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2. nd all values of p and q for which the following integrals converge. Choose 4 items. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
/2 sinx xp dx 0 p x x e dx 0 /2 sin x (tan x)p dx 0 1 dx 1 x(logx)p 1 dx (1x)p (1+x)q xp dx (1+x2 )q
3. Recall that for series we have the following necessary condition for convergance: If n=1 an converges, then lim an = 0.
n
Show that the analogous necessary condition for improper integrals does NOT hold: Let f be locally integrable at [a, ). If a f (x)dx converges then lim f (x) = 0.
x
In other words, show that the continuous function f on [0, ) dened below does not con verge to zero at innity yet a f (x)dx converges. (note that f is locally integrable at [0, ) since it is continuous there) f (x) =
1 | sin(n2 x)| : n x n + n2 1 0 : n + n2 x n + 1
4. Show that if f is integrable on [a, b] then the improper integral of f on [a, b) is equal to the Riemann integral on [a, b]. 5. Determine whether the following positive series converge. Choose 4 items. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g)
n5 n=1 2n +3n n! n=1 (2n!) 1 n=1 1000n+1 1 n=2 nlnp n 1!+2!+...+n! n=1 (2n)! n! n=1 a1 a2 ...an a n2 n=1 (cos( n ))
6. Determine if the following series converge absolutely/conditionaly or diverge. And for those dependant on x nd all values of x such that these occur. Choose 4 items. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g)
(1)n n2 n=1 n4 +2 (1)n n nn1 n=1 n 1 n=1 (1) ( n3 +1 (1)n n=1 n(1)n cos(xn ) n=1 2n nx n n=1 ( n+1 ) nx cos(nx) n=1 2
1 n3 +2
+ ... +
1 ) n3 +n
7. Prove the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality: For every two vectors u = (x1 , ..., xn ), v = (y1 , ..., yn ) in Rn we have | u, v | ||u|| ||v|| Where u, v = k=1 xk yk . (Hint: look at f (t) = u + tv, u + tv . show that this gives a quadratic equation in t. What can you say about its discriminant?) 8. Prove or disprove the following: (a) If (b) If (c) If
n=1 an n=1 an 2 n=1 an 2 n=1 an n
n=1 n=1
a2 converges. n
n=1
a2 converges. n
an converges.
(d) if and converge, then n=1 an bn converges absolutely. (Hint: try to evaluate the partial sums using Cauchy-Schwartz inequality) (e) if n=1 an converges absolutely and converges absolutely.
n=1 bn
n=1
an bn
9. Show that if u1 , ...un is an orthonormal basis for Rn , then for all v, v Rn we have (a) v =
2 n k=1
v, uk uk n 2 k=1 v, uk n k=1 v, uk
x 10. Show that the sequence ( 1+n2 x2 ) converges to 0 for all x [0, 1]. This means that for n=1 every x [0, 1] we have the following: for every > 0 there exists n0 ( , x) (that depends on and x) such that for all n n0 we have |fn (x)| < .
Can you nd for all > 0 an n0 ( ) (that depends only on ) such that for all n n0 we have |fn (x)| < for all x [0, 1]? This means that this n0 ( ) ts all the xs uniformly. nx What about the sequence of functions ( 1+n2 x2 ) ? n=1