1.

Of all the possible threats that affect American national security, the possibility of electromagnetic attack is maybe the more difficult for analysis. A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis B. is probably the most difficult to analyze C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis D. is probably the more difficult to analyze E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

Tony: The American Association of Universities recently announced that U.S. students are less and less competitive at the university level because of their lack of familiarity with the metric system. In addition, very few modern scientific journals reference the imperial system of feet and pounds when citing measurements, and no major technical paper uses the imperial system. Because the imperial system seems to be an outmoded and archaic throwback, I recommend that secondary schools ban the system outright and transition to the metric system. Ralph: That's ludicrous. This would mean that all measurements such as speed and weight limits across the country would have to be switched to their metric equivalent, and there's no way the average American would agree to such a change. Furthermore, our government would never approve of this change, let alone put it to a vote. 2. In his response to Tony, Ralph does all of the following EXCEPT: A. supply at least one way Tony's proposal would be hard to put into practice B. point out that secondary schools are not alone in determining whether Tony's recommendation should be effected C. expose at least one unintended consequence of Tony's suggestion D. undermine some of the premises that support Tony's idea E. imply that the government must be involved in implementing Tony's proposal

American retailers spend more money on transportation logistics than does any other industry. Almost 50 percent of the $25 billion spent on transportation logistics by retailers is waste attributable to inefficient backhauling and route planning. At the same time, approximately 60 percent of retailers in the United States have revenues of less than $2 million and don't have the funds to invest in better logistics planning software. 3. Assuming the information above is true, which of the following is the most reasonable conclusion that can drawn? A. Small retailers can use logistics planning software to reduce their expenses by a greater percentage than larger retailers can. B. The availability of affordable logistics planning software will reduce transportation costs by approximately 50 percent. C. The use of logistics planning software represents a potential source of transportation logistics savings for retailers. D. About $12.5 billion of the total spent on transportation logistics each year by retailers is not waste. E. Other American industries spend more than $25 billion on transportation logistics each year.

The California ground squirrel must constantly balance the conflicting demands of self-preservation and predator assessment. Because predator assessment requires a fairly high degree of proximity and sensory contact, the ground squirrel can only safely assess predators from whom there is little to no immediate threat. For example, when avian predators, including the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle, launch sudden, unexpected aerial attacks, self-preservation must take precedence over the acquisition of knowledge. Rattlesnakes, on the other hand, pose relatively little immediate danger, and give the squirrel the greatest opportunity for predator assessment. Predator assessment might normally be hampered by the inherent danger of the rattlesnake's lethal bite. But while squirrels constitute almost 70 percent of the rattlesnake's diet, adult ground squirrels are all but immune to rattlesnakes. Rattlesnakes hunt slowly and stalk their prey, in marked contrast to sudden avian attacks. And even though a rattlesnake's strike is fast, the ground squirrel can move much faster. More important, any danger posed by a snakebite is mitigated by proteins in the squirrel's blood that confer resistance to rattlesnake venom. Adult ground squirrels will generally survive a rattlesnake bite that could prove lethal to a grown human. Indeed, it is the squirrel pups that are most susceptible to rattlesnake bites, because their smaller bodies cannot neutralize a full bite's worth of venom. This innate resistance allows the ground squirrel to change the dynamic of the traditional predator-prey relationship and approach the rattlesnake in an effort to acquire useful information regarding size and body temperature. Larger snakes, which deliver more venom per strike, are naturally more dangerous, as are warmer snakes, which can strike faster, from a greater distance, and with greater accuracy. Visual cues can be helpful, but the squirrel is often hampered by the

surrounding vegetation and darkness of burrows. Auditory cues are generally more reliable. For this reason, the ground squirrel will engage in tail-flagging, sand-kicking, and substrate-throwing in an attempt to put the snake on the defensive, and coax the snake into rattling its tail. The sound of a particular snake's rattle "leaks" information about the snake's size and body temperature. Not only does this information allow the squirrel to accurately assess the surrounding danger to itself and its pups, but it also allows the squirrel to communicate this danger (or lack thereof) to other squirrels by additional tail-flagging. 4. Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about adult ground squirrels on the basis of the passage? A. They are found exclusively in California. B. They have always been immune to rattlesnake venom. C. They are sometimes vulnerable to a rattlesnake's venom. D. They generally stay away from rattlesnakes in order to protect their young. E. They have only avian and reptilian predators.

5. According to the passage, the adult ground squirrel generally does NOT engage in which of the following? A. The self-application of snake scent B. Acquisition of knowledge regarding a rattlesnake's size C. Biting rattlesnakes D. Large-scale assessment of avian predators E. Communication with other adult ground squirrels

6. The author mentions the hunting method of rattlesnakes in order to A. show how the rattlesnake can sneak up on a ground squirrel engaged in predator assessment. B. give an example of an attack against which the adult ground squirrel must defend itself in order to survive. C. explain why 70 percent of squirrels are eaten by rattlesnakes. D. show how the rattlesnake is different from the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle. E. provide a secondary explanation for the adult California ground squirrel's ability to safely approach the rattlesnake.

7. The passage suggests which of the following about predatorprey relationships? A. They only allow for predator assessment when there is no danger from the predator. B. They often do not allow for a high degree of predator assessment. C. They are fairly traditional in their resistance to evolution. D. They tend to minimize the predator-prey proximity. E. They are the same regardless of the species in question.

Mathematicians typically formulate their greatest contributions to the field before their thirtieth birthday. Many experts who study math's best practitioners believe that this occurs because aging impairs, rather than enhances, the creativity and strict logical thinking that are required to create new theorems. A recent study, however, demonstrates that nearly all mathematicians who reached their professional peak after their thirtieth birthday began studying mathematics at a much older age than their peers. Because of their atypical genius, many mathematicians are fast-tracked through academia and begin their professional studies five to ten years earlier than normal. As a result, this study suggests that age is less predictive than is tenure in determining whether a mathematician over thirty may contribute greatly to the field. 8. In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is a theory that is questioned by the argument; the second is new evidence used to support that theory. B. The first is a theory that the argument opposes; the second is an objection raised against the alternative theory advocated by the argument. C. The first is an opinion advanced in support of a position; the second is new evidence that clarifies that position. D. The first is a theory advocated by the argument; the second is new evidence used to question that theory. E. The first is a theory that the argument questions; the second is new evidence on which that question is based.

In the town of Snyder, Bank A and Bank B were exhibitors at the annual Snyder Days Summer Festival in an attempt to find new depositors. Both Bank A and Bank B displayed booths and manned the booths with bank employees. At the end of the festival, Bank A had registered 50 new depositors, and Bank B had registered 20 new depositors, leading to $200,000 in new deposits for each bank. Banks A and Bank B each spent $5,000 obtaining the new deposits from the festival, and each calculated its likely profits from the festival at $3,000. 9. Which of the following conclusions can be most properly drawn from the statements above? A. Bank A and Bank B generated equivalent revenue from the festival. B. On average, Bank A's new depositors deposited more money than did the new depositors of Bank B. C. On the last day of the festival, Bank A and Bank B each received the same number of new deposits. D. Bank A has more depositors than does Bank B. E. At the festival, Bank B specifically targeted those who would be able to deposit higher amounts of money.

The manager of Plant X would like to add a quality control station to the last leg of his production line. He reasons that the quality control station would improve the plant's scores on the company-wide quality assessment exams by identifying quality issues that otherwise wouldn't be caught by plant workers. 10. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above? A. Line managers at Plant X have observed a decline in quality ever since quality control stations were eliminated from the clean room and midpoint of the production line last year. B. Nearby Plant Y added a quality control station to its line last year and scored lower on the most recent companywide assessment than Plant X. C. The finance department is opposed to adding the quality control station because they would like to allocate capital to paying down debt. D. The owners of Plant X are concerned that the quality control station would increase the time to market of many of their products. E. Plant workers are less diligent in identifying quality issues when they know that the end of the line contains a quality control station.

Traditional editorial gatekeepers at newspapers, magazines, and television outlets are being bypassed by Internet search engines. With the arrival of ever more powerful and intricate search engines, information is no longer sorted by trusted human gatekeepers but by computer algorithms-sets of commands that decide in split seconds how to arrange search results on a browser page. Once uniform for all users, search results are now based on algorithms that consider the specific usage history and preferences of the person browsing. Because of software-driven information sorting, the individual Internet user is exposed to a range of information limited by what the algorithms predict that user wants to read. A personalized algorithm is based primarily on a user's previous first clicks; thus, the computer gatekeeper's results skew toward the impulsive, the entertaining, and the superficial, and the array of choices initially presented is not necessarily representative of the scope of information available. The leading search engine resolves 57 different data points about a user before displaying results. These points include the user's geographic location, the type of computer being used, and the browser employed. Other websites and social media utilize similar methods, with similar results. The result is what technology writer Eli Pariser terms a "filter bubble." Although the Internet was envisioned as a force to unite society in shared experiences, its use of personalized search algorithms could increasingly atomize users and offer a narrow experience of the world. 11. The author's primary objective is to A. demonstrate the intricacies of computer algorithms used by Internet search engines. B. provide a solution to a perceived problem developing on the Internet. C. explain how to efficiently use Internet search engines.

D. describe the scope and potential implications of a transforming technology. E. describe a new technology's implications for traditional gatekeepers.

12. It can be most reasonably inferred from this passage that A. the computer algorithms in use could be changed to include a human element. B. many Internet users are more attracted to the entertaining than to the unfamiliar. C. companies that provide search engines seek to keep certain information away from users. D. personalized Internet search algorithms make some information inaccessible to users. E. erasing browsing histories can spare Internet users the effects of tailored search results.

13. The author most likely mentions the ""57 different data points"" the leading search engine employs in order to A. demonstrate the array of information available to search engine providers. B. frighten the reader with the threat of constant surveillance. C. underscore the incredible technological capabilities of current search engines. D. explain more precisely how a particular search engine tailors information to users. E. highlight the role played by search history in tailoring search results.

14. It has been demonstrated that individuals who participated in competitive sports when they are in college tend towards remaining physically active in their later years. A. when they are in college tend towards remaining B. when they were in college are likely to be C. when they were in college were apt to be D. when they are in college are apt to be E. when they were in college were liable to be

15. Henry VIII changed from staunch defender to active opponent of the Church when Pope Clement VII barred his attempts to divorce Katharine of Aragon. A. staunch defender to active opponent of the Church B. staunchly defending to active opposition to the Church C. staunch defender to actively opposing the Church D. staunch defender of the Church to actively opposing it E. being a staunch defender to an active opponent of the Church

Editorial: The faltering economy has driven more voters to view undocumented immigrants as competitors for jobs and to demand stricter border controls. The logic of such demands is superficially compelling: fewer immigrants would seem to mean less competition for jobs, especially jobs that require little specialized training. However, stricter controls are both unnecessary and counterproductive. They are unnecessary because the flow of undocumented immigrants has already slowed. They are counterproductive because they would discourage undocumented immigrants from leaving the country, for fear that immigrants would be unable to return when the economy rebounds. 16. In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is a causal claim that the editorial argues does not apply; the second is a causal claim in support of the editorial's position. B. The first is a causal claim in support of the editorial's position; the second is a causal claim that the editorial argues does not apply. C. The first is a prediction that weighs in favor of the editorial's conclusion; the second is that conclusion. D. The first is a prediction that weighs against the editorial's conclusion; the second is that conclusion. E. The first is a prediction that weighs in favor of the editorial's conclusion; the second is a prediction that weighs against the editorial's conclusion.

Although the difference is commonly misunderstood in the general public, mental health experts recognize a clear distinction between introversion and social anxiety disorder. Introversion exists on one end of a continuum of normal, healthy personality traits, with extroversion at the opposite end. Introverts draw their energy from an internal world of thoughts and feelings, whereas extroverts derive their energy from engaging in activities with the people around them. Introverts are not socially inept; in fact, they typically enjoy the company of others-only on a more limited scale than is common for extroverts. Introverts value time spent alone or in the company of a few close friends. This is a normal state for introverts, not a condition requiring treatment. However, social anxiety disorder is a mental disorder that usually requires medical and psychological intervention. People who struggle with social anxiety disorder are uneasy even in small groups of close friends or relatives. Interacting with a large group or entering a public setting can cause sufferers to experience not only severe emotional distress but also such physical symptoms as nausea, flushing, racing heartbeat, and disorientation. People with the disorder may find that even the thought of a social interaction, such as ordering food in a restaurant, is enough to trigger symptoms. As a result, people with social anxiety usually dread public settings and do all they can to avoid everyday social encounters. The symptoms of this disorder, quite unlike the qualities of an introvert, are often debilitating and require professional treatment. Sufferers usually benefit from a combination of anxiety-reducing medication and long-term cognitive behavior therapy. 17. The author most likely takes care to differentiate introversion and social anxiety disorder for which of the following reasons?

A. Introverts are more likely to develop social anxiety disorder than extroverts are. B. Like people suffering from social anxiety disorder, introverts are uneasy in the company of other people. C. Introversion may be viewed by some to be an unhealthy quality. D. Social anxiety disorder is a more debilitating form of introversion. E. Unlike introversion, social anxiety disorder may respond to anxiety-reducing medications.

18. The author most likely lists physical symptoms of social anxiety disorder in order to A. arouse compassion in readers for sufferers of the disorder. B. help distinguish the disorder from introversion. C. urge treatment of individual symptoms. D. activate readers' memories of similar experiences. E. seek the cause of these reactions.

19. According to the passage, why do introverts ""value time spent alone"" more than extroverts do? A. Introverts tend to have a few close friends rather than many acquaintances. B. Introverts can trace their behaviors to unpleasant social experiences in their past. C. Introverts do not require medical or psychological treatment. D. Introverts feel anxious days before large social gatherings. E. Introverts have rich interior worlds that allow them to recharge.

20. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal. A. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal B. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal C. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while an infinite and ready-made supply of environments is at the disposal of astronomers D. The fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments while astronomers have an infinite and readymade supply of environments at their disposal is one reason, late in their careers, some particle physicists are switching to astronomy E. The existence of an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at the disposal of astronomers compared with the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments suggests one reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers

American Diversity The history of diversity - of race, national origin and political creed, to name a few - in the United States is marked by contradictions; the country prides itself on being inclusive, but its history is rife with examples that prove this open-mindedness to be, at best, an aspiration rather than a fact. A particular example of this is the case of Fernando Sacco and Bartolomeo Vanzetti, two Italian immigrant anarchists who lived in Massachusetts in the early twentieth century. Sacco and Vanzetti were convicted of the murders of a company paymaster and security guard and the theft of the $16,000 payroll in their charge. Sacco and Vanzetti were found guilty and were executed, despite the worldwide protests of those who decried the trial, verdict, and sentence as overrun with antiItalian, anti-immigrant and anti-radical prejudice. Further, more institutionalised evidence of possibly racist antiimmigrant sentiment is found in the Immigration Act of 1924. This law permitted the nearly unfettered inflow of immigrants from western and northern Europe, while reducing immigration rates from eastern and southern Europe to a trickle - and eliminating immigration from most Asian countries. During World War i, over 100,000 ethnic Japanese people - over 60% of whom were American citizens - were forcibly removed from the west coast of the United States and relocated to internment camps, ostensibly to prevent their spying for the Japanese empire (which in fact may have happened) but generally acknowledged to be the further enactment of the anti-Asian sentiment that was endemic throughout the early twentieth century but was intensified after the Japanese surprise attack on Pearl Harbour.

21. Those who argue Sacco and Vanzetti were unfairly tried believe that anti-Italian sentiment played a bigger role in the case than anti-radical sentiment. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

22. Protests of the Sacco and Vanzetti trial were heard even in countries outside the United States. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

23. Within the broad history of American anti-immigrant sentiment, the differential treatment of immigrants based on their country of origin is apparent. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

24. Acts of bigotry do not have practical implications in certain circumstances. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

25. Bottle-nosed dolphins have a highly developed sense of taste, enabling them to detect various chemicals in the water; however, since this animal has no olfactory lobe, they apparently have no sense of smell. A. since this animal has B. these animals have C. those animals have D. since these animals have E. since the dolphin has

Montezuma's Treasure The conquest of the Aztec civilisation by Spanish conquistadores took place in the early 16 century. The story of the conquest engendered a legend of lost treasure that has served to tempt adventurers and treasure-hunters for centuries. The Spanish had settled various Caribbean islands and had sent several exploratory expeditions into the Aztec empire and its environs, when in 1519 an expedition led by Hernando Cortes, was launched. This expedition arrived at Tenochtitlan, the Aztec capital city, and was welcomed by the Aztec king, Montezuma. Gifts of gold were presented to the Spaniards, which served to whet their appetite for lucre. The Spanish ultimately took up arms against their hosts, killing Montezuma and stealing tonnes of treasure. Confronted by Aztec warriors, they fled Tenochtitlan and were pursued to the banks of Lake Tezcuco. A bloody fight ensued, in which the Spanish troops were devastated and, along with much of the plundered gold, thrown into the Lake. Cortes and a few of his men escaped, stashing the rest of their treasure at the lake in order to travel more quickly. They returned a year later. Warned of their impending arrival, the Aztecs buried much of their remaining gold, also on the shores of the lake. In the centuries since these events, hundreds of people have sought the lost treasure, but to no avail. Five hundred years of sediment have hidden the cache so effectively that not even a government-sponsored dredging of the lakebed revealed its location. The treasure, which would certainly be worth at least several hundred million pounds today, remains to be discovered. 26. The hidden Aztec treasure on the shores of Lake Tezcuco was placed there by both Spanish and Aztecs.
th

A. True B. False C. Can't tell

27. The gold taken by the conquistadores was a combination of some items stolen from the Aztecs, and other items given to the Spanish by the Aztecs willingly. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

28. The Aztecs welcomed Cortes as the personification of a god when he first arrived at Tenochtitlan. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

29. The value of the lost Aztec treasure was worth approximately £50-100 million at the time it was buried at Lake Tezcuco. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

30. Young female ballet dancers and gymnasts sometimes fail to maintain good eating habits caused by the desire to be as thin as possible. A. Young female ballet dancers and gymnasts sometimes fail to maintain good eating habits caused by the desire to be as thin as possible B. Good eating habits sometimes fail to be maintained by young female ballet dancers and gymnasts caused by desiring to be as thin as possible C. Because they desire to be as thin as possible, good eating habits are sometimes not maintained by young female ballet dancers and gymnasts D. Because they desire to be as thin as possible, young female ballet dancers and gymnasts sometimes fail to maintain good eating habits E. Young female dancers and gymnasts sometimes fail to maintain good eating habits because they desire to be as thin as possible

Charles Dickens Perhaps the most common advice given to fledgling writers is to 'write what you know.' The wisdom of this advice is borne out in the works of one of the most popular and successful writers in the history of English literature, Charles Dickens. Dickens's works, while fictional, pay homage to many of the people and situations he knew in his early life. As a child, Dickens enjoyed the modest but comfortable trappings his father's clerical salary provided. When Dickens was 12 years old, however, his father's excessive spending landed him in debtor's prison, and Dickens's mother and seven siblings moved to the prison as well. The circumstances Dickens observed there, and the broader themes of misfortune of the destitute, were reflected in many of his novels, including Little Dorrit and David Copperfield. Later, Dickens worked in a blacking warehouse (the proprietors of which were fictionalised in characters in The Old Curiosity Shop and Dombey and Son), as a law clerk (gaining knowledge he used to good effect in Nicholas Nickleby and Bleak House), and as a journalist before becoming a fulltime novelist. Individuals from Dickens's life were reflected in his fiction, too. Various characters reveal the personal characteristics and life experiences of his father, mother, and various siblings and inlaws, and one of his most famous characters, Fagin the gang boss from Oliver Twist, was named after a childhood friend of Dickens. Many students of Dickens's work believe that the character Pip from Great Expectations was based on the author himself. 31. Dickens gained so much knowledge of English Law in researching Nicholas Nickleby that he qualified for work in the legal profession.

A. True B. False C. Can't tell

32. None of the individuals with whom Dickens worked as a journalist are reflected in his writings. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

33. In his youth, Charles Dickens had a friend named Fagin. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

34. The theory that Dickens's character Pip is to some degree an autobiographical one has been discredited by modern scholars. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries. Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

35. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

36. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

37. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

38. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

John Dillinger American bank robber John Dillinger was active in the 1930s, stealing over $300,000 with his gangs. As a depression-era gangster, he was equally reviled and admired by the public; many saw him as a thug but many others admired his skill in avoiding arrest and viewed him as a modern-day Robin Hood. Dillinger learned the bank-robbery trade when he was in prison for other minor infractions. When he gained his release, he plotted the escape of two seasoned mentors and set out on a series of high-profile robberies. Dillinger's suave, audacious tactics earned him early notoriety. Through the use of guileful deceptions theretofore unknown - for example, posing as a bank-security expert or as a Hollywood location scout so that he could gain access to sensitive areas of his victim-banks - his exploits quickly became things of legend. That he availed himself of hundreds of thousands of dollars at a time of great poverty only served to heighten the myth of Dillinger. Dillinger was captured twice during his string of bank robberies, but managed to escape both times. He evaded further capture through a series of shoot-outs with police and FBI agents, and fled to Chicago where he assumed a false identity and continued to evade justice. Dillinger's end came as the result of a shootout outside a movie theatre in Chicago when a female acquaintance, the infamous 'Lady in Red,' tipped the police that Dillinger would be there. His myth endures; a number of stories report his epic taunts of the FBI, his prideful gratitude toward the Ford Motor Company for building reliable getaway cars, and even that it wasn't Dillinger who was killed outside that theatre at all.

39. Dillinger's love interest, the 'Lady in Red,' betrayed him to law enforcement. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

40. Dillinger broke two of his gang members out of jail. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

41. John Dillinger was never arrested during his string of bank robberies. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

42. Dillinger was broadly admired by the general public, if not by law enforcement. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

In 1943, Baade obtained photographs of stars in the galaxy Andromeda. Using these photographs, Baade divided stars into two groups. The brightest members of Population I were hot, blue stars with surface temperatures up to 30,000 degrees Kelvin. The brightest Population II stars (called "red giants") were large, cool and red, and fainter than Population I stars. Later observations showed that most Population I stars occur in the arms of spiral galaxies, while Population II stars are most common between the arms and in the centers of spiral galaxies, and in elliptical galaxies. According to Baade, the two populations compose distinct stellar age groups. Since the rate at which stars consume their fuel is directly proportional to their brightness, and brightness increases with mass, large, bright stars burn their fuel more quickly than dimmer stars. Baade concluded that the brightest Population I stars were probably less than one million years old while Population II stars were older. Baade found support for his views in the distribution of red giants. It is believed that most of a star's hydrogen fuel is gradually converted to helium. When the helium core comprises about one-tenth of a star's mass, the star expands and its surface cools. This phase lasts until the red giant consumes all of its fuel and disintegrates in either a single explosion or a series of outbursts. Most red giants occur in Population II. The composition of red giants supports Baade's conception. It is thought that all elements evolved from hydrogen as a result of nuclear reactions in stars. When a star explodes, it throws out heavy elements. Thus, the dust and gas from which new stars are produced gradually become richer in heavier elements. Studies of red giants in both populations reveal that heavier elements are more abundant in Population I giants. Thus, Population II stars evolved from material poor in heavier elements and are older.

While Baade's basic insights have been sustained, analyses of stars in our galaxy have shown variations in concentrations of heavy elements, indicating that the stars must be of assorted ages. As a consequence, stars are now classified into five distinct populations. 43. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. explain how to determine the age of a star B. describe a system of star classification and some of the evidence supporting it C. discuss Population II stars D. compare and evaluate competing theories of stellar evolution E. examine the importance of Baade's contributions to astronomy

44. According to the passage, Baade considered all of the following to be characteristics of Population I stars EXCEPT: A. They are relatively young stars. B. The brightest members are hot, blue stars. C. They are found mainly between the arms of spiral galaxies. D. They are brighter than Population II stars. E. They have surface temperatures of up to 30,000 degrees Kelvin.

45. According to the passage, when the core in which hydrogen has been totally consumed amounts to approximately one tenth of a star's mass, then A. the star will expand and its outer layer will cool B. its life as a normal star will end C. the star may disintegrate in a single explosion D. the star will throw out the heavy elements it has produced E. its classification will change from Population I to Population II

46. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage as characteristic of red giants? I. They are all Population II stars. II. Each red giant is cooler than it once was. III. They all have a low percentage of heavy elements. A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II, and III

47. The passage provides support for all of the following statements EXCEPT: A. The death of a star involves either one major or several minor explosions. B. The chemical compositions of red giants support the classification of stars into different age groups. C. Population II stars are older than Population I stars. D. Elliptical galaxies have existed for a longer period of time than spiral galaxies. E. The chemical composition of a star is indicative of its age.

48. The author would most probably agree that A. astronomers can ascertain with ease to which of the five populations a star belongs B. more recent information has discredited Baade's early ideas about stars C. eventually the spiral arms of the galaxies will be devoid of interstellar dust D. the classification of stars has helped to lend order to their study E. the present classification of stars into five populations is outdated

Numerous studies of chemotherapy patients over the last ten years have shown that patients who had regularly attended support groups or received counseling experienced significantly fewer side effects and shorter recovery times from chemotherapy than did patients who had not. Clearly, although the mainstream scientific community has been slow to acknowledge it, psychological support has an effect on the body's ability to heal. 49. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? A. The survival rates for chemotherapy patients in the study were virtually identical regardless of whether or not they received support. B. The patients who did not attend support groups chose not to do so, even though they were healthy enough to attend. C. Many medical doctors believe that the mind plays a role in the causation and prevention of illness. D. The majority of chemotherapy patients must undergo more than one round of treatment. E. Some hospitals do not conduct support groups on their premises for chemotherapy patients and their families.

50. During her testimony, the witness referred to facts about the defendant that had been ruled inadmissible as evidence, so the judge ordered that her remarks were stricken from the record. A. were stricken from the record B. are stricken from the record C. be stricken from the record D. are not recorded E. will not be recorded

Trial by jury is considered a hallmark of U.S democracy. The citizen jury is the cornerstone of U.S. courts, protecting the nation from social injustice. But today's jury system evolved from one that was sanctioned by King Henry II in an era appropriately dubbed the Dark Ages. In medieval England, a jury of peers consisted of 12 men deemed worthy to serve based on personal knowledge of the event in dispute. Foreign to King Henry II was the concept that the guilt or innocence of a defendant could be accurately judged based solely on evidence presented in court. Over the next few centuries, the judicial process grew more complex, and the medieval jury system was largely outmoded by the time the Dark Ages were eclipsed by the Renaissance. Today, personal knowledge of a case is discouraged and can disqualify a person from jury service. However, the modern U.S. judicial system is a highly criticized institution, and the effectiveness of a trial by jury is still a subject of dispute. The question arises whether evidence presented in court is substantial enough to ensure that a guilty verdict is correct. Also at issue is whether a jury verdict is questionable due to the fallibility of human judgment. Perhaps the juries of today are no better equipped than their medieval predecessors to pronounce innocence or guilt or to presume with any certainty knowledge of the truth. 51. The author would most likely agree with which of the following? A. Today's trial by jury system should be abolished. B. Modern jurors may overestimate the sufficiency of evidence, pronouncing guilt when the evidence does not actually warrant this conclusion. C. Most court decisions today should be challenged in appellate courts.

D. The U.S. judicial system today fails to reflect lessons from history. E. Many lawsuits today could be settled without a jury trial.

52. The author most likely refers to the Dark Ages in order to A. allude to the improvement of the jury selection process used in the U.S. today. B. heighten the contrast with the jury system that arose out of the Renaissance. C. stress the need to revise the jury system sanctioned by King Henry II. D. imply that today's trial by jury system is based on unrealistic ideals. E. emphasize the flawed nature of the juries selected in King Henry's time.

53. According to the passage, why did the medieval jury system fall into disuse? A. The opinions of the jurors were likely to be biased by their dealings with the person on trial. B. It could not meet the increasingly complex demands of the legal system. C. The jury appointments were made by the king. D. The system was revealed to be corrupt. E. The verdicts too often proved to be incorrect.

54. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium. A. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium B. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies C. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, small, emergent economies are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance as established economies D. Because small, emergent economies are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to them in the same way they apply to established economies E. Small, emergent economies are not subject to the applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance in the same way as established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium

55. Unlike the Puritan ethic, extolling hard work as the supreme virtue, many modern psychologists focus on the goals of inner peace and self-discovery. A. Unlike the Puritan ethic, extolling hard work as the supreme virtue, many modern psychologists focus on the goals of inner peace and self-discovery B. Unlike believers in the Puritan ethic, which extols as the supreme virtue hard work, the goals of inner peace and self-discovery are focused on by many modern psychologists C. Unlike the Puritan ethic, which extols hard work as the supreme virtue, the focus of the doctrines of many modern psychologists are the goals of inner peace and self-discovery D. Unlike the Puritan ethic, which extols hard work as the supreme virtue, the doctrines of many modern psychologists focus on the goals of inner peace and selfdiscovery E. Unlike those of the Puritans, who extol hard work as the supreme virtue, many modern psychologists focus on the goals of inner peace and self-discovery

Urban legends proliferate in contemporary society, and determining why these stories survive sheds light on how ideas gain acceptance in social environments and how those ideas influence social beliefs. It is commonly assumed that ideas retain power primarily because of their truthfulness and that urban legends, by extension, are shared because of their presumed truthfulness. The perceived truth of urban myths is certainly one reason these stories are exchanged and one reason why they are deemed worthy of transmission in the first place. People hunger for news and are fascinated by sensational news transmitted in the form of plausible stories. But recent studies have linked the success and longevity of urban legends to their ability to evoke common human emotions that are primarily negative, such as fear or disgust. Crediting the success of urban legends to their emotional impact is intriguing, as the tales have the power to alter the social environment in which they thrive. The ideas conveyed in these stories play on people's fears and phobias; they reinforce existing attitudes and magnify perceived threats. According to the studies, this power prevails regardless of the truthfulness or the viability of the ideas within the stories. Thus, urban legends become part of a shared psychology, and the impact of these modern myths can be compared to that of traditional, fictional fairy tales. Both are commonly composed of motifs that incite emotional reactions and propagate irrational fears, such as the poisoned apple and its contemporary equivalent: poisoned candy. 56. It can be inferred from this passage that the ideas conveyed through urban legends A. are less believable to people who have had extensive exposure to fairy tales. B. are popular based on their ability to reflect concepts that embody common but unwarranted concerns.

C. can be difficult to recognize based on the function they served in traditional oral tales. D. have been studied extensively by scholars to enhance comparative literature research. E. had different implications when they were conveyed by other methods.

57. The author probably likens the impact of urban legends to that of traditional fairy tales in order to A. allude to the exaggerated quality of these legends. B. convey the appeal of the formulaic plot structure. C. confirm the assertion that they have little or no basis in historical fact. D. stress their ability to explore universal truths about the human experience. E. reinforce the idea that they evolved from an established literary genre.

58. ""Poisoned candy"" is mentioned in the passage as an example of all the following EXCEPT A. a long-forgotten idea that has resurfaced in modern times. B. a metaphor for a piece of sensational news people crave. C. an older idea that was modified to suit a contemporary audience. D. a motif that appears to invalidate the idea that urban legend are presumed to be true. E. a classic human phobia.

59. Prosecutors use a reliable forensic method. graphology, in forgery cases, which may also be use by employers to uncover clues to prospective employees' characters. A. Prosecutors use a reliable forensic method, graphology, in forgery cases, which may also be use by B. Prosecutors in forgery cases that have used graphology as a reliable forensic method and may also be used by C. Graphology, a reliable forensic method used by prosecutors in forgery cases, may also be used by D. As a reliable forensic method, prosecutors use graphology in forgery cases, which may also be used by E. Prosecutors use graphology in forgery cases, a reliable forensic method may also be used by

Practice vs. Talent Most people assume that those who are truly great at some pursuit - for example, David Beckham at football or Midori at playing the violin - are naturally, or perhaps supernaturally, talented. Those who hold this belief generally would acknowledge that some practice is necessary for these extraordinary individuals to hone their talents, but that at the root, they were born with innate talents that no amount of practice could replace. Recent research, however, reveals that talent contributes far less toward success than does practice. In fact, in none of the fields studied - which included sport, music, chess and medicine - have experts found any evidence that experts have any more natural talent than amateurs. In short, the successes of worldclass performers are almost entirely attributable to practice. The implications of this are obvious: a lack of success in any area of interest can no longer be blamed on a lack of talent - each of us can achieve elite status in virtually any pursuit through copious amounts of practice. The structure of effective practice that emerged from the studies is different from what might be expected, however. Researchers have defined a term known as 'deliberate practice' - repeated efforts to improve the weakest aspect of performance, done with forethought and with evaluated results. Practice in the way that most people define it -- randomised activity, or repetition of the most enjoyable aspects of the performance -- is insufficient. The concept of directed practice is best explained through an example. Suppose that one wishes to improve one's golf game to the elite level. Most people would approach their practice by either playing more rounds of golf, or by practicing their favourite part of the game - say, their long game. Directed practice, though, would dictate that the person analyse the current state of his or her game, determine which aspect of the

game is his or her greatest weakness, and then repetitively and intensively practice that particular aspect. Suppose that your weakness is putting the ball- to embrace the concept of directed practice, you should spend hours on the practice green hitting the same putts over and over again, planning and visualising them beforehand, and analysing and making improvements afterward. Once your putting improves to the point that it is no longer your greatest weakness, move on to that part of the game that now is, and repeat the process. 60. For most golfers, a trip to the driving range will improve their game more than would equal time playing a full round of golf. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

61. Directed practice aimed at improving the weakest element of your performance is likely to yield better results than directed practice aimed at improving any other element. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

62. Natural talent and practice are equally important in gaining mastery of an activity. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

63. An individual who finds himself unable to do well at golf simply has not spent enough time practising. A. True B. False C. Can't tell