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(MCQ) questions sample

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

Nerve & Muscle


Q1: All of the following are true for myelin sheath EXCEPT: a) it provides insulation. d) it transmits nerve impulses. Q2: It is correct to say that: a) dendrites conduct impulses away from the soma. b) axon conducts impulse toward the soma. c) neurilemmal sheath is important for nerve regeneration. d) neurilemmal sheath is a lipoprotein in nature. e) myelin is formed of single layer of Schwann cells. Q3: Resting membrane potential in medium sized nerve is normally about: a) 50 mv. b) + 35 mv. c) 90 mv. d) 70 mv. e) 55 mv. b) it gives protection. c) it is a lipoprotein material. e) it is present in the myelinated nerve fibers.

Q4: The most important ion during resting membrane potential is: a) Na+. b) K+. c) Ca++. d) Cl . e) HCO3-.

Q5: Concerning the RMP: a) it is mainly due to K+ influx through leak channels. b) it is mainly due to Na+ efflux. c) it is usually of fixed value in all tissues. d) it is mainly due to K+ efflux through leak channels. e) it is more negative in nerve fibers than muscle fibers. Q6: During an action potential, depolarization of nerve cell membrane is brought about by: a) increased sodium permeability. c) increased chloride permeability. e) both a and b are correct. Q7: Duration of spike of nerve action potential is: a) 4 m.sec. b) 8 m.sec. c) 1 2 m.sec. d) 5 m.sec. e) 15 m.sec. b) increased calcium permeability. d) increased potassium permeability.

(MCQ) questions sample Q8: Depolarization in the nerve:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

a) is caused by Na+ outflow. b) is caused by K+ outflow. c) is due to opening of inactivation gates of voltage gated Na+ channels. d) is represented by descending limb of the spike. e) is that during which the nerve can not respond to any stimulus. Q9: Descending limb of the spike potential in the nerve: a) represents depolarization. c) is caused by sodium inflow. e) is caused by calcium inflow. b) is caused by potassium inflow. d) represents Repolarization.

Q10: During depolarization of skeletal muscle fiber: a) sodium ions move to the outside due to activation of voltage gated sodium channels. b) excitability decreases markedly. c) potassium ions move to the outside due to activation of voltage gated potassium channels. d) the membrane potential changes from 90 mv to maximally 10 mv. e) both c & d are correct. Q11: The ascending limb of the spike potential in the nerve: a) is caused by K+ inflow. c) is caused by Na+ inflow through leak channels. e) is associated with increased excitability. b) represents depolarization. d) represents Repolarization.

Q12: After hyperpolarization phase of the action potential in the nerve is: a) caused mainly by K+ outflow through voltage gated channels. b) caused mainly by Na+ inflow. c) caused mainly by hyperactive Na+ - K+ pump. d) accompanied with increased excitability. e) accompanied with complete loss of excitability. Q13: Threshold for production of an action potential in a nerve: a) is a membrane potential (transmembrane voltage) at which the increase in K+ permeability exceeds the increase in Na+ permeability. b) is a condition where Na+ channels are triggered to open normally. c) is a condition where active Na+ transport stops. d) a & b are correct. e) none of the above.

(MCQ) questions sample Q14: Action potential in mixed nerves: a) obeys all or none law. d) has multiple peaks.

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

b) cant be graded. c) cant be summated. e) is similar to that of single nerve fiber.

Q15: The stimulation of myelinated nerve fibers would produce: a) outward flow of sodium ions. c) reversal of membrane potential. e) none of the above are correct. Q16: Saltatory conduction of action potential: a) occurs in the unmyelinated nerves. b) is slow. d) needs more energy than point to point conduction. Q17: Local circuit mechanism for conduction of action potential: a) is more rapid than saltatory conduction. b) occurs in the myelinated nerve fibers. c) needs less energy than saltatory conduction. d) needs more energy than saltatory conduction. e) occurs in both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers. Q18: In saltatory conduction, the nerve impulse: a) passes from one node to another node. b) jumps from one inter-node to another inter-node. c) shows continuous conduction. d) velocity is slower than that of the unmyelinated nerve fiber. e) none of the above. Q19: Propagation of action potential in myelinated nerve fiber is: a) slow. b) point to point. e) similar to that of unmyelinated fibers. Q20: Refractory period is longest in: a) skeletal muscle. d) single unit smooth muscle. b) cardiac muscle. e) both b and d are correct. c) multi-unit smooth muscle. c) saltatory. d) passive. c) occurs in the sarcolemma. e) is fast. b) inward flow of potassium ions. d) displacement of myelin sheath.

Q21: Excitability of the nerve is increased by: a) hypercalcemia. b) hypokalemia. c) acidosis. d) hypocalcemia. e) cooling.

(MCQ) questions sample Q22: The absolute refractory period:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

a) is a period during which excitability is completely lost. b) is a period during which stronger stimulus is needed to excite the muscle fiber. c) is coincided with the descending limb of the spike. d) is a period during which the excitability is less than normal. e) none of the above. Q23: The absolute refractory period in the skeletal muscle: a) coincides with the descending limb of the spike. b) coincides with after depolarization. c) is short and ends before start of contraction. d) is accompanied only with decreased excitability. e) is long and occupies the duration of contraction. Q24: It is correct to say that: a) subthreshold stimulus leads to an action potential. b) a decrease in Ca++ in ECF leads to a decrease in excitability in the nerve. c) a decrease in K+ in ECF leads to an increase in excitability in the nerve. d) absolute refractory period is associated with loss of excitability. e) absolute refractory period is associated with only a decrease in excitability. Q25: Relative refractory period: a) is an increase in excitability. b) is a complete loss of excitability. c) coincides with the second 2/3 of descending limb of spike. d) during it the nerve cant respond to any stimulus whatever its strength. e) coincides with after hyperpolarization. Q26: Nerve excitability is increased by: a) cooling. b) local anaesthetics. c) acidosis. d) deep pressure. e) alkalosis.

Q27: All or none law can be applied to: a) whole skeletal muscle. d) multi unit smooth muscle. b) nerve trunk. e) single unit smooth muscle. c) whole heart.

(MCQ) questions sample Q28: The excitability of the nerve is zero during: a) super normal phase of excitability. c) sub normal phase of excitability. e) absolute refractory period. Q29: The term chronaxie refers to:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

b) relative refractory period. d) local response.

a) the utilization time. b) the minimal duration of a stimulus which can excites the nerve. c) the time needed by the rheobase to stimulate the nerve fiber. d) the time needed by the current of twice the rheobase intensity to stimulate the nerve. e) none of the above. Q30: Chronaxie is: a) the duration of the rheobase stimulus. c) the utilization time. d) the rheobase stimulus. Q31: The local response: a) is characterized by depressed excitability. c) obeys the all or none law. e) none of the above. Q32: Which of the following is correct for nerve fibers: a) C fibers are myelinated. b) B fibers are faster than A fibers. c) postganglionic nerve fibers are of B type. d) preganglionic nerve fibers are of C type. e) deep pressure decreases conduction mainly in A type. Q33: Which of the following is correct: a) the amplitude of AP depends on stimulus strength. b) graded (local) potentials can only cause membrane depolarization. c) the amplitude of action potential does not depend on stimulus strength. d) saltatory conduction occurs in unmyelinated nerve fibers. e) conduction of AP in the axon occurs only in one direction. Q34: The function of troponin C is: a) binding with Ca++. d) covering active sites of actin. b) binding with the tropomyosin. e) binding with the myosin head. c) binding with actin. b) can not be summated. d) is followed by an absolute refractory period. b) double rheobase stimulus. e) inversely proportional to excitability.

(MCQ) questions sample Q35: Which of the following is correct:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

a) RMP is the signal used by the CNS. b) the RMP of a neuron is 70 volts. c) depolarization phase of AP is due to Na+ efflux. d) neuromuscular transmission is stimulated by curare. e) during the depolarization phase of an AP the permeability to Na+ increases. Q36: The T-tubules of the skeletal muscles: a) is part of the longitudinal tubular system. b) contains intracellular fluid (ICF). c) is present also in smooth muscle. d) contain very high concentration of Ca++. e) transmit action potential to the interior of the muscle fiber. Q37: T tubules: a) are part of sarcoplasmic reticulum. b) contain ICF. c) are present in smooth muscles. d) are stores of calcium. e) help rapid propagation of AP to inside the skeletal muscle fibers. Q38: Concerning the neuromuscular junction and the release of Ach: a) the miniature end plate potential (MEP) is 5 mv. b) the MEP is produced by Ach released from one vesicle. c) the cholinergic receptors can be blocked by atropine. d) Ach exocytosis is decreased by an increase in Ca++ influx. e) both b and d are correct. Q39: The neurotransmitter at the motor endplate is: a) adrenaline. b) noradrenaline. c) acetyl choline. d) calcium ions. e) atropine.

Q40: Neuromuscular transmission is characterized by: a) bi-directional. c) inhibited by increased Ca++. e) stimulated by curare. Q41: Neuromuscular transmission is: a) unidirectional. d) inhibited by acetyl choline. b) bidirectional. e) inhibited by calcium. c) stimulated by curare. b) blocked by succhinyl choline. d) the chemical transmitter is noradrenaline.

(MCQ) questions sample Q42: During neuromuscular transmission: a) Ca++ enters through synaptic gutter. b) Ach is released from synaptic gutter. c) the impulse is transmitted in one direction. d) motor endplate potential occurs in synaptic knobs. e) there is a delay of about 5 milliseconds.

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

Q43: Which of the following statement is true for impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction: a) it is stimulated by high level of choline esterase. b) it is associated with influx of potassium ions through the muscle membrane. c) it is depressed by a low level of magnesium. d) it is dependent on the amount of acetyl choline released at the end plate. e) none of the above is correct. Q44: During neuromuscular transmission: a) Ach release can be inhibited by excess Mg++. b) Ach release can be inhibited by hypercalcemia. c) Ach acts on voltage gated Na+ channels in the synaptic gutter. d) Ach is released by simple diffusion. e) acetyl choline esterase enzyme blocks Ach gated ion channels. Q45: Neuromuscular transmission is inhibited by: a) acetylcholine. b) curare. c) noradrenaline. d) methacholine ions. e) calcium ions.

Q46: Myasthenia gravis is due to: a) loss of ATP. b) decrease of acetylcholine in synaptic knobs. c) hyperpolarization of sarcolemma. d) destruction of myosin heads. e) destruction of acetylcholine-gated ion channels on synaptic gutter (destruction of Ach receptors). Q47: Myasthenia gravis: a) means muscle stiffness. b) is a disease of the nerve. d) is a disease of the neuromuscular junction. c) is a disease of the muscle. e) is due to loss of ATP.

Q48: Strength of contraction of skeletal muscle is high when it is stimulated at: a) resting length. b) equilibrium length. d) a length more than the resting length. c) lower temperature. e) a length less than the resting length.

(MCQ) questions sample Q49: During skeletal muscle contraction:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

a) ATP ase activity of myosin head is inhibited. b) tropomyosin covers the active site of actin. c) attachment, tilting, and detachment cycling occurs between myosin head and actin. d) Ca++ needed to start contraction comes from T-tubules. e) Ca++ needed to start contraction comes from ECF. Q50: Starlings law states that there is: a) an inverse relation between tension and initial length. b) a direct relation between tension and load. c) a direct relation between load And velocity of shortening. d) an inverse relation between load and velocity of shortening. e) a direct relation between tension and initial length within limits. Q51: The propagation of AP along the membrane of the T-tubules causes: a) the release of NE from the terminal cisternae. b) contraction of the T- tubules. c) the release of Ach from the terminal cisternae. d) the pumping of ca++ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. e) the release of ca++ from the terminal cisternae. Q52: Excitation-contraction coupling in the skeletal muscles involves: a) binding of Ca++ to tropomyosin. c) release of Ca++ from T-tubules. e) cleavage of ATP by G-protein. b) binding of Ca+ to myosin head. d) attachment of myosin head to the active site of actin.

Q53: Isometric contraction is characterized by: a) constant tension. d) high mechanical efficiency. b) constant length. e) low tension in the muscle. c) decrease in length.

Q54: Isotonic contraction differs than isometric contraction in that it: a) shows constant length. d) has zero mechanical deficiency. b) shows increased tension. e) needs more energy. c) performs no work.

(MCQ) questions sample Q55: Rigor mortis: a) is due to failure of neuromuscular transmission. c) means muscle stiffness after fatigue. e) is due to of loss of Ca++. Q56: Rigor mortis: a) is flaccidity occurring after death. c) starts 24 hours after death. e) is due to separation of actin and myosin.

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

b) is due to loss of ATP. d) is an autoimmune disease.

b) is due to ATP depletion. d) disappears after 2 hours.

Q57: Fast skeletal muscle fibers differ from slow fibers in that fast fibers: a) are adapted for short rapid muscle contractions. b) have less glycolytic enzymes. c) have more extensive blood supply. d) contain more mitochondria. e) have more myoglobin. Q58: Depolarization in smooth muscles is mainly due to: a) Na+ inflow. b) K+ outflow. c) Ca++ inflow. d) Ca++ outflow. e) Na+ outflow.

Q59: Smooth muscle does not contain: a) troponin. b) myosin. c) tropomyosin. d) calmodulin. e) actin.

Q60: During excitation-contraction coupling in smooth muscle: a) Ca++ comes from cisternae of longitudinal tubules. b) Ca++ binds to troponin C. c) Ca++ comes from T-tubules. d) Ca++ binds to calmodulin. e) cycling of myosin over actin is very rapid. Q61: Depolarization in smooth muscle: a) is caused by Na+ entry. b) requires calmodulin. d) is faster than that in skeletal muscle. Q62: Visceral smooth muscle fibers are characterized by: a) formed of separate muscle fibers with single nerve fiber for each. b) each fibers contracts independently of the others. c) controlled mainly by nervous control. d) shows spontaneous contractions. e) action potential is mainly absent. c) is cause by Ca++ entry. e) is due to Ca+ outflow.

(MCQ) questions sample Q63: Which of the following is correct: a) all smooth muscles have a stable RMP. c) troponin I is attached to actin. e) troponin I is attached to tropomyosin. Q64: All the following are true EXCEPT:

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

b) myasthenia gravis is due to loss of ATP. d) troponin C is attached to tropomyosin.

a) the action potential is a multiple miniature endplate potential of 0.5 mv. b) excitation reaches the interior of the sarcomere via T-tubules. c) the amount of calcium inside is related to the strength of contraction. d) released calcium produces sliding of the actin between myosin. e) all of the above are correct. Q65: Which of the following is correct: a) troponin I binds to tropomyosin. b) muscle relaxation does not require ATP. c) all smooth muscles have a stable RMP. d) during the absolute refractory period the membrane responds to a suprathreshold stimulus. e) during the relative refractory period the membrane responds to a suprathreshold stimulus. Q66: Which of the following is correct: a) rigor mortis results from excessive (too much) ATP. b) muscle relaxation generates force. c) cholinesterase inhibitors bind to and degrade acetylcholine. d) before binding to actin the myosin head binds to and hydrolyzes an ATP molecule. e) myasthenia gravis is caused by depletion of Ach in the synaptic knobs. Q67: It is correct to say: a) muscle relaxation does not require ATP. b) after hyperpolarization phase comes before the after depolarization phase. c) Action potential of mixed nerve has multiple peaks. d) during isotonic contraction no work is done by the muscle. e) in isometric contraction the tension does not change.

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(MCQ) questions sample

Dr. Ahmad .S. Alarabi

The Answers key


Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 Answer Question 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 Answer Question 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 Answer

d c d b d a c e d b b c b d c e d a c e d a

c d c e e e d e e e c a e e e b c b a c d a

b e d a c e e d b e b b a c a d c d c e e d c

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