GT 10

CODE : MAGENTA
28538/QB/HYD-KCO-C / IITJEE / 18-1-2011 /

IITJEE

NARAYANA I I T ACADEMY
INDIA

IITJEE MODEL Exam Date : 29-1-2011
Time : 3:00
GRAND TEST - 10
PAPER -I
Max Marks : 240
ID.NO :

INSTRUCTIONS :
1) This booklet is your Questions Paper containing 60 questions. Maximum marks: 240.

2) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part
has 4 sections.

3) Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Q.No: 1 to 8, 21 to 28 and 41 to 48. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For
each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In
case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

4) Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Q.No: 9 to 12, 29 to 32
and 49 to 52. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR
MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if
you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the
answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark
will be awarded.

5) Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions bearing Q.No: 13 to 18, 33 to 38, 53 to 58 have to be answered. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each
question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

6) Section-IV contains 2 questions. Q.No: 19, 20, 39, 40 and 59, 60. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in
Column I are labeled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeled p, q,
r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded
2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There
is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

This Question paper contains 20 Pages GT-10_PAPER_1_29 -01-11
Space for rough work
Page 2 of 20

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) ,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks
if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
1)
NaOD
DCHO products
A
The products in the above reaction are
A) DCOONa & DCH
2
OH B) HCOONa & CHD
2
OH
C) DCOONa & CH
2
DOD D) HCOONa & CHD
2
OD

2) Calcium acetate is 90 % dissociated in an aqueous solution of 0.5 m concentration. K
b
of
water is 0.56 K Kg mol
-1
. The boiling point of the solution (ignoring hydrolysis of
CH
3
COO
-
) at 1 atm pressure is
A) 100.532 C B) 101.5 C C) 100.28 C D) 100.784 C

3) The pressure of real gas is
A) always greater than the pressure if it was an ideal gas
B) always less than the pressure if it was an ideal gas
C) directly proportional to the intermolecular forces of attraction
D) governed by Boyles law if temperature is fixed for a particular amount of the gas

4) An antacid tablet weighing 500 mg was powdered and suspended in water. The
suspension was then treated with 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl. The volume of the solution was
made up to 100 mL. 10 mL of this solution required 10 mL of 0.15 M NaOH for the
neutralization of unused acid. It the tablet contains Mg(OH)
2
and starch as the only
components, what is the percentage of starch in the tablet? (Mg = 24 g mol
-1
)
A) 58 % B) 42 % C) 29% D) 71%

5) A gaseous mixture contains hydrogen atoms in the 4
th
excited state, He
+
ions in 3
rd

excited state and Li
2 +
in 2
nd
excited state. The number of spectral lines obtained in the
emission spectrum of this sample when all these atoms/ions return to the ground state is
A) 19 B) 20 C) 16 D) 18

Page 3 of 20
6)
O
D
2
O/D
+

?

A)
OD
D D
D

B)
O
D
D
D
D

C)
O
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D

D)
OD
D D
D
D
D
D
D

7) Which of the following is soluble in solvents like CS
2
?
A) C(diamond) B) C(graphite) C) C
60
D) P
4
(Red)

8) XeF
4
reacts with O
2
F
2
to give
A) XeO
2
F
2
+ F
2
B) XeOF
4
+ F
2
C) XeF
2
+ O
2
+ F
2
D) XeF
6
+ O
2

SECTION-2
Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) ,
(B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II ,
you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct
choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-
1) mark will be awarded.
9) Which of the following compounds can form adduct with BF
3
?

A)
CO
B)
(C
2
H
5
)
2
O
C)
SnCl
4

D)
R
3
N

10) Electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl gives

A)
NaOH
B)
Cl
2

C)
H
2

D)
Na

11) The intermediates/compounds involved in iodoform reaction of acetone is/are

A)
CI
3
COCI
3

B)
CH
3
COCI
3

C)
CH
3
C(OH)=CH
2

D)
3
CI

12) Which of the following represent correct order of solubility?

A)
CuS < ZnS < CaS
B)
PbCO
3
< NiCO
3
< CaCO
3
< BaCO
3

C)
Cu(OH)
2
<Zn(OH)
2
<Ba(OH)
2
<Mg(OH)
2

D)
BaCrO
4
< SrCrO
4
< CaCrO
4

Page 4 of 20
SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each
question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you
will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
P) A white substance (A) reacts with dilute H
2
SO
4
to produce a colourless gas (B) and a
colourless solution (C). The reaction between (B) and acidfied K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution produces a
green solution and slightly coloured precipitate (D). The substance (D) burns in air to produce
a gas (E) which reacts with (B) to yield (D) and a colourless liquid. Anhydrous copper
sulphate is turned blue on addition of this colourless liquid. Addition of aqueous NH
3
or
NaOH to (C) produces first a precipitate, which dissolves in the excess of the respective
reagent to produce a clear solution in each case.
13) Compound C
A) crystallizes from water as an anhydrous salt.
B) crystallizes from water as a pentahydrate.
C) crystallizes from water as a heptahydrate.
D) cannot be crystallized from water.

14) Addition of excess of KCN to the aqueous solution of C gives a complex. The
co-ordination number of the central atom in the complex is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

15) Compound E is
A) NO B) SO
3
C) NO
2
D) SO
2

P) 1 mol of C(g) is placed in a 1 L flask at 300 K so as to attain the following equilibrium
A(g) + B(g) 3C(g)
The value of equilibrium constant K
C
is
4
2.43 10
. The rate constant for the backward

reaction is 10
3
M
-2
s
-1
. (log 2 = 0.3010, log3 = 0.4770, log 5 = 0.6990)
16) The equilibrium concentration of C(g) is
A) 1 M B) 0.33 M C) 0.03 M D) 0.243 M

17) G
o
for the reaction is
A) 20.76 kJ mol
-1
B) 12.76 kJmol
-1

C) 6.38 kJ mol
-1
D) 10 kJ mol
-1

18) The rate of the forward reaction at equilibrium is
A) 0 B) 0.243 mol L
-1
s
-1
C) 0.027 mol L
-1
s
-1
D) 30 mol L
-1
s
-1

Page 5 of 20
SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be
matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are
labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this
section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

19) Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) S
2
(g) (p) Paramagnetic
(b) NO
2
(g) (q) Does not exist as monomer
(c) SO
3
(s) (r) Has unshared valence pair
electrons on all atoms
(d) XeF
4
(s) (s) Disproportionates in water
(t) d-orbitals are involved in bonding

20) Match the molecules in column I with the characteristic phenomena in column II
Column I Column II
(a)
CH
3
O

(p) Gives reddish brown precipitate
with CuSO
4
/sodium potassium
tartarate solution
(b)
O
OH

(q) Shows tautomerism
(c)
C H
3
CH
3
O

(r) Gives two isomeric compounds
with hydrazine hydrochloride
(d)
O

(s) Gives yellow precipitate with
I
2
/NaOH
(t) Gives precipitate with 2,4-
dinitrophenylhydrazine
hydrochloride

Page 6 of 20
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks

21)
In a triangle,
4 24
sin , tan , 1000
5 7
A C c = = = units. The area of triangle in square units is
A)
4
10 B)
6
10
3
C)
6
10 D)
4
10
3

22)
The domain of ( )
( )
1
1
log cot
f x
x
= is

A) cot1 x < < B) 0 x < < C) cot1 x < < D) 0 x < <

23)
Let ' ' A and ' ' B be two given matrices such that AB A = and , BA B = then
2 2
A B equals
A) A B) B C) I D) 0

24)
The number of values of a R e such that the equation
3 2
0 x x x a + + = has three
integer roots (not necessarily distinct) is

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

25) The equations of three planes are
( ) ( ) ( ) 0 b c x c a y a b z + + =
( ) ( ) ( ) 0 c a x a b y b c z + + =
( ) ( ) ( ) 0 a b x b c y c a z + + =
when , , a b c are distinct real numbers. Then

A) The planes are parallel to each other but not identical
B) The planes meet exactly at one point.
C) The planes intersect in a line.
D) The planes are identical.

Page 7 of 20
26) Let be a real number. The set of points ' ' z on the complex plane which satisfy the
equation 4 5 z z i + = lie on a straight line. Then a possible value of is

A) 1 B) 3 C) 7 D) 9

27)
The value of ( ) ( )
17
26
2
0
1 5 3 x x x dx
}
equals,
A) 0 B) 1 C)
27
2
9
D)
25
3

28)
The solution of the differential equation
( )
2 2
1
sin 1
dy
dx x y x y
=
+
is,
( ' ' c being an arbitrary constant).

A)
( )
2
2 2 2
cos sin 2 2
y
x y y ce
= B)
( )
2
2 2 2
cos sin 2 4
y
x y y e c
=
C)
( )
2
2 2 2
cos sin 2 2
y
y x x ce
=
D)
( )
2
2 2 2
cos sin 4
y
y x x ce c
=

SECTION-2

29)
Let ( )
( ) ( )
| |
3 2
2 2
3 4 1 4 , 2, 2 . f x x x x = + + e Then which of the following
statements is/are correct?

A) The least value of ' ' f is
256
27

B) The greatest value of ' ' f is 28
C) The number of critical point(s) of ' ' f is 3
D) The number of critical point(s) of ' ' f is 2

Page 8 of 20
30)
Let a curve be given parametrically by ( ) ( )
3 2
3 , 2 , . x t t y t t t R = = e
Suppose a line L is tangent at one point and normal at another point of the curve.
Then which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) There are two possible situation for the line L
B) A possible equation of line L is 2 2 2 0 x y =
C) A possible equation of line L is 2 2 2 0 x y + =
D) A possible equation of line L is 2 2 2 0 x y + =

31)
Let ' ' A and ' ' B be independent events such that ( ) ( )
1 3
,
2 25
P A P A B > = and
( )
8
.
25
P A B = Then which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
1 P A P B + =
B) ( ) P A satisfies
2
25 20 3 0 x x + =
C) ( ) P A satisfies
2
5 20 3 0 x x + =
D) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
2 P A P B + =

32) Let ABC be a triangle and , , D E F be the midpoints of the sides , , BC CA AB
respectively. Suppose ' ' G is the centroid of the triangle . ABC If BDGF is a cyclic
quadrilateral and 2 3 , BE AB = then which of the following statements is/are true?

A) The triangle ABC is isosceles
B) The triangle ABC is equilateral
C) The triangle ABC is right angle
D) The triangle ABC is isosceles but not equilateral

Page 9 of 20
SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have
to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases ,
minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

P)
From a point , P common tangents are drawn to the ellipse
2 2
4 8 x y + = and parabola
2
4 . y x =
33) The equation of the common tangents to the ellipse and the parabola are
A) 3 2 x y = B) 4 2 x y + = C) 4 2 x y = D) 3 2 x y + =

34) The joint equations of the chord of contact of the tangent drawn from the point ' ' P to the
ellipse and the parabola is
A) ( )( ) 2 4 0 x x + = B) ( )( ) 2 4 0 x x + = C) ( )( ) 2 4 0 y y + = D) ( )( ) 2 4 0 y y + =

35) The area of the quadrilateral formed by the common tangents, the chord of contact of the
ellipse and the chord of contact of the parabola is
A) 30 B) 45 C) 15 D) 60

P) Many sums can be easily evaluated by telescoping them, that is, by putting them in the
Form ( ) ( )
1
1 .
n
r
f r f r
=
+
The idea can be extended to evaluating product also, that is, by

putting them in the form
( )
( )
1
1
.
n
r
F r
F r
=
+
[
After cancellation we collect the remaining terms
to get our product.
36)
Let the
t h
n term of a sequence be given by
2
2
2
, 3.
3
n
n n
t n
n n

= >
+

Then the product
5 3 4 50
...... P t t t t = equals
A)
2
1
5 7 13 53 . . .
B)
2
1
5 7 13 53 . . .
C)
2
1
5 7 11 53 . . .
D)
2
1
5 7 11 53 . . .

Page 10 of 20
37)
The sum
3 4 2009
..........
1 2 3 2 3 4 2007 2008 2009
+ + +
+ + + + + +
equals
A)
1 1
3 2009

B)
1 1
2 2010

C)
1 1
2 2009

D)
1 1
3 2010

38)
The sum
4 4 4
1 2 100
.......
1 4 2 4 100 4
+ + +
+ + +
equals

A)
1 10000 5100
4 10001 10202

+
`
)
B)
1 10000 5050
2 10001 10202

+
`
)

C)
1 10000 5050
4 10001 10202

`
)
D)
1 10000 5050
2 10001 10202

`
)

SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which
have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements
in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct
matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you
will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no
negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

39) Match the following:
Consider the two circles in the complex plane
1
2
1
:
z i
C
z
+
=

( ) ( )
2
3 4 3 4 9 0 : C z z i z i z + + =
Let ( )
1 1
, o | be the centre of
1
C and ( )
2 2
, o | be that of
2
C
Column -I Column -II
(A)
1 1
2o +| equals
(p) 11
(B)
2 2
2 o | equals
(q) 3
(C)
The radius of circle
1
C equals
(r) 4
(D)
The radius of circle
2
C equals
(s)
2 2
3

(t) 2

Page 11 of 20
40) Match the following:
For the ellipse ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 4
3 6 3 9 5 12 6
169
x y x y + = + +
Column -I Column -II
(A) Length of major axis (p) 24
5

(B) Length of minor axis (q) 16
5

(C) Length of latusrectum (r) 16
3

(D) Distance between directrices (s) 72
5

(t) 48
5

PHYSICS
SECTION-1
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks

41) An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One
of the chambers has volume
1
V and contains ideal gas at pressure
1
P and temperature
1
T .
The other chamber has volume
2
V and contains same ideal gas at pressure
2
P and
temperature
2
T . If the partition is removed without doing any work on the gas, the final
equilibrium temperature of the gas in the container will be

A)
( )
1 1
2 2 1
1 2 2 2
1 1 2
T T PV P V
PVT P V T
+
+

B)
1 1 1 2
2
2 2
1 1 2
PV T P V T
PV P V
+
+

C)
1 1 2 1
2
2 2
1 1 2
PV T P V T
PV P V
+
+

D)
( )
1 2 2
1
1 1 2
1 1 2 2 2
T T P V P V
PV T P V T
+
+

Page 12 of 20
42) In an ink-jet printer, an ink droplet of mass m is given a negative charge q by a
computer-controlled charging unit, and then it enters at speed v into the region between
two deflecting parallel plates of length L separated by distance d (see figure). All over
this region exists a downward electric field which you can assume to be uniform.
Neglecting the gravitational force on the droplet, the maximum charge that it can be
given so that it will not hit a plate is most closely approximated by

A)
2
2
mv E
d L

B)
2
2
mv d
E L

C)
2
2
2d mv
E L

D)
none

43) The switch in circuit shifts from 1 to 2 when 2 / 3
C
V V > and goes back to 1 from 2 when
/ 3
C
V V < . The voltmeter reads voltage as plotted. What is the period T of the wave
form in terms of R and C?

A) RC ln 3 B) 2RC ln 2 C) RC ln 3 D) 2RC ln 3

44) A wire carrying current I has the configuration shown in figure. Two semi-infinite
straight sections, both tangent to the same circle, are connected by a circular arc, of
central angle , along the circumference of the circle, with all sections lying in same
plane. If magnetic field at centre O of the circle is zero then is

A)
2 radian
B)
4 radian
C)
2
t

D)
4
t

Page 13 of 20
45) Figure shows the path of an electron in a region of uniform magnetic field. The path
consists of two straight sections, each between a pair of uniformly charged plates, and
two half-circles. The plates are named 1, 2, 3 & 4. Then

A) 1 and 3 at higher (positive) potential and 2 and 4 at lower (negative) potential
B) 1 and 3 at lower potential and 2 and 4 at higher potential
C) 1 and 4 at higher potential and 2 and 3 at lower potential
D) 1 and 4 at lower potentail and 2 and 3 at higher potential

46) A beam of fast moving electrons having cross-sectional area A falls normally on a flat
surface. The electrons are absorbed by the surface and the average pressure exerted by
the electrons on this surface is found to be P. If the electrons are moving with a speed v,
then the effective current through any cross-section of the electron beam is

A)
( )
APe
mv

B)
( )
2
APe
mv

C)
( )
APv
me

D)
( )
APm
ev

47) The energy of a K electron in an atom is 20 k eV and of an L-electron is 2 k eV.
The wavelength of
K

X ray photon emitted when a K electron is knocked out is.

A)
0
7.69 A
B)
0
4.69 A
C)
0
2.69 A
D)
0
0.69 A

48) The diagram shows a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius R. It has volume charge
density . If the magnitude of electric field at a point 2R distance above its center is E
then what is the magnitude of electric field at the point which is 2R below its center?

A)
0
6
R
E
+
c

B)
0
12
R
E

c

C)
0
6
R
E
+
c

D)
0
24
R
E
+
c

Page 14 of 20
SECTION-2

49) Two light bulbs shown in the circuit have ratings A (24 V, 24 W) and B (24 V and 36 W)
as shown. When the switch is closed.

A) the intensity of light bulb A increases
B) the intensity of light bulb A decreases
C) the intensity of light bulb B increases
D) the intensity of light bulb B decreases

50) A force of 100 N is applied on a stationary block of mass 3 kg as shown in figure. If the
coefficient of friction between the surface and the block is 0.25 then:

A) the frictional force acting on the block is 20 N downwards

B)
the friction force acting on the block is
25 3
2
N

C)
the normal reaction on the block is 50 3

D) if coefficient of friction is changed to 0.35 then the friction force acting on the block
is again 20 N downwards

Page 15 of 20
51) Mark the correct statement (s)

A) If speed of a body is varying, its velocity must be varying and it must have non-zero
acceleration.
B) If velocity of a body is varying, its speed must be varying.
C) A body moving with varying velocity may have constant speed.

D) A body moving with varying speed may have constant velocity if its direction of
motion remains constant.

52) An inductor is in the form of a solenoid with an air core as shown in the diagram. The
iron core of same size as solenoid is suddenly inserted (ignore resistance of solenoid as
well as end effects i.e. assume solenoid to be infinite length).

Iron core
r
2 =
R E
L

A)
current before inserting the iron core is
R

B)
current just after inserting the iron core is
2R

C)
current at time t after inserting the iron core is
( )
2
2
2
Rt L
e
R

D)
current at time t after inserting the iron core is
( )
1 2
Rt L
e
R

Page 16 of 20
SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each
question in Section III , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

P) A block with mass 3M connected to a massless rod of length L lies at rest on a fixed
frictionless table. A second block of mass M impinges on the system with speed
0
V strikes
the opposite end of the rod at a right angle and sticks (assume both blocks to be point
masses)

53) The velocity of the centre of the rod just after collision :

A) zero B)
0
2
V

C)
0
V
D)
0
4
V

54) The angular velocity of the block-rod-block system about its centre of mass is

A)
0
V
L

B)
( )
0
2
V
L

C)
( )
0
3
4
V
L

D)
( )
0
4
3
V
L

55) The initial velocity of the more massive block just after the collision is

A)
0
3
4
V

B) zero C)
0
2
V

D)
0
4
V

P) Imagine that you are in Indian army and you have been given charge of commanding the
parade on 26th January. The soldiers have done extensive training on march past with a
band which strikes 120times/min. The soldier should strike left foot or right foot at each
drum beat so that parade marches at 120 steps/min. On the day of parade, there are 2
parts. In 1st part, the band marches ahead of the soldiers with same speed as that of
soldiers. In this march, you notice that the soldiers in the first row strike left foot but the
soldiers in last row strike right foot at the same time. Unfortunately, the general also
notices this. In the 2nd part, you hope & pray that everything goes well. In this part, the
band is stationary but the soldiers advance towards the band at same constant speed. Here
again, you notice that the soldiers in the parade are doing 121 steps/min. As before, the
general notices this. A court martial is due for you. You frantically try to look for an
Page 17 of 20
explanation. One of your friends reminds you of your physics teacher. You turn to him for
solace. He suggests two things for defence.
(a) Sound takes time to reach from one place to another.
(b) Dopplers effect
Assume that it was chilly winter & speed of sound = 320 m/sec.
56) Select the correct explanation for mistakes in each part.
A) part I a, part II b B) part I a, part II a
C) part I b, part II a D) part I b, part II b

57) What is the speed of the soldiers. (nearly)
A) 1.0 m/s B) 2.0 m/s C) 1.5 m/s D) 2.5 m/s

58) What will be the marching speed of the soldiers when they turn around & march away
from the band in part 2? (nearly)
A) 120 steps/min B) 119 steps/min.
C) 121 steps/min. D) 110 steps/min.

SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be matched. The statements in
Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I
can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 2
marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section
carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

59) An extended object is moving in front of concave mirror as shown in figure. On
L.H.S various velocity of object and position is given. On R.H.S some properties
of image and its velocity is given.

Column I (Object) Column II (Image)
(a) ve + velocity and object is between focus and
centre of curvature
(p) ve + velocity
(b) ve velocity and object is between focus and
pole
(q) ve velocity
(c) ve velocity and object is beyond centre of
curvature
(r) size of image is
increasing
(d) ve velocity and object is virtual (s) size of image is
decreasing

Page 18 of 20
60) Shown below is a cylinder of radius R floating in vessel containing liquids A and B.
Neglecting atmospheric pressure match the quantities mentioned in column-I with
corresponding expression in column-II.
:
Column I Column II
(a) Net force exerted by liquid A of density on the
cylinder.
(p)
2
9 g Rh
(b) Net force exerted by liquid B of density 2 on the
cylinder
(q)
2
g R h t
(c) Net force exerted by liquids A and B on the left half of
the curved part of cylinder.
(r)
2
4 g R h t
(d) Net force exerted by liquid A and B on the cylinder. (s)
2
3 g R h t

IF YOU HAVE GENUINE ACADEMIC PROBLEMS
PAPERS SETTERS : HYD-KCO-C
MATHS : MR.ALOK KUMAR 9030929949 - : : MR.G.N.V.RAMA KRISHNA-9912343870
PHYSICS : MR.VYOMSHEKAR- 7842094189 : : MR.SRIHARI PATNAIK-9912346089
CHEMISTRY: MR. LAWRENCE 9703804794 : DR.R.V.S.MURTHY-9949187103.

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Used space for rough work

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. The rate constant for the backward

The idea can be extended to evaluating product also, that is, by

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