain the main characteristics of different
biomes. Comment on special features of flora and fauna of the desert biome.
32
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET 531 (Part B)
SOIL SCIENCES
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is
based on all Blocks of Soil Sciences.
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code : ET-531B
Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011
BTWRE
Q.1 Explain the role of soil as a natural resource. Give a status report of soil degradation in India
and enumerate the main factors affecting soil health. Also, suggest specific remedies to
ameliorate soil health.
Q.2 Discuss the role of available soil moisture in plant growth. Explain the various soil water
constants needed to decide amount of irrigation water. Prepare a chart showing the values of
these soil moisture constants for major soil textures found in India.
Q.3 Discuss the disadvantages of water logging due to poor drainage conditions. Elaborate
importance of surface drainage in mitigating the problems caused by water logging. Explain
how drainage is useful in reclaiming sick soils.
Q.4 What is the need of soil classification? How does the modern tools like remote sensing and
GIS hasten the procedure of soil classification with accuracy? On a natural map of India show
different soil groups.
Q.5 What are major contributors of salinity in soil? How do we express the extent of salinity? What
are the regions affected by salts in India? Explain two important methods to ameliorate the soil
salinity.
Q.6 What are the major problems faced by the soils of hilly areas? Explain the engineering
interventions to make use of hilly soils useful for agricultural purpose. What steps are generally
taken to mitigate soil erosion in hilly areas?
Q.7 Write an essay on status of biological health of soils of India. Explain the role of
micro-organism in improving soil health and productivity with the help of suitable examples.
Q.8 Explain concept of organic farming. What is the importance of bio-fertilizers in present day
agriculture? Prepare a detailed list of sources/availability and usefulness of bio-fertilizers.
Q.9 Write an essay on symbiotic nitrogen fixation. How the cropping system affect this process?
Explain the process with suitable sketches.
Q.10 Discuss about soil borne plant diseases. Prepare a chart on plant pathogenic micro organisms
and their control measures for any two important crops.
33