1.

Flaps at landing position a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed # c) decrease landing speed 2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag c) increases lift 3. Pushing the left rudder pedal # a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing 4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure b) Bonding and insulation tests # c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment 5. What do ruddervators do? # a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll 6. On a helicopter what is dragging? a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges # b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground 7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators b) Ailerons # c) Elevons

8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler b) external doubler c) an intercostals 9. What does a trim tab do? # a) Eases control loading for pilot b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot 10. How does a balance tab move? a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount # c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to 11. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b) 9th orbit c) 2nd orbit 12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b) AC bus # c) GND services 13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp # b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b) 090 # c) 180 15. What is power at pulse? #a) Peak power

b) Pulsed power c) Average power 16. What frequency increases radar relative range a) Long # b) Short c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change 17. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect 18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm 19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you # a) 3 ft error b) 6ft error c) 12 foot error 20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width # b) narrowest width c) number of joints and bends 21. Which side of the pilot is the collective? # a) Left b) Right c) In-between legs 22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift b) No effect c) Increases thrust

23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter? a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers 24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio 25. Relative velocity of rotor # a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades 26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling? a) Increase # b) Decrease c) No effect 27. How many satellites required for GNS? a) 8 # b) 4 c) 6 28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing # c) recharging 29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit b) No effect c) Electrical systems shut down 30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees

b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees 31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected # c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure 32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR 33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors 35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting 36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged # b) after glideslope capture c) at any time 37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the # a) decision height

b) intercept height c) alert height 38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters 39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway 40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR 41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b) produce a co-ordinated turn # c) block the Dutch roll frequency 42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels # b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach 43. Standoff errors on localizer approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error 44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD # b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

c) V/S and ALT ARM 45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD 46. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power # b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers 47. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland 48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in # a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs 50. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial 51. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros # b) synchros resolvers

c) control synchro transformers 52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight b) prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron 53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation # b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course 54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement # b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged 55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations 56. The GA mode is usually initiated by a) pressing a button on the control wheel # b) pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel 57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe 58. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check # b) call up the relevant page on the CDU c) call up the relevant current status

59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed 60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current #c) Over current and over frequency 62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b) 25 ohms # c) 50 ohms 63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts 64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil 65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft # a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b) JAR OPS c) Maintenance Manual 66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed 67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b) 120 degrees # c) 140 degrees 68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done # a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only 69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? # a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity 70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing 71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint # b) bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease 72. An elevator tab moves down # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b) to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy 73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

# a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b) 160ft #c) 80ft 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces 76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU) # c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) 77. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile # b) Non-volatile c) Hard 78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG # b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor 79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS 80. The stall margin is controlled by # a) EPR limits b) speed bug cursor

c) angle of attack and flap position 81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged # c) only after take off 82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only # b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter 83. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b) Control of thrust reverser operation # c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers 84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare # b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold 85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 86. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m 87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of a) 15 m # b) 60 m c) 0 m

88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point # a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals 89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 # b) 1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III # c) ILS system must be working 91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is #a) mandatory b) a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed 92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b) by a selector on the throttle control panel # c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum 93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b) the decrab phase # c) start of flare phase 94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated # a) only when the autopilot is engaged b) at any time after autoland has been engaged c) at any time 95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the

selection of autoland a) ILS localiser an IAS b) IAS and glide slope # c) IAS and steering or heading 96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b) rotate nose up # c) increase speed and rotate nose up 97. V NAV can be selected a) alone b) only if A/P and F/D selected # c) only if A/T selected 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) system degrade to CAT II b) autoland is continued # c) go-around is initiated 99. The order of autoland approach is # a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD 100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b) assist with glide slope tracking # c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down 101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected #c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure 102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

a) is increased as the aircraft descends b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # c) is decreased as the aircraft descends 103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant 105. on touchdown, auto pilot # a) remains engaged ready for G/A b) drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time 106. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. # b) before D.H. c) after D.H. 107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by a) the area navigation system # b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon 108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from # a) radio altimeter b) the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now, a) fail passive # b) fail operational

c) fail redundant 110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition # b) produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically 111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system # b) duplex system c) dual-dual system 112. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b) localiser and glideslope # c) decision height and runway visual range 113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height # b) Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal 114. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR # b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters 115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim # b) continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim 116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? # a) Nose down bias b) Nose up bias c) No signal 117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?

a) Ailerons b) Throttles # c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals 118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go # b) ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go 119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 120. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased # b) decreased c) is the same 122. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire and generator trip occurs 123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is # a) 50 milliohms b) 1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms 124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors # b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead 125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by # a) low spring tension b) bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis 126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connection which is open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b) Put a set resistance across the terminals # c) Leave the terminals open circuit 128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system b) Duplex system # c) Simplex system 130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be # a) painted in a conductive paint b) painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure

131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively 132. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature # c) Mach and Temp 133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b) Under the Fuselage # c) Either side of the Fuselage 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? # a) Tend to increase b) Tend to decrease c) Stay the same 135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity b) poor audio output c) poor volume output 137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter # b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS

138. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made 139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining 140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required 141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of # a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz 142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree # b) 3 degree c) 5 degree 143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 # b) 045 c) 090 144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators # b) AC generators c) AC & DC generators 145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

# a) spoiler b) leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps 146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b) 110 degree # c) 50 degree 147. Stall warning will be given at speeds # a) that are higher than stall speed b) that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed 148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights # b) Turning off the anti-collision lights c) Flashing the landing light 149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at # a) 1500 ft b) 2500 ft c) 3500 ft 150. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator # b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus 151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to # a) excessive charging current b) insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage 152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists

b) disconnect the system if a fault appears # c) both a & b 153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour # b) amber c) red colour 154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 # b) 121.5 c) 118.00 155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only b) continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air 156. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch # c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to # a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b) remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB 158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b) Maintenance Manual # c) JAR OPS 159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover? a) 100 nm # b) 120 nm

c) 140 nm 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial # b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is # a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator 162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b) decibels # c) relative amplitude 163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b) minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted 164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between # a) true north and magnetic north b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north 165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b) rate of ascent # c) rate of descent 166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 b) 24 c) 36 167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

# a) square of the speed b) square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed 168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of # a) capsule elasticity b) capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship 169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank # b) aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight 170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal # a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency 171. During flare mode autothrottle will # a) retard throttles to idle b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust 172. A CSD is monitored for a) low temp and high oil pressure # b) high temp and low oil pressure c) 173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? # a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected a) it is centralized by a spring

b) its control is maintained by electric trim c) 175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac b) 200v ac # c) High voltage stepped up 176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is # a) zero b) full scale deflection c) centre scale 177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance # b) increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance 178. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b) adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted 179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are # a) bulkheads b) longerons c) frame 180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by # a) excessive electrical loading b) high charge current c) low charge current 181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1. a) This is normal b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx

182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks # b) damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks 183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. a) Cell is defective b) You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell 184. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b) TCAs only # c) all L band equipments including TCAS 185. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters 186. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 187. When the captain calls attendant a) a high low chine and pink light comes on b) a low chine and blue light comes on c) a high chine and pink light comes on 188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b) a selcall light along with chine comes on c) a chime sounds in the cockpit 189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail

a) the authority of elevators not effected # b) the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift # b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle 191. IDG output voltage a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. # b) voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG 192. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal # b) rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error 193. When moving the control column # a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal ---------194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b) there is an increases tail plane up-force # c) there is an increased tailplane down-force 195. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility # c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility 196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged # a) after reverse thrust is applied b) after affixed period of the time after landing

c) manually after landing 197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? # a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll 198. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank # b) a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb 199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door # b) Left wing c) Right wing 201. Shock stall a) is a flap down stall # b) occurs at high speeds c) occurs at low speeds 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by a) flapping b) dragging # c) centrifugal force 203. During a turn a) left rudder to be used b) right rudder to be used # c) rudder to be maintained in centre position 204. Align light flashes during alignment

# a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off b) It is attracting operators attention c) It is indicating progress of alignment 205. During decent with power on in a helicopter a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter 206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system # a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll c) Synchros are used 207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures a) specific gravity of fuel # b) K value of fuel c) fuel quantity 208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force a) Heading and Deviation # b) Course error and Deviation c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation 209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by # a) BPCU b) PCDU (power control distribution unit) c) SPCU 210. As you approach supersonic # a) total drag is increased b) lift is reduced c) thrust is reduced 211. Range resolution is obtained by

a) High PRF # b) Shorter pulse width c) Shorter beam width 212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by # a) Larger pulse width b) Larger beam width c) Larger frequency 213. When the trailing edge flap is a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change # c) CP move rearward 214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails a) Auto throttle disengages # b) Throttle hold is annunciated c) Fail light illuminates 215. Flight director command bars indicate # a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred b) Direction in which aircraft is flying c) Direction in which the beacon is 216. Mode S has a) 12 address bits # b) 24 address bits c) 36 address bits 217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) In phase b) Opposite phase # c) Phase quadrature 218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is a) 80 ft b) 300 ft

c) 500 ft 219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is a) 3 inch b) 6 inch # c) 9 inch 220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero # b) tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred 221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip # b) a corrugated bonding jumper c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends 222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system a) 0.5 ohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less 223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists # a) longitudinal stability b) lateral stability c) vertical stability 224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed # a) it must be installed on LH side b) it must be installed on RH side c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side 225. Main electric trim is controlled by a) a switch on control wheel b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel

c) 226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number # b) lower mach number c) not effected 227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks b) both CDU blanks # c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place 228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would a) indicate climb # b) indicate decent c) not be affected 229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure? a) ASI b) VSI c) Altimeter 230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise b) is to rotate anticlockwise c) It may be rotated either direction 231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) Having filters in power supply lines b) Separating the affected and affecting cables c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit 232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is a) 1 degree b) 5 degree

c) 10 degree 233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision? a) The one with the higher address b) The one with the smaller address c) Neither changes the decision 234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot? # a) 10% b) 50% c) 100% 235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by a) synchros attached to the control # b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control c) a lock on the cockpit control 236. Helicopter blades are a) highly cambered b) reverse cambered # c) Symmetrical 237. GPS antenna is a) vertically polarized b) horizontally polarized c) lincomp polarization 238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is a) to the left b) to the right # c) in the centre 239. An autopilot computer # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS

c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS --------240. What type of flap is this? # a) Split flap b) Fowler flap c) Plain flap 241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to a) transmit motion # b) reverse direction and transmit motion c) adjust friction 242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure c) to minimise power losses 243. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics b) experience of the crew c) RVR transmitted by ATC 244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by a) mercury switches on the inner ring b) mercury switches on the outer ring c) flux valve slaving 245. Index error is a) coefficient B b) Coefficient P # c) misalignment of compass lubber line 246. Helicopter derives its lift from # a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it b) rotor acts as a airscrew c) air is pushed downward

247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called a) rigid rotor # b) semi rigid rotor c) fully articulated rotor 248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers b) to amplify the RF signal c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers 249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal # c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal 250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives a) excessive ground clutter b) no signal c) excess signals 251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded # b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot c) maximum rudder deflection 252. Servo tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 253. Spring Tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of a) 20 degrees per second

b) 30 degrees per second c) 15 degrees per second 255. Omega ground stations # a) transmit pulses of CW b) carrier modulated by three audio tones c) series of CW 256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set a) 1013.25 mb b) sea level pressure c) prevailing pressure 257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact a) before the primary stops # b) after the primary stops c) at the same time as the primary stops 258. EICAS indicates # a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions b) engine performance only c) engine performance and aircraft status 259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right # a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 260. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) It move as the aircraft moves c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? # a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC a) records all faults in volatile memory # b) records all faults in non-volatile memory c) 264. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Radio deviation b) Glideslope deviation # c) Course deviation 266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available 269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?

a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 270. A spring balance control system you # a) can move the control surface on the ground b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab c) cannot move the control surface on the ground 271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene? a) To prevent corrosion # b) To prevent precipitation static c) To provide lightning protection 272. What is a versine signal attenuated with? a) Increase in airspeed b) Increase in altitude c) Decrease in altitude 273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to a) OFF b) AM c) either USB or LSB 274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate? a) TO b) FROM # c) Neither 276. What does the Radar contour button do?

# a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target? a) 12 miles b) 25 miles c) 40 miles 278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state? a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground # c) Tip vortex build-up during hover 279. What controls are used in response to PVD display? # a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals b) Control wheel c) PVD control unit 280. DME transponder transmits on receipt a) of any interrogation b) of pilot input command request # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds 281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P # a) does not move b) moves freely along the length of the blade c) is insignificant 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is a) 16ft b) 12ft # c) 28ft 283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of a) 12bits b) 64bits

# c) 24bits 284. The rotor cone is formed by a) blade alignment # b) centrifugal force and lift c) centrifugal force only 285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path a) balance b) restore # c) align 286. Artificial feel is gained by using a a) hydraulic damper # b) spring bias unit c) 'feel' generator 287. The ground run monitor presents information # a) of distance to go and ground speed b) duration of ground run c) angle of crosstrack on ground 288. A mode C transponder a) can be used for TCAS # b) cannot be used for TCAS c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only 289. The audio select panel allows the crew to # a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others 290. The crew select DH on a) the altimeter b) the DH annunciator panel # c) the rad alt display 291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider

a) power requirements # b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal c) the diameter of cables 292. GPS has # a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4 b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6 c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9 293. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows voice ident of DME # b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal c) disables DME voice ident 294. GPS frequency is a) 1575 GHz # b) 1575 MHz c) 1525 MHz 295. Radio switches are normally # a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C 296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft # a) systems is disabled b) no traffic will be shown c) all traffic produces aural alert 297. Mode S pulses. Which are used? a) F1,F2,F4,F5 # b) s1,p1,p3,p4 c) s1,s2,p1,p2 298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is a) it amplifies output stages # b) it improves signal to noise ratio

c) it couples noise factors 299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from a) 115 volts from ac bus b) 200 volts from ac bus # c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units 300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving a) one moving in direction of relative air flow b) highest blade # c) one moving forward into relative airflow 301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies a) speed increase # b) speed decrease c) height decrease 302. Back beam is captured # a) by manually selecting the back beam mode b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode 303. With an insulation tester a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item # c) it does not matter which lead goes where 304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ a) higher b) lower # c) higher or lower 305. Flight director incompatible modes are a) VOR and glideslope b) heading and altitude hold c) VOR and altitude hold

306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet? a) 110 nm # b) 120 nm c) 130 nm 307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? a) c/a code only b) c/a code and P code c) P code only 308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings # b) design of engine and gearbox supports c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft 309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from a) rad alt to barometric b) rad alt decrease c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold 310. on power up, the IRS obtains position a) latitude from previous position b) longitude from previous position c) latitude and longitude from previous position 311. Krueger flaps make up part of the a) wing upper surface leading edge b) wing lower surface trailing edge # c) wing lower surface leading edge 312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the # a) control column b) flight control panel c) behind thrust levers 313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as

a) apparent A b) real A c) true A 314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in a) BCARs # b) JAR OPS subpart M c) maintenance manual 315. Carbon microphones require # a) DC supply b) AC supply c) no supply 316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with a) FM b) phase drift keying c) Manchester code 317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined b) flights must not continue after four days # c) flights must not continue after 72 hours 318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is a) +/- 35 degrees # b) +/-40 degrees c) +/-60 degrees 319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates a) 30 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 60 degrees 320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by a) non conductive paint

b) conductive paint # c) earth primary conductors 321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier 322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is a) the y code b) the p code # c) the c/a code 323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for good pulse shape are a) wide and narrow b) narrow and wide c) wide and wide 324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost a) the aircraft flies in a circle # b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle 325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires a) pitot only b) static only # c) pitot and static 326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to # a) the right b) the left c) the left with some aileron assistance 327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to a) amount of aircraft disturbance

b) attitude of aircraft # c) rate of yaw 328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons # c) to assist the up going aileron 329. Glideslope deviation signals are # a) DC polarity sensitive b) AC phase sensitive c) DC positive going only 330. A triplex system loses one channel # a) pilot can continue with autoland b) pilot can use auto approach c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land